ranjeet shahi chemistry papers

R a n j e e t S h a h i C h e m i s t r y C l a s s e sR a n j e e t S h a h i C h e m i s t r y C l a s s e sR a n j e e t S h a h i C h e m i s t r y C l a s s e sR a n j e e t S h a h i C h e m i s t r y C l a s s e s

S C O 4 8 , I In d

F l o o r , S e c t o r 2 0 C , C H A N D I G A R H P h : 2 7 2 5 7 4 8 , 3 0 4 0 6 6 0

S C F 7 2 , S e c t o r 1 0 , P a n c h k u l a , P h : 3 9 1 4 8 4 4

1

Duration: Two hours

MM: 210


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PRACTICE TEST CHEMISTRYPRACTICE TEST CHEMISTRYPRACTICE TEST CHEMISTRYPRACTICE TEST CHEMISTRY

ffffor IIT-JEE 2010 Section-A

1. The reaction : A� Product, follows first order kinetics and progress of reaction is depicted in the following figure. Half life of this reaction is approximately: (a) 10 Sec. (b) 100 Sec (c) 500 Sec (d) 1000 Sec

ln [A]

Time (sec)

(2, 3.4 x 10-3

)

(4, 2 x 10-3

)

D

2. In the reaction: 2NO2(g) + F2(g) � 2NO2F(g) It is observed that halving the volume of the reaction chamber increases the rate from 0.0010 M sec

-1 to 0.0040

M sec-1

, at constant temperature. Which of the following rate laws are consistent with this data? (a) Rate = k[F2] (b) Rate = k[NO2]

2[F2]

2 (c) Rate = k[NO2]

2 (d) Rate = k[NO2][F2]

D

3. A solution contains 1.0 x 10-5

M Na3PO4. Calculate the minimum concentration of Ag+

that would cause

precipitation of solid Ag3PO4 (K

sp = 1.8 x 10-18)

(a) 4.3 x 10-6

M (b) 5.6 x 10-5

M (c) 2.5 x 10-4

M (d) 6.0 x 10-7

M

B

4. A 100.0 ml sample of 0.2 M (CH3)3N (Kb = 5.0 x 10-5) is titrated with 0.2 M HCl. Calculate the pH at the

equivalence point. (a) 3.1 (b) 5.4 (c) 7.0 (d) 9.9

B

5. Which of the following is false for a buffer solution? (a) A buffer solution can be prepared by mixing appropriate amounts of a weak base and a strong acid. (b) Exclusive of water, at least one component of a buffer solution must be neutral (c) A buffer solution can consist of a mixture of a weak acid and its conjugate base.

(d) Added H+

ions will react with the conjugate base of the weak acid in solution

B

6. A galvanic cell has a potential of 2.50 V. If in a particular experiment, 2.00 moles of electron were passed through this cell, what is the maximum useful work, wmax, that could be obtained?

(a) 4.82 x 105

J (b) 7.80 x 105 J (c) 2.02 x 104

J (d) 1.00 x 103

J

A

7. Which of the following are assumptions of 14

C dating? X.

14C content ceases to be renewed when the plant is harvested or dies.

Y. The 14

C/12

C ratio in a living organism reaches a steady state. Z. Nothing can change the half life of the decay. (a) All are assumptions (b) Z only (c) Y only (d) X and Y

A

8. An ice cube at room temperature and 1.0 atm pressure is observed to melt. For the ice cube: (a) ∆G° is negative, ∆H° is negative and ∆S° is positive (b)∆G° is positive, ∆H° is negative and ∆S° is positive. (c) ∆G° is negative, ∆H° is positive and ∆S° is positive (d)∆G° is negative, ∆H° is positive and ∆S° is negative

C

9. The standard reaction free energy for N2O4(g) � 2NO2(g) is ∆G° = + 4.73 kJ mol-1

at 298 K. What is the value

of ∆G and what is the spontaneous direction of the reaction when the partial pressures of the gases are PN2O

4 =

0.80 atm and PNO2 = 2.10 atm?

(a) +6.83 kJ mol-1; towards reactant. (b) -8.96 kJ mol-1

towards product.

(c) +8.96 kJ mol-1; towards product. (d) +8.96 kJ mol-1; towards reactant.

