1. In the Manage Project Team process, which of these is done?Not So EasyPMP

a) observe team behavior b) manage conflict and resolve issues c) appraise team member performance d) All of the above Answer : b In the Manage Project Team process, the project team observes behavior, manages conflict, resolves issues and appraises team member performance. 2. Assumptions about _____ may be used to prepare the activity cost estimate.EasyCAPM

a) COQ b) PMIS c) CA d) WBS Answer : a Assumptions about cost of quality (COQ) may be used to prepare the activity cost estimate. 3. Soft logic refers to ______.Very difficultPMP

a) external dependencies b) mandatory dependencies c) discretionary dependencies d) sequence dependencies Answer : c Discretionary dependencies are sometimes referred to as preferred logic or soft logic. CAPM, PMP

4. The ________ is created as a result of market demand, legal requirements and ecological impacts.Not so DifficultPMP

a) cost-benefit analysis b) business case c) business need d) project charter Answer : d Cost-benefit and business need are often part of the business case. project charter is created as part of the project initiation phase. 5. Change control procedures include __________.Very difficultPMP

a) formal steps necessary to approve and validate changes to project document b) formal steps defined by a company on how project documents will be modified c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c Both are examples of change control procedures. 6. ___ provide(s) the high-level project requirements and high-level product description of the project.Very easyCAPM

a) The project charter b) Detailed product requirements c) The scope definition d) Acceptance criteria

Answer : a The project charter is used to provide the high-level requirements and high-level product description so that detailed product requirements can be developed. 7. In the Develop Schedule process, which of the following are not entered into the scheduling tool to generate the schedule with planned dates for completing project activities?Extremely DifficultPMP

a) resource requirements b) schedule constraints c) durations d) activity lags Answer :d In the Develop Schedule process, activity sequences, durations, resource requirements and schedule constraints are entered into the scheduling tool to generate the schedule with planned dates for completing project activities. 8. The document that defines the items listed in the work breakdown structure is called the ________EasyCAPM

a) WBS dictionary b) requirements definition c) use case dictionary d) work package requirements Answer : a The WBS dictionary provides detailed definition for each element in the work breakdown structure. 9. Total float refers to _______.Not so easyPMP

a) the positive difference between early and late dates b) bench time for resources c) the negative difference between early and late dates d) what-if scenario analysis Answer : a On any network path, schedule flexibility is measured by the positive difference between early and late dates and is termed, "total float". 10. Business requirements is an example of a _____.Not so easyPMP

a) project requirement b) product requirement c) stakeholder requirement d) acceptance criterion Answer : a Project requirements can include business requirements, project management requirements and delivery requirements. 11. When estimating cost for a project, which of the following would not be included?Very easyPMP

a) licensing costs b) insurance costs c) equipment rental d) None of the above ' Answer : d

Cost are estimated for all resources that will be charged to the project. This includes, but is not limited to labor, materials, equipment, services and facilities as well as special categories such as an inflation allowance or contingency costs. 12. In the Perform Quality Performance process, project deliverable status, cost incurred and technical performance measures are all examples of _____.Extremely difficultPMP

a) quality metrics b) quality control measurements c) work performance information d) process improvement plans Answer : C In the Perform Quality Performance process, project deliverable status, cost incurred and technical performance measures are all examples of work performance information. 13. The term "schedule model" refers to _____.Very difficultPMP

a) schedule data and calculations b) the printed schedule information c) the printed schedule and the schedule data and calculations combined d) None of the above Answer : c Advanced practitioners may refer to the printed project schedule information as the schedule and the schedule data and calculations as the schedule model. 14. The process of approximating the number of work periods needed to complete individual activities with estimated resources is called _____.easyCAPM

a) Estimate Activity Resources b) Resource Allocation Approximation c) Estimate Activity Duration d) Define WBS Answer : c The process of approximating the number of work periods needed to complete individual activities with estimated resources is called Estimate Activity Duration. 15. In a ____, risks are prioritized according to their potential implications for having an effect on the project's objectives.DifficultPMP

a) stakeholder tolerance matrix b) RBS c) risk register d) probability and impact matrix Answer : d In a probability and impact matrix, risks are prioritized according to their potential implications for having an effect on the project's objectives. 16. Which of the following are enterprise environmental factors in the Estimate Activity Durations process?Very difficultPMP

a) Productivity metrics b) Available skilled resources c) Resource calendars d) All of the above

Answer : a Only the first option is an enterprise environmental factor in the Estimate Activity Durations process. 17. ____ is the conflict resolution technique that involves searching for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties.Very easyCAPM

a) Collaborating b) Confronting/Problem Solving c) Forcing d) Compromising Answer : d Compromising is the conflict resolution technique that involves searching for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties. 18. The _______ describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented and managed throughout the project.easyCAPM,

a) requirements documentation b) requirements management plan c) quality control plan d) configuration management plan Answer : b The requirements management plan documents how requirements will be analyzed, documented and managed throughout the project. 19. The schedule management plan is _________.EasyCAPM,

a) a formal plan that is separate from the project management plan b) an information plan that is separate from the project management plan c) a subsidiary of the project management plan that may be either formal or informal. d) None of the above Answer : c The schedule management plan is contained in, or is a subsidiary plan of, the project management plan, and may be formal or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed, based upon the needs of the project and includes appropriate control thresholds. 20. _____ is a gross value estimating approach.DifficultCAPM

a) Analogous estimating b) Expert judgment c) Parametric estimating d) Bottom up estimating Answer : a Analogous estimating is a gross value estimating approach. 21. Discretionary dependencies are sometimes referred to as _______.Not so difficult CAPM,PMP

a) mandatory dependencies b) hard logic c) sequence dependencies d) soft logic Answer : d Discretionary dependencies are sometimes referred to as preferred logic or soft logic. 22. ____ is the process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements and schedule constraints to create the project schedule.easyCAPM

a) Schedule Activities b) Schedule Analysis

c) Develop Project Plan d) Develop Schedule Answer : d Develop Schedule is the process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints to create the project schedule. 23. Which of the following organizational process assets can influence he Perform Quality Control process?.very easyCAPM

a) quality standards and policies b) standard work guidelines c) issue and defect reporting procedures d) All of the above Answer : d Each of the items listed is an organizational process asset in the Quality Control process 24. Hammock activity is used _______.Very difficult.PMP

a) between milestones or across interdependent work packages b) to define resource capacity definition tasks in critical chain management c) to specifically introduce slack into the project d) None of the above Answer : a Hammock activity is used between milestones or across multiple interdependent work packages and is displayed in bar chart reports. 25. Hammock activity is used _______.Extremely DifficultPMP

a) applying knowledge, tools, skills and techniques to meet project requirements b) applying knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to ensure the client walks away happy and has what he needs c) controlling the work effort towards a unique deliverable d) a temporary endeavor with a specific beginning and end that produces a unique deliverable Answer : b Knowledge, tools, techniques and skills are applied to meet the requirements. All the other answers are incorrect. 26. On smaller projects, what can happen to cost estimating and cost budgeting?Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) Nothing, they remain discrete. b) They may be viewed as a single process and be performed by a single person. c) They may be viewed as a single process, but must be managed by at least one additional team member. d) None of the above Answer : b On smaller projects, cost estimating and cost budgeting may be viewed as a single process and be performed by a single person. 27. ____ is/are used to optimize the distribution of work among resources.Not so difficultCAPM, PMP

a) Resource leveling b) Critical float method c) Delphi technique d) None of the above Answer : a

Resource leveling is used to optimize the distribution of work among resources. 28.The ____ provides the baseline for evaluating whether requests for changes or additional work are contained within or outside the project's boundaries.Not so easyPMP

a) project baseline b) project scope statement c) scope planning document d) project charter Answer : b The project scope statement provides the baseline for evaluating whether requests for changes or additional work are contained within or outside the project's boundaries. 29.The activity list includes a ____ and a scope of work description for each activity.Very difficultCAPM, PMP

a) work package b) activity identifier c) product backlog item d) None of the above Answer : b The activity list includes an activity identifier and a scope of work description for each activity. 30. Which of these items are used to create detailed product requirements?Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) Stakeholder register b) Focus groups c) High-level project requirements d) Detailed project requirements Answer : c The project charter is used to provide the high-level requirements and high-level product description so that detailed product requirements can be developed. 31. The ____ contains the product scope descriptions.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) project scope statement b) work breakdown structure c) scope baseline d) project charter Answer : a The project scope statement contains the product scope descriptions, which may affect activity sequencing. 32. _____ is the process of developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and to reduce the threats to project objectives.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) Monitor and Control Risks b) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis c) Plan Risk Response d) Identify Risks Answer : c Plan Risk Response is the process of developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and to reduce the threats to project objectives. 33. _____ is the process of developing options and actiThe ____ refers to identified risks, root causes of the risks, lists of potential responses, risk owners, symptoms and more.Not so difficultCAPM, PMP

a) risk management plan

b) risk planning documentation c) risk matrix d) risk register Answer : d The risk register refers to identified risks, root causes of the risks, lists of potential responses, risk owners, symptoms and more. 34. ____ is the conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference.Very difficultCAPM, PMP

a) Smoothing/Accommodating b) Compromising c) Collaborating d) Confronting/Problem Solving Answer : a Smoothing/Accommodating is the conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference. 35. Product quality measures and techniques are specific to the _________.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) way in which the project is managed b) type of project and stakeholder approval c) type of product produced by the project d) None of the above Answer : c Product quality measures and techniques are specific to the type of product produced by the project. 36. Careful planning during Plan Risk Management enhances the probability of success for the ____ other Risk Management processes.Extremely difficultCAPM, PMP

a) six b) five c) four d) seven Answer : b Careful planning during Plan Risk Management enhances the probability of success for the five other Risk Management processes. 37. When is the EAC forecast for ETC work considering both SPI and CPI factors most useful?Extremely DifficultPMP

a) when the project schedule is a factor impacting the ETC effort b) when the project schedule is not a factor impacting the ETC effort c) when the project schedule is a factor impact the EAC effort d) None of the above Answer : a The EAC forecast for ETC work considering both SPI and CPI factors is most useful when the project schedule is a factor impacting the ETC effort. 38. The WBS dictionary is a(n) _______ of the Create WBS processdifficultCAPM, PMP

a) input b) tool/technique c) output d) input as well as a tool/technique

Answer : b The WBS Dictionary is a tool/technique of the Create WBS process. 39. The influence that global demand can have on a specific resource's cost is an example of _______.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) commercial market information b) market dependency c) market conditions d) published cost assumptions Answer : c Market conditions describe what products, services and results are available in the market, from whom and under what terms and conditions. 40. The ____ is a hierarchical-type chart that is used to break down the project by types of resources.Not so difficultCAPM, PMP

a) resource breakdown structure b) matrix breakdown structure c) RACI d) All of the above Answer : a The resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical-type chart which used to break down the project by types of resources. 41. The goal of quality control is to _____.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) determine the grade of the deliverable b) determine the correctness of the deliverable c) determine the quality of the deliverable d) All of the above Answer : b The goal of quality control is to determine the correctness of the deliverable. 42. Direct and Manage Project Execution includes ____________________.Not so difficultCAPM, PMP

a) creating project deliverables b) facilitating forecasting 1 c) managing sellers d) All of the above Answer : d Each of these actions is identified as being part of the Direct and Manage Project Execution process. 43. High performance teams are characterized by_________________.Not so easyPMP

a) the ability to fulfill project objectives b) exceeding the schedule and cost requirements c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : d High performance teams are characterized by task-oriented and results-oriented outcomes. 44. The human resources plan contains which of the following?Not so difficultCAPM, PMP

a) roles and responsibilities b) project organization chart c) staffing management plan

d) All of the above Answer : d Each of the options provided is part of the human resource plan that serves as an input for the Acquire Project Team process 45. Given the following, O=3, M=9, P=11, what is the duration if three-point estimation is used?EasyCAPM, PMP

a) 7.6 b) 23 c) 8.3 d) 3.8 Answer : c When O=3, M=9 and P=11, a three-point estimation (O+M+P/3) gives a duration of 7.6. A three-point PERT estimate (O+4M+P/6) would result in a duration of 8.3. 46. Traceability structure, which covers which requirements' attributes will be captured on the traceability matrix and to which other project documents' requirements will be traced, is typically part of _____.Very difficultPMP

a) requirements documentation b) the requirements management plan c) the requirements traceability matrix d) the preliminary scope statement Answer : b One of the components which may be included in the requirements management plan is the traceability structure 47. Costs associated with rewards and recognition programs are necessary for determining the _______.EasyPMP

a) project cost estimate b) hammock costs c) budget at complete d) environmental costs Answer : a Costs associated with rewards and recognition programs are necessary for determining the project cost estimate. 48. Which of the following is not a method of group decision making?QUESTION NEEDS TO BE CORRECTED. a) Unanimity b) Plurality c) Transferring d) Dictatorship Answer : c Transferring is method of responding to risk. The others are examples of group decision making techniques. 49. Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to the _______.Very DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) change control board b) Perform integrated Change Control process c) project charter d) Control Scope process Answer : b Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to the Perform Integrated Change Control process. 50. A scheduling tool can be used_____.Not so difficultCAPM, PMP

a) in conjunction with a project management software application and manual methods

b) with either a scheduling tool or manual methods, but not both at the same time c) with project management software applications only d) with a manual process only Answer : a A scheduling tool can be used in conjunction with a project management software application and manual methods. 51. The management control point where scope, cost and scheduled are integrated and compared to the earned value for performance measurement, this is called ______.DifficultPMP

a) configuration manager b) control register c) control account d) control management point Answer : c The control account is a management control point where scope, cost and schedule are integrated and compared to the earned value for performance measurement. 52. The _____ sets out the format and establishes the criteria for planning, structuring, estimating, budgeting and controlling project costs.not so easyCAPM, PMP

a) Budget Planning process b) Develop Program Management Plan process c) Develop Project Management Plan process d) None of the above Answer : c The Develop Project Management Plan process sets out the format and established the criteria for planning, structuring, estimating, budgeting and controlling project costs. 53. What is the most commonly used contract type?Extremely easyPMP

a) Time and Materials b) Fixed Price Incentive Fee c) Firm Fixed Price d) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Answer : c The most commonly used type of contract is the Firm Fixed Price (FFP). 54. _____ is the process of developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and to reduce the threats to project objectives.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) Monitor and Control Risks b) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis c) Plan Risk Response d) Identify Risks Answer : c Plan Risk Response is the process of developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and to reduce the threats to project objectives. 55.What measures the cost efficiency of work completed?EasyCAPM, PMP

