phy mc content - wordpress.com...hkcee physics multiple choices contents section 1 heat 1.1...

HKCEE Physics Multiple Choices

CONTENTS

Section 1 Heat

1.1 Temperature, heat and internal energy P.1-9

1.2 Transfer processes P.10-11

1.3 Change of state P.12-21

Section 2 Mechanics

2.1 Position and movement P.22-38

2.2 Force and motion P.39-62

2.3 Work, energy and power P.63-71

2.4 Momentum P.72-78

Section 3 Waves

3.1 Nature and properties of waves P.79-95

3.2 Light P.96-114

3.3 Sound and electromagnetic waves P.115-125

Section 4 Electricity and Magnetism

4.1 Electrostatics P.126-133

4.2 Electric circuits and power P.134-159

4.3 Domestic electricity P.160-164

4.4 Magnetic effect of an electric current P.165-168

4.5 Current carrying conductor in a magnetic field P.169-170

4.6 Electromagnetic induction P.171-174

4.7 Application of electromagnetism P.175

4.8 Motor and generator P.176-178

4.9 Transformer P.179-185

4.10 High voltage transmission of electrical energy P.186

Section 5 Atomic Physics

5.1 Radioactivity P.187-190

5.2 Atomic model and structure P.191

5.3 Radioactive decay P.192-197

5.4 The uses of radioisotopes P.198-199

5.5 Radiation safety P.200

5.6 Nuclear fission and fusion P.201

Multiple-Choices Answers (By Topics) P.202-205

Multiple-Choices Answers (By Years) P.206

1

1. 1992/II/20

In the above diagram, the water is initially at room temperature. The electric beaker is switched on for 300

seconds and then switched off. Which of the following graphs correctly describes the variation of the reading

of the thermometer?

2. 1993/II/16

Water is used as a coolant in motor car engines because

A. Water has a low specific heat capacity.

B. Water has a high specific heat capacity.

C. Water has a low specific latent heat of vaporization

D. Water has a high specific latent heat of vaporization

E. Water is non-volatile.

3. 1993/II/18

16500 J of energy is supplied to a metal block of mass 0.5 kg and its rise in temperature is 64ºC. The specific

heat capacity of the metal is

A. 11 K kg J 64

0.5 16500−−

× B. 11 K kg J

0.5

64 16500−−

× C. 11 K kg J

0.5 64

16500−−

× D. 11 K kg J

0.5 273)(64

16500−−

×+

E. 11 K kg J27364

0.5 16500−−

+

×

HKCEE PHYSICS | 1.1 Temperature, heat and internal energy | P.1

2

4. 1994/II/16

An equal amount of energy is supplied to each of the following substances. Which one of them will have the

smallest rise in temperature?

Substance Mass/kg Specific heat capacity/J kg–1

K–1

A. P 1 4200

B. Q 2 2300

C. R 3 2200

D. S 4 900

E. T 5 480

5. 1995/II/18

Which of the following statements about heat is/are true?

(1) Heat is used to describe the total energy stored in a body.

(2) Heat is used to describe the energy transferred from one body to another as a result of temperature

difference between them.

(3) A body’s internal energy is increased when it is heated.

A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only E. (1), (2) and (3)

6. 1996/II/18

Which of the following phenomenon concerning water can be explained by its high specific heat capacity?

(1) Water is used as a coolant in car engines

(2) Inland areas generally have hotter summers and cooler winters than coastal areas of similar latitude

and altitude.

(3) The body temperature of human beings changes slowly even when the surrounding temperature

changes sharply.


7. 1996/II/43

1st statement 2

nd statement

The internal energy of a body always increased The temperature of a body always increased

when the body is heated. when the body is heated.


3

8. 1997/II/19

The above apparatus is used to find the specific heat capacity of a liquid. Which of the following can improve

the accuracy of the experiment?

(1) Taking the final temperature of the liquid immediately after switching off the power supply.

(2) Covering the cup with a lid.

(3) Stirring the liquid throughout the experiment.


9. 1997/II/20

An immersion heater of power 100 W is used to heat 0.3 kg of a liquid with specific heat capacity 2000 kg–1

K–1

If the initially temperature of the liquid is 23ºC, find its temperature after 2 minutes. Assume all the energy is

absorbed by the liquid.

A. C23) 2000 (0.3 °×× B. C)100

2 23 2000 0.3( °×××

C. C 23)2000

0.3 120 100( °+××

D. C 23)2000 0.3

120 100( °+

××

E. C 23)120 100

2000 0.3( °+

××

10. 1998/II/19

Which of the following statement about latent energy, heat and temperature is/are true?

(1) The internal energy of a body is a measure of the total kinetic and potential energy of the molecules in

the body.

(2) Two bodies of the same temperature always have the same amount of internal energy.

(3) Heat is a measure of the energy transferred from one body to another as a result of temperature difference

between the two bodies



4

11. 1998/II/21

The above graph shows the variation of the temperature of a liquid with time when the liquid is heated by a

400 W heater. The mass of the liquid is 2 kg. Find the specific heat capacity of the liquid.

A. 83 J kg–1

K–1

B. 480 J kg–1

K–1

C. 1200 J kg–1

K–1

D. 2400 J kg–1

K–1

E. 12000 J kg–1

K–1

12. 1998/II/43

1st statement 2

nd statement

The temperature of a pool of water changes slowly Water has a high specific heat capacity.

even when the temperature of the surroundings

changes rapidly.

13. 1998/II/44

1st statement 2

nd statement

When hot water is mixed thoroughly with cold When hot water is mixed thoroughly with cold

paraffin in a polystyrene cup, the energy gained paraffin in a polystyrene cup, the changes in

by the paraffin is equal to the energy lost by the temperature of the water and paraffin are identical.

water.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60

5

10

15

20

25

Temperature/°C

Time/s


5

14. 1999/II/16

The above graph shows the variation of the energies absorbed by the liquids with their temperature.

Let xc , yc and zc be the specific heat capacities of X,Y and Z respectively. Which of the following is correct?

A. xc = yc > zc B. xc = yc < zc C. xc > yc > zc D. xc > yc = zc E. xc < yc = zc

15. 1999/II/44

1st statement 2

nd statement

Two bodies of the same temperature always The internal energy of a body is the sum of

have the same amount of internal energy. kinetic and potential energy of the molecules

in the body.

16. 2000/II/20

Equal mass of five different liquids are separately heated at the same rate. The initial temperature of

all the liquids are all 20ºC. The boiling points and specific heat capacities of the liquids are shown below.

Which one of them will boil first?

Liquid Boiling point / ºC Specific heat capacity / J kg–1

K–1

A. P 50 1000

B. Q 60 530

C. R 80 850

D. S 80 1710

E. T 360 140

17. 2001/II/16

A melting ice block of mass 0.05 kg is mixed with x kg of water at 0ºC in a well-insulated container. If 25000 J

of energy is supplied to the mixture, the mixture changes to water at 4ºC. Find the value of x.

(Given : specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.34 x 510 J kg–1

,

specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg–1

K–1

)

A. 0.37 B. 0.44 C. 0.49 D. 1.44 E. 1.49


6

18. 2001/II/17

The above apparatus is used to find out the specific heat capacity of a copper block. The result is as follows:

Mass of copper block = m kg

Initial temperature = 21ºC

Final temperature = 47ºC

Initial joulemeter reading = R1 J

Final joulemeter reading = R2 J

Which of the following expressions give the specific heat capacity of copper (in J kg–1

K–1

)?

A. )(26 21 RRm − B. m

RR

26

21 − C. m

RR

26

12 − D. 26

)( 21 RRm − E.

26

)( 12 RRm −

19. 2002/II/20

(For question 20 and 21) The specific heat capacity of a metal is measured using this method :

A metal block is first immersed in boiling water for some time. The block is then transferred to a cup of

cold water. After a while, the temperature of the water is measured.

The result of the experiment is as follows:

Mass of metal block = 0.8 kg

Mass of water in the cup = 0.3 kg

Initial temperature of water in the cup = 23ºC

Final temperature of water in the cup = 38ºC

Find the specific heat capacity of the metal (in J kg–1

K–1

)

(Given : Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg–1

K–1

)

A. 236 B. 381 C. 622 D. 953


7

20. 2002/II/21

The result obtained in Q.19 is found to be higher than the true value of the specific heat capacity of the

metal. Which of the following is a probable reason?

A. Some hot water is still adhered to the metal block when the block is transferred to cold water.

B. Some energy is lost to the surroundings when the metal block is transferred to cold water.

C. Some energy is absorbed by the cup.

D. The temperature of the metal block is still higher than 38ºC when the final temperature of the water

in the cup is measured.

21. 2003/II/19

If there is no heat flow between two bodies when they are in contact, then two bodies must have the same

A. temperature B. internal energy C. specific heat capacity D. specific latent heat of vaporization

22. 2003/II/20

The difference in absolute temperature of two bodies is 100 K. Express the temperature difference in degree

Celsius.

A. -173ºC B. 100ºC C. 273ºC D. 373ºC

23. 2003/II/21

As shown in Figure(a), some liquid in a beaker is heated by a 1000 W immersion heater. Figure(b) shows the

variation of the reading of the electronic balance with time t. Which of the following statement about the liquid

is incorrect?

A. It starts to boil at t = 1t

B. Its temperature increases during the period t = 0 to t1

C. Its specific heat capacity can be estimated by 2

11000

m

t

D. Its specific latent heat of vaporization can be estimated by 12

12 )(1000

mm

tt

−

−

24. 2004/II/44

1st statement 2

nd statement

The watery fluids in human bodies help to maintain The watery fluids in human bodies have a high

their body temperature even when the surroundings specific heat capacity.


8

temperature changes sharply

25. 2005/II/27

1st statement 2

nd statement

When two objects are in contact, there must be heat The internal energy of an object increases with

transfer from the object with more internal energy to its temperature.

the one with less internal energy.

26. 2005/II/33

If equal masses of boiling water and melting ice cubes are mixed, which of the following best describe the

state of the mixture?

Note : Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg–1

K–1

,

Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.34 x 510 J kg–1

A. Water at 0 ºC

B. Water at a temperature higher than 0ºC

C. A mixture of water and ice at 0ºC

D. It cannot be determined since the masses of the water and ice are not given.

27. 2007/II/8

In an experiment, 2 kg of water at 20ºC is heated inside a boiler for 20 minutes. Water is boiled to 100ºC and

1.7 kg of water remains after boiling. What is the estimated power of the boiler?

Given : Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg-1

°C-1

Specific latent heat of vaporization of water = 2.26 x 106 J kg

-1

A. 565 W B. 649 W C. 1125 W D. 3762 W

28. 2007/II/10

Which liquids has the highest specific heat capacity?

A. P B. Q C. R D. S


9

29. 2008/II/10

A 100 W immersion heater is used to heat 0.5 kg of water, which is being stirred by a stirrer. After 3 minutes

the water temperature increases from 25ºC to 30ºC. What is the estimated energy loss in this period?

Given : specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg-1

ºC-1

A. 7 500 J B. 10 500 J C. 18 000 J D. 28 500 J

30. 2008/II/11

Which of the following statement is/are correct?

(1) Energy transfers from an object with higher internal energy to an object with lower internal energy

(2) An object must absorb energy when it changes its state

(3) Energy transfers from an object with higher temperature to an object with lower temperature.

A. (2) only B. (3) only C. (1) and (2) only D. (1) and (3) only

31. 2008/II/34

Which of the followings has the highest average speed of the molecules?

A. 1 g of ice cube at -10ºC

B. 10 g of melting ice cube

C. 100 g of water at room temperature

D. 0.1 g of steam at 100ºC

32. 2008/II/35

What physical properties does the temperature of an object represent?

(1) A measure of the degree of hotness of the object

(2) A measure of the internal energy of the object

(3) A measure of the average kinetic energy of the molecules of the object.

A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3)


10

1. 2005/II/7

The photograph shows a hot potato wrapped by shiny aluminium foil. By what means can the foil help

reducing the rate of energy lost from the potato to the surroundings?

(1) conduction

(2) convection

(3) radiation


2. 2005/II/8

Cynthia places a carpet on a tile floor. After a while, she stands in bare feet with one foot on the tile floor and

the other on the carpet as shown above. She feels that the tile floor is colder than the carpet. Which of the

following best explains this phenomenon?

A. The tile is a better insulator of heat than the carpet.

B. The tile is at a lower temperature than the carpet.

C. The specific heat capacity of the tile is smaller than that of the carpet.

D. Energy transfers from Cynthia’s foot to the tile at a greater rate than that to the carpet.

3. 2006/II/9

The figure shows a vacuum flask with two glass walls. Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) The surfaces P and Q are painted silvery to reduce heat loss.

(2) The cork stopper reduces heat loss by conduction and convection.

(3) The vacuum between the double glass walls reduces heat loss by radiation.


HKCEE PHYSICS | 1.2 Transfer processes | P.1

11

4. 2006/II/10

A space shuttle is covered by 'heat shields' over its body so as to protect interior form getting too hot while

entering the atmosphere of the Earth. Which of the following thermal properties is/are desirable for the

material of the 'heat shields’'?

(1) It should be a good conductor of heat.

(2) It should have a very high melting point.

(3) It should have high specific heat capacity.


5. 2007/II/9

The diagram below shows the structure of a cake.

The ice-cream inside the cake does not melt when it is baked in an oven. Which of the statements are possible

reasons for this phenomenon?

(1) The whipped egg white is a poor conductor of heat.

(2) The whipped egg white is a good radiator of heat.

(3) The sponge cake is a poor conductor of heat .


6. 2008/II/9

The above figure shows the aluminium heat sink of an audio amplifier which is used to transfer heat away

from the components inside the amplifier. Which of the following statements about the heat sink is/are correct?

(1) The heat sink is made of aluminium so that it can transfer heat away faster by conduction.

(2) The heat sink is silver in colour so that it can transfer heat away faster by radiation.

(3) The heat sink has a fin-like design to increase the surface area so that it can transfer heat away faster by

conduction of air.


HKCEE PHYSICS | 1.2 Transfer processes | P.2

12

1. 1990/II/21

The above apparatus is used to find the specific latent heat of vaporization of water.

Which of the following is NOT correct?

