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+2 Test-3 (4th April, 2020)

Coordinated by: Dr. Sangeeta Khanna (Chemistry), Harpal Singh (Biology), KP Singh (Physics) 1

READ INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. The test is of 3 hour duration. 2. The maximum marks are 720. 3. This test consists of 180 questions. (Negative Marking) 4. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to

the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. Minus one (-1) mark will be awarded for wrong answer

1. Consider the following sequence of reactions.

BAOCHCHO3H .2

4LiAlH .1

heat

Ag222

A + B C4SO2H . The product (C) is

(a) C2H5OCH2CH3 (b) C2H5CH2CHO (c) C2H5OCH2CH2OH (d) C2H5CHOHCH3

2. An aromatic ether is not cleaved by HI even at 525 K. The compound is:

(a) C6H5OCH3 (b) C6H5OC6H5 (c) C6H5OC3H7 (d) Tetrahydrofuran

3. Which of the following compounds will not undergo Cannizaro reaction, when treated with 50%

aqueous alkali:

(a) HCPh

O||

(b) (c) Me2CHCHO (d) Ph – CH2 – CHO

4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Reaction): List II (Name)

A. – COCl –CHO (i) Stephen reduction followed by hydrolysis

B. OC\/

CHOH\/ (ii) Wolff-Kishner reduction

C. 2

\

/\/ CHOC (iii) Rosenmund reduction

D. C N CHO (iv) Catalytic reduction with Ni + H2

Codes: A B C D A B C D (a) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

5. Which one of the following ketones does not react with CH3MgX:

(a) 3

||

3 CH

O

CCH (b) 3

||

56 CH

O

CHC

(c) (d) 3

||

23 CH

O

CCHCH

6. In which of the following molecules/ions BF3, NO2 ,

2NH and H2O, the central atom is sp2 hybridised?

(a) 2NH and H2O (b)

2NO and H2O (c) BF3 and

2NO (d) NO2 and

2NH

O CHO

C – C – CH3

O CH3

CH3

CH3

CH3



7. The bond angle in Cl2O is nearly 1110 whereas bond angle in F2O is nearly 1030. This is because:

(a) Electronegativity of fluorine is greater than that of oxygen (b) Size of chlorine atom is greater than that of fluorine (c) Due to back-bonding in Cl2O (d) both (a) & (c)

8. The product „P‟ of the reaction is PCH

O

CCH3K 298

SOH3

||

342

(a) 3|

||

3 CH

CH

CCH

O

CCH

3

(b) 3|

||

|3 CHH

CH

C

O

CCH

CH

CCH

33

(c) (d) CH3COOH

9. Common component of Photochemical oxidising smog, which act as powerful eye irritants is

(a) CO2 (b) NO2 (c) O3 (d) SO2 10. The ratio of time period in first and second orbits of hydrogen atom is-

(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 8 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1

11. The density of a gas A is twice that of a gas B at the same temperature. The molecular mass of gas B is thrice that of A. The ratio of the pressure acting on A and B will be:

(a) 6 : 1 (b) 7 : 8 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 1 : 4

12. For van der Waals‟ constant „a‟ and „b‟, the unit of the ratiob

a will be:

(a) atm litre–1 (b) litre-atm mol–1 (c) litre-atm mol–2 (d) litre mol–1

13. An unknown gas effuses 2.3 times faster than N2O4 at the same temperature. What is the identity of

the unknown gas?

(a) O3 (b) N2O (c) NH3 (d) (CN)2 14. Which of the following compounds is paramagnetic in behaviour?

(a) KO2 (b) K2O2 (c) K2O (d) H2O 15. What is the equivalent mass of Acid in the given reaction if its molar mass is „M‟.

2NaOH + H3PO4 Na2HPO4 + 2H2O

(a) 2

M (b)

3

M (c) M (d) none

CH3

CH3 CH3



16. Which of the following is correct order of Boiling point?

(a) Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs (b) HI < HBr < HCl < HF (c) H2O < CH3CH2OH < CH3 – OCH3

(d) 3

|

|3 CH

CH

CH

CCH

3

3

< 3

|

3 CHH

CH

CCH

3

< CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3

17. Which is the correct order of Bond angle

(a) BH3 < NH3 < NF3 (b) NF3 < NH3 < BH3 (c) NH3 < PH3 < NF3 (d) BeH2 < NH3 < NF3

18. Which of the following is the correct structure of PFCl3Br

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

19. Select the incorrect statement.

(a) A boron atom in the icosahedron has three other B atoms bonded to it, while a carbon atom in diamond has only four nearest neighbours.

(b) Thallium triiodide give T+3 + I– ion in solution

(c) In nitration mixture HNO3 behaves as a base (d) Dipole moment of CH3F is less than that of CH3Cl

20. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) XeF2 is a powerful reducing agent (b) XeF2 is obtained by the direct reaction between F2 and Xe at high pressure (c) XeF2 undergoes alkaline hydrolysis to give O2 and Xe (d) XeF2 contains two bond pairs and three lone pairs

21. The straight chain polymer is formed by

(a) hydrolysis of CH3SiCl3 followed by condensation polymerisation (b) hydrolysis of (CH3)4Si by addition polymerisation (c) hydrolysis of (CH3)2SiCl2 followed by condensation polymerisation (d) hydrolysis of (CH3)3SiCl followed by condensation polymerisation.

22. Phenol dimerises in benzene having Van‟t Hoff factor 0.54. What is the degree of association?

(a) 0.46 (b) 92 (c) 46 (d) 0.92

P

F

Cl

Br

Cl

Cl

P

F

Cl

Br Cl

Cl

P

F

Cl

Br

Cl

Cl

P

Cl

Cl

Br

Cl

F



23. Which of the following is a set of reducing agents?

(a) HNO3, Fe2+, F2 (b) F– , Cl–, MnO4 (c) I– , Na, Fe2+ (d) Cr2O72– , CrO4

2– , Na 24. Select wrong statement:

(a) If a very small amount of AlCl3 is added to gold sol, coagulation occurs, but if a large quantity of AlCl3 is added, there is no coagulation.

