physics aim4aiims · an arrow is projected into air. its ... a particle of charge q and mass m...

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PHYSICS

1. The length of deviation for a glass prism isequal to its refracting angle. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. Then the angle of prism is:

(a) 2 cos-1 (3/4) (b) sin-1(3/4)

(c) 2 sin-1(3/2) (d) cos-1(3/2)

2. An arrow is projected into air. Its time offlight is 5 s and range 200 m. What is themaximum height reached by it? (Take g = 10m s-2)

(a) 31.25 m (b) 24.5 m

(c) 18.25 m (d) 46.75 m

3. A bottle weighing 220 g and of area of cross- section 50 cm2, and height 4 cm oscillates on the surface of water in vertical position. Its frequency of oscillation is

(a) 1.5 Hz (b) 2.5 Hz

(c) 3.5 Hz (d) 4.5 Hz

4. A cyclist is moving in a circular track ofradius 80 m with a velocity of 36 km h-1. Hehas to lean from the vertical approximatelythrough an angle (Take g = 10 m s-2)

(a) tan(4) (b) tan-1(1/8)

(c) tan-1 (1/4) (d) tan-1(2)

5. The circuit as shown in figure:

the equivalent gate is

(a) NOR gate (b) OR gate

(c) AND gate (d) NAND gate

6. A satellite is in an orbit around the earth. If itskinetic energy is doubled, then

(a) it will maintain its path

(b) it will fall on the earth

(c) it will rotate with a great speed

(d) it will escape out of earth’s gravitational field.

7. 2, 4 and 6 S are the conductances of threeconductors. When they are joined in parallel,their equivalent conductance will be

(a) 12S (b) (1/12)S

(c) (12/11) S (d) 11/12 S

8. Two parallel long wires A and B carrycurrents i1, and i2 (< i1). When i1 and i2 are inthe same direction, the magnetic field at a

point mid way between the wires is 10 T. If

i2 is reverse the field becomes 30 T. Theratio i1/i2 is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

9. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1,and R2 are placed in the same plane withtheir centres coinciding. If R1 > R2, the

mutual inductance M between them will be directly proportional to

(a) 2

1

R

R(b)

1

2

R

R

(c) 2

2

1

R

R(d)

1

R 2

2

10. The density of a cube is measured by

2 / ?T g Given fractional errors in

T and l are x and y respectively.

(a) X + y (b) x – y (c) 2 x + y (d) 2x – y

11. A steel wire with cross-section 3cm2 haselastic limit 2.4 x 108 N m-2. The maximumupward acceleration that can be given to a1200 kg elevator supported by this cable wireif the stress is not to exceed one-third of theelastic limit is

(Take g = 10m s-2)

(a) 12 ms-2 (b) 10 ms-2

(c) 8ms-2 (d) 7ms-2

12. 70 calories of heat are required to raise thetemperature of 2 moles of an ideal gas atconstant pressure from 30°C to 35°C.Theamount of heat required to raise thetemperature of the same sample of the gasthrough the same range at constant volumeis (Gas constant = 1.99 cal/K-mole)

(a) 30 cal (b) 50 cal

(c) 70 cal (d) 90 cal

13. 3 mole of hydrogen is mixed with 1 mole ofneon. The molar specific heat at constantpressure is

(a) 4

R9(b)

2

R9

(c) R

134(d)

2

R13

14. A heavy truck moving with a velocity of 60km h-1 collides with a light drum at rest. Ifthe collision be elastic, then the velocity ofthe drum immediately after collision will be

(a) zero (b) 60 km h-1

(c) 120 km h-1 (d) data insufficient

15. Two waves represented by y = a

sin(t -kx) and y =a cos(t - kx) aresuperposed. The resultant wave will have anamplitude

(a) a (b) a2

(c) 2a (d) zero

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16. If the wavelength of 1st line of Balmer seriesof hydrogen is 6561 Å, the wavelength of the2nd line of series will be

(a) 9780Å (b) 4860Å

(c) 8857Å (d) 4429 Å

17. n-alpha particles per second are emittedfrom N atoms of a radioactive element. Thehalf-life of the radioactive element is

(a) sN

n(b) s

n

N

(c) sn

N693.0(d) s

N

n693.0

18. The light of wavelength 4000 Å falls on aphotosensitive substance whose workfunction is 2 eV. Its stopping potential is