A. Cover the beaker with a lid.

B. Use a suitable heater to prevent boiling the water too vigorously.

C. Surround the beaker with some cotton.

D. Repeat the experiment several times and take the mean of the results.

E. Prevent the water drops which condense on the upper part of the heater from dropping back into the beaker.

2. 1990/II/22

A 20 W heater is used to melt a solid. A graph of temperature θ against time t is plotted as shown above. If a

40 W heater is used, which graph (using the same scale) would be obtained?

HKCEE PHYSICS | 1.3 Change of state | P.1

13

3. 1990/II/42

1st statement 2

nd statement

Energy is absorbed by water when it is boiling. The average kinetic energy of water molecules is increased

while the water is boiling.

4. 1991/II/18

A 400 W electric heater is used to heat 0.4 kg of a solid. The temperature-time graph of the substance is shown

above. The specific latent heat of fusion of the substance is

A. 64 kJ kg-1

. B. 160 kJ kg-1

. C. 400 kJ kg-1

D. 500 kJ kg-1

. E. 600 kJ kg-1

5. 1992/II/17

An immersion heater is used to heat a cup of water. It takes 10 minutes to bring the water from 20°C to its

boiling point 100°C. Find the time taken for the heater to vaporize the boiling water completely.

(Given : Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg-1

K-1

,

specific latent heat of vaporization of water = 2.268 × 106J kg

-1)

A. 54 minutes B. 60 minutes C. 67.5 minutes D. 77.5 minutes

E. It cannot be determined since the mass of water is not given

6. 1993/II/19 (Out of syll.)

Which of the following processes can increase the temperature of boiling water?

(1) Stirring the water vigorously

(2) Increasing the power of the heater

(3) Increasing the gas pressure above the water

A. (1) only B. (3) only C. (1) and (2) only D. (2) and (3) only E. (1),(2) and (3)

7. 1993/II/43

1st statement 2

nd statement

When a body is changing from solid state to liquid When a body is changing from solid state to liquid

state, its temperature remains unchanged. state, its internal energy remains unchanged.


14

8. 1994/II/17

The above apparatus is used to find the specific latent heat of fusion of ice. Which of the following is an essential

precaution to ensure an accurate result?

A. Crushed ice should be used.

B. The ice used should be just taken from the refrigerator so that its temperature is well below 0°C.

C. The amount of ice used in funnel X should be larger than that in Y.

D. The two funnels should be wrapped in insulating material.

E. The two beakers should be made of insulating material.

9. 1994/II/45

1st statement 2

nd statement

When a liquid is boiling, the average kinetic energy When a liquid is boiling, it absorbs energy.

of its molecules is increasing.

10. 1995/II/19

Which of the following substances is a liquid at room temperature (about 20°C)

Substance Melting point/°C Boiling point/°C

A. P 25 444

B. Q -39 357

C. R 44 280

D. S -218 -183

E. T 1083 2236

11. 1995/II/22

The melting point of copper is 1080°C and its specific latent heat of fusion is 2.1 × 105 J kg 1− . How much

energy is needed to melt 0.5 kg of copper at its melting point ?

A. J5.0

101.2 5× B. 0.5 × 2.1 × 10 5 J C. J

10805.0

101.2 5

×

× D.

E. 0.5 × 2.1 × 10 5 × 1080 J


0 5 2 1 10

1080

5. .× ×J

15

12. 1995/II/42

1st statement 2

nd statement

Steam at 100°C causes more severe burns to the A large amount of latent heat of vaporization is released

skin than boiling water at the same temperature. when steam condenses.

13. 1996/II/21

Two solid substances X and Y of equal mass are separately heated by two identical heaters. The above graph

shows the variation of the temperatures of the substances with time. Which of the following statements is/are

correct?

(1) The melting point of X is higher than that of Y.

(2) The specific heat capacity of X is smaller than that of Y.

(3) The specific latent heat of fusion of X is smaller than that of Y.


14. 1998/II/20

The above set-up can be used to find the specific latent heat of fusion of ice. Which of the following is not an

essential precaution to ensure an accurate result?

A. using crushed ice in the experiment. B. using melting ice in the experiment.

C. inverting the immersion heater into the ice completely. D. using the same amount of ice in both funnels.

E. covering the funnels with lids.


16

15. 1998/II/22

A block of melting ice with mass 0.02 kg is put into a polystyrene cup containing 0.3 kg of water with initial

temperature 20°C. After the mixture is stirred well, the ice block melts completely and the final temperature

of the water becomes 14°C. Which of the following equations can be used to find the specific latent heat of

fusion of ice, L? (Given : Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg-1

K-1

)

A. 0.3 x 4200 x 6 = 0.02 L B. 0.3 x 4200 x 6 = 0.02 L − 0.02 × 4200 × 6

C. 0.3 x 4200 x 6 = 0.02 L + 0.02 × 4200 × 6 D. 0.3 x 4200 x 6 = (0.02 L + 0.02 × 4200) × 14

E. 0.3 x 4200 x 6 = 0.02 L + 0.02 × 4200 × 14

16. 1999/II/17

The above apparatus is used to find the specific latent heat of vaporization of a liquid. Which of the following

can improve the accuracy of the experiment?

A. wrapping the beaker with cotton wool.

B. covering the beaker with a lid.

C. stirring the liquid throughout the experiment.

D. using shorter wires to connect the heater and the power supply.

E. setting up a control experiment with the heater not connected to the power supply.

17. 2000/II/19

A cup of fruit juice is of mass 0.2 kg and temperature 70ºC. If the specific heat capacity of the fruit juice is

4000 J kg-1

K-1

, find the minimum amount of ice at 0ºC that should be added to the juice in order to lower

temperature to 0ºC?

(Note : Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.34 x 105 J kg

-1)

A. 0.17 kg B. 0.20 kg C. 0.37 kg D. 0.84 kg E. 4.19 kg


17

18. 2000/II/21

The above apparatus is used to find the specific latent heat of vaporization of water lv. Which of the following

factors will cause the result obtained to be larger than the true value of lv?

(1) Some energy is lost to the surrounding

(2) Some steam condenses and drips back into the beaker

(3) Some boiling water inside the beaker splashes out of the beaker


19. 2001/II/18

The figure above shows the cooling curve of a substance which is initially in the liquid state. The temperature

of the substance remains unchanged during the period PQ. Which of the following statements about the

substance during the period PQ is/are correct?

(1) The substance is not losing any energy to the surroundings.

(2) Latent heat is absorbed by the substance.

(3) The average potential energy of the molecules of the substance is decreasing.


20. 2001/II/19

A cup of liquid P and a cup of liquid Q of equal mass are heated at the same rate. It is found that the

temperature of P is rising at a rate faster than that of Q. Which of the following deductions is/are correct?

(1) P has a lower specific latent heat of vaporization than Q.

(2) P has a lower boiling point than Q.

(3) P has a lower specific heat capacity than Q.



18

21. 2002/II/19

A certain amount of crushed solid is heated and the variation of its temperature with time is shown above. If the

same heater is used to heat a smaller amount of the solid, which of the following graphs (dash lines) best shows

the variation of the temperature of solid?

22. 2004/II/18

The graph shows the variation in temperature of equal masses of two substances P and Q when they are

separately heated by identical heaters. Which of the following deductions is correct?

A. The melting of P is lower than that of Q.

B. The specific heat capacity of P in solid state is larger than that of Q

C. The specific latent heat of fusion of P is larger than that of Q.

D. The energy required to raise the temperature of P from room temperature to boiling point is more than

that of Q.


19

23. 2004/II/19

(For Questions 23 and 24) The following set-up is used to measure lv, the specific latent heat of vaporization

of a liquid.

The result of the experiment is as follows:

Initial reading of the balance = 1.60 kg

Final reading of the balance = 1.45 kg

Energy supplied as measured by the kWh meter = 0.10 kW h

Find the measured value of lv.

A. 2.25 x 105 J kg

-1 B. 2.48 x 10

5 J kg

-1 C. 2.40 x 10

6 J kg

-1 D. 6.67 x 10

6 J kg

-1

24. 2004/II/20

How will the value of lv obtained in the experiment be affected if the following measures are taken separately?

I. replacing the beaker with a polystyrene container which is a better insulator.

II. adding more liquid into the beaker until the heater is completely immersed.

I II

A. decreases increases

B. decreases decreases

C. increases increases

D. increases decreases

25. 2004/II/43

1st statement 2

nd statement

The average kinetic energy of molecule of water at Energy is absorbed by ice when it melts.

0ºC is higher than that of molecules of ice at 0ºC.


20

26. 2005/II/9

When Joanne gets off from an air-conditioned bus in the summer, her glasses become misty (Figure (a)). After

a while, the glasses become clear again (Figure (b)). Which of the following physical processes are involved in

the above phenomena?

A. condensation followed by evaporation B. condensation followed by fusion

C. solidification followed by evaporation D. solidification followed by fusion

27. 2006/II/11

A substance X is heated at a constant rate and is changing temperature over a time period is recorded. The data

are plotted below.

Which of the following statements about the substance X is incorrect?

A. X is in liquid state at 0°C.

B. The boiling point of X is 80°C.

C. The specific heat capacity of X in the solid state is smaller than that of X in the gas state.

D. The specific latent heat of fusion of X is larger than the specific latent heat of vaporization of X.

28. 2006/II/12

The initial temperature of a jar of juice is 80°C and the mass of the juice is 2 kg. Susan adds ice cubes in the jar

in order to cool down the juice to 20°C. What is the minimum number of ice cubes at 0°C required?

Given: Mass of each ice cube = 0.15 kg

Specific heat capacity of juice = 4700 J kg-1

°C-1

Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg-1

°C-1

Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.34 x 105J kg

-1

A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12


21

29. 2006/II/45

1st statement 2

nd statement

The white mist appearing above a cup of hot Some water molecules evaporate from a cup of

tea that we can see is water in gaseous state. hot tea.

30. 2007/II/7

Water has a very high value of specific latent heat of vaporization. Which of the following statements can be

illustrated by this fact?

(1) Water is used as the coolant in car engines.

(2) Coastal region has milder climate as comparing with inland region.

(3) Steam at 100ºC causes more serious injury to skin than boiling water.

A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (3) only D. (1),(2) and (3)

31. 2007/II/34

Which of the following statements about vaporization are correct?

(1) Evaporation occurs only on the surface of the liquid.

(2) The rate of vaporization is higher when the temperature is higher.

(3) After evaporation, the average kinetic energy of the remaining liquid molecules will increase.



22

1. 1990/II/1

The above graph shows how the square of velocity of an object undergoes uniform acceleration varies with

displacement. The object is initially at rest and travels along straight line.

The acceleration of the object is

A. 0.5 ms-2

B. 1.0 ms-2

C. 2.0 ms-2

D. 4.0 ms-2

E. 8.0 ms-2

2. 1990/II/4

Y has a linear relationship with time as shown. Y may represent

(1) the speed of a body starting from rest under a constant force.

(2) the distance travelled by a body at constant speed.

(3) the acceleration of a body falling from rest.


3. 1990/II/8

A small metal ball is released from a point above the floor and bounces several times. Which of the following

graphs best represents the variation of the velocity of the ball with time?

HKCEE PHYSICS | 2.1 Position and movement | P.1

23

4. 1990/II/44

1st statement 2

nd statement

An object thrown vertically upwards has zero The object is instantaneously at rest at its highest point.

acceleration at its highest point.

5. 1991/II/1

Which of the following is/are vectors?

(1) momentum

(2) kinetic energy

(3) potential difference


6. 1991/II/4

The graph above shoes the strobe photograph of a ball rolling down a slope. The stroboscope is flashing at a

frequency of 5 Hz. Find the acceleration of the ball.

A. 0.20 ms-2

B. 0.50 ms-2

C. 0.67 ms-2

D. 1.00 ms-2

E. 1.33 ms-2

7. 1991/II/5

The above figure shows the velocity-time graph of an object. Which of the following statements about the object

is/are true?

(1) Its acceleration in the first 10 seconds is 2 ms 2−

(2) The total distance travelled is 250 m

(3) It returns to its starting point after 25 seconds



24

8. 1992/II/1

Which of the following displacement-time graphs describes the motion of a particle moving in a straight

line with uniform deceleration?

9. 1992/II/2

A man takes 2 seconds to walk from point A to point B, and then takes 3 seconds to walk from point B to point

C, where ABC is an equilateral triangle of side 3 m. Find the magnitude of his average VELOCITY from A to C.

A. 0.60 ms-1

B. 1.00 ms-1

C. 1.20 ms-1

D. 1.25 ms-1

E. 1.50 ms-1

10. 1992/II/4

Figure (a) shows a man near the edge of a cliff projecting a stone vertically upwards. The stone reaches the sea

after 18 seconds. Figure (b) shows the velocity-time graph for the motion of the stone. Find the height of the cliff.

A. 180m B. 540m C. 720m D. 900m E. 1620m

11. 1993/II/1

Which of the following pairs of physical quantities has/have the same unit?

(1) Work and potential energy

(2) Moment and momentum

(3) Specific heat capacity and specific latent heat of fusion



25

12. 1993/II/3

An object is thrown vertically upwards from a point A. It travels to the highest point B and then falls back to A.

Neglecting air resistance, which of tithe following statements is/are true?

(1) The total displacement of the object is zero

(2) The acceleration of the object is constant throughout the motion

(3) The time for the upward motion is longer than the time for the downward motion


13. 1993/II/5

The above diagram shows the variation of the acceleration of an object which is initially at rest. Which of the

following velocity-time graphs correctly describes the motion of the object?

14. 1994/II/1

Which of the following is a correct unit for the corresponding physical quantity?

Physical quantity Unit

A. Work watt

B. Up thrust kilogram

C. Momentum Newton second

D. Heat capacity joule per kilogram

E. Electromagnetic force Newton

15. 1994/II/3

A man takes 30 s to walk 80 m towards the east. He then takes 10 s to run 60 m towards the south. Which of the

following statements is/are correct?

(1) The magnitude of the resultant displacement of the man is 140 m

(2) The average speed of the man is 4.3 ms-1

(3) The magnitude of the average velocity of the man is 2.5 ms-1

A. (1) only B. (3) only C. (1) and (2) only D. (1) and (3) only E. (1) ,(2) and (3)

16. 1995/II/1

Which of the following pairs of physical quantities has the same units?

A. Charge and current B. Frequency and time C. Kinetic energy and heat

D. Moment and momentum E. Work and potential difference


26

17. 1995/II/3

A stone is thrown vertically upwards and it finally falls back to the starting point. Assume air resistance is

negligible. Which of the following statements is/are true throughout the motion?