a) CV b) EV c) CPI d) SPI Answer : c

Cost performance index (CPI) is considered to be the most critical EVM metric and measures the cost efficiency for the work completed. 56. Summary budget, high-level requirements and high-level risks are created during the _________ process.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) Scope Planning b) Project Initiation c) Develop Project Charter d) Develop Project Scope Statement Answer : c These are outputs of the Develop Project Charter process. 57. The WBS and WBS dictionary are revised and reissued to reflect changes ________.Very difficultCAPM, PMP

a) when change requests are approved and will have an impact on project scope b) any time change requests are approved c) any time change requests are evaluated for approval d) None of the above Answer : a If the approved change requests have an effect upon the project scope, then the scope statement, the WBS and the WBS dictionary are revised and reissued to reflect the approved changes. 58. Which process is the Estimate Activity Resource process closely coordinated with?EasyPMP

a) Quality Control b) Estimate Costs c) Assign Resources d) Change Control Answer : b Estimate Activity is closely associated with Estimate Costs. 59. _____ involves analyzing the relationship between the consumption of project funds to the physical work being accomplished for such expenditures.Very easyPMP

a) Cost control b) Financial analysis c) Schedule control d) None of the above Answer : a Cost control involves analyzing the relationship between the consumption of project funds to the physical work being accomplished for such expenditures. 60. In order for analogous estimating to work, the previous activity used as a base ____.very difficultCAPM, PMP

a) must utilize the exact same resources b) must be approved by the product sponsor c) must be as similar as possible d) All of the above Answer : c In order for analogous estimating to work, the previous activity used as a base must be as similar as possible. 61. Schedule development can require _________ to create an approved project schedule that can serve as a baseline to track progress.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) review and revision of duration estimates b) review and revision of resource estimates

c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : a Schedule development can require the review and revision of duration estimates and resource estimates to create an approved project schedule that can serve as a baseline to track progress. 62. ____ is the process of estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment or supplies required to perform each activity.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) Estimate Activity Resources b) Procurement Planning c) Resource Acquisition d) None of the above Answer : a Estimate Activity Resources is the process of estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment or supplies required to perform each activity. 63. Published commercial information is a(n) ____ in the Estimate Activity Durations process.Very difficultPMP

a) input b) tool and technique c) output d) input and output Answer : a Published commercial information is an enterprise environmental factor, which is an input in the Enterprise Activity Durations process. 64. The total PV is sometimes referred to as the ________.Very difficultPMP

a) performance measurement baseline b) realized schedule variance c) realized performance variance d) performance variance baseline Answer : a The total PV is sometimes referred to as the performance measurement baseline (PMB). 65. Continuous ____, used extensively in modeling and simulation, represent(s) the uncertainty in values such as durations of schedule activities and costs of project components.Not so difficultPMP

a) sensitivity analysis b) probability distributions c) EMV analysis d) None of the above Answer : b Continuous probability distributions, which are used extensively in modeling and simulation represent the uncertainty in values such as durations of schedule activities and costs of project components. 66. In positive risk, the ____ strategy will allow for a positive risk to take place if comes along, but does not account for actively pursuing it.Not so difficultCAPM, PMP

a) exploit b) enhance c) share d) accept Answer : d

In positive risk, the accept strategy will allow for a positive risk to take place if comes along, but does not account for actively pursuing it. 67. When a project falls behind schedule, one technique commonly applied to get back on track is ________.very easyCAPM, PMP

a) fast tracking b) lead adjustment c) buffering d) trade-off analysis Answer : a Fast tracking is the schedule compression technique in which phases or activities normally performed in sequence are performed in parallel 68. Who determines the actions required to ensure that project performance matches expectation?Extremely easyCAPM, PMP

a) Project manager b) Project team c) Product team d) Project manager and project team Answer : a The project manager collaborates with the team to determine the actions required to ensure that project performance matches expectations. 69. Quality assurance support, regardless of the unit's title, may be provided to ____.Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) the project team b) the sponsor c) stakeholders not actively involved in working on the project d) All of the above Answer : a Quality assurance support, regardless of the unit's title, may be provided to the project team, the management of the performing organization, the customer or sponsor, as well as other stakeholders not actively involved in working on the project. 70. Which of the following are considered to be organizational process assets in the Control Schedule Inputs process?Very difficultPMP

a) existing formal and informal schedule control-related policies, procedures and guidelines b) schedule control tools c) monitoring and reporting methods d) All of the above Answer : d Existing formal and informal schedule control-related policies, procedures and guidelines, as well schedule control tools and monitoring and reporting methods are examples of organizational process assets in the Project Schedule Control Inputs. 71. Which of the following organization process assets can influence the Define Scope process?EasyCAPM, PMP

a) Policies, procedures and templates for a project scope statement b) Project files from previous projects c) Lessons learned from previous phases or projects d) All of the above Answer : d All of these are examples of the types of organizational process assets described

72. What assumptions does the EAC forecast for ETC work considering both SPI and CPI make?Extremely difficultPMP

a) negative cost performance to date b) requirement to meet a firm scheduled commitment by the project c) Both of these d) positive cost performance to date Answer : c The EAC forecast to ETC work considers negative cost performance to date, and the requirements to meet a firm scheduled commitment by the project 73. Iterative simulations are typically performed using the _____ technique.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) Monte Carlo b) Capri c) probability distribution d) sensitivity analysis Answer : a Iterative simulations are typically performed using the Monte Carlo technique. 74. How do we handle verbally submitted change requests?EasyCAPM, PMP

a) As long we document approval, verbal initiation is okay. b) Verbal initiation is not okay; a change request must be submitted in writing. c) Verbal initiation is okay, but the request should always be recorded in written form and entered into the change management system. d) Verbal is okay as long as the requestor signs a document saying that they have approved verbal submission of a change request. Answer : All change requests should be documented in the change management or configuration management system as part of Integrated Change Control. 75. Which of the following are enterprise environmental factors in the Identify Risks process?EasyCAPM, PMP

a) published information, including commercial databases b) baselines c) project files, including actual data d) None of the above Answer : a Published information, including commercial databases is the only item listed that is an enterprise environmental factor. 76. ____ will affect cost estimates on any project where the project budget includes an allowance for the cost of financing and where resources are applied per unit of time for the duration of the activity.DifficultPMP

a) Project Cost Estimation b) Activity duration estimates c) Estimate Activity Resources d) None of the above Answer : b Activity duration estimates will affect cost estimates on any project where the project budget includes an allowance for the cost of financing and where resources are applied per unit of time for the duration of the activity. 77. "Current status," "significant accomplishments for a given period" and "issues" are examples of ________.Not so difficultPMP

a) organizational process assets

b) enterprise environmental factors c) performance reports d) expert judgment Answer : c These are examples of performance reports as defined in the Monitor and Control Project Work process. 78. The ____ includes the product scope description, the project deliverables and defines the product user acceptance criteria.easyCAPM, PMP

a) product scope statement b) project scope statement c) baseline scope statement d) WBS Answer :b The project scope statement includes the product scope description, the project deliverables and defines the product user acceptance criteria. 79. Which of the following, which are documented during project initiation, does the detailed project scope statement build upon?Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) Major deliverables b) Assumptions c) Constraints d) All of the above Answer : d The preparation of a detailed project scope statement is critical to project success and builds upon the major deliverables, assumptions and constraints that are documented during project initiation. 80. Resource calendars and expert judgment are _____ in the Estimate Activity process.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) inputs b) outputs c) tools and techniques d) None of the above Answer : c Resource calendars are an input and expert judgment is a tool and technique in the Estimate Activity Resources process. 81. The contingency reserve may be ______.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) a percentage of the estimated cost b) a fixed number c) developed using quantitative analysis d) All of the above Answer : d The contingency reserve may be a percentage of the estimated cost. a fixed number of it may be developed using quantitative analysis methods. 82. The formally documented identification of a variance in the project component, with a recommendation to correct the variance or replace the component is called _____.Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) performance corrective guidance b) corrective action c) defect repair d) preventive action Answer : b

The variance described could also be called a defect, and the corrective action described would repair the defect. 83. The calendar for each project ______.not so difficultCAPM, PMP

a) may use different calendar units as the basis for scheduling the project b) must use the same set of calendar units for scheduling everything in the project c) must use a specific set of calendar units for scheduling resources, but everything else is open to interpretation d) may use different units for scheduling all resources, but everything else must be consistent Answer : a The calendar for each project may use different calendar units as the basis for scheduling the project. 84. ____ is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) Verify Scope b) Verify Acceptance c) Deliverable Acceptance d) Requirements Validation Answer : a Verify Scope is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. 85. ____ should be used during the Plan Quality process to determine the number and type of tests and their impact on cost of quality.Very difficultCAPM, PMP

a) DOE b) Benchmarking c) Statistical sampling d) Cost benefit analysis Answer : a Design of Experiments (DOE) should be used during the Plan Quality process to determine the number and type of tests and their impact on cost of quality. 86. ____ can be used to monitor various types of output variables.Extremely difficultCAPM, PMP

a) Variance maps b) Mean variance trackers c) Control charts d) Compliance registers Answer : c Control charts can be used to monitor various types of output variables. 87. What is/are EACs typically based on?DifficultPMP

a) actual costs incurred for the work completed b) an estimate to complete the remaining work c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c EACs are typically based on the actual cost incurred for work completed, plus an estimate to complete ETC (the remaining work). 88. ___ is/are used to review various scenarios to bring the schedule into alignment with the plan.DifficultPMP

a) Adjusting leads and lags b) Schedule compression c) What-if scenario analysis d) Change requests

Answer : c What-if scenario analysis is used to review various scenarios to bring the schedule into alignment with the plan. 89. Advanced practitioners may refer to the printed project schedule information as the schedule and the schedule data and calculations as the _______.Not so difficultPMP

a) schedule register b) schedule matrix c) schedule model d) schedule template Answer : c Advanced practitioners may refer to the printed project schedule information as the schedule and the schedule data and calculations as the schedule model. 90. The formally documented identification of a variance in the project component, with a recommendation to correct the variance or replace the component is called _____.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) performance corrective guidance b) corrective action c) defect repair d) preventive action Answer : b The variance described could also be called a defect, and the corrective action described would repair the defect. 91. __________ can produce higher levels of accuracy than analogous estimating, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model.Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) Wide band delphi technique b) Critical chain c) Bottom up estimating d) Parametric estimating Answer : d parametric estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy than analogous estimating, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model. 92. ______ is the specific version of the project schedule that is developed from the schedule network analysis.Very difficultPMP

a) Schedule data b) Schedule baseline c) Critical path d) Ishikawa schedule Answer : b A schedule baseline is a specific version of the project schedule developed from the schedule network analysis. 93. The ___ describes how project costs will be managed and controlled.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) cost management plan b) cost performance plan c) cost management baseline d) Cost Performance baseline Answer : a The cost management plan describes how project costs will be managed and controlled. 94. The ____ is used to compare with actual results to determine if a change, corrective action or preventive action is necessary.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) risk register b) schedule baseline c) project management plan d) None of the above Answer : b The schedule baseline is used to compare with actual results to determine if a change, corrective action or preventive action is necessary. 95. The WBS component used for the project cost accounting is called the ____.Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) Cost Manager (CM) b) Project Cost Account (PCA) c) Control Account (CA) d) None of the above Answer : c The WBS component used for the project cost accounting is called the Control Account (CA). 96. SPI is sometimes used with CPI to forecast _____.Very difficultPMP

a) schedule and cost variance b) EAC c) final project completion estimates d) what additional resources are required to get the project back on schedule Answer : c Schedule performance index (SPI) is sometimes used in conjunction with cost performance index (CPI) to forecast the final project completion estimates. 97. ___________ includes the processes and activities of the performing organization that determine quality policies, objectives and responsibilities so that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) Project quality management b) Project quality control c) Project quality assurance d) Project quality planning Answer : a Project quality management includes the processes and activities of the performing organization that determine quality policies, objectives and responsibilities so that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken. 98.In _______ the project management team monitors progress toward project deliverables, accomplishments that are a source of pride for team members and interpersonal issues.Not so difficultPMP

a) optimization and conversion b) project performance appraisals c) OBS checkpoints d) observation and conversation Answer : d In observation and conversation, the project management team monitors progress toward project deliverables, accomplishments that are a source of pride for team members and interpersonal issues. 99. ______ addresses the risks by their priority, inserting resources and activities into the budget, schedule and project management as needed.Not so difficultPMP

a) Plan Risk Responses b) Perform Quantitative Risk Assessment c) Perform Qualitative Risk Assessment d) None of the above

Answer : a Plan Risk Responses addresses the risks by their priority, inserting resources and activities into the budget, schedule and project management as needed. 100. Which of these items are used to create detailed product requirements?Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) Stakeholder register b) Focus groups c) High-level project requirements d) Detailed project requirements Answer : c The project charter is used to provide the high-level requirements and high-level product description so that detailed product requirements can be developed. 101. A contract is _____ a required input for the Develop Project Charter process.Not so easyCAPM, PMP

a) always b) sometimes c) never d) usually Answer : A contract is required if the contract is being done for an external customer. 102. ___ is the process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project assignments.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) Acquire Project Team b) Develop Human Resources Plan c) Manage Project Team d) Develop Project Team Answer : a Acquire Project Team is the process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project assignments. 103. ______ is the specific version of the project schedule that is developed from the schedule network analysis.DifficultPMP

a) Schedule data b) Schedule baseline c) Critical path d) Ishikawa schedule Answer : b A schedule baseline is a specific version of the project schedule developed from the schedule network analysis. 104. Which of the following is a common format for a performance report?EasyCAPM, PMP

a) bar charts and histograms b) S-curves c) tables d) All of the above Answer : d Bar charts, histograms, S-curves and tables are all common formats for performance reports. 105. In a quality audit, which of the following should be identified? Very difficultCAPM, PMP

a) good/best practices being implemented

b) all gaps and shortcomings c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c Identifying good/best practices being implemented and identifying gaps/shortcomings are just two of the objectives of a quality audit. See section 8.2.2.2 for more information on this. 106. A _____ is a specific version of the project schedule developed from the schedule network analysis.DifficultPMP

a) critical path b) milestone chart c) schedule baseline d) None of the above Answer : c A schedule baseline is a specific version of the project schedule developed from the schedule network analysis. 107. In the critical path method, activity total float may be _______.Not so easy CAPM, PMP

a) positive, negative or zero b) positive or negative c) positive or zero d) positive Answer : a In the critical path method, early start and finish dates and late start and finish dates may be affected by activity total float, which provides flexibility and may be positive, negative, or zero. 108. In probability distributions, _____ distributions can be used only to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree.Not so easyPMP

a) uniform b) indiscrete c) discrete d) None of the above Answer : c In probability distributions, discrete distributions can be used only to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree. 109. Which activities have a predecessor and a successor?Answer should be C. Not so easy.PMP

a) all activities b) This is not required, but should be done as necessitated by the needs of the project. c) all activities except the first and last d) all activities except the last Answer : a All activities except the first and the last should have a predecessor and a successor. 110. Within the Define Activities process, the product management information system is _________.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) an enterprise environmental factor b) an organizational process asset c) a tool/technique d) None of the above Answer : a PMIS is a project management information system, which is an enterprise environmental factor and an input to the Define Activities process.