D


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10. Which one of the following statements about Le Chatelier’s Principle is FALSE? (Assume no solids or pure liquids are present!) (a) Adding products to a reaction will cause the reaction to shift back to reactants. (b) Adding heat to an endothermic reaction will cause the equilibrium to shift back to make more reactants. (c) Removing reactants will cause the equilibrium to shift back to produce more reactants. (d) Decreasing the temperature of an exothermic reaction (removing heat) will cause the equilibrium to shift forward to make more products.

B

11. Which of the following formulas is consistent with the unit cell of the rhenium oxide compound shown at right? (a) Re2O6 (b) Re2O3 (c) ReO6 (d) ReO

A

12. A mixture of 0.15 mole of A, 0.41 mole of B, and 1.6 moles of C is placed in a 2.0 L container. Which of the following statements correctly matches the reaction quotient, Q, with the direction to attain equilibrium for the reaction A(g) + 3B(g) � 2C(g)? (The value of Kc is 1.00 x 10

2 at 500 K.)

(a) Q = 2.5 x 102, proceeds from right to left (b) Q = 9.9 x 10

2, proceeds from right to left

(c) Q = 3.6 x 101, proceeds from left to right (d) Q = 5.3 x 10

1, proceeds from left to right

B

13. A flask contain A(g), B(g) and C(g) in equilibrium and the following equilibrium is existing:

2A(g) � 2B(g) + C(g) If equal moles of A(g) and B(g) are added simultaneously from the two inlets, to the above mentioned flask containing equilibrium mixture of A(g), B(g) and C(g), which of the following statement correctly describes the change that will occur? Assume constant temperature throughout. (a) Reaction will proceed in forward direction to reestablish the new equilibrium. (b) Reaction will proceed in backward direction to reestablish the new equilibrium. (c) Reaction may proceed in either direction depending on the composition of original equilibrium mixture to reestablish the new equilibrium. (d) Direction of reaction can’t be predicted without knowledge of equilibrium constant.

C

14. The value for the equilibrium constant for the reaction between iron(III) ion and thiocyanate ion, SCN–, can be

determined by measuring the absorbance of solutions. When solutions containing Fe3+

(aq) and SCN–(aq) are

combined, equilibrium is established between these two ions and the FeSCN2+

(aq) complex ion which is primarily responsible for the absorbing red color in the system. Assuming [FeSCN

2+] and absorbance are

directly related, one can find the concentration of FeSCN2+

in any equilibrium system, if when [FeSCN2+

] = 0.00020 mol L

–1, absorbance = 0.520 in a 1.00 cm cell. Given that the absorbance for a solution is 0.215 when

solutions are mixed such that, at the instant of mixing, [Fe3+

] = 0.0010 mol L–1

and [SCN–] = 0.00060 mol L

–1,

estimate the equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction: Fe3+

(aq) + SCN–(aq) � FeSCN

2+(aq).

(a) <100 mol L–1

(b) 125 mol L–1

(c) 150 mol L–1

(d) 175 mol L–1

D

15. An aqueous solution is given to you. You measure the pH and observe that pH = 4.57. Consider the following statements: Statement I: The solution could contain a strong acid at a concentration of 2.7 x 10

–5 mol L

–1.

Statement II: The solution could contain a weak acid whose Ka is 3.1 x 10–8

mol L–1

. Statement III: Some K3PO4 could have been added to water to give this solution. Which of the above Statements is (are) consistent with your observation? (a) Only Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement III (c) Both Statement I and Statement II (d) Both Statement II and Statement III

C

16. In an experiment, dinitrobenzene (C6H4N2O4) is being reduced electrolytically into diamino benzene. If a current of 5 A is applied for 48.25 minute, how many grams of dinitrobenzene would be reduced? (F = 96500 C and M(N) = 14) (a) 0.7 g (b) 1.4 g (c) 2.1 g (d) 2.8 g

C

17. Arrange the following aqueous solutions in increasing order of their vapour pressure: (I) 0.5 m sugar (II) 1.0 m CaCl2 (III) 0.5 m FeCl3 (IV) 2.0 m KCl (V) 0.5 m NaCl (a) V<II<III<IV<I (b) II<V<III<IV<I (c) IV<II<III<V<I (d) II<III<V<IV<I

C


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18. Specify if addition of the second substance in each of the following increases (I) or decreases (D) the solubility of the first substance. 1. Al(OH)3, NaOH; 2. PbCl2, Pb(NO3)2; 3. CuSO4, NH3 (a) 1-D, 2-I, 3-I (b) 1-I, 2-I, 3-D (c) 1-I, 2-D, 3-I (d) 1-D, 2-D, 3-I

C

19. The equation for the reaction in the figure below is:

H2(g) + I2(g) + Heat � 2HI(g). At time 3 minutes, what change was imposed into the equilibrium? (a) Pressure was increased. (b) Temperature was increased. (c) Iodine was added to the system. (d) Hydrogen was added to the system.