(1) The acceleration of the stone is constant

(2) The total energy of the stone is conserved

(3) The momentum of the stone is conserved


18. 1995/II/4

An object starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration along a straight line. Which of the following

graphs concerning the motion of the object is/are correct?


19. 1995/II/5

Two objects of different masses are released from rest at the same height. Assume air resistance is negligible.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) A greater gravitational force is acting on the object with greater mass

(2) They take the same time to reach the ground

(3) They have equal velocity when they reach the ground


20. 1995/II/7

A car moves with a speed 30 km h-1

. The driver applies the brake and the car is stopped in a distance of 12 m.

If the car is moving at 60 km h-1

, what is the stopping distance? Assume that the same constant braking force

is applied in both case.

A. 12m B. 24m C. 48m D. 72m E. 96m


27

21. 1995/II/8

The above diagram shows the variations of the velocity of an object with time. What is the distance travelled by

the object in the first 3 seconds?

A. 5m B. 15m C. 25m D. 30m E. 45m

22. 1996/II/1

Which of the following expressions does not represent energy?

A. Force x displacement

B. 1/2 x mass x (speed)²

C. (Current)² x resistance

D. Current x potential difference x time

E. Mass x specific latent heat of fusion

23. 1996/II/2

A man walks 40 m towards the west. He then walks 40 m toward the south and lastly walks 70 m towards the

east. Find the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the man.

A. 30m B. 40m C. 50m D. 70m E. 150m

24. 1996/II/3

Which of the following statements about mass and weight is incorrect?

A. Mass is measured in kilograms and weight in newtons.

B. Mass is a scalar while weight is a vector.

C. Mass is a measure of the inertia of an object and weight is a measure of the gravitational pull on it.

D. The weight of an object at a particular place is proportional to its mass.

E. Both the mass and weight of an object vary slightly at different places on the earth.


28

25. 1996/II/4

An object moves with uniform acceleration along a straight line. Which of the following graphs correctly

describe(s) the motion of the object?


26. 1996/II/6

A coin and a feather are released from rest in vacuum as shown above. Which of the following is/are correct

deductions from this experiment?

(1) The masses of the coin and the feather are identical in vacuum.

(2) The coin and the feather fall with the same acceleration in vacuum.

(3) The forces acting on the coin and the feather in vacuum are identical.


27. 1997/II/1

Which of the following expressions represents a physical quantity which is different from the others?

A. Work/time B. (Voltage)² /Resistance C. Force x velocity D. (Current)² x resistance

E. Mass x specific latent heat of fusion

28. 1997/II/2

A student walks along curve ABC, which is made up of two semi-circular parts AB and BC of radius 3 m

and 4m respectively. He takes 2 s to walk from A to B and 5 s to walk from B to C. Find the magnitude of the

average velocity of the student from A to C.

A. 1.0 ms-1

B. 2.0 ms-1

C. 2.3 ms-1

D. 3.1 ms-1

E. 3.6 ms-1


29

29. 1997/II/4

Which of the following physical quantities is not a vector?

A. Acceleration B. Momentum C. Velocity D. Weight E. Work

30. 1997/II/6

A particle is released from rest and falls vertically under gravity. If the distance travelled by the particle in the

1st second is x and that travelled in the 2nd second is y, find the ratio x : y.

A. 1 : 1 B. 1 : 2 C. 1 : 3 D. 1 : 4 E. 1 : 5

31. 1998/II/2

A car undergoes uniform deceleration along a straight road. Its velocity decreases from 30 ms-1

to 20 ms-1

after travelling distance of 100 m. How much further will the car travel before it comes to a rest?

A. 50 m B. 80 m C. 180 m D. 200 m E. 300 m

32. 1998/II/4

The velocity-time graph of a car travelling along a straight horizontal toad is shown above. Which of the

following graphs shows the variation of the acceleration a of the car with time t?


30

33. 1998/II/5

At time t = 0, a table-tennis ball is released from a point above the ground and bounces several times on the

ground. The above graph shows the variation of the velocity v of the ball with time t. (Velocity pointing upwards

is taken to be positive.) At which of the following points on the graph does the ball reach its maximum height

above the ground after the first rebound?

A. Point P B. Point Q C. Point R D. Point S E. Point T

34. 1999/II/1

A man takes 30 s to walk from point A to point B along a straight road where AB = 120 m. He then takes 20 s

to run backwards to a point C, where BC = 100 m. Find the average speed of the man for the whole journey.

A. 0.4 ms-1

B. 2.0 ms-1

C. 4.0 ms-1

D. 4.4 ms-1

E. 4.5 ms-1

35. 1999/II/2

A 2 kg steel sphere and a 2 kg wooden sphere are initial held a the same level above ground and then released

from simultaneously. Assume air resistance is negligible. Which of the following statements about the two

spheres at any instant before they reach the ground is/are correct?

(1) The speeds of the two spheres are equal

(2) The accelerations of the two spheres are equal

(3) The gravitational forces acting on the two spheres are equal


36. 1999/II/3

A car starts from rest and travels along a straight road. The acceleration-time graph of the car is shown above.

Which of the following graphs shows the variation of the velocity v of the car with time t?


31

37. 2000/II/1

Which of the following physical quantities is not a vector?

A. acceleration B. displacement C. momentum D. potential energy E. weight

38. 2000/II/2

It is said that Galileo Galilee, and Italian scientist, dropped a small iron ball and large cannon ball from the top

of the Leaning Tower of Pisa. He found that the two balls reached the ground at almost the same time.

Which of the following is/are correct deduction(s) from this experiment?

(1) The two balls fell with the same acceleration

(2) A body will maintain uniform motion if there is no external force acting on it

(3) The gravitational forces acting on the two balls were identical.


39. 2000/II/3

A racing car accelerates from rest to a speed of 100 km h-1

in 3.2 s. Find the average acceleration of the car.

A. 4.34 ms-2

B. 8.68 ms-2

C. 15.63 ms-2

D. 31.25 ms-2

E. 112.50 ms-2

40. 2000/II/4

Two cars A and B travel along the same straight road. The velocity-time graphs of the two cars are shown above.

Which of the following statements about the motion of the two cars at time T0 is/are always correct?

(1) The two cars meet each other

(2) The two cars are moving with the same speed but in opposite directions

(3) Car A is accelerating while B is decelerating



32

41. 2001/II/1

A car travels along a straight road. The variation of the distance of the car from a fixed point P on the road

with time is shown above. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The speed of the car is decreasing.

B. The car is moving towards P.

C. There is an unbalanced force acting on the car.

D. The area under the graph denotes the total distance travelled by the car.

E. The slope of the graph denotes the acceleration of the car.

42. 2001/II/2

A girl walks along a straight road from a point A to a point B with an average speed 1 ms-1

. She then returns

from B to A along the same road with an average speed 2 ms 1− . Find the average speed of the girl for the whole

journey.

A. zero B. 0.67 ms-1

C. 1.33 ms-1

D. 1.41 ms-1

E. 1.50 ms-1

43. 2002/II/1

The figure above shows the distance-time graphs of two toy cars P and Q moving along a linear track. Which

of the following statements are correct ?

(1) Car P will reach the 20 m-mark first.

(2) Car P is overtaking car Q at t = 5 s.

(3) The average speed of car P in the first 5 s is smaller than that of car Q.



33

44. 2002/II/3

A piece of stone is hung from a balloon, which is rising vertically upward. If the string connecting the stone and

the balloon suddenly breaks, which of the following velocity-time graphs represents the subsequent motion of

the stone ? [Note : Velocity pointing upward is taken to be positive.]

45. 2003/II/1

(For Questions 45 and 46) The figure shows the velocity-time graph of a car travelling along a straight road.

What physical quantity does the are of the shaded region represent

A. energy B. momentum C. acceleration D. displacement

46. 2003/II/2

Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) The car changes its direction of travel at t = t1

(2) The car is farthest away from the starting point at t = t1

(3) The car returns to its starting point at t = t2


47. 2003/II/3

A car starts at point A and travels along a circular path of radius 30 m. After 15 s, the car returns to point A.

Find the average speed of the car within this period of time.

A. zero B. 2 ms-1

C. 6.3 ms-1

D. 12.6 ms-1


34

48. 2003/II/4

A plane starts from rest and accelerates at 2 ms-2

. If the minimum take-off speed is 60 ms-1

, find the minimum

distance travelled by the plane before it takes off.

A. 450 m B. 900 m C. 1800 m D. 3600 m

49. 2004/II/1

Three cars P,Q and R move along straight horizontal road. Their displacement-time graphs are shown above.

Which of the cars experience a change in momentum during the motion?

A. P and Q B. P and R C. Q and R D. P, Q and R

50. 2004/II/3

The figure shows the velocity-time graph of two students P and Q running along a straight road. They start at

the same point. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The average speed of P between t = 0 and t = t1is larger than that of Q

(2) At t = t1, P and Q reach the same point

(3) At t = t2, Q is ahead of P


51. 2004/II/7

A block is initially at rest on a smooth horizontal table and is pulled by a constant horizontal force. The figure

shows the relationship between the physical quantities y and x. Which of the following combinations of y and

x is impossible?

y x y x

A. displacement of the block square of time B. velocity of the block time

C. square of velocity of the block displacement of the block D. acceleration of the block time


35

52. 2005/II/1

(For Questions 52 and 53) Patrick is driving along a straight horizontal road. At time t = 0, he observes that an

accident has happened. He then applies the brake to stop his car with uniform deceleration. The graph shows

the variation of the speed of the car with time.

What is the reaction time of Patrick?

A. zero B. 0.8 s C. 4.2 s D. 5.0 s

53. 2005/II/2

Find the distance travelled by the car from time t = 0 to 5.0 s

A. 29.4 m B. 40.6 m C. 46.2 m D. 81.2 m

54. 2006/II/1

Two cars A and B start from rest simultaneously and travel along the same straight road. The velocity-time graphs

of the two cars are shown above. Which of the following statements abut the motion of the two cars is/are always

correct?

(1) A and B have the same average velocity during the time interval 0 to T.

(2) A and B have the same average acceleration during the time interval 0 to T

(3) A and B travel the same displacement during the time interval 0 to T.


55. 2006/II/7

The acceleration of an objects due to gravity on the Moon is about 1/6 that on the Earth. Which of the following

diagrams show the correct velocity-time graphs for a free falling object dropping respectively on the Earth’s

surface and the Moon’s surface?


36

56. 2006/II/28

A car travels along a straight road from A to B with a uniform acceleration. The speed of the car is v1 at the

instant when half of the journey time from A to B is elapsed and its speed is v2 at the mid-way of A and B.

Which of the following is correct??

A. v1 is always smaller than v2

B. v1 is always greater than v2

C. v1 and v2 are always equal

D. Whether v1 is greater than or smaller than v2 depends on the initial velocity of the car at A

57. 2007/II/1

A bicycle finishes a 100-meter journey in 9.77 s. Assume that the bicycle starts from rest and moves with a

uniform acceleration. What is the acceleration of the bicycle throughout the journey?

A. 1.05 ms-2

B. 2.10 ms-2

C. 10.2 ms-2

D. 20.5 ms-2

58. 2007/II/2

The displacement-time graph of an object moving along a straight line is shown below.

Which of the following graphs best represents the relationship between the velocity and time of the object?


37

59. 2007/II/33

The above graph shows the variation of the square of velocity v2 with the displacement s of a particle moving

along a straight line. What is the acceleration of the particle?

A. 0.5ms-2

B. 1 ms-2

C. 1.5 ms-2

D. 2 ms-2

60. 2008/II/2

An experiment is conducted by releasing a stone from rest to the ground. At constant time interval T, the

positions of the stone are recorded. Picture (a) shows its positions at different time. Which of the following

changes will give a path of the stone as shown in Picture (b)?

A. A shorter time interval is used B. A longer time interval is used

C. A lighter stone is used D. A heaver stone is used

61. 2008/II/4

The figure above shows the velocity-time graph of a car travelling on a horizontal straight road. Which of the


(1) Area under the graph is equal to the total displacement of the car.

(2) The acceleration of the car is maximum at time t1

(3) The kinetic energy of the car remains unchanged throughout the whole journey



38

62. 2008/II/6

At t = 0, a car and a trunk are at the same point on a horizontal straight road. Their velocity-time graph is

shown in the figure above. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. At t = 10s, the car is 100 m behind the trunk

B. At t = 10s, the car catches up the trunk

C. At t = 20s, the car is 100 m behind the trunk

D. At t = 20s, the car catches up the trunk.


39

1. 1991/II/2

Two blocks of equal mass are placed on a smooth horizontal surface as shown above. A constant force of 12 N

is applied to block A so that the two blocks move towards the right together. The force acting on A by B is

A. zero. B. 6 N to the left. C. 6 N to the right. D. 12 N to the left.

E. 12 N to the right.

2. 1991/II/7

The diagram above shows the variation of the net force acting on an object which is initially at rest. Which of

the following velocity-time graphs correctly describes the motion of the object?

3. 1991/II/9

A force F is applied to a block of mass 1 kg as shown above. The GREATEST value of F for the block to

remain at rest is 11 N. What would be the motion of the block if F is not applied?

A. remaining at rest B. sliding down with constant velocity

C. sliding down with an acceleration of 1 ms-2

D. sliding down with an acceleration of 5 ms-2

E. sliding down with an acceleration of 6 ms-2

HKCEE PHYSICS | 2.2 Force and motion | P.1

40

4. 1991/II/10

A man of weight W stands inside a lift which is moving upwards with a constant speed. If the force exerted

by the floor on the man is R, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) R is greater than W in magnitude.

(2) R and W are in opposite directions.

(3) R and W form an action and reaction pair according to Newton’s third law.


5. 1992/II/8

Two identical blocks X and Y are connected by a light string passing over a smooth pulley as shown above.

The two blocks are released from rest. After a while, the string breaks. Which of the following correctly

describes the motion of the blocks immediately after the string breaks?

X Y

A. stops moving accelerates at 5 ms 2−

B. moves with constant velocity accelerates at 5 ms 2−

C. accelerates at 5 ms 2− moves with constant velocity

D. moves with constant velocity accelerates at 10 ms 2−

E. decelerates at 5 ms 2− accelerates at 10 ms 2−

6. 1992/II/9

In the above diagram, blocks A and B are connected by a light inextensible string and rest on a smooth

horizontal table. The masses of A and B are 2 kg and 3 kg respectively. Block A is pulled by a force of 2 N.