(a) 1.1V (b) 1.8V

(c) 1.26 V (d) 0.8V

19. Resolving power of reflecting microscopeincreases with

(a)Decrease in wavelength of incident light

(b) Increase in wavelength of incident light

(c) Increase in diameter of objective lens

(d) none of these

20. The most suitable metal for makingelectromagnets and transformer cores is

(a) steel (b) iron

(c) copper (d) aluminium

21. An inductive circuit contains a resistance of

10 and an inductance of 2 H. If an ACvoltage of 120 V and frequency 60 Hz isapplied to this circuit, the current would benearly

(a) 0.72 A (b) 0.16 A

(c) 0.48 A (d) 0.80 A

22. The diameter of the plate of a parallel platecondenser is 6 cm. If its capacity is equal tothat of a sphere of diameter 200 cm, theseparation between the plates of thecondenser is

(a) 4.5 x 10 m (b) 2.25 x 10 m

(c) 6.75 x m (d) 9 x 10 m

23. In a uniform electric field a charge of 3 Cexperiences a force of 3000 N. The potentialdifference between two points 1 cm apartalong the electric line of force will be

(a) 10 V (b) 30 V

(c) 300 V (d) 100 V

24. A long straight wire carries 10 A d.c. currentan electron travels perpendicular to theplane of this wire at a distance 0.1 m withvelocity 5.0 x 106 m s-1. Force acting on theelectron due to current in wire is

(a) zero N (b) 2.3 x 10-7N

(c) 2.4 x 10-17N (d) 2.2 x 10-17N

25. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor.The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. If aforce of 2.8 N is applied on the block parallelto the floor, the force of friction between the

block and the floor is ( = 10 ms-2)

(a) 2.8N (b) 2N (c) 8N (d) Zero

26. A particle moves in a circular path withdecreasing speed. Choose the correctstatement.

(a) Angular momentum remains constant

(b) Acceleration a is towards the centre

(c) Particle moves in a spiral path withdecreasing radius

(d) The direction of angular momentumremains constant

27. A body of mass 2 kg is thrown up verticallywith kinetic energy of 490 J. The height atwhich the kinetic energy of the bodybecomes half of its original value is

(a) 50 m (b) 12.25 m

(c) 25m (d) 10m

28. Two homogeneous spheres A and B ofmasses m and 2m having radii 2a and arespectively are placed in touch. Thedistance of centre of mass from first sphere is

(a) a (b) 2a

(c) 3a (d) none of these

29. What will be the effect on the weight of abody placed on the surface of earth, if earthsuddenly stops rotating?

(a) No effect

(b) Weight will increase

(c) Weight will decrease

(d) Weight will become zero

30. The time period of a particle undergoingSHM is 16 s. It starts motion from the meanposition. After 2 s, its velocity is 0.4 m s-1.The amplitude is

(a) 1.44m (b) 0.72m

(c) 2.88 m (d) 0.36 m

31. A 5.5 metre length of string has a mass of0.03 5 kg. If the tension in the string is 77 N,the velocity of the wave on the string is

(a) 210 m s-1 (b) 40 ms-1

(c) 110 m s-1 (d) 55 ms_1

32. The near point of distinct vision is at 1 m foran elderly person. What power of lens is tobe used to bring the near point to theminimum distance of distinct vision (25 cm)?

(a) 2.5 D (b) 3D

(c) 3.5 D (d) 4D

33. Which of the given statements abouttransistor is not true?

(a) Emitter is heavily doped.

(b) Base is thin.

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(c) Base is lightly doped.

(d)Collector region is smaller comparative to emitter in size.

34. In a Young’s double slit experiment the

intensity of light when slit is at distance from central is I. What will be the intensity at

the distance of slit is ?6

(a) 6

I(b)

12

I (c) I

4

3 (d)

8

I

35. A child is standing with folded hands at thecentre of a platform rotating about its centralaxis. The kinetic energy of the system is K.The child now stretches his arms so that themoment of inertia of the system doubled.The kinetic energy of the system now is

(a) 2K (b) 2

K(c)

4

K(d) 4K

36. A triply ionized beryllium (Be3+) has thesame orbital radius as the ground state ofhydrogen. Then the quantum state n of Be3+

is

(a) n=1 (b) n = 2

(c) n=3 (d) n = 4

37. A particle is moving eastwards with avelocity of 5 m/s. in 10 s, the velocitychanges to 5 m/s northwards. The averageacceleration in this time is

(a) zero

(b) 2

1m s-2 towards north-west

(c) 2

1m s-2 towards north-east

(d) 2

1m s-2 towards north

38. A spring of spring constant 5 x 103 N m-1 isstretched initially by 5cm from theunstretched position. The work required tostretch it further by another 5 cm is