C

20. In the plot below, what is the slope of the line labeled “Total” in terms of P

obenzene and P

otoluene, where P

obenzene and P

otoluene are the vapour

pressures of pure benzene and pure toluene at a given temperature? (a) P

otoluene - P

obenzene (b) P

obenzene + P

otoluene

(c) Pobenzene - P

otoluene (d) 2P

otoluene - P

obenzene

C

21. KCl has the same structure as NaCl. If the volume of the unit cell is 247.7 cubic Angstroms, what is the distance between adjacent K

+ and Cl

- centers?

(a) 1.24 Angstroms (b) 2.48 Angstroms (c) 3.14 Angstroms (d) 6.28 Angstroms

C

22. A rectangular tray has dimensions of 20 cm x 40 cm. If a molecule has its vander waal’s radius of 2 cm, what is the maximum effective number of molecules which can be arranged in a monolayer arrangement on this tray? (a) 50 (b) 57 (c) 68 (d) 80

B

23. The equivalent conductance of a 1 M CH3COOH solution is 10 ohm-1

cm2eq

-1 and that at infinite dilution is 200

ohm-1

cm2eq

-1. Hence pH of CH3COOH solution is

(a) 0 (b) 1.3 (c) 1.7 (d) 4.0

B

24. For a saturated solution of AgCl at 25oC, specific conductance is 3.44 x 10

-6 ohm

-1cm

-1 and of waer used for

preparing this solution is 1.6 x 10-6

ohm-1

cm-1

. If AgClλ∞ = 138.3 ohm-1

cm2eq

-1, the Ksp of AgCl would be closest

to? (a) 1.7 x 10

-2 M

2 (b) 1.7 x 10

-4 M

2 (c) 1.7 x 10

-6 M

2 (d) 1.7 x 10

-8 M

2

C

Section B (may have more than one correct answers)

25. Which of the following is/are false for a first order rate constant (k)? (a) It is a characteristic constant for a given reaction and changes only with temperature. (b) It is equal to the negative of the solpe of the straight line obtained by plotting ln{amount of reactant} on Y-axis vs time on X-axis. (c) It increases exponentially with temperature. (d) It is very low for the endothermic reaction and high for the exothermic reaction.

A D

26. The following reversible reaction is established in a container at 500K: 2NO2(g) � N2O4(g)

Which of the followings will increase the amount of product at equilibrium? (a) Adding Argon gas at constant volume and temperature. (b) Adding Argon gas at constant pressure and temperature. (c) Compression of the equilibrium mixture at constant temperature. (d) Adding some silica (sand) to the equilibrium mixture at constant volume and temperature.

C D


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27. 1.0 mol of an ideal gas (Cp/Cv = 1.5) undergo a change of state described by the following P-V diagram. Which of the following statements is (are) true?

(a) ∆SAB = ∆SCB (b) WABC < 0 (c) P(C) = 1.25 atm (d) P(B) = 5 atm

A B C

28. Which of the following statement regarding a NaCl unit cell is(are) correct: (a) Coordination number of Na

+ as well as Cl

- is six.

(b) Number of chloride ions in the nearest neighbor of a chloride ion is twelve. (c) Density of NaCl is greater than any atomic solid with FCC unit cell.

(d) In closest packing, the internuclear distance between adjacent Na+ ions is

2

awhere a is the side of unit

cell.

A B D

29. What is/are true regarding kinetics of a given chemical reaction? (a) The pre-exponential factor “A” in Arrhenius equation accounts for the probability of collision of reactant molecules in a specific orientation. (b) If order of a reaction is zero, it must be a composite (multi step) reaction. (c) Arrhenius equation is not relevant in a radioactive decay. (d) Rate of a light catalyzed reaction depends on frequency of light but independent of intensity of light.