(b) Lyophilic sols are reversible sol. (c) Both emulsifier and peptizing agents stabilize colloids but their actions are different (d) Colloidal solutions are thermodynamically stable 25. The solubility of oxides increases down the group for the 1st group elements. This is because:

(a) Gsolubility becomes more and more positive down the group

(b) Hsolubility becomes more and more negative down the group

(c) Ssolubility is zero

(d) Hsolubility becomes more and more positive down the group 26. 25 ml of a solution of Ba(OH)2 on titration with 0.1 M HCl gave titre value 35 ml. The molarity of

Ba(OH)2 is: (a) 0.14 (b) 0.28 (c) 0.35 (d) 0.07 27. Consider the following steps:

CuS )B( )A(air withoutroastair in roast

Which is not the correct statement ? (a) it is self-reduction

(b) it involves disproportionation Cu2S Cu + CuS (c) (A) is a mixture of CuO and CuS and (B) is a mixture of Cu and SO2

(d) Impurities can be oxidised during roasting 28. A concentration cell which is a galvanic cell, which of the following are correct

1. The electrode material and the solution are made up of same substances but solution concentration is different

2. Each half cell is made of electrode material and solutions are composed of different substances and different concentrations

3. 0E0cell

4. The nernst equation reduces to .Q lognF

RT 303.2Ecell

(a) 1, 2 (b) 2, 3 (c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 1, 3, 4 29. The decrease in concentration of dissolved oxygen due to water pollution is called:

(a) emulsification (b) eutrophication (c) peptisation (d) electrophoresis 30. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) doping of As in silicon makes it a semiconductor of p-type (b) doping of B in silicon make it a semiconductor of n-type (c) doping of Cd & Se in silicon forms a binary compound which act as semiconductor (d) all are correct



31. Which is correct statement?

(a) Starch is a polymer of -glucose (b) Amylose is a component of cellulose. (c) Proteins are compounds of only one type of amino acid (d) In cyclic structure of fructose, there are four carbon and one oxygen atom

32. Cyclopropane rearranges to form propene:

This follows first order kinetics. The rate constant is 2.3 × 10–3 sec–1. The initial concentration of cyclopropane is 0.29 M. what will be the concentration of cyclopropane after 1000 sec?

(a) 0.035 M (b) 0.029 M (c) 0.145 M (d) 0.0018 M 33. Four moles of electrons were transferred from anode to cathode in an experiment on electrolysis of

water. The total volume of H2 and O2 (dry) at STP produced would be

(a) 89.4 L (b) 67.2 L (c) 44.8 L (d) 22.4 L 34. Match the list I and II and pick the correct matching from the codes given below

List I List II

(A) [Ag(CN)2]– 1. Square planar and 1.73

(B) [Cu(CN)4]3– 2. Linear and zero

(C) [Cu(CN)6]4– 3. Octahedral and zero

(D) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ 4. Tetrahedral and zero

(E) [Fe(CN)6]4– 5. Octahedral and 1.73 B.M.

(a) A – 2, B – 4, C – 5, D – 1, E – 3 (b) A – 5, B – 4, C – 1, D – 3, E – 2 (c) A – 1, B – 3, C – 4, D – 2, E – 5 (d) A – 4, B – 5, C – 2, D – 1, E – 3

35. In the complexes [Fe(H2O)6]3+, [Fe(CN)6]

3– , [Fe(CO)5] and [FeCl6]

3–, more stability is shown by

(a) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (b) [Fe(CN)6]

3– (c) [Fe(CO)5] (d) [FeCl6]3–

36. 0.8 mole of A and 0.8 mole of B were mixed in a one litre vessel and the following equilibrium was

reached after sometime. A + B C + D

The equilibrium mixture contained 0.6 mole of C. What is the value of equilibrium constant? (a) 0.75 (b) 7.5 (c) 9.8 (d) 9.0 37. The solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is 10–14. The solubility of Mg(OH)2 in a buffer solution of pH = 12 is: (a) 10–10 (b) 10–6 (c) 10–2 (d) 10–4

38. Light of wavelength shines on a metal surface with intensity X and metal emits Y electrons per second of average energy Z. What will happen to Y and Z if X is doubled?

(a) Z will remain constant and Y will increase (b) Both Z and Y will remain constant (c) Z will decrease and Y will increase (d) Both Z and Y will increase

CH3 – CH = CH2



39. The bond length of H2 , H

2 and H2 are in the order

(a) 222HHH (b) 222 HHH

(c) 222 HHH (d) 222 HHH

40. Which of the following pair will have Hydrogen bonding

(a) NH3 and CH3OH (b) CH3OH and CH3SH (c) HCl and H2O (d) C6H6 and NH3

41. What will be the equilibrium constant for reaction of CH3COOH with NaOH if (Ka = 1.85 × 10–5) (a) 5.45 × 10–10 (b) 1.85 × 10–5 (c) 1.85 × 109 (d) 1.85 × 10–9

42. What is the oxidation state of the three bromine atom in Br3O8?

O

O

O

Br

O

O

Br

O

O

BrO||

||

||

||

||

||

(a) Each Br has an oxidation state of 3

16 .

(b) The three bromine atom have an oxidation states of +5, +6 and +5. (c) Two Br atom are in +6 oxidation state and one Br is in +4.

(d) Each Br has an oxidation state of .3

16

43. The value of electro static potential energy is

(a) mv2 (b) r

Ze2

(c) r

qq

4

1 21

(d) r

Ze

4

1 2

44. Among the following series of transition metal ions, the one where all metal ion have 3d2 electronic

configuration is (At. Wt. Ti = 22; V = 23; Cr = 24; Mn = 25)

(a) Ti3+, V2+, Cr3+, Mn4+ (b) Ti+, V4+, Cr6+, Mn7+ (c) Ti4+, V3+, Cr2+, Mn3+ (d) Ti2+, V3+, Cr4+, Mn5+

45. Predict coordination number of the cation in crystals of the following compounds:

1. MgO rc = 0

A65.0 ; ra = 0

A40.1 , 2. MgS rc = 0

A65.0 ; ra = 0

A84.1 ,

(a) 6, 4 (b) 4, 6 (c) 3, 4 (d) 6, 8



PHYSICS

46. We have two wires A and B of same mass and same material. The diameter of the wire A is half of that

of B. if the resistance of wire A is 24 , then the resistance of wire B will be

(a) 1.5 (b) 12 (c) 3.0 (d) none

47. Figure shows an arrangement of two parallel plates with separation of 2 cm.

The electric field between them is uniform and perpendicular to the plates. If an

electron is released from rest midway between the plates, what is the KE

acquired by it before it hits one of the plates?