111. ____ refers to keeping the errors out of the hands of the customer.Very difficultCAPM, PMP

a) Examination b) Prevention c) Inspection d) Evaluation Answer : c Inspection refers to keeping the errors out of the hands of the customer. 112. Project baselines may include ____________.CAPM, PMP

a) cost performance baseline extremely easy b) scope baseline c) schedule baseline d) All of the above Answer : d Each of these options may be included in the project baseline. 113. Monitoring is an aspect of the project that is performed _____.Not so easy.CAPM, PMP

a) at review intervals established during quality planning b) continuously throughout the project c) at project closeout d) as defined by the contract, charter or SOW Answer : b Monitoring must be performed continuously through the life of the project. 114. On-time performance, budget control, defect frequency and failure rate are all examples of _____.Not so difficultPMP

a) quality planning b) quality metrics c) quality control d) None of the above Answer : b On-time performance, budget control, defect frequency and failure rate are all examples of quality metrics. 115. The critical chain method focuses on managing remaining buffer durations against ______.DifficultPMP

a) the remaining durations of task chains b) available resources c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : a The critical chain method focuses on managing remaining buffer durations against the remaining durations of task chains. 116. The use of ____ can usually replace schedule logic.EasyPMP

a) leads b) lags c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : a

The use of leads and lags should not replace schedule logic. 117. Who is responsible for quality?EasyCAPM, PMP

a) the project manager b) the project management team c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c The project manager and the project management team are responsible for managing the tradeoffs involved to deliver the required levels of both quality and grade. 118. _____ are the documented authorized changes to expand or reduce the project scope.Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) Approved change requests b) Scope alteration statements c) Project change requests d) Change register items Answer : a Only approved change requests can expand or reduce project scope. 119. ______ is the process of improving the competencies, team interaction and the overall team environment to enhance project performance.Not so difficultCAPM, PMP

a) Develop Project Team b) Acquire Project Team c) Develop Human Resources Plan d) Manage Project Team Answer : a The Develop Project Team process is the process of improving the competencies, team interaction and the overall team environment to enhance project performance. 120. In positive risk, the ____ strategy will allow for a positive risk to take place if comes along, but does not account for actively pursuing it.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) exploit b) enhance c) share d) accept Answer : d In positive risk, the accept strategy will allow for a positive risk to take place if comes along, but does not account for actively pursuing it. 121. The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct ______________.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) consists of the rules of ethics you need to know in order to pass the PMP® exam b) is a standard which establishes guidelines for PM processes, tools and techniques c) is something you need to learn so you can report other PMPs who violate it d) is not something you are held to unless you submit a signed copy to PMI Answer : The Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct guides practitioners and describes expectations they can have of themselves and others in the field. 122. What is the formula for three-point estimating?Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) O+4M+P/3 b) O+4M+P/6

c) O+M+P/6 d) O+M+P/3 Answer : b Three-point estimating uses the formula O+M+P/3. Three-point PERT estimating uses the formula O+4M+P/6. 123. Understanding, evaluating, defining and managing expectations so that customer requirements are met is referred to as ______________.Extremely easyCAPM, PMP

a) customer satisfaction b) management responsibility c) continuous improvement d) All of the above Answer : a Customer satisfaction is concerned with understanding, evaluating, defining and managing expectations so that customer requirements are met. 124. Quality control activities identify______.Not so difficultCAPM, PMP

a) causes of poor process b) causes of poor product quality c) recommended action d) All of the above Answer : d Quality control activities identify causes of poor process, product quality and recommend and/or take action to eliminate them. 125. In human resource planning, what type of document is usually in outline form and provides information such as responsibilities, authority, competencies and qualifications?Very difficultCAPM, PMP

a) hierarchy-type chart b) matrix based chart c) text-oriented format d) None of the above Answer : c In human resource planning, a text-oriented format is usually in outline form and provides information such as responsibilities, authority, competencies and qualifications. 126.Failure costs are often categorized into which of the following?EasyCAPM, PMP

a)internal b)external c)Neither of these d)Both of these Answer: d Failure costs are often categorized into internal (found by the project) and external (found by the customer). 127.The ____ technique involves examining the project from each of the primary points to increase the breadth of identified risks by including internally generated risks.EasyPMP

a) SWOT analysis b)Checklist analysis c)Assumptions analysis d)information gathering Answer: a The SWOT analysis technique involves examining the project from each of the primary points to increase the breadth of identified risks by including internally generated risks.

128. How many techniques are available for resolving conflict?Not so difficultPMP

a) 4 b) 6 c) 7 d) 9 Answer: b There are six methods available for resolving conflict: withdrawing/avoiding, smoothing/accommodating, compromising, forcing, collaboration and confronting/problem solving. 129. Project budgets constitute the _______.Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) funds authorized to execute the project b) funds that the PM controls c) baseline for what will be spent d) All of the above Answer: a Project budgets constitute the funds authorized to execute the project. 130. CV is equal to _____.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) EV-PV b) EV/PV c) EV-AC d) EV/AC Answer: c CV=EV-AC 131. In _______ the project management team monitors progress toward project deliverables, accomplishments that are a source of pride for team members and interpersonal issues..difficultCAPM, PMP

a) optimization and conversion b) project performance appraisals c) OBS checkpoints d) observation and conversation Answer: d In observation and conversation, the project management team monitors progress toward project deliverables, accomplishments that are a source of pride for team members and interpersonal issues. 132. Estimate Activity Resources is the process of estimating what quantity of which of the following are required to perform given activities?Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) material b) people c) equipment d) All of the above Answer: d Estimate Activity Resources is the process of estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment or supplies required to perform each activity. 133. What does schedule compression do to the project schedule and scope?DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) reduces the schedule and adjusts the scope as necessary b) reduces the schedule while maintaining the scope c) adjusts the schedule as needed to meet the scope d) None of the above

Answer: b Schedule compression shortens the project schedule without changing the project scope, to meet schedule constraints, imposed dates or other schedule objectives. 134. The group decision making method in which the decision is made when more than 50% of the group agree to the same option is called ______.Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) Unanimity b) Majority c) Plurality d) Dictatorship Answer: b When more than 50% of the group agree to the same option, this group decision making technique is called majority. 135. ____ represent the effort needed to complete a work package.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) Backlog items b) Deliverables c) Activities d) User stories Answer: c Activities represent the effort needed to complete a work package. 136. A _____ is a graphic depiction of processes, with interfaces identified and used to facilitate a process.very difficultPMP

a) process metric b) process boundary c) process configuration d) target for improvement Answer: c A process configuration is a graphic depiction of processes, with interfaces identified and used to facilitate a process. 137. BAC is the _______.DifficultPMP

a) total planned value for the project b) balance of work remaining when the project is done c) amount of money budgeted for the project d) None of the above Answer: a BAC is the total planned value for the project. 138. Hard logic is another term for_______.DifficultPMP

a) a predecessor relationship on the critical path b) critical chain method c) Precedence Diagramming Method d) None of the above Answer: d Mandatory dependencies are sometimes also called hard logic. 139. Monitoring implementationof approved changes is part of_______.Not so easyCAPM, PMP

a) the Monitor and Control Project Work process b) configuration management c) implementation control

d) change management Answer: a The Monitor and Control Project Work process is specifically concerned with a number of specific project actions, including monitoring the implementation of approved changes. 140. When quickly defining cross-functional requirements and reconciling stakeholder differences,________ are still considered a primary technique.Not so easyPMP

a) focus groups b) facilitated workshops c) delphi meetings d) JAD sessions Answer: b Facilitated workshops are considered to the primary technique when quickly defining cross-functional requirements and reconciling stakeholder differences. 141. Which of the following organizational process assets can not influence the Estimate Costs process?difficultPMP

a) cost estimating templates b) lessons learned c) market conditions d) All of the above Answer: c Market conditions are not an organizational process asset. 142. The ______ provides the high-level project description and product characteristics.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) requirements document b) project charter c) project management plan d) project scope statement Answer: b The project charter provides the high-level project description and product characteristics. 143. One of the steps of _____ is to classify each stakeholder based on level of power, interest and influence.Not so difficult.PMP

a) stakeholder analysis b) stakeholder communication c) stakeholder management d) stakeholder identification Answer: b It is important to prioritize the key stakeholders to ensure the efficient use of their effort to communicate and manage their expectations. 144. Supporting detail for activity costs estimates may include:difficultCAPM, PMP

a) documentation of the basis of estimate b) documentation of all assumptions made c) documentation of any known constraints d) All of the above Answer: d Supporting detail for activity costs estimates may include documentation of the basis of the estimate, documentation of all assumptions made; documentation of any known constraints

145. The ________ is created as a result of market demand, legal requirements and ecological impacts.Very difficultPMP

a) cost-benefit analysis b) business case c) business need d) project charter Answer: a Cost-benefit and business need are often part of the business case. project charter is created as part of the project initiation phase. 146. Which of the following are examples of schedule baseline outputs in the Develop Schedule: Outputs processnot so easyCAPM, PMP

a) milestone charts b) bar charts c) project schedule network diagrams d) none of the above Answer: d None of the above, These are each examples of project schedule Outputs in the Develop Project Schedule : Outputs process 147. If it becomes obvious that the BAC is no longer viable, the PM develops a forecasted estimate at completion, which, when approved, supersedes the _____ as the cost performance goal.EasyPMP

a) TCPI b) BAC c) BCWP d) ETC Answer: b If it becomes obvious that the BAC is no longer viable, the PM develops a forecasted estimate at completion, which, when approved, supersedes the BAC as the cost performance goal. 148. Part of managing and leading the project team is ______.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) influencing the project team b) exhibiting professional and ethical behavior c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer: c Part of managing and leading the project team involves influencing the project team and demonstrating ethical and professional behavior. 149. Who is primarily responsible for developing an effective project team?Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) the entire project team b) the resource manager c) the project manager d) the project sponsor Answer: c Teamwork is a critical factor for project success, and developing effective project teams is one of the primary responsibilities of the project manager. 150. If resource planning is done early on, the project schedule remains preliminary ___________.difficultCAPM, PMP

a) until resource assignments have been confirmed

b) until start and finish dates are established c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer: c If resource planning is done at an early stage, then the project schedule would remain preliminary until resource assignments have been confirmed and schedule start and finish dates are established. 151. Earned value (EV) is the value of _______ expressed in terms of the approved budget assigned to that work for an activity or WBS component.Not so easyCAPM, PMP

a) money spent b) resources working on the project c) estimated value of all work at the completion of the project d) work performed Answer: d work performed; Earned value (EV) is the value of work performed expressed in terms of the approved budget assigned to that work for an activity or WBS component. 152. ___________________ assesses the priority of identified risks using their relative probability or likelihood of occurrence and the corresponding impact on project objectives if the risks occur.Not so difficultCAPM, PMP

a) Qualitative risk analysis b) Quantitative risk management c) Risk identification d) Risk monitoring and control Answer: a Qualitative risk analysis assesses the priority of identified risks using their relative probability or likelihood of occurrence and the corresponding impact on project objectives if the risks occur. 153. When project team members are selected in advance, they are considered ______.Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) allocated b) unassigned c) pre-assigned d) None of the above Answer: c When project team members are selected in advance, they are considered pre-assigned 154. How should project cost be measured?Not so easyPMP

a) Different stakeholders will measure it different ways at different times. b) All stakeholders can measure in their own way, but they should all do it at the same time. c) All stakeholders must maintain a consistent method of measuring and do so at the exact same time for the results to be valid. d) None of the above Answer : a Different stakeholders will measure project cost at different ways at different times 155. In the Estimate Activity Resources process, what is a resource calendar?Very difficultCAPM, PMP

a) an input b) an output c) A tool and technique d) Neither Answer : a

Resource calendars are an input to the Estimate Activity Resources process. 156. The formula for EAC forecast for ETC work performed at the budgeted rate is ______.Very difficultCAPM, PMP

a) EAC=AC-BAC+EV b) EAC=AC-BAC-EV c) EAC=AC+BAC+EV d) EAC=AC+BAC-EV Answer : d The formula for EAC forecast for ETC work performed at the budgeted rate is EAC=AC+BAC-EV. 157. The type and quantity of resources and the amount of time that those resources are applied to complete the work of the project are major factors in determining the _____.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) project schedule b) project resourcing c) project cost d) project risk Answer : c The type and quantity of resources and the amount of time which those resources are applied to complete the work of the project are major factors in determining the project cost. 158. The ______ contains the schedule management plan and the schedule baseline. Very easy CAPM, PMP

a) program management plan b) project management plan c) SOW d) None of the above Answer : a The project management plan contains the schedule management plan and the schedule baseline. 159. The WBS dictionary is a(n) _______ of the Create WBS process. Not so easyCAPM

a) input b) tool/technique c) output d) input as well as a tool/technique Answer : b The WBS Dictionary is a tool/technique of the Create WBS process. 160. In parametric estimating how are activity durations quantitatively determined?easyCAPM, PMP

a) by multiplying quantity of work to be performed by labor hours per unit of work b) by dividing the total quantity of work by available resource hours c) by multiplying quantity of work remaining by labor hours per unit of work d) None of the above. Answer : c In parametric estimating, activity durations are quantitatively determined by multiplying quantity of work to be performed by labor hours per unit of work. 161. In a resource calendar the information on when project resources will be available and for how long is defined at which level?EasyPMP

a) activity level b) project level c) Both of these d) Neither of these

Answer : c In a resource calendar the information on when project resources will be available and for how long is defined at the activity or project level. 162. Enterprise environmental factors that can influence the Direct and Manage Project Execution process include ________.Extremely difficultCAPM, PMP

a) defect management database b) process measurement database c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c Both are organizational process assets. 163. Systems engineering, value engineering and value analysis are techniques used when applying what type of analysis?Very difficultCAPM, PMP

a) Product b) Service c) Result d) None of the above Answer : a Product analysis includes techniques such as product breakdown, systems analysis, requirements analysis, systems engineering, value engineering and value analysis. 164. The project management plan defines ____________very easyCAPM, PMP

a) how the project will be executed b) how the project will be closed c) how the project will be monitored and controlled d) All of the above Answer : d The project management plan defines all of these. 165. Which of the following are common dimensions of communicationactivity?Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) internal and external b) formal and informal c) vertical and horizontal d) All of the above Answer : d All of the options presented are types of communication activity. There are a number of additional types as well. 166. When using the EAC forecast for ETC work performed at the present CPI, the work is assumed to be performed at the same cumulative CPI as that incurred by the _____.Not so easyPMP

a) BCWS/CPI b) BCWS/SPI c) project to date d) cumulative resource total - 1/2 Answer : c When using the EAC forecast for ETC work performed a the present CPI, the work is assumed to be performed a the same cumulative CPI as that incurred by the project to date. 167. Project documents which may be updated include ______________.Very difficultCAPM, PMP

a) quality management plan b) risk register c) project baselines d) cost management plan Answer : a The other options are defined as management plans, which are more formal than documents and are required elements of the project management plan. 168. ____ is the conflict resolution technique that involves pushing one's viewpoint at the expense of others and offers only win-lose solutions.Very easyCAPM

a) Compromising b) Smoothing/Accommodating c) Forcing d) Confronting/Problem Solving Answer : c Forcing is the conflict resolution technique that involves pushing one's viewpoint at the expense of others and offers only win-lose solutions. 169. ___ is the process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities.Not so easyCAPM

a) Develop Schedule b) Control Schedule c) Sequence Activities d) Define Activities Answer : c Sequence Activities is the process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities. 170. When ___ is/are used with control limits, they allow for the analysis of process efficiency.DifficultPMP

a) process improvements b) targets for improvement c) process boundaries d) process configuration Answer : a Process improvements, when used with control limits, allow the analysis of process efficiency. 171. What is the most common EAC forecasting approach?Not so easyPMP

a) manual bottom-up summation by the project manager and the project team b) manual top-down summation by the project manager and project team c) manual bottom-up summation by the project manager and project sponsor d) manual top-down summation performed by the project manager and product owner Answer : a The most common EAC forecasting approach is a manual, bottom-up summation by the project manager and the project team. 172. Team building is something that happens ____. D should be the answer. EasyCAPM

a) at the start of the project b) at specific points throughout the project c) at the end of the project d) as an ongoing initiative throughout the life of the project Answer : c is wrong answer. D should be the answer.