(a) 6.25 Nm (b) 1250 Nm

(c) 18.75 N m (d) 25.00 N m

39. According to kinetic theory of gases,molecules of a gas behave like

(a) inelastic spheres

(b) perfectly elastic rigid spheres

(c) perfectly elastic non-rigid spheres

(d) inelastic non-rigid spheres

40. A particle of charge q and mass m startsmoving from the origin under the action of

an electric field iEE 0

and iBB 0

with

a velocity jvv 0

. The speed of the particle

will become 0v2

5 after a time

(a) 0

0

qE

mv(b)

0

0

qE2

mv

(c) 0

0

qE2

mv3(d)

0

0

qE2

mv5

Directions: In the following questions (41-60), a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as:

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

41. Assertion: Short wave communication overlong distance is not possible via ground waves.

Reason : The ground waves can bend round the corners of the objects on earth.

42. Assertion: The edges of the images of whiteobject formed by a concave mirror on thescreen appear white.

Reason : Concave mirror does not sufferfrom chromatic aberration.

.43. Assertion : The relative velocity between any two bodies moving in opposite direction is equal to sum of the velocities of two bodies.

Reason : Sometimes relative velocity between two bodies is equal to difference in velocities of the two bodies.

44. Assertion : Current is passed through ametallic wire so that it becomes red hot.When cold water is poured on half of itsportion, the rest of the half portion becomesmore hot.

Reason : Resistance decreases due todecrease in temperature.

45. Assertion : Long distance transmission of a.c. iscarried out at extremely high voltages.

Reason : Because when the distance is large, voltage has to he large.

46. Assertion : A body subject to threeconcurrent forces may be in equilibrium.

Reason : For equilibrium the sum of all theconcurrent forces acting at a point should bezero.

47. Assertion: A quick collision between twobodies is more violent than a slow collision,

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even when the initial and the final velocities are identical.

Reason : The rate of change of momentum is greater in the first case.

48. Assertion: The ratio for time taken for lightemission from an atom to that for release ofnuclear energy in fission is 1: 100.

Reason : Time taken for the light emissionfrom an atom is of the order of 10-8s.

49. Assertion : The resistance of a junction of aspoiled transistor is low when forwardbiased or reverse biased.

Reason : The resistance of a junction of atransistor in working order is high always.

50. Assertion : A charged particle free to movein an electric field always moves along anelectric field line.

Reason : The electric field lines diverge froma negative charge and converge at a positivecharge.

51. Assertion: Sky wave signals are used forlong distance radio communication. Thesesignals are in general, less stable than groundwave signals.

Reason : The state of ionosphere varies fromhour to hour, day to day and season toseason.

52. Assertion: The velocity of a body at thebottom of an inclined plane of given height ismore when it slides down the planecompared to when it is rolling down thesame plane.

Reason : in rolling down, a body acquiresboth kinetic energy of translation androtation

53. Assertion : If an electron and protonpossessing same kinetic energy enter anelectric field in a perpendicular direction, thepath of the electron is more curved than thatof the proton.

Reason : Electron forms a larger curve due toits small mass.

54. Assertion : Static crashes are heard on radio,when lightning flash occurs in the sky.

Reason : Electromagnetic waves havingfrequency of radio wave range interfere withradio waves.

55. Assertion: When height of a tube is less thanliquid rise in the capillary tuber the liquiddoes not overflow,

Reason : Product of radius of meniscus andheight of liquid in the capillary tube alwaysremain constant.

56. Assertion: The periodic time of a hard springis less as compared to that of a soft spring.

Reason : The periodic time depends upon the spring constant, which is large for hard spring.

57. Assertion : It is not possible for a system,unaided by an external agency to transferheat from a body at lower temperature toanother body at a higher temperature.

Reason : It is not possible to violate thesecond law of thermodynamics.

58. Assertion : To hear distinct beats, differencein frequencies of two sources should be lessthan 10Hz.

Reason : More the number of beats per secmore difficult to hear them.

59. Assertion : -radiation emission occurs after

and decay.

Reason : Energy levels occur in nucleus.

60. Assertion : An electron microscope is based onde Broglie hypothesis.

Reason : A beam of electrons behaves as a wave which can be converged by electric and magnetic lenses

CHEMISTRY

61. Maltose is made of the units

(a) -D glucose and -D glucose

(b) -D glucose and -D fructose

(c) -D glucose and -D glucose

(d) -D glucose and -D galactose

62. Which of the following is not sp2 hybridised?

(a) Graphite (b) Graphene

(c) Fullerene (d) Dry ice

63. Which one of the following formspropanenitrile as the major product?

(a) Propyl bromide + alcoholic KCN

(b) Ethyl bromide ÷ alcoholic KCN

(c) Ethyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN

(d) Propyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN

64. KMnO4 in alkaline medium changes to

(a) Mn3+ (b) MnO2

(c) MnO2-4 (d) Mn(OH)4

-

65. Rhombic sulphur dissolves best in

(a) CS2 (b) H2O

(c) ethanol (d) ether.