Find the tension in the string S.

A. 0.4 N B. 0.8 N C. 1.0 N D. 1.2 N E. 2.0 N


41

7. 1992/II/10

Which of the following pairs of forces F1 and F2 is/are action and reaction pair(s) according to Newton’s third

law of motion?


8. 1992/II/41

1st statement 2

nd statement

An unbalanced force is needed to keep a body in motion. Friction always opposes motion.

9. 1993/II/42

1st statement 2

nd statement

When an object rests on the floor, its weight and the force When an object rests on the floor, its weight and

acting on it by the floor form an action and reaction pair. the force acting on it by the floor are equal in

magnitude and opposite in direction.

10. 1994/II/4

Two blocks X and Y of weights 2 N and 8 N respectively are suspended by two light strings as shown above.

A downward force of 4 N is applied to X. Find the tensions T1 and T2 in the two strings.

T1 T2

A. 2 N 8 N

B. 4 N 10 N

C. 4 N 14 N

D. 6 N 12 N

E. 6 N 14 N


42

11. 1994/II/6

A man of mass 50 kg is standing in a lift. If the lift is falling freely, which of the following statements is/are true?

(1) The weight of the man is 0 N.

(2) The force acting on the floor of the lift by the man is 500 N.

(3) The force acting on the man by the floor of the lift is 0 N.


12. 1994/II/42

1st statement 2

nd statement

When two objects are released from rest at the same height, A greater gravitational force will be acting

the one with greater mass will take a shorter time to reach on the object with greater mass.

the ground. (Air resistance is negligible.)

13. 1995/II/2

smooth horizontal surface

In the above diagram, the two blocks are connected by a light string S. They move with uniform acceleration

of 2 ms-2

under the action of a constant force F. What will the accelerations of the blocks become if S

suddenly breaks?

2 kg block 4 kg block

A. 6 ms-2

0 ms-2

B. 6 ms-2

2 ms-2

C. 2 ms-2

0 ms-2

D. 2 ms-2

2 ms-2

E. 0 ms-2

3 ms-2

14. 1995/II/6

A trolley is placed on a horizontal ground. A force F inclined at an angle θ to the horizontal acts on the trolley.

What is the horizontal component of F that pulls the trolley towards the right?

A. Fθ B. Fsinθ C. Fcosθ D. F/sinθ E. F/cosθ


43

15. 1995/II/11

The above diagram shows a block resting on the ground.

Let W be the weight of the block,

F be the gravitational force acting on the earth by the block, and

R be the force acting on the block by the ground.

Which of the following pairs of forces is/are action and reaction pair(s) according to Newton’s third law

of motion?

(1) R and W

(2) W and F

(3) F and R

A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (3) only D. (1) and (2) only E. (2) and (3) only

16. 1996/II/5

Which of the following statements concerning the motion of an object is/are correct?

(1) A constant unbalanced force is needed to keep an object moving with uniform velocity.

(2) An increasing unbalanced force is needed to keep an object moving with uniform acceleration.

(3) An object may remain at rest if there is no unbalanced force acting on it.


17. 1996/II/8

A block remains at rest on an inclined plane as shown above. Which of the following statements is/are true?

(1) The fractional force acting by the plane on the block is zero

(2) The normal reaction acting by the plane on the block is zero

(3) The resultant force acting on the block is zero



44

18. 1996/II/10

The above diagram shows a man lifting a ball vertically upwards with uniform acceleration.

Let F1 be the force acting on the ball by the man,

F2 be the force acting on the man by the ball,

F3 be the gravitational force acting on the ball.

Which of the following correctly describes the relation between the magnitudes of the forces?

A. F1 = F2 > F3 B. F1 = F3 > F2 C. F1 > F2 = F3 D. F1 > F2 > F3 E. F1 > (F2 + F3)

19. 1997/II/3

A block is placed on a smooth inclined plane. A force P parallel to the inclined plane is applied to the block so

that the block moves up the plane. Which of the following diagrams correctly shows all the forces acting on the

block?

20. 1997/II/9

Which of the following pairs of forces is/are action and reaction pair(s) according to Newton’s third law of

motion?

(1) The weight of a man standing on a chair. and The force acting on the man by the chair.

(2) The gravitational force acting on the earth

by the moon.

and The gravitational force acting on the moon

by the earth.

(3) The force exerted by a swimmer on the

water to push the water backward.

and The force exerted by the water to push the

swimmer forward.



45

21. 1998/II/6

A broken-down car of mass 1000 kg is pulled by a tow-truck and moves at a constant velocity 8 ms-1

along a

horizontal road. It is known that the frictional force acting on the car is 500 N. Find the tension in the cable

connecting the truck and the car.

A. 0 N B. 500 N C. 8 000 N D. 8 500 N E. 10 500 N

22. 1998/II/7

Two forces F1 and F2 act on a particle P shown above. If a third force F3 acts on P to keep it in equilibrium,

find the magnitude of F3.

A. 1.4 N B. 4.0 N C. 4.2 N D. 4.5 N E. 5.8 N

23. 1998/II/8

A girl in a lift uses a spring balance to measure the weight of an object. The reading of the spring balance is 10 N

when the lift is at rest. When the lift is moving, the reading of the spring balance becomes 8 N. Which of the

following describes the motion of the lift?

A. moving upwards with a uniform velocity B. moving downwards with a uniform velocity

C. moving upwards with an acceleration D. moving downwards with an acceleration

E. moving downwards with a deceleration

24. 1998/II/9

Which of the following phenomena can be explained by Newton’s first law of motion?

(1) A passenger in a car tends to move forward when the car suddenly stops.

(2) A coin and a feather fall with the same acceleration in a vacuum.

(3) A gun recoils when it fires a bullet.



46

25. 1999/II/4

A block is sliding down a friction compensated runway as shown above. Which of the following statements

is/are correct?

(1) The speed of the block is increasing

(2) The normal reaction acting by the runway on the block is increasing

(3) The net force acting on the block is zero


26. 1999/II/5

A light rope is fixed at two poles with ends A and B at the same level. A T-shirt of weight 2 N is hung at the

midpoint C of the rope. The rope depresses such that ∠ACB = 150º . Find the tension in rope.

A. 1.0 N B. 2.0 N C. 3.9 N D. 7.7 N

E. It cannot be determined since the length of the rope is not given

27. 1999/II/42

1st statement 2

nd statement

If a block is moving with constant velocity on a rough According to Newton’s first law of motion, a net

horizontal surface, there must be a net force force is required to maintain a body’s motion at

acting on the block. constant velocity.

28. 2000/II/5

An astronaut lands on the moon and finds that his weight is about one-sixth of that on earth.

Which of the following deductions is/are correct?

(1) If he throws an object upwards on the moon, it will reach a higher level than throwing the object with

the same speed on earth.

(2) If he release an object on the moon, it will take a shorter time to reach the ground than releasing the

object from the same height on earth.

(3) The maximum weight he can lift on the moon is greater than on earth.



47

29. 2000/II/6

Three forces of magnitude F1, F2 and 10 N act on object as show above. If the object is in equilibrium, find F2.

A. 5.0 N B. 8.7 N C. 11.5 N D. 17.3 N E. 20.0 N

30. 2000/II/8

A uniform steel ball lies at rest on a horizontal ground and just touches a vertical wall as shown above. Which

of the following diagrams shows all the forces acting on the ball?

(W = gravitational force acting on the ball,

R = normal reaction from the ground,

F = friction acting by the ground on the ball,

N = normal reaction from the wall)

31. 2000/II/9

A block is placed on a rough horizontal ground and a horizontal force acts on the block. If the magnitude of the

force, F, is increased gradually, which of the following graphs shows the reaction between F and acceleration a

of the block?

32. 2000/II/42

1st statement 2

nd statement

When one of a pair of action and reaction forces A pair of action and reaction forces acts on the same body.

is removed, the other force will also disappear.


48

33. 2001/II/3

A stone is thrown vertically upwards. Assuming air resistance is negligible, which of the following

statements is/are correct?

(1) The acceleration of the stone decreases throughout the upward motion.

(2) The net force acting on the stone becomes zero when the stone reaches the highest point.

(3) The total energy of the stone remains unchanged throughout the motion.


34. 2001/II/4

A coin is placed on a piece of cardboard resting on a glass as shown above. If the cardboard is flicked off

sharply with a finger, the coin will drop into the glass. What does this experiment demonstrate?

A. The coin will fall with uniform acceleration under the action of gravity.

B. The acceleration of the coin is proportional to the applied force.

C. Action and reaction always occur in pairs.

D. Momentum is conserved in a collision.

E. The coin has a tendency to maintain its state of rest.

35. 2001/II/5

A block on a rough horizontal table is acted on by two horizontal forces of magnitudes 10 N and 2 N as shown.

It remains at rest on the table. If the force of magnitude 10 N is removed, find the resultant force acting on

the block.

A. zero B. 2 N C. 6 N D. 8 N E. 10 N


49

36. 2001/II/6

A uniform plank of weight 450 N rests on two trestles X and Y and a worker of weight 675 N stands at one

end of the plank as shown above. The worker holds a light basket which contains several packets of goods each

of weight 6 N. What is the maximum number of packets he can hold without tilting the plank?

(Assume the weight of the plank acts through its centre.)

A. 11 B. 12 C. 13 D. 18 E. 19

37. 2001/II/7

A student uses a friction-compensated runway to study Newton’s second law of motion. The variation of the

acceleration a of the trolley with the force F applied parallel to the runway is shown above. If the experiment is

repeated with the runway making a larger angle of inclination with the horizontal, which of the following graphs

(in dotted lines) represents the expected result?

38. 2001/II/8

The figure above shows the variation of the force acting on a car driver with time when the car hits a wall. The

driver is not wearing a seat-belt. Which of the following graphs (in dotted lines) best shows the force acting

on the driver if he is wearing a seat-belt ?


50

39. 2001/II/9

(For questions 39 and 40.) A man is pulling a suitcase along the horizontal ground as shown below.

Which of the following pairs of forces is/are action and reaction pair(s) according to Newton’s third law of

motion ?

(1) The gravitational force exerted by the earth

on the man

and The gravitational force exerted by the man

on the earth

(2) The pulling force exerted by the man on the

suitcase

and The friction exerted by the ground on the

suitcase


on the suitcase

and The normal reaction exerted by the ground

on the suitcase


40. 2001/II/10

If the rope is inclined at an angle θ to the horizontal and the tension in the rope is 100 N, find the work done

by the man in pulling the suitcase for a distance of 5 m along the ground.

A. 500 J B. 500 sinθ J C. 500 cosθ J D. 500/sinθ J E. 500/ cosθ J

41. 2002/II/4

The following are statements written by three students about Newton’s first law of motion.

(1) A stationary object will remain in a state of rest unless acted on by an unbalanced force.

(2) An object undergoing uniform motion will maintain its motion unless acted on by an unbalanced force.

(3) An unbalanced force is required to maintain the motion of an object at uniform velocity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?



51

42. 2002/II/5

Which of the following objects are under the action of an unbalanced force at the instant shown in the diagrams?


43. 2002/II/6

A block of mass 0.5 kg slides down a rough inclined plane with an acceleration of 3 ms-2

. If the plane is

inclined at 30° to the horizontal, find the friction between the block and the plane.

A. 1 N B. 1.5 N C. 2.8 N D. 4 N

44. 2002/II/7

John, of mass 80 kg, is standing on a weighing scale in a lift. At a certain instant, the reading of the weighing

scale is 600 N. Which of the following statements about John at this instant is/are correct?

(1) The gravitational force acting on John is 600 N.

(2) The force exerted by the weighing scale on John is 200 N.

(3) John is accelerating downward at a rate of 2.5 ms-2

.


45. 2002/II/9

A block of weight 100 N is placed on a smooth horizontal table. A vertical force of 60 N and a horizontal force

of 30 N are applied to the block as shown. Find the magnitude of the resultant force acting on the block.

A. 30 N B. 40 N C. 50 N D. 67 N


52

46. 2002/II/11

A block is initially at rest on smooth horizontal ground. Two forces of equal magnitude F act on the block.

In which of the above cases will the block remain at rest ?


47. 2003/II/5

A block of mass m slides down an inclined plane with uniform velocity. What is the net force acting on the

block?

A. mg B. mg sinθ C. mg cosθ D. zero

48. 2003/II/6

The figure shows a ride in an amusement park. A passenger is fastened to a seat which is then raised to the top of

a vertical pole. At time t = 0, the seat is released from rest and falls freely. After 3 s, the seat is brought to rest at a

point P near the ground. Which of the following graphs best shows the relation between the gravitational force

acting on the passenger W and t?


53

49. 2003/II/7

A uniform cube of weight 600 N is held in equilibrium in the air by four identical cables as shown above. If

each cable makes an angle of 20º with the vertical, find the tension in ach cable.

A. 150 N B. 160 N C. 412 N D. 439 N

50. 2003/II/8

A car accelerates at 3 ms-2

along a straight horizontal road. A child of mass 10 kg is sitting on a safety seat

inside the car. Find the magnitude of the resultant force exerted by the safety seat on the child.

A. 30 N B. 100 N C. 104 N D. 130 N

51. 2003/II/10

A uniform rod of weight 50 N is supported by two spring balances P and Q and remains at rest as shown above.

Assume the weight of the rod acts through its mid-point. Find the readings of P and Q.

Reading of P Reading of Q

A. 17N 33N

B. 20N 30N

C. 30N 20N

D. 33N 17N


54

52. 2003/II/12

A child is sitting on a chair as shown above. Which of the following pairs of forces is/are (an) action and

reaction pair(s)?


on the child

and The normal reaction exerted by the chair on

the child

(2) The force exerted by the child on the chair and The normal reaction exerted by the chair on

the child

(3) The force exerted by the chair on the ground and The gravitational force exerted by the earth

on the chair

A. (1) B. (2) C. (1) and (3) D. (2) and (3)

53. 2004/II/2

An object weights 60 N on the Earth and 10 N on the moon. Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) The mass of the object on the Earth is 6 kg

(2) The mass of the object on the moon is 1 kg

(3) The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is one-sixth that on the Earth.


54. 2004/II/4

An object is acted on by three forces F1, F2 and F3 in suitable directions such that it remains at rest. Which of

the following combinations of the magnitude of the forces is/are possible?