While team building is essential during the front end of a project, it is a never-ending process. 173. Quality planning should be performed ____ the other project planning processes.EasyPMP,CAPM

a) before b) in parallel with c) after d) independently from Answer : b Quality planning should be performed in parallel with the other project planning processes. 174. The duration of each stage of team building is _____.Very easyPMP

a) dependent on team dynamics, size and leadership b) dependent on timeline and how much time the team can afford on the different processes c) established as part of the project baseline and adhered to by the team d) None of the above Answer : a The duration of each stage of team building is dependent on team dynamics, size and leadership. 175. In Identify Risks, ____ is reviewed to locate where uncertainty in the project assumptions may result in the creation of risk.DifficultPMP

a) the scope baseline b) the project schedule c) the communication plan d) None of the above Answer : a In Identify Risks, the scope baseline is reviewed to locate where uncertainty in the project assumptions may result in the creation of risk. 176. We create measureable project objectives and begin to define related success criteria during the ___________ process.Not so easyPMP

a) Project Objective Definition b) Develop Project Charter c) Project Initiation d) Develop Project Scope Statement Answer : b These are outputs of the Develop Project Charter process. 177. In risk planning meetings ____ for conducting risk management activities are defined.EasyPMP

a) detailed execution plans b) high level plans c) activity assignments d) None of the above Answer : b In risk planning meetings high level plans for conducting risk management activities are defined. 178. ____ measure, compare and analyze schedule performance such as actual start and finish dates, percent complete and remaining duration for work in progress.Very easyPMP

a) Performance reviews b) Variance analyses c) Resource leveling d) None of the above

Answer : a Performance reviews measure, compare and analyze schedule performance such as actual start and finish dates, percent complete and remaining duration for work in progress. 179. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is performed on risks that have been prioritized by the ______ process.Very easyCAPM

a) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis b) Perform Risk Prioritization Process c) Identify Risks d) None of the above Answer : a Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is performed on risks that have been prioritized by the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process. 180. ___ is a way to reach a consensus of experts in risk identification.Not so easyPMP

a) Interviewing b) Delphi technique c) Brainstorming d) None of the above Answer : b Delphi technique is a way to reach a consensus of experts in risk identification. 181. Which of the following has the ability to necessitate an update to the project resource requirements?EasyPMP

a) resource leveling analysis b) schedule baselining c) hammock activities d) None of the above Answer : a If the resource leveling analysis changes the project resource requirements than they project resource requirements are updated. 182. ____ is the process of performing the work defined in the project management plan to achieve the project's objectives.B should be the answer. Not so easyCAPM

a) Project Execution and Control b) Direct and Manage Project Execution c) Monitor and Control Project Execution d) Project Plan Execution Answer : This is the only viable response. The other answers are not part of the processes defined in the PMBOK® Guide. 183. The stakeholder register is used to ______. D should be the answer. EasyCAPM

a) define roles and responsibilities b) provide contact information c) ensure that the stakeholders know everyone involved at the stakeholder level d) identify stakeholders that can provide information on detailed project and product requirements Answer : This is the most correct of the choices provided. 184. When Task B is scheduled to start up to 5 days after Task A begins, this could be shown as a _____ relationship.DifficultCAPM

a) Finish to Start b) Start to Start c) Start to Finish d) None of the above Answer : b This could be shown as a Start to Start relationship. 185. In a PERT cost estimate, what do the three points clarify?Very difficultPMP

a) the level of support being offered by senior management b) the depth to which the team has evaluated the work c) the range of uncertainty of the cost estimates d) All of the above Answer : c In a PERT cost estimate, the three points clarify the range of uncertainty of the cost estimates. 186. A _______ predecessor relationship is when the completion of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the predecessor activity.DifficultCAPM

a) Start to Finish b) Start to Start c) Finish to Finish d) Finish to Start Answer : c A Finish to Finish predecessor relationship is when the completion of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the predecessor activity. 187. The cost management plan _______.Not so easyPMP

a) may be formal b) may be informal c) may be broadly framed d) All of the above Answer : d The cost management plan may be formal or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed, based upon the needs of the project. 188. Project quality management focuses on ______.DifficultPMP

a) management of the project b) product of the project c) Neither of these d) Both of these Answer : d Project quality management addresses the management of the project and the product of the project. 189. Analogous estimating is most reliable when ________.Easy PMP

a) the previous projects are similar in fact and not just appearance b) the project team members preparing the estimate have the needed expertise c) Both of these d) The parametric estimates on which it is based have been vetted by skilled experts. Answer : c Analogous estimating is most reliable when the previous projects are similar in fact and not just appearance and the project team members preparing the estimate have the needed expertise.

190. Resource leveling can be used when ______.Not so difficultPMP

a) shared or critical required resources are only available at certain times b) non-critical resources are freely available and can be applied as needed to maintain the schedule c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : a Resource leveling can be used when shared or critical required resources are available only at certain times, are only available in limited quantities or to keep resource usage at a constant level. 191. Hammock activities belong to which of the following types of project schedule?Very difficultPMP

a) milestone charts b) bar charts c) project schedule network diagrams d) none of the above Answer : b Hammock activities are used in bar charts, which are an output of the project schedule output that is part of Develop Schedule: Outputs. 192. Analysis of the ______ determines the information needs of the project stakeholders.Not so easyPMP

a) communication requirements b) stakeholder identification c) RACI chart d) None of the above Answer : a Analysis of the communication requirements determines the information needs of the project stakeholders. 193. The term "schedule model" refers to _____.DifficultPMP

a) schedule data and calculations b) the printed schedule information c) the printed schedule and the schedule data and calculations combined d) None of the above Answer : c Advanced practitioners may refer to the printed project schedule information as the schedule and the schedule data and calculations as the schedule model. 194. Which of the following are considered to be enterprise environmental factors in the Estimate Costs process?Extremely difficultCAPM

a) published commercial information b) market conditions c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c Both published commercial information and market conditions are considered enterprise environmental factors. 195. ________ is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.Very easyCAPM

a) Identify Risks b) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis c) Monitor and Control Risks d) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Answer : b Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact. 196. The staffing management plan may include information on which of the following?Very easyCAPM

a) staff acquisition b) compliance c) training needs d) All of the above Answer : d The staffing management plan may include information on a number of items, staff acquisition, compliance and training needs are just a few. 197. When referring to project funding requirements, total funds required are those in the ______.EasyPMP

a) cost baseline only b) cost baseline, plus any management reserves c) management reserves only d) None of the above Answer : b When referring to project funding requirements, total funds required are those in the cost baseline, plus any management reserves. 198. Which of the following are enterprise environmental factors in the Estimate Activity Durations process?Very difficultCAPM

a) Productivity metrics b) Available skilled resources c) Resource calendars d) All of the above Answer : a Only the first option is an enterprise environmental factor in the Estimate Activity Durations process. 199. In the Estimate Activity Durations process, activity duration estimate outputs do not include any ____.Very difficultPMP

a) leads b) lags c) slack d) None of the above Answer : b In the Estimate Activity Durations process, activity duration estimate outputs do not include any lags. 200. The ___ at the end of the project will be the difference between the budget at completion and the actual amount spent.Not so easyPMP

a) budgeted cost of work performed b) earned value c) planned variance d) cost variance Answer : d The cost variance at the end of the project will be the difference between the budget at completion and the actual amount spent. 201. Completion of the project scope is measured against _____.EasyCAPM

a) the project management plan b) product requirements c) configuration management requirements d) the WBS definition Answer : a Completion of the project scope is measured against the project management plan. 202. Cost performance measurements are used to assess the magnitude of variation to the _________.EasyPMP

a) original schedule baseline b) original cost baseline c) configuration management requirements d) None of the above Answer : b Cost performance measurements are used to assess the magnitude of variation to the original cost baseline. 203. What do feeding buffers protect?extremely difficultPMP

a) They protect the critical chain from slippage along the feeding chain. b) They protect the critical chain from uncertainty. c) They protect the target finish date from slippage along the critical chain. d) All of the above Answer : a Feeding buffers protect the critical chain from slippage along the feeding chain. 204. ____ follow(s) the steps outlined in the process improvement plan to identify needed improvements.Very difficultPMP

a) Process analysis b) Quality audits c) Process audits d) Quality analysis Answer : a Process analysis follows the steps outlined in the process improvement plan to identify needed improvements. 205. ____ is/are a statistical analysis concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen.DifficultPMP

a) Sensitivity analysis b) EMV c) probability distributions d) None of the above Answer : b EMV is a statistical analysis concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen. 206. In a three-point PERT estimate we use the formula:easyCAPM

a) O+4M+P/6 b) O+M+P/3 c) O+2M+P/4 d) None of the above Answer : a In a three-point PERT estimate we use the formula:O+4M+P/6

207. Which of the following is not an objective of developing a project team?DifficultPMP

a) improve knowledge and skills of team members in order to increase their ability to complete project deliverables b) maintain control over the resources involved so that you can minimize the chances of anyone going off point and you can make sure they hit their deliverables c) improve feelings of trust and agreement to raise morale d) improve individual and team culture by creating a dynamic and cohesive team culture Answer : The other options are the stated objectives of developing a project team, and are more centered around the team becoming better and through that, delivering better. This option is about control and micromanagement - usually not the best way to lead a team 208. In bottom up estimating, the cost of ____ is estimated with the greatest level of specific detail.EasyPMP

a) the entire effort that will be put forth by the entire project team as a whole b) individual work packages or activities c) large, high level tasks d) None of the above Answer : b In bottom up estimating, the cost of individual work packages or activities is estimated with the greatest level of specific detail. 209. Which of the following can result in change requests to the schedule baseline and/or to other components of the project management plan?Not so difficultPMP

a) schedule variance analysis b) results of performance measures c) modifications to the project schedule d) All of the above Answer : d Schedule variance analysis, along with review of progress reports, results of performance measures and modifications to the project schedule can result in change requests to the schedule baseline and/or other components of the project management plan. 210. When does the project team decide what items are discretionary dependencies?Very difficultPMP

a) during charter development b) during scope definition c) during activity sequencing d) during WBS creation Answer : c The project team determines which dependencies are discretionary dependencies during the process of sequencing the activities. 211. Which of these does the project charter provide?Very easyCAPM

a) Identification of stakeholders b) High-level product description c) Detailed project requirements d) Detailed product requirements Answer : b The project charter is used to provide the high-level requirements and high-level product description so that detailed product requirements can be developed. 212. _____ establishes the procedures to investigate and document the reasons for actions taken if a project is terminated before completion.easyPMP

a) Close Project

b) Quality Control c) Scope Management d) Project Termination Answer : a The Close Project process establishes the procedures to investigate and document the reasons for actions taken if a project is terminated before completion 213. Excessive decomposition can lead to ____.DifficultPMP

a) non-productive management effort b) inefficient use of resources c) decreased efficiency in performing the work d) All of the above Answer : a Excessive decomposition can lead to non-productive management effort, inefficient use of resources, and decreased efficiency in performing the work. 214. In the Close Project or Phase process, expert judgment is considered a(n) __________.EasyCAPM

a) input b) output c) input as well as an output d) None of the above Answer : d Expert judgment is a tool or technique in the Close Project or Phase process. 215. The output of ___ identifies the types and quantities of resources required for each activity in a work package.difficultCAPM

a) Estimate Activity Resources b) Define WBS c) Alternatives Analysis d) Estimate Activity Durations Answer : d The output of Estimate Activity Durations identifies the types and quantities of resources required for each activity in a work package. 216. PMB stands for ______.Extremely easyCAPM

a) performance metric baseline b) performance management baseline c) performance measurement baseline d) None of the above Answer : c PMB stands for performance measurement baseline. 217. In many organizations, predicting and analyzing the prospective financial performance of the project's product is done where?EasyPMP

a) within the project b) outside the project c) either within the project or outside the project d) both internally and by a third party auditor Answer : b