66. Which is a bactericidal antibiotic?

(a) Penicillin (b) Erythromycin

(c) Tetracycline (d)Chloramphenicol

67. Least coordination number is shown

(a) Co2(CO)8 (b) Mn2(CO)10

(c) [Fe(en)2NH3] (d) [Cr(OH)3(NH3)3]

68. Enrichment of U235 is done by

(a) IF7 (b) ClF3

(c) IF5 (d) ClF5

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69. Which halogen forms only one oxoacid(HOX)?

(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I

70. Which is correct regarding size of atom?

(a) N < O (b) B < Ne

(c) V > Ti (d) Na > K

71. Which is correct regarding acidity?

(a) H2S < H2Se (b) H2S > H2Se

(c) H2Se> H2Te (d) None of these.

72. Slag formed in blast furnace, removesimpurity of

(a) SiO2 (b) CaO

(c) CO2 (d) FeO

73. When CO2 is passed through sodiumaluminate precipitate compound is formed?

(a) Al(OH)3 (b) Al2O3

(c) Na2CO3 (d) No ppt.

74. Purification of colloids is done by

(a) dialysis (b) peptisation

(c) electrophoresis (d) coagulation.

75. Which does not give Cannizzaro reaction?

(a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO

(c) Ph - CHO (d) Ph-CH2-CHO

76. Monomers of nylon 2-nylon 6 are

(a) glycine and amino caproic acid

(b) glycine and caproic acid

(c) hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid

(d) alanine and amino caproic acid.

77. A diatomic gas at pressure P, compressedadiabatically to half of its volume, what isthe final pressure?

(a) (2)1.4P (b) P/(2)1,4

(c) (2)5/3P (d) P/(2)5/3

78. Choose the correctly paired gaseous cationand it magnetic (spin only) moment (in B.M.)

(a) Ti2+, 3.87 B.M. (b) Cr2+,4.90 B.M.

(c) Co3+, 3.87 B.M. (d) Mn2+, 4,90 B.M.

79. In presence of converts H2S into

(a) Mn only (b) MnS only

(c) MnS+S (d) S only

80. Which of the following has highestconcentration of PAN?

(a) Smoke (b) Ozone

(c) Photochemical smog

(d) Reducing smog

81. The equilibrium constant for the reaction ½H2(g) + ½ I2 (g) HI (g) is Kc

Equilibrium constant for the reaction,

2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g) is?

(1) 1/Kc (b) 1/(Kc)2

(c) 2/Kc (d) 2/(Kc)2

82. 75% of a zero order reaction complete in 4 h87.5% of the same reaction completes in

(a) 6 h (b) 12 h

(c) 8 h (d) 2 h

83. For the reaction A(g) B(g) + C(g), the rateconstant is given as (Pi is initial pressure andPt is pressure at time t)

(a) t

i

P

Plog

t

303.2k

(b) ti

i

PP2

Plog

t

303.2k

(c) i

ti

P

PP2log

t

303.2k

(d) i

ti

P2

PPlog

t

303.2k

84. Which of the following pairs representisotones?

(a) Se,As 78

34

77

33 (b) Os,Pt 190

76

195

78

(c) Cd,Ag 112

48

108

47 (d) Ba,Hf 137

56

178

72

85. In O3 molecule, the formal charge on thecentral O-atom is

(a) 0 (b) -1 (c) -2 (d) +1

86. The number of atoms in 52 g of He is

(a) 78.299 x 1024 atoms

(b) 7.820 x 1024 atoms

(c) 7.829 x 1024 atoms

(d) 78.234 x 1025 atoms

87. Which of the following represents the correctbond order?

(a) O2+ < O2

- > O22- (b) O2

- > O22- > O2

+

(c) O22- > O2

+ > O2- (d) O2

+> O2- > O2

2-

88. What is the oxidation number of Br inKBrO4?

(a) +6 (b) +7 (c) +5 (d) +5

89. Which of the following reactions increasesthe production of dihydrogen from synthesisgas?

(a) CH4(g) + H2O(g) 1270 K CO(g) + H2(g)

(b) C(s) + H2(O)g ) 1270 K CO(g) + H2(g)

(c) CO(g) + H2(O)(g) 673K CO2(g) + H2(g)

(d) C2H6 + 2H20 1270 K 2CO + 5H2

90. Which of the following statements isincorrect?

(a) Li+ has minimum degree of hydration.