A B C

30. Which of the following statement regarding a Galvanic cell: Zn/Zn2+

//Cu2+

/Cu is (are) true? (a) Electrons flow from Zn to Cu electrode via internal circuit. (b) Cu electrode is at lower Gibbs free energy than Zn electrode. (c) Its standard state emf(E

o) is independent of temperature.

(d) Diluting electrolyte in anode chamber increases EMF.

B D

31. Select the correct statement of the followings: (a) Vapour pressure of a 0.01 M NaCl(aq) solution is greater than the vapour pressure of a 0.015 M urea solution. (b) X and Y are two solutions of non-volatile solutes in volatile solvents. If boiling point of X is greater than the boiling point of Y, freezing point of Y must be greater than that of X. (c) If a solution of a non-volatile solute in a volatile solvent is distilled, boiling point of solution increases as distillation progresses. (d) Two volatile solvents A and B forms a binary solution. If solution of A and B is distilled, they will start

distilling in equal composition at a point when o

A B

oB A

x P

x P= .

B C D

32. Consider the following Galvanic cell: 2

3(0.1 ) (0.01 )Zn Zn M AgNO M Ag+

Eo(Zn

2+/Zn) = -0.76 V and E

o(Ag

+/Ag) = 0.80 V at 25

oC.

Which of the following is/are correct at 25oC?

(a) emf of the cell is 1.53 V (b) If some solid NaCl is added to cathode chamber, emf will decrease. (c) Adding some 0.04 M ZnCl2 solution to anode chamber will increase emf of the cell. (d) Increase in temperature increases emf of the cell.

B C D

Section C

Assertion Reason Type

Following Four questions consist of a statement “S” followed by its explanation “E”. Answer them according to following codes: (A) Both “S” and “E” are factually true and “E” is the correct explanation of “S”. (B) Both “S” and “E” are factually true but “E” is not the correct explanation of “S”. (C) “S” is correct but “E” is wrong. (D) “S” is incorrect but “E” is correct.


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33. S: For the reaction: CO(g) + H2O(g) � CO2(g) + H2(g), addition of Ar(g) at constant temperature and

pressure at equilibrium does not affect the amount of reactants or products. E: Ar(g) is an inert gas, does not involve in a reaction with the components of the system at equilibrium.

B

34. S: Addition of dilute HNO3 to a saturated solution of PbS increases solubility of PbS. R: Pb(NO3)2 and other nitrate salts are highly soluble in water.

B

35. S: All reversible reaction proceeds in direction of lower Gibb’s energy. R: Reversible reaction proceeds spontaneously towards a state of equilibrium where the Gibb’s energy is minimum.

A

36. S: Isothermal expansion of ideal gas against vacuum must be simultaneously adiabatic. R: The work done by system in the above process is zero.

A

Section D

Passage/Comprehension Type

Passage-I A solution is prepared by dissolving CH3COONa (8.2 g), acetic acid (30g) and FeCl2(0.05g) in 1.0-L of distilled water. To this solution is bubbled H2S(g) up to the point of saturation, which for this gas corresponds to 0.10 M. Knowing the following constants, answer to the following three questions:

Acid dissociation constants(Ka): Solubility Product constants(Ksp):

Acetic Acid = 2 x 10-5

Fe(OH)2 = 4.0 x 10-15

H2S: Ka1 = 10

-7; Ka2 = 10

-14 FeS = 8 x 10

-19 Molar mass of FeCl2 = 127

37. What is the pH of this solution? (a) 4.3 (b) 4.6 (c) 4 (d) 5.4

C

38. Which of the following statements regarding precipitation reaction is true? (a) Some Fe(OH)2 will precipitate out since ionic product of Fe(OH)2 is greater than its Ksp. (b) Some FeS will precipitate out since ionic product of FeS is greater than its Ksp. (c) Both FeS and Fe(OH)2 will precipitate out to some extent since both [OH

-] and [S

2-] are greater than that

required for precipitation. (d) Neither Fe(OH)2 nor FeS will precipitate out since ionic product of both in solution are less than their respective solubility products.