(a) 100 eV (b) 30 Ev

(c) 60 eV (d) 50 eV

48. Motion of two particles is given by Y1 = 0.25 sin (310 t), Y2 = 0.25 sin (316 t). Find the beat frequency.

(a) 3 (b)

3 (c)

6 (d) 6

49. A 2 m3 weather balloon is loosely filled with helium at 1 atm (76 cm Hg) and at 27 0C. At an elevation of

10 km, the atmospheric pressure drops to 38 cm of Hg and temperature at this height is 48 0C, as

balloon goes up, helium has expanded, being under no constraint from balloon. The gas volume at this

elevation is

(a) 2 m3 (b) 3 m3 (c) 4 m3 (d) 5.3 m3

50. A telescope has an objective of focal length 50 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. the telescope

is focused for distance of distinct vision on a scale 200 cm away from the objective. The separation

between the objective and eye piece is [Least distance of distinct vision is 25 cm]

(a) 80 cm (b) 55 cm (c) 70.83 cm (d) 86.6 cm

51. A sphere of radius R and density has a cavity of radius R/2 touching its surface. The gravitational

field at a distance 2 R from the centre of the sphere along line joining centres is RG27

n . The value of

n is

(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 9

52. A source of emf E = 15 V and having negligible internal resistance is connected to a variable

resistance so that the current in the circuit increases with time as I = 1.2 t + 3. Then the total charge that

will flow in first five second will be

(a) 10 C (b) 20 C (c) 30 C (d) 40 C

53. Yellow light is used in a single slit diffraction experiment with slit width 0.6 mm. If yellow light is

replaced by X-rays, then the observed pattern will reveal

a. That the central maxima is narrower

b. More number of fringes

c. Less number of fringes

d. No diffraction pattern

20 V 80 V

e

2 cm



54. An electron moves with a speed of 2 x 105 m/s along the positive x-direction in a magnetic field

T)k3j4i(B

. The magnitude of the force (in Newton) experienced by the electron is

(a) 1.18 x 1013 (b) 1.28 x 1013 (c) 1.6 x 1013 (d) 1.72 x 1013

55. A SHM is given by equation, x = 6 + 3 sin (2 t) + 4 cos (2 t) where x is in metre and t is in second.

The amplitude of the motion is

(a) 6 m (b) 3 m (c) 5 m (d) None

56. Sources A and B emit light waves having wavelength 500 nm, with the phase of emission from A

ahead of that from B by 2

. The distance of A from detector is 500 nm greater than that of B. The phase

difference between A and B at detector is

(a) 2

(b)

2

3 (c)

2

5 (d) 2

57. An uniformly wound solenoid of inductance 1.8 x 104 H and resistance 6 is broken into two identical

parts. These identical coils are then connected in parallel across a 15 V battery of negligible resistance.

The time constant of the circuit is

(a) 3 x 105 s (b) 6 x 105 s (c) 1.5 x 105 s (d) 1.8 x 105 s

58. If the plate separation of an isolated parallel plate capacitor is doubled, then

a. the electric field in between the plates is doubled

b. the potential of capacitor gets halved

c. the surface charge density on each plate is halved

d. the electric field is between the plates remains constant

59. During an adiabatic change the density becomes th16

1 of initial value, then

2

1

p

p is ( = 1.5)

(a) 16 (b) 4 (c) 32 (d) 54

60. Two lenses of power 3 D and 1 D are kept in contact. What is focal length and nature of combined

lens?

(a) 50 cm, convex (b) 200 cm, convex (c) 50 cm, concave (d) 200 cm, concave

61. A charged particle of mass m and charge q moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of

strength B has kinetic energy E. the radius of curvature of its path is

(a) 22 qB

Em2 (b)

22 qB2

Em (c)

22 qB

Em

2

1 (d)

22 qB

Em2

62. For given amount of gas, isotherms are drawn at different temperatures as shown, then relation

between temperatures are

(a) T1 > T2 > T3 (b) T1 < T2 < T3 (c) T1 = T2 = T3 (d) Cannot be determined

p

T3 T2 T1 V



63. A machine gun fires 120 shots/min. If the mass of each bullet is 10 g and the muzzle velocity is 800

m/s. then the average recoil force on the machine gun is

(a) 120 N (b) 8 N (c) 16 N (d) 12 N

64. A square coil of side 10 cm is placed in the east-west plane. A magnetic field of 0.1 T is set up in 0.7 s

and in the north-east direction through the coil. The resistance of coil is 0.7 . The magnitude of

average induced emf and current will be, respectively

(a) 2 mV, 1.4 mA (b) 1 mV, 0.7 mA (c) 1 mV, 1.4 mA (d) 2 mV, 0.7 mA

65. Internal energy of n1 moles of hydrogen at temperature T is the equal to the internal energy of n2 moles

of helium at temperature 2 T, then, the ratio n1/n2 is

(a) 5

3 (b)

3

2 (c)

5

6 (d)

7

3

66. A force F acting on a body depends on its displacements as F s1/3, The power delivered by F will

depend on a displacement as

(a) s2/3 (b) s5/3 (c) s1/2 (d) s0

67. Three identical capacitors are joined in two ways as shown. What is the ratio of energy stored by the

combinations when connected to same voltage source?