In many organizations, predicting and analyzing the prospective financial performance of the project's product is done outside the project. 218. The duration of each stage of team building is _____.EasyPMP

a) dependent on team dynamics, size and leadership b) dependent on timeline and how much time the team can afford on the different processes c) established as part of the project baseline and adhered to by the team d) None of the above Answer : a The duration of each stage of team building is dependent on team dynamics, size and leadership. 219. Who/What determines how detailed the cost management plan needs to be?Not so easyPMP

a) the SOW b) the project manager c) the full project team d) the needs of the project Answer : d The cost management plan may be formal or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed, based upon the needs of the project. 220. Which of the following should be considered when developing cost estimates?Very difficultCAPM

a) intellectual property rights b) health costs c) safety costs d) All of the above Answer : d Additional information that may be found in the scope baseline that includes requirements with contractual and legal implications are health, safety, security, performance, environmental, insurance, intellectual property rights, licenses and permits. 221. ____ refers to the features and functions that characterize a product, service or result.EasyCAPM

a) Product Scope b) Project Scope c) Feature Definition d) Acceptance Criteria Answer : a Product Scope refers to the features and functions accomplished to deliver a product, service or result with the specified features and functions. 222. Which of the following defines items that are configurable and items that require finite control but does not address the process for controlling changes to such items?DifficultPMP

a) scope management plan b) configuration management plan c) requirements management plan d) None of the above Answer : d The configuration management plan defines those items that are configurable and those items that require formal change control and the process for controlling changes to such items. 223. ____ is/are used to optimize the distribution of work among resources.Very easyPMP

a) Resource leveling b) Critical float method c) Delphi technique d) None of the above Answer : a Resource leveling is used to optimize the distribution of work among resources. 224. What is the formula for three-point estimating?EasyCAPM

a) O+4M+P/3 b) O+4M+P/6 c) O+M+P/6 d) O+M+P/3 Answer : d Three-point estimating uses the formula O+M+P/3. Three-point PERT estimating uses the formula O+4M+P/6. 225. The planned work contained within the lowest level WBS components are ______.Very easyCAPM

a) tasks b) requirements c) user stories d) work packages Answer : d The planned work contained within the lowest level WBS components are called work packages. 226. A project _______________.very easyCAPM

a) is a temporary effort b) requirements c) has a beginning and an end d) All of the above Answer : d The PMBOK® Guide defines a project as "a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service or result." Because it is temporary, it has a definitive beginning and an end. 227. The activity list, WBS and WBS dictionary ______.Very difficultPMP

a) can be developed either sequentially or concurrently b) must be developed sequentially c) must be developed concurrently d) maybe developed in parallel if they are treated as discrete efforts Answer : a The activity list, WBS and WBS dictionary can be developed either sequentially or concurrently. 228. Whose responsibility is it to predict what will be encountered to perform the ETC, based on its experience to date?DifficultPMP

a) the PM b) the full project team c) the person/people doing the actual work d) None of the above Answer : b

It is incumbent on the project team to predict what it may encounter to perform the ETC, based on its experience to date. 229. The outputs of the risk planning meeting are summarized in the _______.EasyCAPM

a) risk management plan b) quality plan c) schedule d) requirements document Answer : a The outputs of the risk planning meeting are summarized in the risk management plan. 230. In performance reviews, graphical analysis techniques are valuable for understanding performance to date and for comparison to future performance goals in the form of________ and completion dates.EasyPMP

a) BAC versus EAC b) BAC versus ETC c) BAC versus SV d) BAC versus SPI Answer : a In performance reviews, graphical analysis techniques are valuable for understanding performance to date and for comparison to future performance goals in the form of BAC versus EAC and completion dates. 231. Enterprise environmental factors that can influence the Develop Project Charter process include ____________.Very difficultPMP

a) governmental standards b) organization infrastructure c) marketplace conditions d) All of the above Answer : d These three factors, along with others, can influence the Develop Project Charter process. 232. Change control and configuration management are examples of _____ in the Project Management Plan process. EasyPMP

a) organizational process assets b) expert judgment c) tools and techniques d) enterprise environmental factors Answer : a These are defined as examples of organizational process assets in the Develop Project Management Plan process. 233. Trend analysis is used to examine _____ to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating.Very easyPMP

a) project performance over time b) cost performance over time c) schedule performance over time d) Both cost and schedule performance over time Answer : a Trend analysis is used to examine project performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating. 234. A scheduling network analysis technique applied to a schedule that has already been analyzed by the critical path method is called _________.DifficultPMP

a) resource leveling b) critical chain method c) what-if scenario analysis d) schedule compression Answer : a Resource leveling is a scheduling network analysis technique applied to a schedule that has already been analyzed by the critical path method. 235. How is the project management plan developed?DifficultCAPM

a) It is established during initiation by the PM and does not change throughout the life of the project. b) It is developed through a series of integrated processes until execution is complete. c) It is developed through a series of integrated processes that take place through the monitoring and controlling processes. d) It is developed through a series of integrated processes until project closure. Answer : d The plan must continue to evolve through the entire life of the project. 236. ____ is the conflict resolution technique that involves searching for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties.Very easyCAPM

a) Collaborating b) Confronting/Problem Solving c) Forcing d) Compromising Answer : d Compromising is the conflict resolution technique that involves searching for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties. 237. Continuous ____, used extensively in modeling and simulation, represent(s) the uncertainty in values such as durations of schedule activities and costs of project components.very difficultPMP

a) sensitivity analysis b) probability distributions c) EMV analysis d) None of the above Answer : b Continuous probability distributions, which are used extensively in modeling and simulation represent the uncertainty in values such as durations of schedule activities and costs of project components. 238. A work package may be associated with ____.EasyPMP

a) multiple control accounts b) only one control account c) only one resource requirement d) multiple subsystems Answer : b Each work package must be associated with only one control account. 239. When using the EAC forecast for ETC work performed at the present CPI, the work is assumed to be performed at the same cumulative CPI as that incurred by the _____.DifficultPMP

a) BCWS/CPI b) BCWS/SPI c) project to date d) cumulative resource total - 1/2

Answer : c When using the EAC forecast for ETC work performed a the present CPI, the work is assumed to be performed a the same cumulative CPI as that incurred by the project to date. 240. ___ is a measure of cost performance on the project.Extremely easyPMP

a) Planned cost b) Cost variance c) Schedule variance d) Actual cost Answer : b Cost variance is a measure of cost performance on the project. 241. Communication requirements define ____________.DifficultPMP

a) allowed communication media and record retention requirements b) security requirements and record retention requirements c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c Communication requirements define allowed communication media, record retention requirements and security requirements. 242. _____ techniques draw on experience and historical data to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives.DifficultPMP

a) Delphi b) Brainstorming c) Interviewing d) Probability distribution Answer : c Interviewing techniques draw on experience and historical data to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives. 243. Who or what determines which dependencies are mandatory?EasyCAPM

a) product owner b) project team c) project manager d) client organization Answer : b The project team determines which dependencies are mandatory during the process of sequencing the activities. 244. The document that defines items that are configurable and items that require finite control and the process for controlling changes to such items is the _____________.Very easyCAPM

a) scope management plan b) configuration management plan c) requirements management plan d) None of the above Answer : b The configuration management plan defines those items that are configurable and those items that require formal change control and the process for controlling changes to such items. 245. ____ describe the purpose of processes, their start and end, their inputs and outputs, the data required, the owner and the stakeholders.Very easyPMP

a) Control limits b) Process boundaries c) Configuration metrics d) Control points Answer : b Process boundaries describe the purpose of processes, their start and end, their inputs and outputs, the data required, the owner and the stakeholders. 246. Verify Scope includes ______.Very easyCAPM

a) obtaining agreement from the customer that the deliverables have been completed satisfactorily b) obtaining formal acceptance from the sponsor c) reviewing deliverables with the customer d) All of the above Answer : d Verify Scope includes reviewing deliverables with the customer or sponsor to ensure that they are completed satisfactorily and obtaining formal acceptance of deliverables by the customer or sponsor. 247. The ______ is compared to actual results to determine if a change, corrective action or preventive action is necessary.EasyPMP

a) configuration management baseline b) variance threshold c) scope baseline d) None of the above Answer : c The scope baseline is compared to actual results to determine if a change, corrective action or preventive action is necessary. 248. In the Direct and Manage Project Execution process, a change request is a(n)_____.Very difficultCAPM

a) input b) tool/technique c) output d) input as well as an output Answer : c An approved change request can be an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution, but a change request that has not been approved would be an output of the Direct and Manage Project Execution process. 249. The formula for CPI is--------------. easyCAPM

a) CPI=EV/AC b) CPI=AC/EV c) CPI=SV/CV d) CPI=CV-SV Answer : a The formula for CPI is CPI = EV/AC 250. In a resource calendar, what information is defined?EasyPMP

a) when identified project resources will be available during the project b) how long identified project resources will be available during the project c) Neither of these d) Both of these Answer : d

Resource calendars specify when and how long identified project resources will be available during a project. 251. Common communication skills for general management and project management include which of the following? Not so difficultPMP

a) persuading a person or organization to perform an action b) resolving conflict to prevent disruptive impacts c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c There are a number of common communication skills that general managers and PMs need in order to be successful. The ones listed here are just two of them. 252. Decomposition may not be possible for a deliverable or subproject that will be _____.DifficultPMP

a) rushed into execution b) accomplished far in the future c) micromanaged by the client owner d) None of the above Answer : b Decomposition may not be possible for a deliverable or subproject that will be accomplished far in the future. 253. The process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components is ______.EasyCAPM

a) Task Definition b) Create WBS c) Deliverable Definition d) Create Work Packages Answer : b The process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components is called Create WBS. 254. The activity list includes a ____ and a scope of work description for each activity.EasyCAPM

a) work package b) activity identifier c) product backlog item d) None of the above Answer : b The activity list includes an activity identifier and a scope of work description for each activity. 255. Which of the following are indicators of priority in risk urgency assessment?Very easyPMP

a) time to effect a response b) symptoms and warning signs c) risk rating d) All of the above Answer : d Indicators of priority can include time to effect a response, symptoms and warning signs and risk rating. 256. Conflict resolution should focus on __________.EasyCAPM

a) issues, not personalities b) the present, not the past c) Both of these d) Neither of these

Answer : c Conflict resolution should focus on the present, not the past, and concern itself with issues, not personalities. 257. ___ provide a structure that ensures a comprehensive process of systematically identifying risks to a consistent level of detail and contributes to the effectiveness and quality of the Identify Risks process.DifficultPMP

a) Risk categories b) Risk schedules c) Risk plans d) None of the above Answer : a Risk categories provide a structure that ensures a comprehensive process of systematically identifying risks to a consistent level of detail and contributes to the effectiveness and quality of the Identify Risks process. 258. Project work packages are_____.EasyCAPM

a) typically decomposed into smaller components called activities b) the lowest level of defined work in the WBS; they do not need to be decomposed further c) tasks with duration of zero d) None of these Answer : a Project work packages are typically decomposed into smaller components called activities. 259. Precise measurements are _______.DifficultPMP

a) always accurate b) not necessarily accurate c) an indicator of grade d) an indicator of how close a deliverable is to the defined requirements Answer : b Precise measurements are not necessarily accurate. 260. A ____ directs a delay in the successor activity.EasyCAPM

a) lead b) lag c) temporal dependency d) float Answer : b A lag directs a delay in the successor activity. 261. When a schedule network analysis is performed using the schedule to compute different scenarios and their impact to the project, this is called _____.EasyPMP

a) critical chain method b) schedule compression c) delphi technique d) what-if scenario analysis Answer : d What-if scenario analysis is a schedule network analysis performed using the schedule to compute the different scenarios and their impact to the project. 262. ___ is when the initiation of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the predecessor activity.Not so easyPMP

a) Start to Finish

b) Start to Start c) Finish to Finish d) Finish to Start Answer : d A Finish to Start predecessor relationship is when the initiation of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the predecessor activity. 263. Labor, material, equipment and supplies are examples of_____________.Not so easyCAPM

a) resource categories b) organizational process assets c) tools and techniques d) All of the above Answer : a Examples of resource categories include labor, material, equipment and supplies. 264. Project management processes _______.EasyCAPM

a) are discrete activities with Finish-to-Start relationships b) overlap and interact in practice c) are fully defined in the PMBOK® Guide. d) overlap but rarely have defined interfaces Answer : b Project management processes are discrete and have defined interfaces. In practice, they overlap and interact in ways the PMBOK® Guide is not able to fully define. 265. The WBS represents ____.Very easyCAPM

a) all product and project work, except the project management work b) all product and project work, including the project management work c) only the work required to produce the deliverable, service or result d) only the work required to manage the project Answer : b The WBS represents all product and project work, including the project management work. 266. ____, which show activity date information, usually show both the network logic and the project's critical path schedule activities.EasyPMP

a) Bar charts b) Project schedule network diagrams c) Milestone charts d) Gantt charts Answer : b Project schedule network diagrams, which activity date information, usually show both the network logic and the project's critical path schedule activities. 267. ______ is the process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and addressing issues as they occur.Very easyCAPM

a) Distribute Information b) Plan Communications c) Manage Stakeholder Expectations d) Identify Stakeholders Answer : c Manage Stakeholder Expectations is the process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and addressing issues as they occur.

268. ____ identifies the deliverables, the work packages and the control accounts used to measure project performance.Not so easyPMP

a) COQ b) The WBS c) AON d) NPV Answer : b The WBS identifies the deliverables, the work packages and the control accounts used to measure project performance. 269. ____ is the process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities.Very easyPMP

a) Control Costs b) Estimate Costs c) Determine Budget d) Obtain Budget Approval Answer : b Estimate Costs is the process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities. 270. The WBS points at which measurement of control accounts will be performed can be defined in the _____.Very difficultPMP

a) Control Account Matrix (CAM) b) reporting formats c) rules of performance management d) level of accuracy Answer : c The WBS points at which measurement of control accounts will be performed can be defined in the rules of performance management. 271. Change requests are processed for review and disposition through the ______. Very easyCAPM

a) Perform Integrated Change Control process b) Change Actualization process (CAP) c) Perform Monitoring and Controlling process d) configuration management plan Answer : a Change requests are processed for review and disposition through the Perform Integrated Change Control process. 272. ____ involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of comparable projects to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance.Very easyPMP

a) Benchmarking b) Statistical sampling c) Design of experiments d) None of the above Answer : a Benchmarking involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of comparable projects to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance. 273. Earned value is often used to describe the ______.Extremely easy.CAPM

a) schedule variance b) cost variance c) percentage completion of a project d) estimated cost at project completion Answer : c Earned value is often used to describe the percentage completion of a project. 274. On a project where a Task A can be started 3 weeks before a Task B, Task A is said to have a _______?DifficultPMP

a) 3-week lead b) 3-week lag c) critical chain dependency d) None of the above Answer : a In this example, Task A has a Finish to Start relationship with a 3-week lead. 275. Which type of contract offers some flexibility by allowing for deviation from performance with financial incentives tied to metrics?EasyPMP

a) Time and Materials b) Fixed Price Incentive Fee c) Firm Fixed Price d) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Answer : b Fixed Price Incentive Fee projects allow for some deviation but also reward for achieving the metrics. 276. Decomposing tasks should continue until_______.EasyPMP

a) the point at which cost can be estimated and managed b) the point at which activity durations can be estimated and managed c) Neither of these d) Both of these Answer : d Decomposing tasks should continue until cost and activity durations for the work can be reliably estimated and managed. 277. SV and CV variances and indices are useful for determining project status and providing a basis for estimating _______.Not so difficultPMP

a) project cost b) schedule outcome c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c SV and CV variances and indices are useful for determining project status and providing a basis for estimating project cost and schedule outcome. 278. ___ is the process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline.DifficultCAPM