F1 F2 F3

(1) 3N 4N 5N

(2) 3N 4N 7N

(3) 3N 5N 9N



55

55. 2004/II/5

Two bocks, of masses m1 and m2 (m1>m2), are connected by a light inextensible string and placed on a smooth

horizontal surface. Let T1 and T2 be the tensions in the string when a horizontal force of magnitude F is applied

to the blocks as shown in Figure (a) and (b) respectively. Which of the following relationships are correct?

(1) T1 > T2

(2) T1/m1 = T2/m2

(3) T1 + T2 = F


56. 2004/II/8

The photograph shows a sucker sticking a hook to a vertical wall. Which of the following forces balances the

gravitational force acting on the sucker and hook by the Earth?

A. the friction between the sucker and the wall

B. the force exerted by the air molecules on the sucker

C. the normal reaction exerted by the wall on the sucker

D. the gravitational force acting on the Earth by the sucker and hook

57. 2004/II/11

Figure (a) shows a uniform plank supported by two spring balances P and Q. The readings of the two balances

are both 150 N. P is now moved 0.25 m towards Q (Figure b). Find the new readings of P and Q.

Reading of P/N Reading of Q/N

A. 100 200

B. 150 150

C. 200 100

D. 200 150


56

58. 2004/II/12

The photograph shows a baby sitting on a push-chair and her mother Amy is pushing the push-chair with a

uniform velocity v along the horizontal ground.

Let F = horizontal force exerted by Amy on the push-chair, and

m = total mass of the baby and the push-chair?

Which of the following expressions denotes the average output power of Amy in pushing the push-chair?

A. Fv B. mgv C. (F - mg)v D. (F + mg)v

59. 2005/II/3

A block remains at rest on a rough inclined plane. Which of the following diagrams shows all the forces acting

on the block?

W = gravitational force acting on the block

R = normal reaction exerted by the inclined plane on the block, and

F = friction acting on the block.

60. 2005/II/4

A 1kg block is pulled by a horizontal force of 5 N and moves with an acceleration of 2 ms-2

on a rough

horizontal plane. Find the frictional force acting on the block.

A. zero B. 2 N C. 3 N D. 7 N


57

61. 2005/II/28

(For Questions 61 and 62) Two blocks X and Y are connected by a light string passing over a smooth puller as

shown below. The mass of X is greater than that of Y. The blocks are released from rest.

Which of the following pairs of physical quantities are not equal while the blocks are in motion?

A. the speed of the blocks.

B. the magnitude of the accelerations of the blocks.

C. the magnitude of the resultant forces acting on the bocks.

D. the magnitude of the forces exerted by the string on the blocks.

62. 2005/II/29

Which of the following pairs of forces is an action and reaction pair?

A. The force exerted by the string on X and The force exerted by the string on Y

B. The force exerted by the string on Y and The force exerted by Y on the string

C. The gravitational force exerted on Y and The force exerted by X on the horizontal surface

D. The gravitational force exerted on Y and The force exerted by the string on Y

63. 2005/II/30

Kelvin is standing on a balance inside a lift. The table shows the readings of the balance in three situations.

Motion of the lift Reading of the balance

Moving upwards with a uniform speed R1

Moving downwards with a uniform speed R2

Moving upwards with an acceleration R3

Which of the following relationships is correct?

A. R1 = R2 > R3 B. R3 > R1 = R2 C. R1 > R2 > R3 D. R3 > R1 > R2

64. 2005/II/32

A fish is hung on a light string as shown above. If the tension in the string is 10 N, find the total weight on the

fish and the hook.

A. 10 sin 30º N B. 10 cos 70º N C. 20 sin 70º N D. 20 cos 70º N


58

65. 2005/II/44

1st statement 2

nd statement

When a parachutist is falling with a uniform velocity When a parachutist is falling with a uniform velocity

in air, the acceleration of the parachutist is zero. in air, the gravitational force acting on the parachutist

is zero.

66. 2006/II/4

A car stopped after emergency braking. The skid mark left by the car was 22.3 m long. Assume that the friction

between the road and tyres was 0.65 times that of the weight of the car. Estimate the speed of the car when it

began to skid.

A. 5.38ms-1

B. 12.0 ms-1

C . 16.2 ms-1

D. 17.0 ms-1

67. 2006/II/6

An electric fan is installed at one end of a trolley and a card is fixed at the one end with the plane of the card

facing the fan. What happens to the trolley when the electric fan is turned on?

A. The trolley remains stationary. B. The trolley moves to the right.

C. The trolley moves to the left. D. The trolley moves to and fro along the ground.

68. 2006/II/8

If Peter stands with his feet on a weighing scale placed on level ground, his weight measured by the scale is W.

What would be the reading on the scale if he exerts a downward force F on a table top with his hands while he

is still standing on the same scale as shown above?

A. W B. W + F C. W - F D. F


59

69. 2006/II/29

An acrobat is standing in the middle of a cable as shown. The angle θ is less than 60º which of the following

relations between the tension T of the cable and the weight W of the acrobat is correct?

(Neglect the weight of the cable)

A. T > W B. W > T > W/2 C. T = W/2 D. T < W/2

70. 2006/II/30

A bow is pulled horizontally to create a tension of 50 N on its string as shown in the figure. What is the net

horizontal force acting on the arrow when it is released?

A. 32.1 N B. 38.3 N C. 64.3 N D. 76.6 N

71. 2006/II/31

A student performed an experiment to investigate the factors affecting the acceleration o a trolley carrying

different loads. The table below shows the data recorded:

Trial Net Force / N Total mass of the loaded trolley / kg Acceleration / ms-2

(i) 2 2 1

(ii) 2 1 2

(iii) 2 0.5 4

(iv) 4 2 2

(v) 4 4 1

(vi) 8 2 4

Which trials can the student use to deduce the relationship between the acceleration and the net force acting

on the trolley?

A. (i),(ii) and (iii) B. (i), (iv) and (vi) C. (ii), (iv) and (v) D. (iii),(v) and (vi)


60

72. 2006/II/44

1st statement 2

nd statement

When a woman stands on a scale inside a lift and The gravitational force acting on a woman

the lifts moving downwards with deceleration, the standing inside a lift becomes greater when

reading on the scale becomes greater. the lift is moving downwards with deceleration.

73. 2007/II/3

Two blocks, A and B, of masses 1kg and 3 kg respectively, are placed on a horizontal smooth surface as shown

below. A horizontal constant force of 12 N is applied to block A so that the two blocks move to the right with

uniform acceleration. What is the magnitude of the contact force between A and B?

A. 3 N B. 4 N C. 8 N D. 9 N

74. 2007/II/6

A child is standing on a weighing scale as shown above. Which of the following pairs of forces is/are (an) action

and reaction pair(s)?

(1) The force exerted by the child on the scale and The force exerted by the scale on the child

(2) The gravitational force exerted by the Earth

on the child

and The force exerted by the scale on the child

(3) The gravitational force exerted by the Earth

on the scale

and The gravitational force exerted by the Earth

on the child


75. 2007/II/27

1st statement 2

nd statement

A smaller force is required to push an object along The weight of an object is less on Moon than that

a smooth horizontal surface at same acceleration on on Earth.

Moon than that on Earth.

Assume that air resistance is negligible.


61

76. 2007/II/30

In the above figure, a 1 kg block is suspended by a string under the ceiling. The block is pulled by a 3 N

horizontal force such that it makes angle θ to the vertical. Which of the following descriptions is correct?

(The tension of the string is denoted as T)

θ T

A. θ < 30º 13 N > T > 10N

B. θ < 30º T > 13 N

C. θ > 30º 13 N > T > 10N

D. θ > 30º T > 13 N

77. 2008/II/5

Two blocks A and B of the same mass on a horizontal surface are connected by a string as shown above. Two

horizontal forces of 10 N and 4 N are acting on A and B respectively. Assume all contact surfaces are smooth.

What is the magnitude of the tension in the string?

A. 3 N B. 6 N C. 7 N D. 14 N

78. 2008/II/7

A block is placed on a table resting on the ground as shown in Figure (a) above. Figure (b) shows the forces

acting on the block and the table respectively.

Let F1 = weight of the block

F2 = force exerted by the block on the table

F3 = force exerted by the table on the block


(1) F1 and F2 represent the same force

(2) F1 and F3 balance each other

(3) F2 and F3 form an action-reaction pair



62

79. 2008/II/30

A bob is hung by a string from the ceiling of a train. At a certain instant, the bob is inclined to the east as shown

in the figure. Which of the following descriptions about the motion of the train at this instant is/are possible?

(1) It is moving to the east and decelerating

(2) It is moving to the west and accelerating

(3) It start to move to the east from rest


80. 2008/II/32

John performs a bungee jump from a bridge above a river. He (assumed to be a particle) is tied to the bridge

at A with an elastic cord. He falls from rest at A. When he reaches B, the elastic cord starts to stretch. John is

momentarily at rest at C and then bounces up.

Which of the following descriptions about the motion of John is/are correct?

(1) From A to B, John is under free falling

(2) From B to C, the gravitational potential energy of John increases

(3) At C, there is no net force acting on John


81. 2008/II/33

A block of mass m slides down along a rough inclined plane with constant acceleration a as shown above.

What are the friction and the normal reaction acting on the block?

Friction Normal Reaction Friction Normal Reaction

A. mg sinθ + ma mg sinθ B. mg sinθ - ma mg cosθ

C. mg cosθ + ma mg sinθ D. mg cosθ - ma mg cosθ


63

1. 1990/II/2

A block of mass 5 kg is moving horizontally on smooth surface in a straight line at 6 ms-1

. In order to change

its speed to 10 ms-1

, the work done would need to be

A. 40 J B. 90 J C. 160 J D. 400 J E. 550 J

2. 1990/II/6

Two objects P and Q, of mass 0.1 kg and 0.5 kg respectively, are thrown vertically upwards with the same speed

from the same level. Neglecting air resistance, which of the following is true?

A. P will reach a point higher than that of Q.

B. Q will take shorter time to reach its highest point.

C. Both will have the same potential energy at the highest point.

D. Both will have the same kinetic energy on returning to the starting point.

E. Both rise with the same deceleration.

3. 1991/II/3

For a body falling freely under gravity, Y has a linear relationship with the displacement of the body as shown

above. Y may represent

A. the potential energy of the energy.

B. the kinetic energy of the body.

C. the acceleration of the body.

D. the velocity of the body.

E. the speed of the body.

4. 1991/II/6

A block is pulled along a horizontal bench at constant velocity of 10 ms-1

by a force of 5 N. What is the work

done against friction in 4 seconds?

A. 200 J B. 50 J C. 20 J D. 12.5 J E. 8 J

HKCEE PHYSICS | 2.3 Work, energy and power | P.1

64

5. 1992/II/6

A ball is released from rest from one end of a smooth curved rail as shown in the above diagram. Neglecting

air resistance and friction, which of the following statements about the motion of the ball is/are correct?

(1) The ball has maximum kinetic energy at point B

(2) The speed of the ball at point C is the same as that at point A

(3) The ball would not rise to a level higher than point D


6. 1992/II/7

Which of the following involve(s) an energy transfer of 100 J?

(1) A mass of 10 kg is raised vertically by 10m

(2) A mass of 2 kg gains a speed of 10 ms-1

from rest

(3) A 10 W heater is switched on for 10 seconds


7. 1993/II/4

The figure above shows the variations of the force acting on an object. What physical quantity does the area of

the shaded position represent?

A. Velocity B. acceleration C. Momentum D. Work E. Power

8. 1993/II/6

A pendulum bob is released from rest from a point P 0.8 m above its lowest position Q, as shown in the above

diagram. Neglecting air resistance, find the speed of the speed of the bob when it reaches Q.

A. 2.8 ms-1

B. 4 ms-1

C. 8 ms-1

D. 16 ms-1

E. It cannot be determinated since the mass of the bob is not given


65

9. 1994/II/9

A stone is projected vertically upwards. Neglecting air resistance, which of the following graphs shows the

variation of the kinetic energy of the stone with the distance travelled during its upward motion?

10. 1994/II/10

Two blocks X and Y are connected by a light string passing over a smooth pulley as shown above. The mass of

X is greater than that of Y. The two blocks are released from rest. Which of the following statements is/are

correct?

(1) The potential energy lost by X is equal to the potential energy gained by Y

(2) The kinetic energy gained by X is greater than the kinetic energy gained by Y

(3) The potential energy lost by X is equal to the sum of kinetic energy gained by X and Y


11. 1995/II/9

A bullet of mass 0.02 kg travelling at 450 ms-1

enters a wooden block as shown in Figure (a) and leaves it with

a speed 400 ms-1

. In Figure (b), what is the maximum of identical blocks that the mass bullet can pass through?

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 9 E. 10

12. 1995/II/10

A trolley runs down a friction-compensated runway as shown above. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The kinetic energy of the trolley increases with time.

B. The potential energy of the trolley increases with time.

C. The sum of kinetic energy and potential energies of the trolley remains unchanged.

D. The frictional force acting on the trolley is zero.

E. The resultant force acting on the trolley is zero.


66

13. 1996/II/7

A motor car of masses 2500 kg accelerates from rest to a speed of 20 ms-1

in 5 s on a level road. Find the

average power of the car.

A. 10 kW B. 50 kW C. 100 kW D. 200 kW E. 250 kW

14. 1997/II/7

A pendulum bob is suspended by a light inextensible string. The bob is released from rest at a point A as shown

above. When the bob reaches the lowest point B, the string hits a fixed pin. Which of the following statements

is/are correct?

(1) The bob has maximum kinetic energy at B

(2) The highest level that the bob can reach is the level of the pin

(3) The work done by the tension of the string is zero throughout the motion


15. 1997/II/8

A machine lifts up a load of 1200 N to a height of 1.5 m in 2 s. Find the average output power of the machine.

A. 400 W B. 900 W C. 1800 W D. 3600 W E. 9000 W

16. 1998/II/1

Which of the flowing units does not represent energy?

A. J B. N m C. W s D. Pa m³ (Out of Syll.) E. kg m s 2−

17. 1998/II/10

A man pulls a 50 kg block up a smooth inclined plane making an angle 30º with the horizontal as shown above.

The inclined plane is 6 m long and the block is pulled from the bottom of the inclined plane to the top in 30 s.

Find the average useful output power of the man.

A. 5 W B. 10 W C. 50 W D. 87 W E. 100 W


67

18. 1999/II/7

A motor car of mass 2000 kg accelerated from rest at 3 ms-2

for 4 s on a straight road. Find the average useful

output power of the engine of the car.