(a) EA = EB (B) 2

1

E

E

B

A (c) 1

2

E

E

B

A (d) 9

4

E

E

B

A

68. Two points on a travelling wave having frequency 500 Hz and velocity 300 m/s are 600 out of phase,

then the minimum distance between the two points is

(a) 0.2 (b) 0.1 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.4

69. A ball of mass 2 kg is projected vertically up with a spend of 2 m/s, it comes to the ground back with a

speed of 1 m/s. The work done by air friction force is

(a) 3 J (b) 3 J (c) 20 J (d) Information insufficient

70. The de-Broglie wavelength of neutron at 927 0C is . What will be its wavelength at 27 0C?

(a) /2 (b) (c) 2 (d) 4

71. In a L-C-R series circuit, the capacitive reactance is two times of the inductive reactance and the

inductive reactance is equal to resistance in the circuit. Then the voltage leads the current by

(a) 4

(b)

2

(c)

4

(d)

2

72. Two vectors a and

b are at an angle of 600 with each other. Their resultant makes an angle of 450

with a . If unit2|b|

, then |a|

is

(a) unit3 (b) unit)13( (c) unit)13( (d) unit2

3

V (A)

V (B)



73. Two travelling waves y1 = A sin [k (x ct)] and y2 = A sin [k(x ct)] are superposed on a string. The

distance between adjacent nodes is

(a)

ct (b)

2

ct (c)

k2

(d)

k

74. A flux of 900 Wb is produced in the iron core of a solenoid. When the core is removed, a flux (in air) of

0.5 Wb is produced in the same solenoid by the same current. What is the relative permeability of the

iron?

(a) 900 (b) 1500 (c) 1800 (d) 2000

75. Two wires A and B have lengths of 40 cm and 30 cm. A is bent into a circle of radius r and B into an

arc of radius r. A current I1, is passed through A and I2 through B. To have the same magnetic induction

at the center the ratio of I1 : I2 is

(a) 3 : 4 (b) 3 : 5 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 4 : 3

76. The magnetic field due to a current carrying circular loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at a

distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54 T. What will be its value at the centre of the loop?

(a) 250 T (b) 150 T (c) 125 T (d) 75 T

77. The magnetic induction and the intensity of magnetic field inside an iron core of an electromagnetic are

1 Wbm2 and 150 A/m respectively. The relative permeability of iron is (0 = 4 x 107 Henry/m)

(a) 4

106

(b) 6

105

(c) 4

103

(d) 6

103

78. A string of linear density 0.2 kg/m is stretched with a force of 500 N. A transverse wave of length 4.0 m

is set up along it. The speed of wave is

(a) 50 m/s (b) 75 m/s (c) 150 m/s (d) 200 m/s

79. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelength of an -particle and a proton of same kinetic energy is

(a) 1: 2 (b) 1: 1 (c) 2:1 (d) 4 : 1

80. A body moving with some initial velocity and having uniform acceleration attains a final velocity v m/s

after travelling x m. If its final velocity is ,x7180v find the acceleration of the body

(a) 3.5 m/s2 (b) 7 m/s2 (c) 15 m/s2 (d) 30 m/s2

81. If the heat 110 J is added to a gaseous system and it acquires internal energy of 40 J, then the amount

of internal work done is

(a) 40 J (b) 70 J (c) 150 J (d) 110 J

82. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 2 cm. When the particle is at 1

cm from the mean position the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then its time

period in seconds is

(a) 32

1

(b) 32 (c)

3

2 (d)

2

3



83. The distance of the closest approach of an alpha particle fired at a nucleus with kinetic energy K is r0.

The distance of the closest approach when the alpha particle is fifed at the same nucleus with kinetic

energy 2 K will be

(a) 2 r0 (b) 4 r0 (c) 2

r0 (d) 4

r0

84. A proton and an alpha particle enter in a uniform magnetic field with the same velocity. The period of

rotation of the alpha particle will be

(a) four times that of the proton (b) two times that of the proton

(c) three times that of the proton (d) same as that of the proton

85. The radius of curvature of a thin planoconvex lens is 10 cm (of curved surface) and the refractive index

is 1.5. It the plane surface is silvered, then the focal length will be

(a) 15 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 5 cm (d) 10 cm

86. If is the wavelength of hydrogen atom from the transition n = 3 to n = 1, then what is the wavelength

for doubly ionised lithium ion for same transition?

(a) 3

(b) 3 (c)

9

(d) 9

87. A proton and an alpha particle are accelerated through a potential difference of 100 V. The ratio of the

wavelength associated with the proton to that associated with an alpha particle is

(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 22 (d) 22

1

88. Light of wavelength 5000 A0 falls on a plane reflecting surface. For what angle of incidence is the

reflected ray normal to the incident ray?.

(a) 00 (b) 300 (c) 900 (d) 450

89. 1 g of water at atmospheric pressure has volume of 1 cm3 and when boiled it becomes 1681 cm3 of

steam. The heat of vaporisation of water is 540 cal/g. Then the change in its internal energy in this

process is

(a) 540 cal (b) 500 cal (c) 1681 cal (d) 480 cal

90. The bottom of a container is of a 4.0 cm thick glass slab. The container contains two immiscible liquids.

A ( = 1.4) and B ( = 1.3) of depths 6.0 cm and 8.0 cm respectively. What is apparent position of a

scratch on the outer surface of the bottom of the glass slab when viewed through the container?

(a) 4.89 cm (b) 2.79 cm (c) 1.89 cm (d) 5.39 cm



Biology

91. Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

A. Clone 1. Agamospermy

B. Plant apomixis 2. Not possible in sugarcane

C. Grafting 3. Callus

D. Tissue culture 4. Flower group

E. Inflorescence 5. Zygote and identical twins produced by it

(a) A-5, B-1, C-2, D-3, E-4 (b) A-5, B-1, C-3, D-2, E-4

(c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5 (d) A-5, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-1

92. Which of the following is a false statement

(a) To make distinction in three typed endosperm, based upon their development, at least two mitotic

divisions must be studied in PEC.

(b) Four cells and five nuclei participate in double fertilization.

(c) One PMC can produce 8 male gametes maximally.

(d) Male plant 6n and female plant 4n then ploidy level of endosperm in the seed in 8n.