a) Estimate Costs b) Determine Budget c) Obtain Budget Approval d) Control Costs

Answer : b Determine Budget is the process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline. 279. The ____ calendars include the availability, capabilities and skills of human resources.Very difficultPMP

a) resource b) sequenced c) composite d) leveled Answer : c The composite calendars include the availability, capabilities and skills of human resources. 280. A ____ is/are a significant point or event in the project.Extremely easyCAPM

a) milestone b) sequence activity c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : a A milestone is a significant point or event in the project. 281. Which type of chart is most similar to a bar chart?Very easyCAPM

a) milestone chart b) project schedule network diagram c) critical chain diagram d) critical path diagram Answer : a Milestone charts are similar to bar charts. 282. Upper and lower control limits are set by the _________ to reflect the points at which corrective action will be taken to prevent exceeding specification limits.Very easyPMP

a) project manager b) appropriate stakeholders c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c Upper and lower control limits are set by the project manager and appropriate stakeholders to reflect the points at which corrective action will be taken to prevent exceeding specification limits. 283. The process of documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate and coordinate the various components of the plan is called ______________.Extremely easyCAPM

a) Project Integration Planning b) Document Project Variables c) Develop Project Management Plan d) Develop Project Control Plan Answer : c The other three options mentioned are not part of the processes in the PMBOK® Guide. 284. Analysis of scope performance can result in ____ to the project scope baseline.DifficultPMP

a) a change request b) an immediate refactoring

c) a configuration variation d) a workaround Answer : a Analysis of scope performance can result in a change request to the project scope baseline or other components of the project management plan. 285. What category of contract involves payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs incurred for completed work, plus a fee for representing seller profit?EasyPMP

a) Fixed Price Incentive Fee b) Cost-reimbursable contracts c) Firm Fixed Price d) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Answer : b Cost-reimbursable contracts involve payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs incurred for completed work, plus a fee for representing seller profit. 286. What must requirements be before they can be baselined?EasyPMP

a) Ambiguous b) Broken down into individual tasks c) Unambiguous d) Tied back to specific business needs Answer : c Before they can be baselined, requirements must be unambiguous (measurable and testable), traceable, complete, consistent and acceptable to key stakeholders. 287. The ____ describes in detail the project's deliverables and the work required to create those deliverables.Not so difficultCAPM

a) project charter b) project scope statement c) project acceptance document d) work breakdown structure Answer : b The project scope statement describes in detail the project's deliverables and the work required to create those deliverables. 288. What links each CA directly to the performing organization's accounting system?EasyPMP

a) a unique account code b) a unique account number c) Either of these d) Neither of these Answer : c Each control account is assigned a unique code or account number that links directly to the performing organization's accounting system. 289. ____ are used to visually identify the logical groupings based on natural relationships.DifficultPMP

a) Prioritization matrices b) Matrix diagrams c) Affinity diagrams d) All of the above Answer : c Affinity diagrams are used to visually identify the logical groupings based on natural relationships.

290. In human resource planning, what type of document is usually in outline form and provides information such as responsibilities, authority, competencies and qualifications?Very difficultCAPM

a) hierarchy-type chart b) matrix based chart c) text-oriented format d) None of the above Answer : c In human resource planning, a text-oriented format is usually in outline form and provides information such as responsibilities, authority, competencies and qualifications. 291. One of the steps of _____ is to classify each stakeholder based on level of power, interest and influence.EasyCAPM

a) stakeholder analysis b) stakeholder communication c) stakeholder management d) stakeholder identification Answer : a It is important to prioritize the key stakeholders to ensure the efficient use of their effort to communicate and manage their expectations. 292. How does the requirements traceability matrix help ensure that each requirement adds business value?Not so easyPMP

a) By receiving signoff from the client indicating their understanding of the added business value. b) By linking the requirement to business and project objectives. c) By linking the requirement to specific product objectives. d) None of the above Answer : b The implementation of the requirements traceability matrix helps ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives. 293. What is the most commonly used contract type?Very easyCAPM

a) Time and Materials b) Fixed Price Incentive Fee c) Firm Fixed Price d) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Answer : c The most commonly used type of contract is the Firm Fixed Price (FFP). 294. Expert judgment is used to _____ the information provided by the Monitor and Control Project Work process.EasyPMP

a) define b) interpret c) select d) monitor Answer : b This is the most correct answer of the set of options provided. 295. Estimate Activity Duration uses information on which of the following?EasyCAPM

a) estimated resource quantities b) resource calendars

c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c Estimating activity durations uses information on activity scope of work, required resource types, estimated resource quantities and resource calendars. 296. ____ defines the lead, support and risk management team members of each type of activity in the risk management plan and clarifies their responsibilities.Not so easyCAPM

a) Roles and responsibilities b) Timing c) Methodology d) Budgeting Answer : a Roles and responsibilities defines the lead, support and risk management team members of each type of activity in the risk management plan and clarifies their responsibilities. 297. The ______ describes how risk management will be structured and performed on the project.very easyCAPM

a) risk register b) project requirements document c) risk management plan d) All of the above Answer : c The risk management plan describes how risk management will be structured and performed on the project. 298. Analysis of scope performance can result in ____ to the project scope baseline.Not so easyPMP

a) a change request b) an immediate refactoring c) a configuration variation d) a workaround Answer : a Analysis of scope performance can result in a change request to the project scope baseline or other components of the project management plan. 299. Which of the following are enterprise environmental factors in the Identify Risks process?Extremely difficultCAPM

a) published information, including commercial databases b) baselines c) project files, including actual data d) None of the above Answer : a Published information, including commercial databases is the only item listed that is an enterprise environmental factor. 300. In parametric estimating how are activity durations quantitatively determined?Very easyPMP

a) by multiplying quantity of work to be performed by labor hours per unit of work b) by dividing the total quantity of work by available resource hours c) by multiplying quantity of work remaining by labor hours per unit of work d) None of the above Answer : a In parametric estimating, activity durations are quantitatively determined by multiplying quantity of work to be performed by labor hours per unit of work.

301. Each descending level of the _____ represents an increasingly detailed definition of the project work.Very easyCAPM

a) task package definition b) product backlog c) acceptance criteria matrix d) work breakdown structure Answer : d Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the project work. 302. Estimate Costs includes ______.Not so easyPMP

a) analyzing alternative approaches b) defining a single course of action that should be taken c) examination of alternatives with no set commitments or recommendations as to how to proceed d) None of the above Answer : a Estimate Costs includes the identification and consideration of costing alternatives to initiate and complete the project. 303. Fast tracking may result in _________.Very easyCAPM

a) increased risk b) rework c) Neither of these d) Both of these Answer : d Fast tracking may result in rework and increased risk. 304. When is resource leveling necessary?Extremely easyCAPM

a) always b) never c) when resources are over-allocated. d) when resources are under-allocated Answer : c Resource leveling is necessary when resources have been over-allocated. 305. _____ communication is used for very large volumes of information or audiences that require the recipients to access the content at their own discretion.Not so easyPMP

a) Push b) Interactive c) Pull d) None of the above Answer : c Pull communication is used for very large volumes of information or audiences that require the recipients to access the content at their own discretion. 306. The cost of preventing mistakes is generally _____ than the cost of correcting them once found. Very easy PMP

a) equal to b) much more c) much less d) more or less depending on project complexity

Answer : c The cost of preventing mistakes is generally much less than the cost of correcting them once found. 307. In positive risk, the ____ strategy will allow for a positive risk to take place if comes along, but does not account for actively pursuing it.Extremely easyCAPM

a) exploit b) enhance c) share d) accept Answer : d In positive risk, the accept strategy will allow for a positive risk to take place if comes along, but does not account for actively pursuing it. 308. ___ describe what products, services and results are available in the market, from whom and under what terms and conditions.Not so difficultPMP

a) Market conditions b) Published commercial information c) Organizational process assets d) None of the above Answer : a Market conditions describe what products, services and results are available in the market, from whom and under what terms and conditions. 309. Within Plan Quality, the scope statement is a/an _______.Very difficultCAPM

a) input b) tool/technique c) output d) None of the above Answer : a The scope baseline, which includes the scope statement, is an input to the Plan Quality process. 310. What must requirements be before they can be baselined?Not so easyPMP

a) Ambiguous b) Broken down into individual tasks c) Unambiguous d) Tied back to specific business needs Answer : c Before they can be baselined, requirements must be unambiguous (measurable and testable), traceable, complete, consistent and acceptable to key stakeholders. 311. Performing work defined in the project management plan is called __________.EasyCAPM

a) Execution b) Direct and Manage Project Execution c) Project Control and Guidance d) Work Performance Management Answer : b Direct and Manage Project Execution is concerned with the process of performing the work defined in the project management plan. 312. A strategy to _____ is used to increase the probability and /or the positive impact of that opportunity.Not so difficultPMP

a) enhance b) share c) accept d) exploit Answer : a A strategy to enhance is used to increase the probability and /or the positive impact of that opportunity. 313. In critical path method, the early and late start dates _______.EasyCAPM

a) define the project schedule b) indicate time periods in which the activity could be scheduled c) provide information on resource availability d) None of the above Answer : b In critical path method, the early and late start dates indicate time periods in which the activity could be scheduled, given activity durations, logical relationships, leads, lags and other known constraints. 314. ____ is the schedule compression technique in which phases or activities normally performed in sequence are performed in parallel.EasyPMP

a) Crashing b) Fast tracking c) PERT d) Parallel sequencing Answer : b Fast tracking is the Schedule Compression technique in which phases or activities normally performed in sequence are performed in parallel. 315. In the Close Project or Phase process, historical information is considered a(n) ____________.DifficultCAPM

a) input b) output c) input as well as an output d) None of the above Answer : c Historical information is both an input and an output in the Close Project or Phase process. 316. Activities provide the basis for ______ the project work.Not so easyCAPM

a) estimating b) scheduling c) monitoring and controlling d) All of the above Answer : d Activities provide the basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, monitoring and controlling the project work. 317. Scope verification and quality control are ___________.EasyPMP

a) both focused on acceptance b) both focused on correctness c) not focused on the same thing d) both equally focused on correctness and acceptance Answer : c Scope verification is primarily concerned with acceptance of the deliverables, while quality control is primarily concerned with correctness of the deliverables and meeting the quality requirements specified in the deliverables.

318. The ____ process applies techniques such as variance and trend analysis that require the use of performance information generated during project execution.DifficultPMP

a) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis b) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis c) Plan Risk Reponses d) Monitor and Control Risks Answer : d The Monitor and Control Risks process applies techniques such as variance and trend analysis that require the use of performance information generated during project execution. 319. EV-AC =..not so difficultCAPM

a) cost variance b) schedule variance c) budget at complete d) Planned value Answer : a CV=EV-AC 320. Risks can be prioritized for further quantitative analysis and response based on their ______.EasyCAPM

a) risk rating b) probability c) impact d) None of the above Answer : a Risks can be prioritized for further quantitative analysis and response based on their risk rating. 321. High performance teams are characterized by ________________.difficultPMP

a) skill improvement in team members b) competency improvement among team members c) reduced staff turnover d) All of the above Answer : d High performance teams are characterized by skill improvement in team members, competency improvement among team members and reduced staff turnover. 322. Which of the following are inputs to the Verify Scope process?Very difficultCAPM

a) inspection b) change requests c) product document updates d) None of the above Answer : d The inputs to the Verify Scope process are project management plan, requirements documentation, requirements traceability matrix and validated deliverables. 323. ____ refers to the measured value and how close it is to the true value.easyCAPM

a) Precision b) Accuracy c) Quality d) Grade Answer : b

Accuracy means that the measured value is very close to the true value. 324. Precise measurements are _______.Very difficultPMP

a) always accurate b) not necessarily accurate c) an indicator of grade d) an indicator of how close a deliverable is to the defined requirements Answer : b Precise measurements are not necessarily accurate. 325. When examining the feasibility of the project schedule under adverse conditions, which technique is most commonly used?Not so easyPMP

a) risk analysis b) schedule compression c) what-if scenario analysis d) risk scenario analysis Answer : C The outcome of the what-if scenario analysis can be used to assess the feasibility of the project schedule under adverse conditions, or in preparing contingency and response plans to overcome or mitigate the impact of unexpected situations. 326. In the ____ stage of team building, teams function as a well organized unit. They are independent and work through issues smoothly and effectively.Very easyPMP

a) Adjourning b) Norming c) Storming d) Performing Answer : d In the Performing stage of team building, teams function as a well organized unit. They are independent and work through issues smoothly and effectively. 327. Examples of non-functional requirements include _____________.EasyPMP

a) describing business process information b) describing product interaction c) Storming d) Neither of these Answer : d Both are examples of functional requirements. 328. ____ describe the purpose of processes, their start and end, their inputs and outputs, the data required, the owner and the stakeholders.Very easyCAPM

a) Control limits b) Process boundaries c) Configuration metrics d) Control points Answer : b Process boundaries describe the purpose of processes, their start and end, their inputs and outputs, the data required, the owner and the stakeholders. 329. Project team development starts with a list of the project team members. ____ identify the people who are on the team.Not so difficultPMP

a) Organizational breakdown structure documents b) Project staff assignment documents c) Resource performance reports d) None of the above Answer : b Project team development starts with a list of the project team members. Project staff assignment documents identify the people who are on the team. 330. A contract is _____ a required input for the Develop Project Charter process.EasyPMP

a) always b) sometimes c) never d) usually Answer : b A contract is required if the contract is being done for an external customer. 331. Job shadowing is usually done_____.EasyACP

a) externally by the observer viewing the user performing his/her job b) externally by the observer viewing the product owner managing his team c) by the observer shadowing individual team members to improve performance d) by having users track one another's performance as part of quality improvement Answer : a Job shadowing is usually done externally by the observer viewing the user performing his/her job. 332. A project _______________.Extremely easyCAPM

a) is a temporary effort b) produces something unique c) has a beginning and an end d) All of the above Answer : d The PMBOK® Guide defines a project as "a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service or result." Because it is temporary, it has a definitive beginning and an end. 333. ___ defines when and how often the Risk Management process will be performed throughout the project lifecycle, establishes protocols for application of schedule contingency reserves, and establishes risk management activities to be included in the project. EasyCAPM

a) Methodology b) Budgeting c) Timing d) All of the above Answer : c Timing defines when and how often the risk management process will be performed throughout the project lifecycle, establishes protocols for application of schedule contingency reserves, and establishes risk management activities to be included in the proj 334. When activity is estimated by decomposing the work into greater detail, estimating the resource needs for each item and then all the estimates are aggregated into a total quantity for each of the activity's resources, this is called_______.Not so difficultPMP

a) top down estimating b) parametric estimating c) leveling d) bottom up estimating