A. 24 kW B. 36 kW C. 72 kW D. 144 kW E. 240 kW

19. 2000/II/11

A 2 kg block is initially at rest on the ground. A machine is used to pull up the block as shown above. If the

tension in the string is kept at 24 N and the block reaches a height of 4 m in 2 s, which of the following

statements is/are correct?

(1) The potential energy of the block is increasing when the block is rising

(2) The kinetic energy of the block is increasing when the block is rising

(3) The average power developed by the machine during the two second is 40W


20. 2002/II/8

A block is projected up a smooth inclined plane. Which of the following graphs shows the variation of the

kinetic energy (K.E.) of the block with its potential energy (P.E.) during the upward motion ?


68

21. 2002/II/10

The figure above shows a flying wheel in an amusement park. The wheel is of diameter 18 m and carries eight

cages. There is only one passenger of mass 60 kg inside one of the cages. The wheel rotates with uniform

speed and it takes 80 s for the passenger to travel from the bottom to the top of the wheel. Find the average

useful power output of the motor of the wheel.

A. ( 60 10 18× × ) W B. (60 10 18

80

× ×)W C. (

60 10 9

80

π× × ×)W D. ( 60 10 9 80π× × × × ) W

22. 2005/II/5

The diagram shows a weight-lifter lifting a weight of mass 80 kg from the floor to a height of 2 m. Find the

work done by the weight-lifter.

A. 160 J B. 800 J C. 1600 J D. 3200 J

23. 2005/II/6

The diagram shows Edmund riding the ' Ferris Wheel' in an amusement park. If the wheel is rotating

at a uniform speed, which of the following physical quantities of Edmund would remain unchanged?

A. velocity B. kinetic energy C. potential energy D. total mechanical energy


69

24. 2006/II/3

John releases a marble from the top of a smooth rail A placed at he edge of a table as shown above. He repeats

the same process by placed at the edge of a table as shown above. He repeats the same process by using another

smooth rail B. Which of the following statements about the marble is/are correct?

(1) The marble has the same velocity when it reaches the ends of both rails

(2) The marble has the same kinetic energy when it reaches the end of both rails

(3) It takes the same time for the marble to travel through both rails

A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (3) only D. (1),(2) and (3)

25. 2006/II/5

A high-diver jumps up into the air from a spring board and then falls into a swimming pool. Which of the

following graphs best shows the variation of her kinetic energy K with time t from the time she just leaves

the board up to the moment just before she enters the water?

26. 2007/II/4

A skier slide down a slope as shown in the diagram below. Assume constant friction along the slope, which of the

following graphs best describes the change of energy of skier with distance down the slope?


70

27. 2007/II/5

A horse pulls a block along a rough horizontal road and moves with a uniform velocity. Which of the following

correctly describes the directions of the friction from the ground acting on the horse and the block?

Horse Block Horse Block

A. backward forward B. backward backward

C. forward forward D. forward backward

28. 2007/II/31

An electrical toy car of mass m goes up an inclined plane of inclination 30º with constant speed v. The friction

acting on the car is half of the weight of the car. What is the average power of the car?

A. 1/2 mgv B. mgv C. 3/2 mgv D. 2mgv

29. 2007/II/32

A block of mass 1 kg is sliding down with constant speed along an inclined plane of inclination 30º to the

horizontal. What are the gain in kinetic energy and the work done against friction by the block after travelling

a distance of 2 m along the plane?

Gain in kinetic energy/ J Work done against friction/ J

A. 0 10

B. 10 10

C. 0 20

D. 10 30

30. 2008/II/1

A fish jumps up vertically to a maximum height of 0.5 m above the water surface. What is the speed when it

just leaves the surface?

A. 3.16 ms-1

B. 4.47 ms-1

C. 6.32 ms-1

D. 10.00 ms-1

31. 2008/II/3

A car is travelling at a constant speed of 15 ms-1

along a horizontal straight road. The total resisting force acting

on the car is 500 N. Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) The car travels a distance 120 m in 8 s

(2) The work done by the car in overcoming the resisting force in 8 s is 60 kJ

(3) The output power of the car is 7.5 kW



71

32. 2008/II/8

An object is release from rest. Which of the following graphs best describes the variation of the kinetic energy

of the object with time during falling?

33. 2008/II/28

When a skydiver falls steadily in air under no net force, which of the following descriptions about his

gravitational potential energy, kinetic energy and power in overcoming air resistance is correct?

Gravitational potential energy Kinetic energy Power in overcoming air resistance

A. decreases increases increases

B. deceases increases remains unchanged

C. decrease remains unchanged remains unchanged

D. remains unchanged increases increases


72

1. 1990/II/7

Which of the following statements is/are correct when a collision between two particles is elastic?

(1) None of the original kinetic energy is converted into other forms of energy

(2) The linear momentum of each particle is conserved

(3) The mechanical energy of each particle is conversed


2. 1991/II/8

A gas molecule collides with the wall of a container and becomes back with the same speed. Which of the

following quantities of the molecule remain(s) unchanged before and after the collision?

(1) kinetic energy

(2) velocity

(3) momentum


3. 1991/II/11

Two particles A and B of masses 2 kg and 1 kg respectively move in opposite directions. The initial velocity

of A is 4 ms-1

towards the right, while that of B is 2 ms-1

towards the left. They collide head on. After the

collision, the velocity of A become 1 ms-1

towards the RIGHT. What would be the velocity of particle B?

A. 2 ms-1

towards the right B. 3 ms-1

towards the right C. 4 ms-1

towards the right

D. 6 ms-1

towards the right E. 7 ms-1

towards the right

4. 1991/II/42

1st statement 2

nd statement

Momentum is not conserved in an inelastic collision. Kinetic energy is lost in an inelastic collision.

5. 1992/II/5

A trolley of mass 2 kg moves with a uniform speed of 4 ms

-1 along a horizontal table. A lump of plasticine

having the same mass as the trolley is dropped from a height slightly above the trolley and sticks to it. Find

the total loss in kinetic energy.

A. 0 J B. 4 J C. 8 J D. 12 J E. 16 J

HKCEE PHYSICS | 2.4 Momentum | P.1

73

6. 1997/II/5

A particle of mass m is thrown vertically upwards with initial speed v. When the particle returns to its starting

point, what are the changes in momentum and kinetic energy of the particles?

Change in momentum Change in kinetic energy

A. 0 0

B. 0 mv²

C. mv 1/2mv²

D. 2mv 0

E. 2mv mv²

7. 1998/II/3

A block is pulled by a constant force and moves along a smooth horizontal surface. Which of the following

describes the variations of the acceleration and momentum of the block during the time when the force is acting?

Acceleration Momentum Acceleration Momentum

A. remains unchanged remains unchanged B. remains unchanged increase

C. increases remains unchanged D. increases increases

E. decreases increases

8. 1999/II/8

A rocket is initially at rest in space. It then explodes and breaks into two parts which move in opposite directions.

If the mass of the rear part is larger than that of the front part, which of the following statements is correct?

A. The speeds of the two parts are equal.

B. The speed of the rear part is higher than that of the front part.

C. The magnitudes of the momentum of the two parts are equal.

D. The magnitude of the momentum of the rear part is larger than that of the front part.

E. The kinetic energies of the two parts are equal.

9. 1999/II/41

1st statement 2

nd statement

The front and rear parts of cars are designed to The collapsible parts can reduce the time of

collapse during a serious traffic accident. collision when the car is involved in a serious accident.


74

10. 2000/II/10

The above graph shows the variation of kinetic energy E of an object with the square of its velocity v². What is

the momentum of the object when is moving at velocity 4 ms-1

?

A. 4 kg ms-1

B. 8 kg ms-1

C. 16 kg ms-1

D. 32 kg ms-1

E. It cannot be determined since the mass of the object is not given

11. 2001/II/11

A rocket of mass 5000 kg is at rest in space. It then explodes and breaks into two parts P1 and P2 of mass

1000 kg and 4000 kg respectively. Find the ratio of the kinetic energy of P1 to that of P2.

A. 1 : 1 B. 1 : 16 C. 1 : 64 D. 4 : 1 E. 16 : 1

12. 2002/II/2

The figure above shows the variation of the resultant force acting on an object with time. What physical quantity

does the area of the shaded region represent?

A. acceleration B. change of momentum C. work D. power

13. 2002/II/12

Grace and Kitty, of masses 50 kg and 40 kg respectively, stand on light rollers on a smooth horizontal floor.

They are initially at rest with Grace holding a 2 kg ball. Grace throws the ball to Kitty and moves backward with

a speed 0.8 ms-1

afterwards. After catching the ball, Kitty moves in the opposite direction as shown above.


(1) The final speed of Kitty is 0.95 ms-1

(2) The horizontal momentum of the ball is conserved in this process.

(3) The total kinetic energy of Kitty and the ball decreases when Kitty catches the ball.



75

14. 2002/II/43

1st statement 2

nd statement

Air-cushioned sports shoes can reduce the Air-cushioned sports shoes can increase the time

impact force acting on the feet during jumping and running. of impact between the feet and the ground during

jumping and running.

15. 2003/II/9

A wooden block of mass M is hanging freely in the air from a light string of length l. A bullet, of mass m

travelling at a speed v, hits the block and becomes embedded in it. The block then swings upwards. Which

of the following are employed in determining the maximum height reached by the block?

(1) law of conservation of energy

(2) law of conservation of momentum

(3) principle of moments


16. 2003/II/43

1st statement 2

nd statement

Wearing seat-belts can reduce the force acting Wearing seat-belts can reduce the change

on passengers in a car during a collision. in momentum of passengers in a car during a collision.

17. 2004/II/9

A trolley moves along a smooth horizontal surface. A lump of plasticine is released from a height slightly

above the trolley and sticks to it. Which of the following graphs shows the variation of the total horizontal

momentum of the trolley and plasticine with time?


76

18. 2004/II/10

The photograph shows an air-cushioned shoe. Which of the following statements about the air-cushion

is/are correct?

(1) It reduces the time of impact between the foot and the ground during running

(2) It reduces the impact force acting on the foot during running

(3) It reduces the friction between the shoe and the ground during running.


19. 2005/II/31

A car P of mass 1000 kg moves with a speed of 20 ms-1

and makes a head-on collision with a car Q of mass

1500 kg, which was moving with a sped of 10 ms-1

in the opposite direction before the collision. If the two cars

stick together after the collision, find their common velocity immediately after the collision.

A. 2 ms-1

along the original direction of P B. 2 ms-1

along the original direction of Q

C. 14 ms-1

along the original direction of P D. 14 ms-1

along the original direction of Q

20. 2005/II/45

1st statement 2

nd statement

When a lorry makes a head-on collision with a When a lorry makes a head-on collision

motorcycle, the magnitude of the average force exerted with a motorcycle, the magnitude of

by the lorry on the motorcycle is equal to that the change in velocity of the lorry is equal

exerted by the motorcycle on the lorry. to that of the motorcycle.

21. 2007/II/28

A body initially at rest, is exploded into two parts. Which of the following correctly describes the change in

total momentum and total kinetic energy?

Total momentum Total kinetic energy Total momentum Total kinetic energy

A. increases increases B. increases remains unchanged

C. remains unchanged increases D. remains unchanged remains unchanged


77

22. 2007/II/29

Tom and John stand on two trolleys of negligible masses. Both boys are initially at rest and Tom holds a ball

of 3 kg. The masses of Tom and John are 30 kg and 27 kg respectively. After Tom has thrown the ball to John,

Tom moves backwards with a speed of 1 ms-1

. What is the speed of John after he has caught the ball?

A. 0.90 ms-1

B. 1.00 ms-1

C. 1.11 ms-1

D. 1.22 ms-1

23. 2008/II/29

In an explosion, an object is blown into 2 pieces, A and B, which fly off in opposite directions. The mass of A is

0.3 kg. The graph shows the variation of velocity of A and B with time before and after the explosion. What is

the mass of B and the estimated magnitude of the average net force acting on B during the explosion?

Mass of B Magnitude of the average net force acting on B

A. 0.1 kg 0.4 N

B. 0.1 kg 0.5 N

C. 0.9 kg 3.6 N

D. 0.9 kg 4.5 N


78

24. 2008/II/31

Trolleys A and B of masses mA and mB respectively travel along a horizontal road in opposite directions as shown.

Later they make a head-on inelastic collision and stick together. The graph below shows the velocity-time

relationship of the two trolleys before and after the collision. (Ignore the collision time and the friction acting

on the trolleys.)

What is the ratio mA: mB?

A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 3 C. 2 : 1 D. 3 : 2


79

1. 1990/II/23

A straight pulse AB is travelling towards a straight barrier PQ in a ripple tank as shown above. Which of the

following figures best shows the reflected pulse?

2. 1990/II/24

The figure above shows a series of plane water waves travelling from a deep region to a shallow region of water.

Which of the following diagrams best shows the wave pattern in the shallow region?

3. 1990/II/26

In a ripple tank experiment, a series of plane water waves passes through a narrow silt. Which of the following

properties of the waves will remain unchanged?

(1) speed

(2) direction of travel

(3) frequency


HKCEE PHYSICS | 3.1 Nature and properties of waves | P.1

80

4. 1991/II/21

The diagram shows a water wave travelling to the right. Which of the following statements is/are true?

(1) PQ is equal to the wavelength

(2) PR represents the amplitude

(3) The particle at P will move to S after a quarter of a period.


5. 1991/II/23

A vibrator of frequency 5 Hz generates waves on a string. The above diagram shows the shape of the string at

the instant when the vibrator has made one complete vibration. Which of the following shows the waveform 0.1s

after?

6. 1992/II/22

A water wave travels toward the right. The diagram above shows the waveform at a certain instant.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

(1) Particle P is moving downwards

(2) Particle Q is moving upwards

(3) Particle R is momentarily at rest


7. 1992/II/23

Which of the following is/are longitudinal waves?

(1) Ultrasonics transmitted through air

(2) Infrared transmitted through water

(3) Gamma rays transmitted through outer space



81

8. 1992/II/25

In a double-silt experiment, a source S sends waves towards two silts P and Q, which are equidistant from S.

The distance of a point M from P and Q are 53 cm and 50 cm respectively. If constructive interferences occurs

at M, the possible wavelength of the waves is

A. 1 cm B. 2 cm C. 4 cm D. 5 cm E. 6 cm

9. 1992/II/26

The figure above shows a series of plane water waves travelling in a shallow region of water. The waves

pass through a silt to a deep region of water. Which of the following diagrams shows the waves pattern in

the deep region?