93. Self incompatibility is a device for

I. ensuring cross-pollination II. preventing self fertilization

III. ensuring self fertilization IV. to ovoid inbreeding depression

Choose the correct statements from those given above

(a) I, II and III (b) I, II, III and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV

94. Releasing of sperms from seminiferous tubules is called

(a) spermiogenesis (b) spermiation

(c) spermatogenesis (d) spermatocytogenesis

95. Match the following column.

Column-I Column-II

A. Hypothalamus 1. Spermlysins

B. Acrosome 2. Oestrogen

C. Graafian follicle 3. Oxytosin

D. Leydig cells 4. GnRH

E. Parturition 5. Testosterone

(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3, E-5 (b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3, E-5

(c) A-2, B-1, C-5, D-4, E-3 (d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-5, E-3

96. Find out the true statements for IUD

I. They are self-inserted. II. They are inserted by expert nurses. III. They may be non-medicated IUDs or copper releasing IUDs or hormone releasing IUDs. IV. They are intrauterine devices. V. Widely accepted in India.

(a) II, III, IV and V (b) I, II, III and V (c) I, II, IV and V (d) I, III, IV and V



97. Analyse the following pedigree carefully and answer as asked

Find out genotype of father and mother?

Father Mother

(a) A a A A

(b) A A A a

(c) A A A A

(d) A a A a

98. Percentage of blood groups in Indians is given in the pie diagram below. Choose the correct option

from the given statements.

(a) Only 20% of individuals are homozygous for blood group alleles. (b) Group B is the most common as it is the homozygous recessive group. (c) The alleles for blood group A and O are dominant to the allele for blood group B. (d) Any individual, selected at random from the sample population, has a 1 in 20 chance of being

blood group AB.

99. DNA replication enzymes are given below. Select their correct sequence in DNA replication.

I. Helicase II. SSB III. Primase

IV. DNA polymerase V. DNA ligase

(a) I V IV III II (b) I II III IV V

(c) I III II IV V (d) I IV III II V

100. Given is the diagram of the lac operon showing an operon of inducible enzymes. Identify components

and enzymes (A, B, C, D and E).

(a) A-Galactosidase, B-Permease, C-Transacetylase, D-Repressor protein, E-Inducer (b) A-Galactosidase, B-Permease, C-Transacetylase, D-Inducer (lactose), E-Repressor protein (c) A-Galactosidase, B-Transacetylase, C-Permease, D-Repressor protein, E-Inducer (d) A-Permease, B-Transacetylase, C-Galactosidase, D-Repressor protein, E-Inducer



101. What does the term „reproductive isolation‟ refers to?

(a) An individual is unable to fertilise itself, if hermaphrodite

(b) Genes are not exchanged between two populations

(c) Individuals from two populations never mate

(d) Individuals from two populations never produce offspring

102. What is true about the „isolated small tribal population‟?

(a) There is no change in population size as they have a large gene pool.

(b) There is a decline in population as boys marry girls only from their own tribe.

(c) Hereditary diseases like color blindness do not spread in the isolated population.

(d) Wrestlers who develop strong body muscles in their life time pass this character on to their

progeny.

103. The first angiospermic plants appeared in (a) Cretaceous period (b) Carboniferous period (c) Holocene - Epoch (d) Silurian period 104. In a population of 1000 individuals, 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and remaining 160 to aa.

Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is (a) 0.5 (b) 0.6 (c) 0.7 (d) 0.4 105. An isolated population with equal number of blue-eyed and brown-eyed individuals was decimated by

earthquake. Only a few brown eyed individuals survived to form next generation. The change in gene pool is

(a) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (b) Blocked gene flow (c) Founder effect (d) Bottleneck effect

106. Match the columns and select the right option

Column-I Column-II

A. Saltation 1. C. Darwin

B. Formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution 2. Louis Pasteur

C. Reproductive fitness 3. Hugo de Vries

D. Life comes from pre-existing life 4. Oparin and Haldane

(a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 (d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

107. Which of the following group of organs exemplify analogous pair (a) Tendril of Passiflora and thorn of Bougainvellia (b) Eye of mammal and eye of octopus (c) Flipper‟s of whale and fore limbs of man (d) None of these 108. Introduction of one or more genes into an organism which normally does not possess them or their

deletion by using artificial means (not by breeding) comes under (a) molecular biology (b) cytogenetics (c) genetic hybridization (d) genetic engineering

109. Match the following and identify the correct option

Column-I Column-II

A. Separation of DNA from surface of agrose gel 1. Elution

B. Separation and purification of biotechnological

products from bioreactor

2. 2 5C H OH

C. Precipitation of DNA 3. Uptake of foreign DNA by bacterium

D. Transformation 4. Down stream processing




110. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases G and A.

(b) Each EcoRI restriction endonuclease recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequences in

DNA?

(c) When cut by same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragment do not have the compatible kind

of sticky ends.

(d) Making multiple identical copies of any template DNA is called gene-cloning.

111. Match the items in Column-I with those in Column-II and choose the right answer.

Column-I Column-II

A. GMO 1. Increased shelf life

B. Flavr-Savr tomato 2. Bioresources

C. Biopiracy 3. rDNA

D. GM, E.coli 4. Insulin


112. Which of these is used as vector in gene therapy for SCID?

(a) Arbovirus (b) Rotavirus (c) Retrovirus (d) RNA-RNA virus


Column-I Column-II

A. Follicle stimulating hormone 1. Sunflower oil production

B. Jassids 2. Fish

C. Spirulina 3. SCP

D. In vitro clonal propagation 4. Micropropagation

E. Blue revolution 5. Cotton

F. Yellow revolution 6. Super ovulation

(a) A-6, B-5, C-3, D-4, E-2, F-1 (b) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-2, E-1, F-6

(c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1, E-6, F-5 (d) A-2, B-1, C-6, D-5, E-3, F-4

114. Single cell proteins are extracted commonly from micro-organisms like some BGA refers to

(a) a specific protein extract from pure culture of single type of cells

(b) sources of mixed proteins extracted from pure or mixed culture of organisms or cells

(c) proteins extracted from a single cell

(d) a specific protein extracted from a single cell

115. Semi-dwarf varieties of rice were developed from which of the following varieties to be used in Indian

green revolution

I. IR-8 II. Taichung Native-1 III. Jaya IV. Sonalika

Choose the correct options

(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) III and IV


Column-I Column-II

A. MOET 1. It is done to increase milk production and growth rate in animals.

B. Interspecific hybridization 2. For herd improvement.

C. Cross breeding 3. The progeny may or may not be of economic value.

D. Outcrossing 4. The progency may be used for commercial production.




117. Match the types of immunity listed in Column-I with examples listed in Column-II. Choose the answer

that gives the correct combination of a alphabets of the two columns.