Answer : d When activity is estimated by decomposing the work into greater detail, estimating the resource needs for each item and then all the estimates are aggregated into a total quantity for each of the activity's resources, this is called bottom up estimating. 335. ______ is/are an essential planning component to evaluate project time performance.DifficultPMP

a) Task float variance b) Backward pass variance c) Total float variance d) None of the above Answer : c Total float variance is an essential planning component to evaluate project time performance. 336. A ____ is a structured, independent review to determine whether project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes and procedures.Not so easyPMP

a) quality measurement b) quality register item c) quality audit d) control audit Answer : c A quality audit is a structured, independent review to determine whether project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes and procedures. 337. _____ are schematic displays of a project's scheduled activities and the logical relationships between them.Very easyPMP

a) Fragment network diagrams b) Project schedule network diagrams c) Standardized schedule network diagrams d) None of the above Answer : b Project schedule network diagrams are schematic displays of a project's scheduled activities and the logical relationships between them. 338. _____ is used to obtain early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building it.EasyACP

a) Observation b) Delphi technique c) Nominal technique d) Prototyping Answer : d Prototyping is a method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building it. 339. The _____ sets out the format and establishes the criteria for planning, structuring, estimating, budgeting and controlling project costs.EasyCAPM

a) Budget Planning process b) Develop Program Management Plan process c) Develop Project Management Plan process d) None of the above Answer : c

The Develop Project Management Plan process sets out the format and established the criteria for planning, structuring, estimating, budgeting and controlling project costs. 340. ____ is the process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities.Not so easyPMP

a) Cost Control b) Budget Costs c) Estimate Costs d) Manage Cost Answer : c Estimate Costs is the process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities. 341. AC stands for ____. Extremely easyCAPM

a) actual cost b) assumed cost c) allocated cost d) None of the above Answer : a Actual cost (AC) is the total cost actually incurred and recorded in accomplishing the work performed for an activity of work breakdown structure component. 342. The ____ describes when and how human resource requirements will be met.DifficultCAPM

a) responsibility assignment matrix b) project organization chart c) staffing management plan d) organizational breakdown structure Answer : c The staffing management plan describes when and how human resource requirements will be met. 343. The ____ effort sets the framework for each of the cost management processes so that the performance of the processes will be efficient and coordinated.DifficultPMP

a) cost containment process b) cost management planning c) Control Account d) All of the above Answer : b The cost management planning effort sets the framework for each of the cost management processes so that the performance of the processes will be efficient and coordinated. 344. The EVM ___ will ultimately equal zero when the project is completed because all of the planned values will have been earned.Not so easyPMP

a) SV b) BCWP c) PWB d) AC Answer : a The EVM schedule variance (SV) will ultimately equal zero when the project is completed because all of the planned values will have been earned.

345. _____ refers to the values of repeated measurements that are clustered and have little scatter.EasyPMP

a) Precision b) Accuracy c) Quality d) Grade Answer : a Precision refers to the values of repeated measurements that are clustered and have little scatter. 346. Sequencing should be done _____.Not so easyCAPM

a) with the aid of software b) manually c) either manually or with the aid of software d) by the entire project team Answer : c Sequencing can be done with the aid of software or manually. 347. Decomposition may not be possible for a deliverable or subproject that will be _____.DifficultPMP

a) rushed into execution b) accomplished far in the future c) micromanaged by the client owner d) None of the above Answer : b Decomposition may not be possible for a deliverable or subproject that will be accomplished far in the future. 348. What determines the size of each feeding buffer?Very difficultPMP

a) The size should account for the uncertainty in the duration of the chain of dependent tasks leading up to project completion. b) The size should account for the uncertainty in the duration of the chain of non-dependent tasks leading up to that buffer. c) The size should account for the uncertainty in the duration of the chain of dependent tasks leading up to that buffer. d) None of the above Answer : c The size of each buffer should account for the uncertainty in the duration of the chain of dependent activities leading up to that buffer. 349. Activity attributes are used _______.DifficultPMP

a) for determining LOE b) for defining discrete efforts c) for determining appointed effort d) for sorting the planned schedule activities Answer : d Activity attributes are used for sorting the planned schedule activities. 350. What information does a resource histogram provide?EasyPMP

a) how many hours a person, department or entire project team will be needed each week or month over the life of the project b) the history of resource usage on the project up to now c) how much money will need to be spent on resources each week for the life of the project d) None of the above

Answer : a The resource histogram is a type of resource calendar. It demonstrates how many hours a person, department or entire project team will be needed each week or month over the life of the project. 351. Regional supply and demand conditions are an example of _____.Not so difficultPMP

a) published commercial information b) market conditions c) organizational process assets d) None of the above Answer : b Market conditions describe what products, services and results are available in the market, from whom and under what terms and conditions. 352. ____ are used to document the time periods that each project team member can work on the project.EasyCAPM

a) Resource calendars b) Project staff assignments c) Project plan updates d) None of the above Answer : a Resource calendars are used to document the time periods that each project team member can work on the project. 353. When creating duration estimates, contingency reserve should be clearly identified in ______.DifficultPMP

a) resource assignments b) schedule documentation c) status reports d) None of the above Answer : b When creating duration estimates, contingency reserve should be clearly identified in schedule documentation. 354. The 5 Process Groups in the PMBOK Guide® are _____________.Extremely easyCAPM

a) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling b) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing c) Initiating, Scope Planning, Scope Control, Executing, Closeout d) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Controlling, Closeout Answer : b The 5 Process Groups are: Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing 355. ______ is the authorized work that has been completed, plus the authorized budget for such completed work.easy a) Planned value b) Earned value c) BCWS d) PMB Answer : b Earned value is the authorized work that has been completed, plus the authorized budget for such completed work. 356. How many stages are there to team development?Not so easyCAPM

a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

Answer : c There are five phases: forming, storming, norming, performing and adjourning. 357. The cost performance baseline is compared with ___ to determine if a change, corrective action or preventive action is necessary.Not so easyCAPM, PMP

a) the schedule performance baseline b) work planned c) actual results d) work performance forecast Answer : c The cost performance baseline is compared with actual results to determine if a change, corrective action or preventive action is necessary. 358. ______ is/are an essential planning component to evaluate project time performance.DifficultPMP

a) Task float variance b) Backward pass variance c) Total float variance d) None of the above Answer : c Total float variance is an essential planning component to evaluate project time performance. 359. The process of documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate and coordinate the various components of the plan is called ______________.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) Project Integration Planning b) Document Project Variables c) Develop Project Management Plan d) Develop Project Control Plan Answer : c The other three options mentioned are not part of the processes in the PMBOK® Guide. 360. ___ is considered to be the most critical EVM metric.DifficultPMP

a) SV b) CV c) SPI d) CPI Answer : d Cost performance index (CPI) is considered to be the most critical EVM metric and measures the cost efficiency for the work completed. 361. How many Process Groups are there in the PMBOK® Guide?Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) 42 b) 9 c) 5 d) 3 Answer : c There are 5 Process Groups, 47 Processes and 10 Knowledge Areas. 362. ____ is an after-the-fact look at what caused a difference between the baseline and the actual performance.Very easyCAPM, PMP

a) Root cause analysis

b) Fishbone analysis c) Variance analysis d) None of the above Answer : c Variance analysis is an after-the-fact look at what caused a difference between the baseline and the actual performance. 363. Scope management plan, requirements management plan and human resource plan are all considered _____________.Extremely easyCAPM, PMP

a) standalone plans to be developed and maintained as baseline documents b) plans which are subsidiaries of the project management plan c) plans which fall under the project controlling plan d) tools used during the project initiation phase Answer : b These plans, among others, may be developed as subsidiaries of the project management plan and must be maintained throughout the entire project lifecycle. 364. A risk may have how many causes and how many impacts?DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) 1 cause, 1 impact b) 1 cause, multiple impacts c) multiple causes, 1 impact d) multiple causes, multiple impacts Answer : d A risk may have multiple causes and multiple impacts. 365. The WBS organizes and defines the _______.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) high level requirements b) total scope of the project c) resource assignments d) items defined in the traceability matrix Answer : b The WBS organizes and defines the total scope of the project, and represents the work specified in the current approved project scope statement. 366. Project quality management focuses on ______. EasyCAPM, PMP

a) management of the project b) product of the project c) Neither of these d) Both of these Answer : d Project quality management addresses the management of the project and the product of the project. 367. In critical chain method, what does the project buffer do?Extremely difficultPMP

a) It protects the early finish date from slipping along the critical chain. b) It protects the late finish date from slipping along the critical chain. c) It protects the target finish date from slipping along the critical chain. d) None of the above Answer : c The project buffer is placed at the end of the critical chain and protects the target finish date from slipping along the critical chain.

368. The work involved in the Project Time Management is preceded by ______.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) an analysis of resource availability b) the Develop Project Management Plan process c) Neither of these d) Both of these Answer : b The six processes in Project Time Management are preceded by a planning effort by the project management team as part of the Develop Project Management Plan process. 369. In what methodology is PDM used?DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) CPM b) ISO 9000 c) Lean d) TDD Answer : a PDM is a method used in critical path methodology (CPM). 370. Which of the following has the ability to necessitate an update to the project resource requirements?EasyCAPM, PMP

a) resource leveling analysis b) schedule baselining c) hammock activities d) None of the above Answer : a If the resource leveling analysis changes the project resource requirements than they project resource requirements are updated. 371. The technique in which the project management team waits until the deliverable or subproject is clarified so the WBS can be developed is called ______.NotsodifficultCAPM, PMP

a) rolling wave planning b) Scrum c) time shifting d) decomposing Answer : a The technique in which the project management team waits until the deliverable or subproject is clarified so the WBS can be developed is called rolling wave planning. 372. What category of contract involves payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs incurred for completed work, plus a fee for representing seller profit?EasyCAPM, PMP

a) Fixed Price Incentive Fee b) Cost-reimbursable contracts c) Firm Fixed Price d) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Answer : b Cost-reimbursable contracts involve payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs incurred for completed work, plus a fee for representing seller profit. 373. Estimate Activity Resources is the process of estimating what quantity of which of the following are required to perform given activities?VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) material b) people

c) equipment d) All of the above Answer : d Estimate Activity Resources is the process of estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment or supplies required to perform each activity. 374. ______ include contingency plans and workaround plans.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) Recommended corrective actions b) Risk reassessments c) Recommended preventive actions d) None of the above Answer : a Recommended correction actions include contingency plans and workaround plans. 375. The PMIS may include ___________.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) a configuration management system b) an information collection and distribution system c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c These are both examples of what may be contained in a PMIS. 376. ____ risk requires shifting some or all of the negative impact of a threat, along with the ownership of the response, to a third party.VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) Avoiding b) Transferring c) Mitigating d) Accepting Answer : b Transferring requires shifting some or all of the negative impact of a threat, along with the ownership of the response, to a third party. 377. PERT can also be called _____ Technique.VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) Three-Point Estimation b) Four-Point Estimation c) Six-Point Estimation d) Seven-Point Estimation Answer : a PERT can also be called Three-Point Estimation Technique. 378. The group decision making method in which everyone agrees on a single course of action is _______.CAPM, PMPExtremelyeasy

a) Unanimity b) Majority c) Plurality d) Dictatorship Answer : a Unanimity is the group decision making method in which everyone agrees on a single course of action. 379. Which of the following are examples of alternative schedule types that are supplied as supporting detail in schedule data?DifficultPMP

a) best-case and worst-case b) not resource-leveled c) with imposed dates d) All of the above Answer : d Alternative schedule types which are provided as support detail in schedule data include: best-case or worst-case, not resource-leveled, or resource leveled, with or without imposed dates. 380. The idea of the project manager or project team negotiating and influencing others who are in a position to provide the necessary human resources for the project is part of which process?EasyCAPM, PMP

a) Acquire Project Team b) Develop Project Team c) Develop Human Resources Plan d) Manage Project Team Answer : a The Acquire Project Team process includes having the PM or PM team negotiate for the human resources necessary to complete the project objectives. 381. In the Close Project or Phase process, historical information is considered a(n) ____________.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) input b) output c) input as well as an output d) None of the above Answer : c Historical information is both an input and an output in the Close Project or Phase process. 382. All process flowcharts show which of the following?VerydifficultPMP

a) activities b) decision points c) order of processing d) All of the above Answer : d All process flowcharts show activities, decision points and the order of processing. 383. In the Perform Quality Performance process, project deliverable status, cost incurred and technical performance measures are all examples of _____.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) quality metrics b) quality control measurements c) work performance information d) process improvement plans Answer : c In the Perform Quality Performance process, project deliverable status, cost incurred and technical performance measures are all examples of work performance information. 384. Which of the following are important aspects of project scope control?NotsoeasyCAPM, PMP

a) determining the cause and degree of variance relative to the scope baseline b) deciding whether corrective or preventive action is required c) Both of these d) Neither of these

Answer : c Important aspects of project scope control include determining the cause and degree of variance relative to the scope baseline and deciding whether corrective or preventive action is required. 385. A RACI chart is an example of a ______.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) hierarchy-type chart b) schedule optimization tool c) matrix based chart d) none of these Answer : c A RACI chart (responsible, accountable, consult, inform) is a type of matrix chart that shows the work to be done and how it impacts each of the players involved. 386. Analogous estimating is generally ___ compared with the other estimation techniques?EasyCAPM, PMP

a) less time consuming b) less costly c) less accurate d) All of the above Answer : d Analogous estimating is generally less costly and time consuming than the other techniques, but it is also generally less accurate. 387. ____ is frequently used to estimate a parameter when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project.Not so easyCAPM, PMP

a) Expert judgment b) Parametric estimating c) Top up estimating d) Analogous cost estimating Answer : d Analogous cost estimating is frequently used to estimate a parameter when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project. 388. Who is responsible for quality?EasyCAPM, PMP

a) the project manager b) the project management team c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c The project manager and the project management team are responsible for managing the tradeoffs involved to deliver the required levels of both quality and grade. 389. Which of these items are used to create detailed product requirements?VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) Stakeholder register b) Focus groups c) High-level project requirements d) Detailed project requirements Answer : c The project charter is used to provide the high-level requirements and high-level product description so that detailed product requirements can be developed.