10. 1993/II/22

A vibrator generates a travelling wave on a string. The above diagram shows the shape of the string at a certain

instant. Which of the following shows the shape of the string between PQ after a quarter of a period?

11. 1993/II/23

Plane water waves travel towards a straight barrier PQ as shown above. Which of the following diagrams best

shows the reflected waves?


82

12. 1993/II/25

The vibratos P and Q are set to vibrate in a ripple tank. MN is the perpendicular bisector of PQ as shown above.


(1) Constructive interference occurs along MN

(2) Destructive interference occurs along PQ

(3) A crest is always formed at M


13. 1994/II/20

A vibrator generates a stationary wave on a string. The diagram above shows the string at the instant of

maximum displacement. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Particle P is moving towards the right B. Particle Q is moving upwards

C. Particles R always remained at rest D. Particle S is moving upwards

E. All particles in the string move with the same amplitude

14. 1995/II/24

A train of water waves is generated in a ripple tank. The above graph shows the variation of the displacement

of a cork placed in the water with time. Find the frequency of the waves.

A. 0.2 Hz B. 0.25 Hz C. 4 Hz D. 5 Hz E. 10 Hz


83

15. 1996/II/24

A vibrator generates a travelling wave on a string. Figure (a) shows the shape of the string at a certain instant.

Figure (b) shows the variation of the displacement of a certain particles on the string with time. Which of the

following expressions represents the speed of the travelling wave?

A. x B. y C. x/y D. y/x E. xy

16. 1996/II/25

A vibrator generates continuous plane in a ripple tank (Figure (a)). Figure (b) shows the wave pattern observed.

Now the ripple tank is tilted as shown in Figure (c). Which of the following diagrams best shows the wave

pattern observed?

17. 1996/II/44

1st statement 2

nd statement

At a point constructive interference of two waves, At a point of constructive interference of

a crest is always formed. two waves, the amplitude of vibration increases.


84

18. 1997/II/23

(For Questions 18 and 19) A vibrator generates a stationary wave on a string. The diagram below shows the

string at a certain instant.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. The distance between X and Y is equal to half the wavelength of the stationary wave.

B. The particles at X and Y always remain at rest.

C. All particles between X and Y on the string vibrate in the same direction

D. All particles between X and Y on the string vibrate with the same frequency

E. All particles between X and Y on the string vibrate with the same amplitude

19. 1997/II/24

The vibrating string also sets the neighbouring air into vibration. Which of the following statements about the

waves on the string and those in air must be correct?

A. They are both transverse B. They are both stationary

C. They have the same speed D. They have the same wavelength

E. They have the same frequency

20. 1997/II/25

A vibrator generates continuous plane waves in a ripple tank. The waves undergo diffraction when they pass

through a silt. Which of the following can increase the degree of diffraction of the waves?

(1) Increasing the width of the silt

(2) Placing the vibrator closer to the silt

(3) Increasing the wavelength of the water waves



85

21. 1998/II/25

The diagram above shows a series of plane water waves travelling from a shallow region to a deep region of

water. Which of the following diagrams best shows the wave pattern in the deep region?

22. 1998/II/26

A series of plane water waves travel towards an obstacle in a ripple tank. When the waves pass the obstacle, they

bend around the corners of the obstacle. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The phenomenon is call diffraction

(2) The speed of the waves remains unchanged as they bend around the corners

(3) The degree of bending of the waves depends on the size of the obstacle relative to the wavelength of the

waves


23. 1998/II/27

A vibrator generates a stationary wave on a string. The above diagram shows the string at the instant of

maximum displacement. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Particles P and Q move with the same amplitude B. The motions of particles P and Q are in phase

C. Particle Q is momentarily at rest at this instant D. Particle R always remains at rest

E. The wavelength of the stationary wave is 0.4 m

24. 1999/II/20

A cork in the water vibrates up and down 4 times in 2 s when a wave passes through it. The distance between two

successive crests of the wave is 10 cm. Find the speed of the water wave.

A. 0.05 ms-1

B. 0.1 ms-1

C. 0.2 ms-1

D. 0.4 ms-1

E. 0.8 ms-1


86

25. 1999/II/21

The above diagram shows a transverse wave travelling along a string. At the instant shown, particle P is moving

upwards. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. The wave is travelling towards the left B. Particles P and Q vibrate with the same amplitude

C. Particles P and Q vibrate with the same frequency D. Particle Q is moving downwards at this instant

E. Particle R is at rest at this instant

26. 1999/II/22

A series of straight water waves travels towards the right in a ripple tank as shown above. In order to obtain the

waves as shown in the right hand side, what kinds of phenomenon have the straight wave undergone?

A. reflection B. refraction C. diffraction D. refraction and diffraction

E. diffraction and interference

27. 1999/II/23

A plane water wave travels from a deep region to a shallow region of water. If the wavelength, frequency

and speed of the wave in the deep region are λ1, f1 and v1 respectively, while the corresponding values in the

shallower region are λ2, f2 and v2 respectively. Which of the following relations is/are correct?

(1) λ1 > λ2

(2) v1 > v2

(3) f1 > f2


28. 2000/II/24

Which of the following statements correctly describe(s) the meaning of the frequency of a wave?

(1) the time taken for the wave to make one complete vibration

(2) the distance travelled by the wave in one second

(3) the number of waves produced in one second



87

29. 2000/II/26

A water wave of frequency 30 Hz travels in a deep region of water. When the wave enters a shallow region, its

wavelength is reduced to one-third of its original value. Find the frequency of the water wave in the shallow

region.

A. 10 Hz B. 30 Hz C. 60 Hz D. 90 Hz

E. It cannot be determined since the speed of the water wave is not given

30. 2000/II/27

A straight pulse PQ travels through a V-shaped barrier in a ripple tank shown above. Which of the following

diagrams best shows the reflected pulse(s)?

A. B. C. D. E.

31. 2001/II/23

Five corks are moving up and down on the surface of a pond as a water wave passes through them. At time t = 0,

the positions of the corks are shown above. The figure below shows the displacement-time graph of one of the

five corks. Which cork has the motion represented by the graph?

(Note : Displacement is positive when the cork is above the still water surface.)

A. P B. Q C. R D. S E. T


88

32. 2001/II/25

In the above diagram, XY represents a boundary between a deep region and a shallow region of water in a ripple

tank. A series of straight water waves in the deep region travels towards XY. Which of the following

diagrams best shows the wave pattern in the shallow region ?

33. 2001/II/26

Water waves of wavelength λ are diffracted as they pass through a gap of width d as shown above. Which of the

following changes would produce the most significant diffraction effect?

λ d λ d

A. remains unchanged halved B. remains unchanged doubled

C. halved halved D. halved remains unchanged

E. halved doubled

34. 2002/II/24

In a ripple tank experiment, a series of water waves travels towards a barrier. Which of the following quantities

would remain unchanged after the waves are reflected by the barrier ?

(1) wavelength

(2) frequency

(3) speed



89

35. 2002/II/25

A wave source generates waves of frequency 50 Hz. How long does it take for the waves to travel 100 m?

A. 0.5 s B. 2 s C. 5000 s D. It cannot be determined as insufficient information is given.

36. 2002/II/26

Which of the following phenomena would be observed when the water waves pass through the opening in the

above set-up?

A. reflection B. refraction C. diffraction D. interference

37. 2003/II/25

(For Questions 37 and 38) A transverse wave travels along a string with a speed of 1.2 ms

-1. The diagram below

shows the shape of the string at a certain instant. Which of the following statements about the transverse wave

are correct?

(1) Its wavelength is 20 cm

(2) Its frequency is 6 Hz

(3) Its amplitude is 6 cm


38. 2003/II/26

Which of the following diagrams shows the shape of the string at a quarter of a period later?


90

39. 2003/II/27

Plane water waves travel towards an L-shaped barrier in a ripple tank as show above. Which of the following

diagrams best shows the reflected wave pattern?

40. 2003/II/28

Plane water waves travel from a deep region to a shallow region of water through a narrow gap as shown above.

Which of the following properties of the waves remains unchanged?

A. direction of travel B. speed C. wavelength D. frequency

41. 2004/II/21

The figure shows the wavelength of a transverse stationary wave at a certain instant. If particle P is at its lowest

position at this instant, what will be the instantaneous motions of particles P and Q after a quarter of a period?

P Q

A. moving upwards at rest

B. moving upwards moving upwards

C. at rest at rest

D. at rest moving upwards


91

42. 2004/II/22

The solid curve in the diagram shows a transverse wave at a certain instant. After 0.05 s, the wave has travelled a

distance of 2 cm and is indicated by the dashed curve. Find the wavelength and frequency of the wave.

Wavelength/cm Frequency/Hz Wavelength/cm Frequency/Hz

A. 8 2.5 B. 8 5

C. 16 2.5 D. 16 5

43. 2004/II/23

A student uses the above set-up to study the diffraction of water waves. Which of the following changes can

make the diffraction effect more significant?

(1) reducing the width of the gap between the obstacles

(2) increasing the frequency of the vibrator

(3) adding more water to the ripple tank


44. 2004/II/25

Two dippers S1 and S2 are connected to the same vibrator and produce identical waves in a ripple tank. P

is a point such that S1P – S2P = λ , where & is the wavelength of the water waves generated. Which of the


(1) Constructive interference occurs at P

(2) A crest is always formed at P

(3) If the wavelength of the waves generated by the dippers is doubled, destructive interference will occur

at P



92

45. 2005/II/14

Straight water waves travel towards a barrier as shown above. Which of the following diagrams shows the

reflected wave pattern?

46. 2005/II/15

A cork floats in water and a dropper is used to produce circular waves as shown above. Which of the following

describes the motion of the cork when the waves pass through it?

A. moves towards the dropper

B. moves away from the dropper

C. vibrates vertically about its original position

D. moves away from the dropper and vibrates vertically at the same time

47. 2005/II/34

(For Questions 47 and 48) The displacement-distance graph of the particles along a travelling are at time t = 0

and t = 0.2 s are show below.

Which of the following statements about the wave are correct?

(1) Its amplitude is 6 cm

(2) Its wavelength is 8 cm

(3) Its frequency is 5 Hz



93

48. 2005/II/35

What is the speed of the wave?

A. 0.2 ms-1

B. 0.3 ms-1

C. 0.4 ms-1

D. 0.8 ms-1

49. 2005/II/36

An interference pattern is formed by two coherent pointy sources of water waves. Which of the following

variations can change the positions of constructive interference?

(1) changing the amplitude of the waves

(2) changing the wavelength of the waves

(3) changing the separation between the point source


50. 2006/II/15

A series of plane waves travel from medium A into medium B. The figure above shows the positions, PQ and

P'Q', of a wave front before and after entering the medium B. What would happen to the speed and the

wavelength of the wave when it travels from medium A to medium B?

Speed Wavelength Speed Wavelength

A. increases increases B. increases remains unchanged

C. decreases decreases D. decreases remains unchanged

51. 2006/II/20

Which of the following phenomena are due to the refraction of waves?

(1) When water waves enter shallow water from deep water, the spacing between wavefront decreases

(2) A swimming pool appears shallower than it actually is

(3) Mary can hear loud and soft sounds alternately when she walks across in front of two loudspeakers

connected to a signal generator



94

52. 2007/II/16

Light travels from air to water through a silt as show above. Which of the properties of the light in water

remain(s) unchanged?

(1) direction of travel

(2) speed

(3) frequency


53. 2007/II/17

Which of the following phenomena demonstrate(s) that light is an electromagnetic wave?

(1) Light bends when it travels across a boundary from one medium into another

(2) Light reflects when it meets a polished metal surface

(3) Light can travel from the Sun to the Earth


54. 2007/II/38

A longitudinal wave is travelling from left to right in a medium. Figure (a) shows the equilibrium positions of

particles A to J in the medium. At time t = 0, the positions of the particles are shown in Figure (b). Which of the

following correctly shows the displacement-time graph of particles I? (Note: displacement to the right is

taken to be positive)


95

55. 2008/II/36

In the above figure, S1 and S2 are two identical loudspeakers connected in parallel to a signal generator.

The circles represent the wavefront of the sound wave produced. What are the changes to the loudness of

the sound at X and Y if loudspeaker S1 is turned off?

X Y X Y

A. increases increases B. decreases decreases

C. increases decreases D. decreases increases

56. 2008/II/37

Figure (a) shows a series of particles which is uniformly disturbed along a slinky spring. Figure (b) shows their

positions at a certain instant when a travelling wave passes through the slinky spring from left to right.

Which of the following diagrams shows the correct positions of the particles after half a period from the

instant shown in Figure (b).

57. 2008/II/44

1st statement 2

nd statement

In a longitudinal travelling wave, the particle at the In a longitudinal travelling wave, the particles

center of rarefaction has the greatest distance from in the rarefaction are more widely separated

its equilibrium position. when compared with particles in outer regions in the

wave.


96

1. 1990/II/11

What happens to the wavelength and frequency of a ray of light it passes from water into air?

Wavelength Frequency

A. increases decreases

B. decreases remains unchanged

C. remains unchanged increases

D. increases remains unchanged

E. remains unchanged remains unchanged

2. 1990/II/14

If F, F' are foci and C,C’ are both at a distance of two times the focal length from the lens, which of the

following ray diagrams is/are correct?


3. 1990/II/15

A convex lens is used as a magnifying glass to read some small print in a book. Which of the following

statements is/are true?

(1) The image distance is greater than the object distance

(2) The image of the print is real

(3) The image of the print is erect


4. 1991/II/12

Which of the following statements concerning the properties of virtual images is/are correct?

(1) Virtual images can be seen by the eye

(2) Virtual images can be formed on a screen

(3) Virtual images can be photographed with a camera

A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (3) only D. (1) and (3) only E. (2) and (3)

HKCEE PHYSICS | 3.2 Light | P.1

97

5. 1991/II/13

In the above diagram, the image I of an object O is produced by a lens.

What is the nature and position of this lens?

A. convex and placed at A B. concave and placed at B C. concave and placed at C

D. concave and placed at D E. convex and placed at E

6. 1991/II/15

In the figure above, F is the focus of the converging lens. Which of the five rays is incorrectly drawn?


7. 1992/II/16

The refractive indices of water and glass are 1.33 and 1.5 respectively. In which of the above cases will total

internal reflection occur?