B

39. What will be the concentration of free Fe(II) ion in the resulting solution? (a) 10

-5 M (b) 9 x 10

-10 M (c) 6.3 x 10

-8 M (d) 8 x 10

-5 M

D

Passage-II Medical texts indicates that lithium is used for treatment of bipolar disorder (manic depression). It is believed to change the strength of chemicals like Serotonin and Norepinephrine in the brain. Most often, it is administered as lithium carbonate (Li2CO3) or lithium citrate. Since it is used in a population at relatively high risk for overdose, and desired blood serum level of about 1.0 milli-mol per liter Li

+ cannot be exceeded

appreciably without risk, careful monitoring is necessary. Fortunately it is absorbed only slowly and excreted efficiently with a biological half-life from 18-30 hours, depending on the patient.

40. Assuming a blood volume of 4.7 L for a standard adult, what is the maximum concentration of serum Li+ that

can be obtained by rapid absorption of a 300 mg pill of Li2CO3? [M: Li = 7, C = 12 and O = 16] (a) 0.86 mM (b) 1.72 mM (c) 2.58 mM (d) 3.44 mM

B

41. In setting the treatment protocol, a concentration near 1.0 mM of Li+ has been maintained by the patient. Then

the physician monitoring the blood finds that Li+ blood level is 0.75 mmol L

-1 after 9.0 hours. Assuming that

excretion follows first order kinetics, what is the biological half life of the Li+ for this patient?

(a) 18 hr. (b) 22.5 hr. (c) 25 hr. (d) 30 hr

B

42. In order to maintain the stable condition of the above-mentioned patient, in no case the serum level of Li+

should not come down below to 0.85 mM. What should be the minimum duration for administering the next dose of 300 mg pils of Li2CO3? (a) 9 hr (b) 11.25 hr (c) 12.5 hr. (d) 15 hr

B


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Passage III : The magnitude (but not the sign) of the standard reduction potentials of two metals X and Y are:

Y2+

+ 2e � Y 1 0 34oE . V=

X2+

+ 2e � X 2 0 25oE . V=

When the two half cells of X and Y are connected to construct a cell, electrons flow from X to Y. When X is connected to a standard hydrogen electrode (SHE), electrons flow from X to SHE.

43. Which of the following sign of 1oE and 2

oE are true?

(a) Both are negative (b) Both are positive

(c) 1oE is negative and 2

oE is positive (d) 1oE is positive and 2

oE is negative

D

44. If a half cell X/X2+

(0.1 M) is connected to another half cell Y/Y2+

(1.0 M) by means of a salt bridge and an external circuit at 25

oC, the cell voltage would be?

(a) 0.06 V (b) 0.12 V (c) 0.62V (d) 0.72 V

C

45. If standard emf (Eo) of a half cell Y

2+/Y

+ is 0.15 V, the standard emf of the half-cell Y

+/Y will be?

(a) 0.19 V (b) 0.53 V (c) 0.49 V (d) 0.64 V

B

46. Given the following half cell: YI + e � Y + I

- E

o = -0.27 V

Solubility product of the iodide salt YI is : (a) 2 x 10

-3 (b) 2 x 10

-12 (c) 2 x 10

-13 (d) 6.8 x 10

-16

C

Passage IV: The vapor pressure of an aqueous solution of a sample of sugar maple sap is 22.61 mmHg at

25oC. The vapor pressure of pure water at 25

oC is 23.80 mmHg. Also the solution contain 50% sugar (by

weight) and remaining part is pure water.

47. What is the mole fraction of sugar in this sugar maple sap? (a) 0.5 (b) 0.025 (c) 0.050 (d) 0.0075

C

48. The molecular weight of sugar is? (a) 180 amu (b) 342 amu (c) 504 amu (d) 684 amu

B

49. What is the boiling point of this sugar maple as the above solution is boiled off? Ebullioscopic constant of water is 0.52 KKg

-1mol

-1.

(a) 128.88oC (b) 101.52

oC (c) 100.74

oC (d) 100.218

oC

B

Section E

Single Integer Answer Type

50. If a largest size guest atom X is present at all face centers of a unit cell of a BCC atomic solid without disturbing the original unit cell dimension, what is the coordination number of X?

2

51. In the reaction : A + B � P; if concentration of A is tripled and concentration of B is doubled, rate of reaction increased by a factor of 72. What is the over all order of reaction?