390. Duration estimates may include contingency reserves, which may also be referred to as ______.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) slack b) time reserves c) buffers d) either time reserves or buffers Answer : d Contingency reserves may also be referred to as time reserves or buffers. 391. The approved detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary are the ________ for the project.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) project scope b) product scope c) scope baseline d) product baseline Answer : c The scope baseline is defined by the WBS, WBS definition and the detailed project scope statement. 392. The main output of the Identify Stakeholders process is the _______.VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) Salience Model b) power/interest grids c) stakeholder register d) None of the above Answer : c The main output of the Identify Stakeholders process is the stakeholder register. 393. In the Develop Schedule process, which of the following are entered into the scheduling tool to generate the schedule with planned dates for completing project activities?VerydifficultPMP

a) activity sequences b) resource availability c) resource skills d) All of the above Answer : a In the Develop Schedule process, activity sequences, durations, resource requirements and schedule constraints are entered into the scheduling tool to generate the schedule with planned dates for completing project activities. 394. PDM stands for___________.VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) Planned Delphi Milestone b) Proactive Dependency Measures c) Precedence Diagramming Method d) Predefined Dependency Modeling Answer : c PDM stands for Precedence Diagramming Method. 395. With regard to the Control Scope process, work performance measurements are ________.VerydifficultCAPM, PMP

a) inputs b) tools/techniques c) outputs d) both outputs and tools/techniques

Answer : c Work performance information is an input to the Control Scope process, while work performance measurements is an output. 396. In the _____ scheduling method we compare the amount of buffer remaining to the amount needed to protect the delivery data to understand the variance and determine if corrective action is appropriate.DifficultPMP

a) critical path b) lean c) critical chain d) forward pass Answer : c In the critical chain scheduling method we compare the amount of buffer remaining to the amount needed to protect the delivery data to understand the variance and determine if corrective action is appropriate. 397. _____ extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity.VerydifficultPMP

a) Activity attribution b) An activity identifier c) The WBS d) The product backlog Answer : a Activity attribution extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity. 398. EVM is a project management technique that requires the formation of a(n) ____ against which performance can be measured for the duration of the project.DifficultPMP

a) clearly defined scope b) integrated baseline c) WBS d) resource allocation assignment matrix (RAAM) Answer : b EVM is a project management technique that requires the formation of a(n) integrated baseline against which performance can be measured for the duration of the project. 399. The baseline budget _____.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) includes all authorized budgets b) excludes management reserves c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c The baseline budget includes all authorized budgets but excludes management reserves. 400. In the Estimate Activity Durations process, activity duration estimate outputs may include ____.VerydifficultCAPM, PMP

a) some indication of the range of possible results b) lags c) Neither of these d) Both of these Answer : a

In the Estimate Activity Durations process, activity duration estimate outputs may include some indication of the range of possible results. 401. The total planned value for the project is also known as the ______.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) AC b) BCWP c) BCWS d) BAC Answer : D The total planed value for the project is also known as the budget at completion(BAC). 402. ___ guides the group through interactive discussions as part of a focus group.VeryeasyACP

a) The product owner b) The project manager c) The project team d) A trained moderator Answer : D A trained moderator guides the group through an interactive discussion designed to be more conversational than a one-to-one interview. 403. A _____ is a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships.ExtremelyeasyCAPM, PMP

a) project organization chart b) RACI chart c) networking diagram d) WBS Answer : a A project organization chart so a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships. 404. The information in the ____ can be used to indicate resource costs over the duration of the project.EasyPMP

a) cost aggregation b) resource matrix c) resource calendars d) project schedule Answer : c The information in the resource calendars can be used to indicate resource costs over the duration of the project. 405. What type of dependencies are usually outside the team's control?NotsoeasyCAPM, PMP

a) fast track b) critical c) external d) resource related Answer : c External dependencies are usually outside the team's control. 406. _____ estimates are made of potential project schedule and cost outcomes, listing the possible completion dates and costs with their associated confidence levels.VerydifficultPMP

a) Sensitivity analysis b) Probabilistic analysis of the project c) Project simulation d) None of the above

Answer : b Probabilistic analysis of the project estimates are made of potential project schedule and cost outcomes, listing the possible completion dates and costs with their associated confidence levels. 407. Project documents which may be updated include ______________.DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) quality management plan b) risk register c) project baselines d) cost management plan Answer : b The other options are defined as management plans, which are more formal than documents and are required elements of the project management plan. 408. ___ includes the processes required to manage timely completion of the project.VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) Project Schedule Management b) Project Planning c) Project Time Management d) Project Schedule Control Answer : c Project Time Management includes the processes required to manage timely completion of the project. 409. Cost estimating is a(n) ____ process.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) static b) iterative c) waterfall d) agile Answer : b Cost estimating is an iterative process. 410. In delphi technique, each expert must _______.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) remain anonymous b) publish their expert findings on the PMIS c) be willing to identify which response is theirs to the other members. d) provide credentials validating their expertise Answer : a Delphi technique requires that the experts remain anonymous. 411. _____ is the conflict resolution technique that involves retreating from an actual or potential conflict situation.VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) Collaborating b) Withdrawing/Avoiding c) Confronting/Problem Solving d) Compromising Answer : b Withdrawing/Avoiding is the conflict resolution technique that involves retreating from an actual or potential conflict situation. 412. Level of service requirements, safety requirements and retention requirements are examples of _______ requirements.EasyPMP

a) functional

b) non-functional c) configuration d) None of the above Answer : b Non-functional requirements such as level of service, performance, safety, security, compliance, supportability, retention/purge, etc., are components that may be included in the project requirements documentation. 413. Communication requirements define ____________.NotsoeasyPMP

a) allowed communication media and record retention requirements b) security requirements and record retention requirements c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c Communication requirements define allowed communication media, record retention requirements and security requirements. 414. Communication requirements define ____________.DifficultPMP

a) allowed communication media and record retention requirements b) security requirements and record retention requirements c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c Communication requirements define allowed communication media, record retention requirements and security requirements. 415. Team building is something that happens ____.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) at the start of the project b) at specific points throughout the project c) at the end of the project d) as an ongoing initiative throughout the life of the project Answer : d While team building is essential during the front end of a project, it is a never-ending process. 416. The _____ is a hierarchical structure of the identified resources by resource category and resource type.VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) work breakdown structure b) resource breakdown structure c) PMIS d) None of the above Answer : b The resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical structure of the identified resources by resource category and resource type. 417. ______ may be established for monitoring cost performance and may be specified to indicate an agreed upon amount of variation to be allowed before some action needs to be taken.DifficultPMP

a) Rules of performance measurement b) Process descriptions c) Reporting formats d) Control thresholds Answer : d

Control thresholds may be established for monitoring cost performance and may be specified to indicate an agreed upon amount of variation to be allowed before some action needs to be taken. 418. Which of these is not an example of a performance report?VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) Forecasts b) Industry standards c) Current status d) Scheduled activities Answer : b "Industry standards" is an enterprise environmental factor. 419. In the Direct and Manage Project Execution process, a change request is a(n)_____.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) input b) tool/technique c) output d) input as well as an output Answer : c An approved change request can be an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution, but a change request that has not been approved would be an output of the Direct and Manage Project Execution process. 420. Schedule data could include which of the following?DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) resource histograms b) cash-flow projections c) order and delivery schedules d) All of the above Answer : d Schedule data could include resource histograms, cash-flow projections, and order and delivery schedules. 421. Which of the following are not activity attributes?VerydifficultCAPM, PMP

a) logical relationships b) leads and lags c) Neither of these d) Both of these Answer : c These are both activity attributes. 422. When is the project staffed?EasyCAPM, PMP

a) when the OBS is complete b) when the work is ready to start c) when the appropriate people have been assigned d) All of the above Answer : c The project is staffed when the appropriate people have been assigned. 423. The unit of measure for resources may be defined in what document?VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) cost management plan b) communications plan c) risk management plan d) None of the above Answer : a

The unit of measure for resources is may be defined in the cost management plan. 424. The information in the ____ can be used to indicate resource costs over the duration of the project.NotsodifficultPMP

a) cost aggregation b) resource matrix c) resource calendars d) project schedule Answer : c The information in the resource calendars can be used to indicate resource costs over the duration of the project. 425. With regard to the Control Scope process, work performance information is a(n)_______________.ExtremelydifficultCAPM, PMP

a) input b) tool/technique c) output d) input as well as an output Answer : a Work performance information is an input to the Control Scope process, while work performance measurements is an output. 426. On smaller projects, what can happen to cost estimating and cost budgeting?DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) Nothing, they remain discrete. b) They may be viewed as a single process and be performed by a single person. c) They may be viewed as a single process, but must be managed by at least one additional team member. d) None of the above Answer : b On smaller projects, cost estimating and cost budgeting may be viewed as a single process and be performed by a single person 427. A schedule baseline must be _____.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) accepted by the project management team b) approved by the project management team c) accepted and approved by the project manager and scheduler only d) accepted and approved by the project management team Answer : d A schedule baseline must be accepted and approved by the project management team. 428. Schedule control is concerned with which of the following?DifficultCAPM, PMP

a) determining the current status of the project schedule b) managing actual changes as they occur c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c Control Schedule is concerned with determining the current status of the project schedule, influencing the factors that create schedule changes, determining that the project schedule has changed, and managing the changes as they occur. 429. ____ provide documentation about the current project status compared to project forecasts.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) Ishikawa diagrams b) Baseline updates

c) Performance reports d) None of the above Answer : c Performance reports provide documentation about the current project status compared to project forecasts. 430. ____ follow(s) the steps outlined in the process improvement plan to identify needed improvements.VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) Process analysis b) Quality audits c) Process audits d) Quality analysis Answer : a Process analysis follows the steps outlined in the process improvement plan to identify needed improvements. 431. ____ represent the effort needed to complete a work package.VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) Backlog items b) Deliverables c) Activities d) User stories Answer : c Activities represent the effort needed to complete a work package. 432. JAD, QFD and VOC are all parts of ____.VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) focus groups b) group creativity techniques c) facilitated workshops d) interviews Answer : c Joint application development sessions, quality function deployment and voice of the customer are all part of facilitated workshops. 433. Project budgets constitute the _______.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) funds authorized to execute the project b) funds that the PM controls c) baseline for what will be spent d) All of the above Answer : a Project budgets constitute the funds authorized to execute the project. 434. If you adjust your project schedule so that two or more tasks that were to take place sequentially will now take place in parallel, thereby reducing the timeline, this is called __________.extremelyeasyCAPM, PMP

a) crashing b) fast tracking c) risk mitigation d) quality control Answer : b Fast tracking is the schedule compression technique in which phases or activities normally performed in sequence are performed in parallel. 435. Performance reviews compare ______.DifficultPMP

a) cost performance over time b) schedule activities or work packages overrunning and underrunning the budget c) estimated funds needed to complete work in progress d) All of the above Answer : d Performance reviews compare cost performance over time, schedule activities or work packages overrunning and underrunning the budget and estimated funds needed to complete work in progress. 436. In critical chain method, where is the project buffer placed?VerydifficultPMP

a) at the start of the critical chain b) at the midway point in the critical chain c) wherever it is needed in the critical chain d) at the end of the critical chain Answer : d The project buffer is placed at the end of the critical chain and protects the target finish date from slipping along the critical chain. 437. Process analysis includes a specific technique used to identify a problem, discover the underlying cause leading to it and determine preventive actions to address it. This is called _______.easyCAPM, PMP

a) technique analysis b) root cause analysis c) process improvement analysis d) None of the above Answer : b Process analysis includes a specific technique used to identify a problem, discover the underlying cause leading to it and determine preventive actions to address it. This is called root cause analysis. 438. The risk processes ______.VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) interact only with each other b) interact only with themselves c) interact with themselves and others d) None of the above Answer : c The risk processes interact with themselves and others. 439. Estimate Activity Duration uses information on which of the following?VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) estimated resource quantities b) resource calendars c) Both of these d) Neither of these Answer : c Estimating activity durations uses information on activity scope of work, required resource types, estimated resource quantities and resource calendars. 440. The ____ includes the product scope description, the project deliverables and defines the product user acceptance criteria.NotsoeasyCAPM, PMP

a) product scope statement b) project scope statement c) baseline scope statement d) WBS Answer : b

The project scope statement includes the product scope description, the project deliverables and defines the product user acceptance criteria. 441. The group decision making method in which one individual makes the decision for the entire group is _______.VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) Unanimity b) Majority c) Plurality d) Dictatorship Answer : d Dictatorship is the group decision making method in which one individual makes the decision for the entire group. 442. ___ activity duration estimates are based on the resources who are likely to be assigned, their productivity, realistic expectations of availability for the activity, dependencies on other participants and interruptions.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) Optimistic b) Most likely c) Pessimistic d) Delphi Answer : b Most likely activity duration estimates are based on the resources who are likely to be assigned, their productivity, realistic expectations of availability for the activity, dependencies on other participants and interruptions. 443. Project schedule network diagrams and schedule data are _____ in the Develop Schedule process.VerydifficultCAPM, PMP

a) inputs b) tools and techniques c) outputs d) None of the above Answer : d In the Develop Schedule process, project schedule network diagrams is an input and schedule data is an output. 444. A _______ predecessor relationship is when the initiation of the successor activity depends upon the initiation of the predecessor activity.VerydifficultCAPM, PMP

a) Start to Finish b) Start to Start c) Finish to Finish d) Finish to Start Answer : b A Start to Start predecessor relationship is when the initiation of the successor activity depends upon the initiation of the predecessor activity. 445. The success of project managers in managing their project teams often depends a great deal on ________.EasyCAPM, PMP

a) their ability to control conflict b) their ability to resolve conflict c) their ability to eliminate conflict d) None of the above Answer : b The success of project managers in managing their project teams often depends a great deal on their ability to resolve conflict.

446. The ___ is a critical input to identifying risks, as it facilitates an understanding of the potential risks at both the micro and macro levels.VerydifficultPMP

a) RBS b) WBS c) project schedule d) None of the above Answer : b The WBS is a critical input to identifying risks, as it facilitates an understanding of the potential risks at both the micro and macro levels. 447. In performance reviews, graphical analysis techniques are valuable for understanding performance to date and for comparison to future performance goals in the form of________ and completion dates.ExtremelydifficultPMP

a) BAC versus EAC b) BAC versus ETC c) BAC versus SV d) BAC versus SPI Answer : a In performance reviews, graphical analysis techniques are valuable for understanding performance to date and for comparison to future performance goals in the form of BAC versus EAC and completion dates. 448. ______ can be used to develop technical and management details that will be included in the project plan.VeryeasyCAPM, PMP

a) Expert judgment b) Defined project management processes c) Configuration management d) Standardized guidelines Answer : a Expert judgment is used to develop the technical and management details that can be included in the project management plan. 449. The idea of the project manager or project team negotiating and influencing others who are in a position to provide the necessary human resources for the project is part of which process?ExtremelyeasyCAPM, PMP

a) Acquire Project Team b) Develop Project Team c) Develop Human Resources Plan d) Manage Project Team Answer : a The Acquire Project Team process includes having the PM or PM team negotiate for the human resources necessary to complete the project objectives. 450. ____ is the process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project budget and managing changes to the cost baseline.DifficultPMP

a) Determine Budget b) Obtain Budget Approval c) Control Costs d) Estimate Costs Answer : c Control Costs is the process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project budget and managing changes to the cost baseline.