(b) The oxidation state of K in KO2 is +1.

(c) Na is used to make a Na/Pb alloy.

(d) MgSO4 is readily soluble in water.

91. The purity of an organic compound isdetermined by

(a) chromatography

(b) crystallisation

(c) melting or boiling point

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(d) both (a) and (c).

92. The IUPAC name of the given compound is(CH3)3CCH2C(CH3)3

(a) 2, 3, 4, 4-tetramethylpentane

(b) 1, 2, 2, 4-tetramethylpentene

(c) 2, 2, 4, 4-tetramethylpentane

(d) 3, 3-dimethylpentane.

93. The value of Henry’s constant KH is

(a) greater for gases with higher solubility

(b) greater for gases with lower solubility

(c) constant for all gases

(d) not related to the solubility of gases.

94. In a solid, atom M occupies cp lattice and1/3rd of tetrahedral voids are occupied byatom N. Find the formula of solid formed byM and N.

(a) M3N2 (b) M2N3

(c) M4N3 (d) M3N4

95. Which one of the following is an example forhomogeneous catalysis?

(a) Manufacture of ammonia by Haber’sprocess.

(b) Manufacture of sulphuric acid by contactprocess.

(c) Hydrogenation of oil.

(d) Hydrolysis of sucrose in presence ofdilute hydrochloric acid.

96. Which one of the following is not employed asantihistamine?

(a) Dimetane (b Chloramphenicol

(c) Seldane (d) Both (a) and (b)

97. A forms hcp lattice and B are occupying 1/3rdof tetrahedral voids, then the formula of compound is

(a) AB (b) A3B2

(c) A2B3 (d) AB4

98. Which of the following is not a green housegas?

(a) Hydrogen (b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Methane (d) N2O

99. During the dehydration of alcohols toalkenes by heating with conc. H2SO4, theinitiating step is

(a) elimination of water

(b) protonation of an alcohol molecule

(c) formation of an ester

(d) formation of carbocation.

100. In Clemmensen reduction, compound is treated with

(a) zinc amalgam + HC1

(b) sodium amalgam + HCI

(c) zinc amalgam + HNO3

(d) sodium amalgam + HNO3.

Directions: In the following questions (101-120), a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as:





101. Assertion: Co(IV) is known but Ni(IV) is not.

Reason : Ni(IV) has d4 electronic configuration.

102. Assertion : The correct order of oxidising power is :

4

2

722 MnOOCrVO

Reason : The oxidation state of Mn is +7.

103. Assertion : O2 has higher bond length than O3.

Reason : O3 is paramagnetic.

104. Assertion : Insulin is water soluble.

Reason : Insulin is a globular protein.

105. Assertion : Monoclinic sulphur is an example of monoclinic crystal system.

Reason : For a monoclinic system a b c

and = = 90°, 90°.

106. Assertion :Chemistry of actinoids is more complicated than lanthanoids.

Reason : Actinoid elements are radioactive.

107. Assertion: Coagulation power of Al3+ is more than Nat

Reason : Greater the valency of the flocculating ion added, greater is its power to cause precipitation (Hardy-Schulze rule).

108. Assertion: Mixture of CH3COOH and CH3COONH4 is an example of acidic buffer.

Reason : Acidic buffer contains equimolar mixture of weak acid and its salt with weak base.

109. Assertion : Al becomes passive in conc. HNO3.

Reason : Conc. HNO3 has no action on aluminium metal.

110. Assertion: Chloroform is stored in dark coloured bottles.

Reason : Chronic chloroform exposure may cause damage to liver and kidneys.

111. Assertion : Saturated hydrocarbons are chemically less reactive.

Reason : All isomeric paraffins have same parent name.

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112. Assertion: (CH3)3CCOOH does not give HVZ reaction.

Reason : (CH3)3CCOOH does not have a-hydrogen atom.

113. Assertion: An ideal solution obeys Raoult’s Law

Reason : In an ideal solution, solute- solute as well as solvent-solvent interactions are similar to solute- solvent interactions.

114. Assertion: All the hydrogen atoms in CH2 = C = CH2 lie in one plane.

Reason : All the carbon atoms in its are sp2 hybridized.

115. Assertion : Conductivity of all electrolytes decreases on dilution.

Reason : On dilution number of ions per unit volume decreases.

116. Assertion: Permanent hardness of water is removed by treatment with washing soda.

Reason : Washing soda reacts with soluble calcium and magnesium chlorides and sulphates in hard water to form insoluble carbonates.

117. Assertion : Linkage isomerism arises in coordination compounds containing ambidentate ligand.

Reason : Ambidentate ligand has two different donor atoms.