5

52. Standard molar enthalpy of combustion of ethane and butane are -1600 kJ and -2800 kJ respectively. A ethane burner using 7 lit of gas per hour is to be replaced by butane burner at same temperature and pressure, what should be the rate of supply of butane in order to have same fuel value?

4

53. Bromine for bromination of benzene is being produced by electrolysis of NaBr using a current of 965 A. At least how many hours electrolysis would have to be done to produce enough bromine required for monobromination of 5.184 Kg of benzene?

4


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Matrix Match Type Questions

Section F

54. Consider the operations on the left column and match with the solution on the right column: (A) Addition of small amount of HCl decreases

the solubility of sparingly soluble salt P. A saturated solution of AgCl (Ksp = 2 x 10

-10)

(B) Addition of small amount of NaOH decreases solubility of sparingly soluble salt.

Q. A saturated solution of PbCl2. (Ksp = 4 x 10-6

)

(C) Addition of small amount of HCl increases solubility of sparingly soluble salt.

R. A HCl solution saturated with AgCl.

(D) Addition of small amount of AgNO3(s) increases solubility of sparingly soluble salt.

S. A NaOH solution saturated with Mg(OH)2(Ksp of Mg(OH)2 = 4 x 10

-7)

55. Match the conditions on the left column with states on the right column: Equilibrium types Kp/Kc relationship (A) A2(g) � 2A(g); Kc = 1. A mixture of 1.0 mole of each is prepared

in a 1.0 liter flask.

P. System is at equilibrium

(B) A(g) + 2B(g) � AB2(g) Kc = 2. A mixture of 2.0 mole of each A, B and AB2 is prepared in a 1.0 liter flask.

Q. Goes to right

(C) A2(g) � 2A(g); KP= 2. At equilibrium the total pressure is 2.0 atm. R. n(A) > n(A2) at equilibrium

(D) 2A(g) � A2(g) KP = 2. A mixture, initially containing both A and A2 at 1.0 atm. partial pressure is prepared.

S. n(A) < n(A2) at equilibrium

56. Consider the radio isotopes on the left column and match with their modes of decay to stable nuclei on the right column: (A) 8O

18 P. Positron emission.

(B) 5B9 Q. Electron capture.

(C) 14Si26

R. Beta(β) emission.

(D) 19K40

S. Positron emission followed by neutron emission.


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Answer Sheet Test-2

Name: _____________________________ Father’s/Parent’s Name: ____________________________

Tel. No: ______________________________

1. A B C D 17. A B C D

33. A B C D

2. A B C D 18. A B C D

34. A B C D

3. A B C D 19. A B C D

35. A B C D

4. A B C D 20. A B C D

36. A B C D

5. A B C D 21. A B C D

37. A B C D

6. A B C D 22. A B C D

38. A B C D

7. A B C D 23. A B C D

39. A B C D

8. A B C D 24. A B C D

40. A B C D

9. A B C D 25. A B C D

41. A B C D

10. A B C D 26. A B C D

42. A B C D

11. A B C D 27. A B C D

43. A B C D

12. A B C D 28. A B C D

44. A B C D

13. A B C D 29. A B C D

45. A B C D

14. A B C D 30. A B C D

46. A B C D

15. A B C D 31. A B C D

47. A B C D

16. A B C D 32. A B C D

48. A B C D

49. A B C D

54.

55.

56.

50.

51.

52.

53.


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Answers: Test -2

Set A Set B Set C Set A

1. D C B 25. A D 50. 2

2. D C D 26. C D 51. 5

3. B C B 27. A B C 52. 4

4. B C C 28. A B D 53. 4

5. B C B 29. A B C

6. A C A 30. B D

7. A B D 31. B C D

8. C B A 32. B C D

9. D C D 33. B

10. B C B 34. B

11. A D A 35. A

12. B C B 36. A

13. C B C 37. C

14. D A D 38. B

15. C B C 39. D

16. C D C 40. B

17. C A B 41. B

18. C D B 42. B

19. C A C 43. D

20. C B C 44. C

21. C C C 45. B

22. B B C 46. C

23. B D C 47. C

24. C B C 48. B

49. B

48. (A: PQR) (B:S) (C:S ) (D:Q,R) 49. (A: P) ( B: Q) (C:PR) (D:QS) 50. (A: R) (B:S) (C:P,Q) (D:R)

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