Column-I (Immunity) Column-II (Examples)

A. Natural active 1. Immunity developed by heredity.

B. Artificial passive 2. From mother to foetus through placenta.

C. Artificial active 3. Injection of antiserum to travelers.

D. Natural passive 4. Fighting infections naturally.

5. Induced by vaccination.


118. Choose the wrong statement regarding AIDS

(a) AIDS is an immunodeficiency disease (b) AIDS is caused by the retrovirus HIV

(c) HIV selectively infects and kill B-lymphocytes (d) Macrophage act as factory for HIV production

119. Match the following columns

Column-I Column-II

A. Opioids 1. Interact with receptors present mainly in the brain.

B. Cannabinoids 2. Bind to opioid receptors in the central nervous system.

C. Cocaine 3. Interferes with the transport of the neurotransmitter.

D. Atropa belladonna 4. Plant with hallucinogenic properties.



Column-I Column-II

A. Biopsy 1. Uses X-rays to generate a three-dimensional image of the

internal of an object.

B. Radiography 2. Leukaemia

C. Blood or bone marrow test 3. X-rays are used to detect cancer of the internal organs.

D. Computed tomography 4. A piece of the suspected tissue cut out into thin sections,

stained and examined under microscope.


121. Consider the following statements.

I. „Ladybirds‟ and dragonflies are used to get rid of aphids and mosquitoes, respectively.

II. The bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) are used as mycoheribicide.

III. Trichoderma sp. free living fungi, are present in root ecosystems where they act against several

plant pathogens.

IV. Frankia is a symbiotic bacterium that lives in the root nodules of legumes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I, II and III (b) I and III (c) II, III and IV (d) III only

122. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

A. Bishnoi community 1. Rajasthan

B. Chipko movement 2. Reduce the emission of ozone depleting substances

C. Montreal protocol 3. Himalayas

D. Earth summit 4. To check biodiversity loss




123. Given pie-diagram represents the relative contribution of various GHGs to total global warming. Select the correct statement(s) regarding A, B and C.

(a) A is the gas which is produced during the combustion of petroleum products and coal etc.

(b) C are the chemicals which are used as coolants in refrigerators.

(c) B is the gas which is produced and added in atmosphere from Indian rice fields.

(d) All of these 124. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding biomagnifications?

(i) DDT lipophilic, accumulated in organism, cannot be metabolized.

(ii) In the process of biomagnifications, concentration of Hg is increased at successive trophic levels.

(iii) Accumulation of cadmium can cause thinning of eggshell in birds.

(iv) DDT accumulation is a major cause of killing of fish eating birds.

(v) Biomagnification occurs only in aquatic food chain.

(a) (i), (iii) and (v) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (iii) and (v) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

125. Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding Bhopal gas tragedy?

(a) Methyl isocyanate leaked gas reacted with water.

(b) Thousands of human beings died.

(c) Radioactive fall out and leaked MIC engulfed Bhopal.

(d) It took place in the intervening night of December 2/3, 1984.

126. Keystone species deserve protection because these

(a) are capable of surviving in harsh environmental conditions

(b) indicate presence of certain minerals in the soil

(c) have become rare due to overexploitation

(d) play an important role in supporting other species

127. Select the incorrectly matched pair

(a) UNESCO – United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organization (b) CITES – Convention in International Trade in Elite Species (c) IUCN – International Union of Conservation for Nature and Natural Resources (d) WWF – World Wide Fund for Nature

128. The sequence of communities of primary succession in water is

(a) phytoplankton, sedges, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, grasses and trees

(b) phytoplankton, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, sedges, grasses and trees

(c) free-floating hydrophytes, sedges, phytoplankton, rooted hydrophytes, grasses and trees

(d) phytoplankton, rooted submerged hydrophytes, floating hydrophytes, reed swamp, sedges,

meadow and trees

129. Which of the following is/are a pollution indicator/s

(a) Lichens and mosses (b) Chironomous larva

(c) Daphnia (d) All of these



130. The most accepted line of descent in human evolution is

(a) Dryopithecus Ramapithecus Homo habilis Homo erectus Homo spiens

(b) Ramapithecus Dryopithecus Homo habilis Homo erectus Homo spiens

(c) Dryopithecus Ramapithecus Homo erectus Homo habilis Homo spiens

(d) Ramapithecus Dryopithecus Homo erectus Homo habilis Homo spiens

131. Which two points are known as the twin characteristics of growth?

(i) Increase in mass (ii) Differentiation

(iii) Increase in number of individuals (iv) Response to stimuli

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)

132. An organism is in the same class but not in the same family. It may belong to same

(a) Genus (b) Species (c) Variety (d) Order

133. Read the following statements is/are correct

(i) Mycoplasma has no cell wall.

(ii) Mycoplasma is the smallest living organism.

(iii) Mycoplasma can survive without O2.

(iv) Mycoplasma are pathogenic in animals and plants.

(v) A sort of sexual reproduction occurs in bacterium by adopting a primitive DNA transfer from one bacterium to the other.

(a) Only (iii) (b) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) (c) (i), (iii) and (v) (d) All of these

134. Match the items in Column-I with those in Column-II and choose the correct option

Column – I Column – II

A. Ascus 1. Spirulina

B. Basidium 2. Penicillium

C. Protista 3. Agaricus

D. Cyanobacteria 4. Euglena

E. Animalia 5. Sponges

(a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-5, E-1 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-5, E-4

(c) A-2, B-5, C-3, D-1, E-4 (d) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1, E-5

135. Which one of the following option is correct for the given diagrams labelled as A, B, C, D and E?

(a) A-Cell wall, B-Cell membrane, C-Heterocyst, D-DNA, E-Mucilagenous sheath.