118. Assertion: Ortho and para-nitrophenol can be separated by steam distillation.

Reason : Para-nitrophenol is steam volatile due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding.

119. Assertion : Natural rubber is a polymer of isoprene.

Reason : Isoprene is a pentene.

120. Assertion: H3PO3 is dibasic acid.

Reason : Two hydrogen atoms are directly attached to the P.

BIOLOGY

121. Which is the longest phase of the cell cycle?

(a) Mphase (b) Interphase

(c) Leptotene (d) S-phase

122. The total number of biodiversity hotspots in the world are

(a) 72 (b) 34 (c) 52 (d) 24.

123. Which of the following occurs due to monosomy of sex chromosome?

(a) Down’s syndrome

(b) Turner’s syndrome

(c) Haemophilia

(d) Sickle cell anaemia

124. During menstrual cycle, levels of LH and estrogen are highest around

(a) 14th day (b) 21st day

(c) 7th day (d) 28th day.

125. Which of the given genera is homosporous?

(a) Cycas (b) Pinus

(c) Selaginella (d) Lycopodium

126. Which of the following are a group of micronutrients for plants?

(a) Fe, Mn, Cu, Mo, Zn

(b) Fe, Mn, Cu, O, C

(c) Cu, B, CI, Fe, Ca

(d) Ca, Mg, Fe

127. Match Column - I with Column - II and choose the correct option from below.

Column - I Column - II

A. Marginal placentation (i) Sunflower

B. Axile placentation (ii) Mustard

C. Parietal placentation (iii) Lemon

D. Basal placentation (iv) Pea

(a) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i)

(b) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (ii)

(c) A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)

(d) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i)

128. Somaclones are prepared by

(a) callus culture

(b) sexual reproduction

(c) micropropagation

(d) somatic hybridisation

129. Plants do not get benefit from

(a) N2 in air (b) O2 in air

(c) CO2 in air (d) O3 in air.

130. Vernalisation is subjected to plants growing in

(a) tropical areas

(b) sub tropical areas

(c) temperate areas

(d) hot areas/arctic region

131. The phenomenon that operates in the formation of root or shoot in a callus culture is

(a) differentiation(b) redifferentiation

(c) dedifferentiatin (d) rejuvenation.

132. Which of the following genes do not occur naturally in living organisms?

(a) Bt genes (b) RNAi genes

(c) Cry genes

(d) endogeneous cytoplasmic defense genes

133. DNA and RNA comprise of

(a) sugar, phosphate base

(b) sugars phosphate

(c) base, phosphate

(d) sugar, base.

134. Choose the correct pair.

(a) Coconut, cucurbits - dioecious

(b)Honeybee Rotifers - parthenogenesis

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(c)Ornithorhyncus, Whale - viviparity

(d)Frog, peacock - external fertilisation

135. Which of the following associations shows mutualism?

(a) Fig and wasp

(b) Barnacles on whale

(c) Roundworms in human intestine

(d) Orchids on mango tree

136. Select the incorrect statement.

(a) Periplaneta has compound eyes.

(b) Earthworm shows segmentation.

(c) Ascaris shows sexual dimorphism.

(d)Liver fluke has a complete alimentary canal.

137. How many haploid nuclei are present in a mature pollen grain?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four

138. In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and

(a)In the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted into the womb of other cows

(b)In the eight cell stage the individual cells separated under electrical field for further development in culture media

(c)From this upto eight identical twins can be produced

(d)The egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of other cows.

139. Select the correct pair of microorganism and the product obtained from it.

(a) Monascus purpureus - produces large holes in Swiss cheese.

(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae - used for making wine and beer after distillation.

(c) Streptococcus - produces streptokinase which is used to remove clots.

(d) Aspergillus niger - produces citric acid and butyric acid.

140. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following.

(a) Gonorrhoea, hepatitis B - sexually transmitted diseases

(b) AIDS, gonorrhoea - viral infection

(c) Diphtheria, ringworm - fungal infection

(d) Diphtheria, tuberculosis - protozoan infection

141. Select the correct statement about hormones and their actions.

(a) Parathyroid hormone increases K absorption of the body.

(b) Insulin and glucagon helps to maintain blood sugar levels.

(c) Old aged people have weak immunity due to increased activity of thymus.

(d) Osteoporosis in women occurs due to increased levels of oestrogens.

142. Select the correct sequence for Homo erectus.

(a) Erectus homo primata chordata

animalia

(b) Homo erectus primata animalia

chordata

(c) Homo erectus primata chordata

animalia

(d) Erectus home animalia primata

chordata

143. Refer the given figure of digestive system of earthworm and identify the part labelled A.

(a) Intestinal caecae (b) Typhlosole

(c) Gizzard (d) Pharynx

144. Select the correct option regarding A, B and C

(a) A-Tropomyosin-runs close to F-actin throughout its length

(b) B-Troponin-complex protein distributed at regular interval of tropomyosin

(c) C-F actin - polymer ofmonomeric G-actin helically bound to each other

(d) None of these

145. Identify the given figure and .. select the correct option.

Aim4Aiim

s.in(a) Neutrophil - phagocytic cell which

destroy foreign organisms entering the body.

(b) Eosinophil - their number increases during allergic infection.

(c) Lymphocyte - small sized non-motile and non-phgocytic.

(d) Monocyte - motile and phagocytic in nature.

146. Refer the given figure of nephron.

Identify A, B, C and D and select the correct option regarding them

(a) A-Glomerulus - a tuft of capillaries formed by afferent arteriole.

(b) B-PCT-reabsorption of HCO3- and

selective secretion of H+ and K+ occurs here.

(c) C-DCT-almost all glucose, amino acids, water, Na+, K+ and uric acid are absorbed here.

(d) D-collecting duct-extends from the cortex of the kidney to the inner parts of medulla. Large amount of water is secreted in this region.

147. Which antibiotic has bactericidal effect?

(a) Erythromycin

(b) Penicillin

(c) Streptomycin

(d) Chloramphenicol

148. Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) The biodiversity decreases with increasing latitude.

(b) The biodiversity decreases with increasing altitude.

(c) The fishes show greatest biodiversity among vertebrates.

(d) The biodiversity of bryophytes is greater than that of angiosperms.

149. Which of the following options consist of nonessential amino acids only?

(a) Valine, leucine, glycine, alamnt

(b) Glycine, serine, proline, glutami.- acid

(c) Proline, aspartic acid, glutamic acid, methionine

(d) Cysteine, tyrosine, alanine, isoleucine

150. Photochemical smog formed in congested metropolitan cities mainly consists of

(a) ozone, peroxyacyl nitrate and NOx

(b) smoke, peroxyacyl nitrate and SO2

(c) hydrocarbons SO2 and CO2

(d) hydrocarbons ozone and SOx.

151. How are transformants selected from nontransformants?

(a) Presence of more than one recognition site in the vector DNA.

(b) Presence of alien DNA into the vector DNA results into insertional inactivation of selectable marker.

(c) Antibiotic resistance gene gets inactivated due to insertion of alien DNA.

(d) Both (b) and (c).

152. Given is the diagrammatic representation of the sectional view of cochlea. Select the correct option regarding it.

(a) B - Organ of corti-responsible for maintenance of balance of the body and posture.

(b) A - Scala vestibuli-filled with perilymph that ends at the oval window.

(c) D - Scala tympani - terminates at the round window which opens to the middle ear.

(d) C - Basilar membrane - nerve impulses are generated against it.

153. In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the respective activity of the human heart?

(a) S - start of systole

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(b) T - end of diastole

(c) P - depolarisation of the atria

(d) R - repolarisation of ventricles

154. Which one of the following vitamins is anti haemorrhagic?

(a) Vitamin B12 (b) Vitamin B5

(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin K

155. Which of the following is not a character of cancerous cells in our body?

(a) Contact inhibition

(b) Neoplasia

(c) Metastasis

(d) Inability for differentiation

156. What is true about Bt toxin?

(a) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus.

(b) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its multiplication.

(c) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.

(d) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut.

157. Wine and beer are produced directly by fermentation whereas brandy and whisky require both fermentation and distillation. This is because

(a) fermentation is inhibited at an alcohol level of 10-18%

(b) distillation prolongs storage

(c) distillation improves quality

(d) distillation purifies the beverage.

158. Which of the following is not a characteristic of pBR322 vector?

(a) It is the first artificial cloning vector constructed in 1977 by Boliver and Rodriguez.

(b) It is the most widely used, versatile and Easily manipulated vector.

(c) It has two antibiotic resistance genes, tetR and ampR.

(d) It does not have restriction site for Sal I.

159. Which of the following pairs of hormones can easily pass through the cell membrane and binds to a receptor inside it (mostly in the nucleus)?

(a) Insulin , glucagon

(b) Thyroxine, insulin

(c) Somatostatin, oxytocin

(d) Cortisol, testosterone

160. Which one of the following immune system components does not correctly match with its respective role?

(a) Interferons - secreted by virus-infected cells and protect non-infected cells from further viral infection

(b)B-lymphocytes-produces antibodies in response to pathogens into blood to fight with them

(c)Macrophages-mucus secreting cells that trap microbes entering in the body

(d) IgA-present in colostrum in early days of lactation and protect infant from diseases

Directions: In the following questions (161-180), a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as





16l. Assertion : In a pedigree analysis, represents five unaffected offsprings.