(b) A-Cell wall, B-Cell membrane, C-DNA, D-Heterocyst, E-Mucilagenous sheath.

(c) A-Mucilagenous sheath, B-Cell membrane, C-DNA, D-Heterocyst, E-Cell wall.

(d) A-Cell membrane, B-Cell wall, C-DNA, D-Heterocyst, E-Mucilagenosu sheath.



136. How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs?

Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Rhizobium, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces, Trypanosomes, Porphyra, Wolffia

(a) Four (b) Five (c) Six (d) Three

137. The heterosporous Pteridophyte belonging to the class Lycopsida is

(a) Selaginella (b) Psilotum (c) Equisetum (d) Salvinia

138. Which one of the following statement is true?

(a) Asexual spores and gametes are invariably diploids

. (b) Asexual spores and gametes are invariably haploids.

(c) Only gametes are invariably haploids.

(d) Only spores are invariably diploids.

139. Protonema

(a) is a stage of gametophytic generation.

(b) is a creeping, green, branched and develops directly from a spore.

(c) produces lateral bud which forms leafy plant body.

(d) All of these

140. Which one of the following group of animals reproduces only by sexual means?

(a) Ctenophora (b) Cnidaria (c) Porifera (d) Protozoa

141. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option

Column – I (Organisms) Column – II (Common name)

A. Pennatula 1. Sea-lily

B. Gorgonia 2. Sea-pen

C. Antedon 3. Sea-urchin

D. Echinus 4. Sea-cucumber

E. Cucumaria 5. Sea-fan

(a) A-2, B-5, C-3, D-1, E-4 (b) A-2, B-5, C-4, D-1, E-3

(c) A-2, B-5, C-1, D-3, E-4 (d) A-5, B-2, C-1, D-3, E-4

142. Two chief features of mammals which distinguish them from other vertebrates are

(a) Hairy skin and oviparity (b) Hairy skin and mammary glands

(c) Mammary glands and teeth (d) Pinna and teeth

143. Stem tendrils are found in

(a) cucumber (b) pumpkins (c) grapevines (d) All of these

144. A sterile stamen is known as

(a) Staminode (b) Pistillode (c) Pollen grain (d) Phyllode

145. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column – I (Family) Column – II (Androeium formula)

A. Brassicaceae 1. A3 + 3

B. Fabaceae 2. A(5)

C. Solanaceae 3. A(9) + 1

D. Liliaceae 4. A2 + 4




146. Match Column-I, II and III and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

A. Marginal

I.

p. Sunflower, Marigold

B. Axile

II.

q. Dianthus, Primrose

C. Parietal III.

r. Mustard, Argemone

D. Free central

IV.

s. China rose, Tomato, Lemon

E. Basal

V.

t. Pea

(a) A-5, t; B-2, s; C-1, r: D-3, q; E-4, p (b) A-1, t; B-2, s; C-3, r; D-4, p; E-5, q

(c) A-5, p; B-2, s; C-1, q; D-3, r; E-4, t (d) A-5, p; B-3, q; C-2, s; D-1, t; E-4, r

147. A piece of wood having no vessels must be belong to

(a) Teak (b) Mango (c) Pine (d) Palm

148. Cartilage tissues are likely to be slow in healing following an injury because

(a) cartilage cells cannot reproduce (b) they lack direct blood supplies

(c) the intercellular material is missing (d) cartilage cells are surrounded by fluids

149. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta Americana

(a) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut.

(b) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts.

(c) Nervous system located ventrally, consists of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a pair of longitudinal connectives.

(d) Females bear a pair of short thread like anal styles.

150. Which one of the following is not considered as part of the endomembrane system?

(a) Golgi complex (b) Peroxisome (c) Vacuole (d) Lysosome

151. Select the wrong statement of a bacterial cell

(a) Mesosome is formed by the extensions of plasma membrane into the cell.

(b) The pili are elongated tubular structures made up of a protein.

(c) Flagellum is composed of filament, hook and basal body.

(d) Ribosomes are about 30 nm by 50 nm in size.



152. Match the items in Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.


A. SER 1. Increase the surface area

B. Golgi apparatus 2. Store oils or fats

C. Cristae 3. Secretion

D. Peroxisome 4. Photorespiration

E. Elaioplasts 5. Synthesis of Lipid

(a) A-5, B-3, C-1, D-4, E-2 (b) A-5, B-3, C-2, D-4, E-1

(c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4, E-5 (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-2

153. Which of the following pair lack the unit membrane?

(a) Nucleus and E.R. (b) Mitohondria and Chloroplast

(c) Ribosome and centriole (d) Golgi body and lysosome

154. Co-enzyme is

(a) always a protein (b) often a metal

(c) always an inorganic compound (d) often a vitamin

155. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of one of the categories of small molecular weight organic compounds in the living tissues. Identify the category shown and the one blank component “X” in it

Category Component

(a) Cholesterol Guanin

(b) Amino acid NH2

(c) Nucleotide Adenine

(d) Nucleoside Uracil

156. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterized?

(a) Lecithin – A phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane.

(b) Palmitic acid – An unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.

(c) Adenylic acid – Adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule.

(d) Alanine amino acid – Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule.

157. Interkinesis is

(a) time gap between meiosis I and meiosis II (b) stage between two mitotic divisions

(c) interphase (d) Both (b) and (d)

158. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given.


A. Terminalization 1. Pairing of homologous chromosomes.

B. Synapsis 2. Point of attachment between homologous chromosomes.

C. Chiasmata 3. Nuclear protein complex that helps in adherence of sister chromatids and then

D. Synaptonemal complex 4. Shifting of chiasmata outwards towards the ends of a bivalent.


159. Number of bivalents are 8 in prophase I. What is the number of chromosomes in a cell undergoing anaphase II?

(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 16 (d) 32



160. In a fully turgid cell

(a) s will be negative and p will be positive (b) p will be negative and s will be positive

(c) Both p and s will be positive (d) Both s and p are negative

161. Based on Munch‟s pressure-flow hypothesis, which of the following conditions would increase the rate of translocation?

(a) An increase in the humidity in the outside air (b) A decrease in phloem unloading at the sink

(c) An increase in sucrose production at the source (d) A decrease in photosynthesis

162. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the option given.


A. Zinc 1. Chlorophyll

B. Sulphur 2. IAA

C. Magnesium 3. Nitrate reductase

D. Molybdenum 4. Cysteine


163. Which one of the following statement is wrong in relation to photorespiration?

(a) It is a characteristic of C3 plants.

(b) The RuBP reacts with O2 to form one molecule of phosphoglycerate and phosphoglycolate.

(c) There is synthesis of ATP or NADPH.

(d) It occurs in daytime only.

164. Choose the correct combinations of labeling the carbohydrate molecule involved in the Calvin cycle

(a) I-RuBP, II-Triose phosphate, III-PGA (b) I-PGA, II-RuBP, III-Triose phosphate

(c) I-PGA, II-Triose phosphate, III-RuBP (d) I-RuBP, II-PGA, III-Triose phosphate

165. In the crop field a weedicide (DCMU) is used to remove weeds in order to increase the yield. But the effect on this weedicide is that, it blocks electron transport from Photosystem II to Photosystem I. This will result in

(a) enhancement of dark reaction (b) failure of ATP synthesis

(c) lack of reduction of NADP+ (d) Both (b) and (c)



166. Cytohrome oxidase is a/an

(a) Exoenzyme (b) Endoenzyme (c) Proenzyme (d) Coenzyme

167. 6-furfuryl amino purine, 2, 4-dichlorophenoxy acetic acid and indole-3 acetic acid are examples respectively for

(a) synthetic auxin, kinetin and natural auxin (b) gibberellins, natural auxin and kinetin

(c) natural auxin, kinetin and synthetic auxin (d) kinetin, synthetic auxin and natural auxin

168. Match the plant hormones listed in Column-I with their major role listed in Column-II. Select the correct option from the codes given below


A. Auxin 1. Fruit ripening

B. Cytokinins 2. Apical dominance

C. Abscisic acid 3. Antagonist to GA‟s

D. Ethylene 4. Stomatal opening and closing

5. Growth of lateral buds

(a) A-4; B-5; C-3, 5; D-1 (b) A-2; B-4; C-3, 2; D-1

(c) A-2; B-5; C-3, 4; D-1 (d) A-3, 4; B-5; C-2, 5; D-1

169. Read the following statements (i-iv) regarding “Ethephon” and answer the question which follows them

(i) Ethephon is sprayed in aqueous solution and is readily absorbed and transported within the plant.

(ii) It hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples.

(iii) It can be used to induce fruit thinning in cotton, cherry.

(iv) It is used to promote female sex expression in cucumber and increase yield.

How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) All

170. Maryland Mammoth Tobacco is a short day plant. Its critical duration of darkness is 10 hours. Under which of the following conditions will Maryland Mammoth tobacco not flower?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

171. In the bile-pancreatic duct is blocked, the following will not be affected

(a) Digestion of proteins (b) Emulsification of fats

(c) Level of blood glucose (d) Digestion of starch

172. Functional residual capacity can be represented as

(a) TV + ERV (b) ERV + RV (c) RV + IRV (d) ERV + TV + IRV

173. Match the following descriptions of each type of blood cell to their names

Blood cell Description

A. Erythrocyte 1. Most abundant white blood cell and the main phagocytic cell of the blood.

B. Eosinophil 2. Least abundant white blood cell; releases histamine granules.

C. Lymphocyte 3. Resist infections and are associated with allergic reactions.

D. Neutrophil 4. Blood cell that contains hemoglobin and transports oxygen.

E. Basophil 5. Specialized antibody producing white blood cells.

(a) A-4, B-3, C-5, D-1, E-2 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5

(c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-5, E-4 (d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3, E-5



174. Ultrafiltration occurs in a glomerulus when

(a) hydrostatic pressure exceeds osmotic pressure

(b) osmotic pressure exceeds hydrostatic pressure

(c) capsular hydrostatic pressure exceeds glomerular hydrostatic pressure

(d) colloidal osmotic pressure plus capsular pressure remain less than glomerular hydrostatic pressure

175. Choose the correct option

Type of Synovial joint Bone involved

A. Ball and Socket joint 1. Carpal and Metacarpal of thumb

B. Hinge joint 2. Humerus and Pectoral girdle

C. Pivot joint 3. Knee

D. Saddle joint 4. Atlas and Axis


176. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system

(a) Myasthenia gravis – Autoimmune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments.

(b) Gout – Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium.

(c) Muscular dystrophy – Age related shortening of muscles.

(d) Osteoporosis – Decreases in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age.

177. Column-I lists the parts of the human brain and Column-II lists the functions. Match the two columns and identify the correct choice from those given.


A. Cerebrum 1. Controls the pituitary

B. Cerebellum 2. Controls vision and hearing

C. Hypothalamus 3. Controls the rate of heart beat

D. Midbrain 4. Seat of intelligence

5. Maintains body posture


178. Tim once suffered a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting. The sting caused him to suffer a near-fatal drop in blood pressure called anaphylactic shock. Now he carries a kit containing a syringe of ………., which he can inject to speed up his heart if he reacts to a bee sting

(a) insulin (b) melatonin (c) testosterone (d) epinephrine

179. Pick the odd one out from each given words and then matches it with correct option

I. Thyroid, Adrenal, Pituitary, Prostate

II. Cretinism, Goiter, Myxedema, Scurvy

III. Insulin, Blood sugar, Adrenaline, Thyroxine

IV. Oestrogen, Progesterone, Testosterone, Prolactin

(a) I-Prostate, II-Scurvy, III-Blood sugar, IV-Testosterone

(b) I-Adrenal, II-Goiter, III-Insulin, IV-Prolactin

(c) I-Thyroid, II-Cretinism, III-Adrenaline, IV-Oestrogen

(d) I-Pituitary, II-Myxedema, III-Thyroxine, IV-Progesterone

180. When the BP is high and over loading of heart is present then which hormone is released for compensating this mechanism

(a) Aldosterone (b) ADH (c) Atri-natriuretic factor (d) Renin

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