Reason : In a pedigree analysis, the offsprings are numbered with arabic numerals (1, 2, 3… ) and a generation is numbered with roman numerals (I, II, III...).

162. Assertion : HCl converts pepsinogen into active enzyme pepsin.

Reason : Pepsin converts protein into proteoses and peptones.

163. Assertion : The optic nerves leave the eye at the point called blind spot.

Reason : Only cones are densely packed at the blind spot, hence is the name.

164. Assertion : Smoking causes oxygen deficiency in the body.

Reason : Carbon monoxide when inhaled while smoking, combines with haemoglobin to form chemically stable compound.

165. Assertion : The immune responses of old persons become weak.

Reason : Thymus is degenerated in old individuals resulting in a decreased production of thymosin.

166. Assertion : The enlarged Q and R waves indicate myocardial infarction.

Reason : The QRS complex represents ventriclar repolarisation.

167. Assertion : The leaves in gymosperms are well- adapted to withstand extremes of temperature, humidity and wind.

Reason: Unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes in gymnosperms the male and

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female gametophytes do not have an independent free-living existence.

168. Assertion : Glucose is the favoured respiratory substrate.

Reason : When glucose is used as respiratory substrate and is completely oxidized, the RQ is 1.

169. Assertion : Human heart is myogenic.

Reason : The contraction is initiated by a specialized patch of modified heart muscles without requiring stimulation from nerve cells.

170. Assertion : AIDS and hepatitis B are sexually transmitted diseases.

Reason : There is no permanent cure for both of them.

171. Assertion : One codon may code for more than one amino acid.

Reason : A codon is degenerate and ambiguous.

172. Assertion: Interspecific competition is the only potent force in organic evolution.

Reason : Unexceptionally two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely.

173. Assertion : GM crops can affect human health by causing allergic reactions.

Reason : Transgenes in commercial crops can endanger native species e.g., the Bt toxin gene expressed in pollen might endanger pollinators like honeybees.

174. Assertion : Secondary air pollutants are formed by interaction among the primary pollutants and are more toxic.

Reason : DDT is a secondary air pollutant.

175. Assertion : In basidiomycetes, basidiospores are produced endogenously in the basidium.

Reason : In ascomycetes, ascospores are produced exogenously in ascus.

176. Assertion : In a pivot joint rounded or pointed bone fits into a shallow depression in another bone.

Reason : Pivot joints are present between the metacarpals and phalanges of the fingers.

177. Assertion : Deficiency symptoms of N, K and Mg are first visible in the senescent leaves.

Reason : Bio molecules containing these elements are broken down in the older leaves, making these elements available for mobilising to younger leaves.

178. Assertion : Photorespiration interferes with the successful functioning of Calvin cycle. photorespiration oxidises ribulose

biphosphate which is an acceptor of CO2 in Calvin cycle.

179. Assertion : Pulmonary circulation consists of flow of deoxygenated blond from light ventricle to the lungs and flow of oxygenated blood from lungs to the left atrium.

Reason : Systemic circulation consists of flow of oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to all parts of the body and deoxygenated blood from different parts to right atrium.

180. Assertion : Hormones (ARH) excite the anterior lobe of pituitary gland to produce adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

Reason : ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete its glucocorticoid

TEST DATE Major Test - 1 (XIth Class Full Syllabus) 03/02/2018

Major Test - 2 (XIIth Class Full Syllabus) 17/02/2018

Major Test - 3 (AIIMS Full Syllabus) 24/03/2018

Major Test - 4 (AIIMS Full Syllabus) 07/04/2018

Major Test - 5 (AIIMS Full Syllabus) 21/04/2018* GK Questions included

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UNIT TEST DATEUnit Test - 1 15/07/2017

Unit Test - 2 22/07/2017

Unit Test - 3 05/08/2017

Unit Test - 4 02/09/2017

Unit Test - 5 16/09/2017

Unit Test - 6 14/10/2017

Unit Test - 7 4/11/2017

Unit Test - 8 18/11/2017

Unit Test - 9 16/12/2017

Unit Test - 10 30/12/2017

TEST DATE Major Test - 1 (XIth Class Full Syllabus) 03/02/2018

Major Test - 2 (XIIth Class Full Syllabus) 17/02/2018

Major Test - 3 (NEET Full Syllabus) 24/03/2018



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