8. 1992/II/42

1st statement 2

nd statement

When light travels from air to water, its speed The frequency of light becomes smaller when it travels

becomes smaller. from air to water.

9. 1993/II/11

Which of the following phenomena is/are caused by refraction of light?

(1) A swimming pool appears shallower than it really is

(2) A meter rule appears bent when dipped in water

(3) A spectrum is formed when white light passes through a prism



98

10. 1993/II/12

A lens is used to look at some print on a paper. The image of the word ' PHYSICS' is shown above. Which of the

following statements is/are true?

(1) The lens is a converging lens

(2) The image lies between the paper and the lens

(3) The image is real


11. 1993/II/13

The above diagram shows a light ray travelling from liquid to air. Find the refractive index of the liquid.

A. 0.71 B. 0.75 C. 1.33 D. 1.41 E. 1.50

12. 1993/II/26


(1) Light is a transverse wave

(2) Light does not undergo diffraction

(3) Light transmits energy


13. 1994/II/13

Which of the following devices involve(s) total internal reflection of light as they work?

(1) Optical fibre (2) A prismatic periscope (3) A microscope


14. 1994/II/14

A ray of light travels in air and strikes a semi-circular glass block at an angle of incidence 42º . The critical

angle of the glass is 42º. Which of the flowing diagrams best shown the subsequent path(s) of the ray?


99

15. 1995/II/13

A magnifying glass is used to read some small print in a book. The glass is placed 3 cm from the book and

the magnification is 3. What is the distance between the book and the image of the print?

A. 1 cm B. 3 cm C. 6 cm D. 9 cm E. 12 cm

16. 1995/II/14

Which of the following ray diagrams correctly shows the working principle of a prismatic periscope?

17. 1995/II/16

In the above diagram, F,F' are the foci of the concave lens and AB is an incident ray. Which of the following

paths best represents the emergent ray?


18. 1995/II/41

1st statement 2

nd statement

The image of an object formed by a concave lens The image of a object formed by a concave

cannot be photographed with a camera. lens cannot be formed on a screen.

19. 1995/II/43

1st statement 2

nd statement

Diffraction of light is more difficult to observe Sound waves are longitudinal but light waves

than diffraction of sound. are transverse.

20. 1996/II/14

A ray of red light travels in air and strikes a triangular glass prism at an angle of incidence 45º. The critical

angle of red light fro the glass is 42º. Which if the following diagrams best shows the path of the ray?


100

21. 1996/II/15

When an object O is placed in front of a convex lens and a plane mirror as shown above, an image I is formed

at the same position as the object. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The image I is real

(2) The focal length of the lens is 10 cm

(3) If the distance between the lens and the plane mirror is changed to 2 cm, the position of the image I

remains unchanged.


22. 1997/II/12

In the above diagram, A’B’ is the image of an object AB formed by an optical device PQ. What is PQ?

A. a concave mirror (Out of Syll.) B. a convex mirror (Out of Syll.)

C. a plane mirror D. a concave lens E. a convex lens

23. 1997/II/15

Which of the following phenomena involve(s) total internal reflection of light?

(1) The sparkling of a diamond

(2) The formation of a mirage

(3) A rule appearing bent when dipped in water


24. 1997/II/41

1st statement 2

nd statement

Virtual images cannot be photographed with a camera. The image formed on the photographic

film in a camera is always real.


101

25. 1997/II/42

1st statement 2

nd statement

A convex lens can be used as a magnifying glass. The image of an object formed by a convex

lens is always magnified.

26. 1997/II/43

1st statement 2

nd statement

Light is a wave. Light can undergo refraction when it travels from one medium to another.

27. 1998/II/14

A magnifying glass is used to read some small print in a book. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The magnifying glass is a concave lens

B. The image of the small print is real

C. The object distance is greater than the focal length of the glass

D. The image distance is shorter than the object distance

E. The small print and its image are on the same side of the glass

28. 1998/II/15

If F and F’ are the foci of the concave lens, which of the following ray diagrams is incorrect?

29. 1998/II/16

A beam consisting of red and violet light travels in a glass block with an air cavity. The cavity is in the shape

of a prism as shown above. Which of the following diagrams best shows the subsequent path of the beam?


102

30. 1998/II/18

Which of the following phenomena is/are caused by the refraction of light?

(1) If a man who is spear-fishing aims his spear at where the fish appears to be, he will miss it.

(2) A spectrum is formed when white light passes through a prism

(3) A light ray is transmitted through a curve glass fibre


31. 1998/II/42

1st statement 2

nd statement

Visible light is a wave. Visible light can travel through vacuum.

32. 1999/II/11

(For questions 32 and 33) An illuminated letter ‘R’ is placed in front of a lens as shown below and an image is

formed on a translucent screen. The object distance is 30 cm and the image distance is 20 cm.


(1) The lens is a converging lens

(2) The image is diminished

(3) The shape of the image seen by the observer is .


33. 1999/II/12

If a piece of paper is used to cover one-half of the lens, which of the following describes the change in the

image as seen by the observer?

A. The whole image can still be seen but the image becomes dimmer.

B. The whole image can still be seen and its brightness remains unchanged.

C. Only half of the image can be seen and the image becomes dimmer.

D. Only half of the image can be seen but its brightness remains unchanged.

E. The whole image disappears.


103

34. 1999/II/13

A ray of light travels in air and strikes a rectangular glass block at an angle of incidence 50º . The critical angle

of the glass is 42º . Which of the following diagrams best shows the path of the ray?

35. 1999/II/15

Which of the following statements concerning virtual images is/are correct?

(1) Virtual images are always diminished

(2) Virtual images can be photographed with a camera

(3) Virtual images cannot be formed on a screen


36. 2000/II/15

F and F’ are foci of the above lens and AB is an incident ray. Which of the following paths best represents the

emergent ray?


37. 2000/II/16

A ray of light enters a glass prism and travels along the path as shown above. Find the refractive index of

the glass.

A. 0.68 B. 1.07 C. 1.37 D. 1.47 E. 1.50


104

38. 2000/II/18

A student uses two triangular prisms to construct a periscope as shown above. Which of the following shows

the image of the object as seen by the observer?

A. B. C. D. E.

39. 2000/II/43

1st statement 2

nd statement

Without a screen, a real image cannot be seen by an observer. The image of an object formed on a screen is

always real.

40. 2001/II/13

Which of the following images in the photographs is/are virtual?


41. 2001/II/14

Two parallel rays from a distant object strike a concave mirror as shown above, where F is the focus. At

which of the following points does the image of the object form ?



105

42. 2001/II/43

1st statement 2

nd statement

When a lens is used as a magnifying glass to look When a lens is used as a magnifying glass, the object

on a small object, the image formed is real. and the image formed are on different sides of the lens.

43. 2002/II/14

A ray of light travels in air and strikes a glass block as shown above. Which of the following diagrams best

shows the path of the ray ?

44. 2002/II/17

(For Questions 44 and 45.) A cup is placed in front of a window, outside which is a distant building. Two photos

P1 and P2 as shown below are taken with the same single-lens camera.

Which of the following ray diagrams correctly shows how the image I of the cup O is formed by the lens of the

camera in photo P1?

45. 2002/II/18

Which of the following statements about the two photos must be correct?

A. In P1, the images of the cup and the building are on different sides of the lens of the camera.

B. In P1, the image of the cup is real while that of the building is virtual.

C. On taking P2, the distance between the lens and the film of the camera is shorter than that on taking P1.

D. After taking P1, the photographer has to move forward in order to take P2.


106

46. 2003/II/13

A ray of light travels in air and strikes a glass prism as shown above. Which of the following diagram best shows

the path of the ray?

47. 2003/II/15

Which of the following ray diagrams concerning the refraction of light ray by a converging lens is/are incorrect?

F denotes the focus of the lens

A. (2) B. (3) C. (1) and (2) only D. (1) and (3) only

48. 2003/II/16

The photograph shows a student using a magnifying glass of focal length 20 cm to view a distant object.

Which of the following statements about the image formed is/are correct?

(1) The image will be erect

(2) The image will be diminished

(3) The student must use a screen in order to see the image.



107

49. 2004/II/13

Eric stands 1 m in front of a plane mirror. Martha stands 2 m behind Eric as shown above. Find the distance

between Eric and the image of Martha formed by the mirror.

A. 2 m B. 3 m C. 4 m D. 6 m

50. 2004/II/14

The photograph shows the image of a tree formed by the surface of a pool of calm water. Which of the following

phenomena explains the formation of the image?

A. reflection B. total internal reflection C. refraction D. diffraction

51. 2004/II/16

An object O is placed in front of a concave lens. F and F’ are the foci of the lens. Which of the following

diagrams shows the refracted rays of the three incident rays and the image I formed?


108

52. 2004/II/17

The photograph shows a watch with a lens positioned over the date-display.


(1) The lens is a convex lens

(2) The image of the date-display formed by the lens is virtual

(3) The date-display and its image lie on the same side of the lens


53. 2004/II/45

1st statement 2

nd statement

When light travels from air to glass, its wavelength decrease. When light travels from air to glass, its

frequency decreases.

54. 2005/II/10

The diagram shows the image of a clock formed in a plane mirror. What is the time displayed by the clock at

this instant?

A. 3:58 B. 4:02 C. 8:58 D. 8:02

55. 2005/II/11

Cecilia uses a magnifying glass to read some small print. Which of the following diagrams shows how the

image of the print is formed?


109

56. 2005/II/12

An object is placed near a lens and an image is formed as shown. Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) The height of the image is half that of the object

(2) The lens is a concave lens

(3) The focal length of the lens is 20 cm


57. 2006/II/13

As shown above, an illuminated object is placed at a distance 20 cm in front of a convex lens and a sharp

images formed on a screen at a distance of 16 cm from the lens. The focal length of the convex lens is

A. less than 8 cm B. between 8 cm and 10 cm

C. between 10 cm and 16 cm D. between 16 cm and 20 cm

58. 2006/II/14

Which of the following examples illustrate(s) a real image?

(1) a fish in a pond being observed from above water

(2) a fingerprint left at a crime scene being observed through a magnifying glass

(3) a motion picture on the screen being watched in a camera

A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3)

59. 2006/II/19

Which of the following surfaces produce diffuse reflection when parallel light rays fall on them?

(1) a blackboard in the classroom

(2) a polished metal surface

(3) a page in this question book



110

60. 2006/II/32

A light ray enters normally from the air onto a right-angled prism and is totally internally reflected at face AB as

shown above. Based on this optical phenomenon, which of the following is/are possible value(s) for the

refractive index of the material of the prism?

(1) 1.33 (2) 1.45 (3) 1.55


61. 2006/II/33

Flash lamps used by professional photographers can find object distances by using infrared waves so as to

adjust the flash output. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) of using infrared waves instead of

ultrasonic waves in such flash lamps?

(1) Speed of infrared waves is much faster than that of ultrasonic waves making the time for finding

distance shorter

(2) Objects to be photographed will usually emit infrared waves

(3) The sound produced by ultrasonic waves makes photographers feel annoyed


62. 2007/II/11

A pencil is placed in front of a vertical plane mirror as shown in the figure above. Which of the following

shows the correct position of the images?


111

63. 2007/II/12

F and F’ are the foci of the above lens and AB is an incident ray. Which light ray best represents the emergent

ray?

A. P B. Q C. R D. S

64. 2007/II/13

A light ray is incident from water onto an air bubbles as shown above. Which light ray best represents the

emergent ray?

A. W B. X C. Y D. Z

65. 2007/II/14

Figure (a) shows a light ray traveling from air into medium X. The angle of incidence is 50º and the angel of

refraction is r. Another light ray traveling from medium X to air is shown in Figure (b). The angle of incidence

is 35º and the angle of refraction is also equal to r. What is angle r?

A. 26.1º B. 41.5º C. 42.5º D. 48.5º


112

66. 2007/II/15

The figure below shows a web cam.

A web cam typically includes a lens and an image sensor. The function of the image sensor is similar to that

of a film in a convectional camera. The image is formed on the sensor and is then digitized. Which of the


(1) The lens is a convex lens

(2) The lens is a concave lens

(3) Image formed on the image sensor is real

A. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only

67. 2007/II/35

John wants to estimate the speed of a cloud in the following experiment. The cloud is moving horizontally

at a height of 3000 m above the ground. He looks at the image of the cloud in a mirror of 0.6 m wide placed

on the horizontal ground 1.5 m below his eye level. He finds that the image of the cloud takes 20 s to move

across the mirror.

What is the approximate speed of the cloud?

A. 0.3 ms-1

B. 0.06 ms-1

C. 60 ms-1

D. 150 ms-1


113

68. 2008/II/12

A light bulb O is placed in front of a lens L as shown above. A sharp and diminished image is formed on the

screen S. With the position L fixed, in order to form a sharp and magnified image on the screen, which of the

following methods is possible?

A. Move O and S towards L B. Move O and S away from L

C. Move O towards L and move S away from L D. Move O away form L and move S towards L

69. 2008/II/13

In the figure, a plane mirror MN of height h is mounted in an adjustable vertical position of a vertical wall.

E is an observer’s eye which is 1 m from the wall and 1.5 m above the ground. PQ is a vertical post of height

3 m and is 4 m behind the observer. Looking into the mirror the observer can see the whole image of the post.

What is the minimum value of h?

A. 0.5 m B. 0.6 m C. 1.6 m D. 2 m

70. 2008/II/15

Which of the above ray diagrams concerning the refraction of two light rays by a converging lens is/are possible?



114

71. 2008/II/16

A light ray undergoes reflection and refraction at an air-glass boundary as shown above. PQ is perpendicular

to RS. OX, OY and OZ are the paths of the light rays. Which of the following deductions is/are correct?

(1) OX is the path of the incident ray

(2) RS is the air-glass boundary

(3) The light ray travels from glass to air


72. 2008/II/17

A ray of light is traveling from glass to air as shown above. Which of the following ratios is the refractive index

of glass?

A. φθ

sin

sin B. θ

φsin

sin C.

)90sin(

)90sin(

φθ

−°−°

D. )90sin(

)90sin(

θφ

−°−°

73. 2008/II/38

Which of the following statements about total internal reflection is/are correct?

(1) The angle of incidence is less than the critical angle

(2) Both reflected and refracted rays appear

(3) The ray is traveling from an optically denser to an optically less dense medium



115

1. 1990/II/25

In the figure above. The two loudspeakers L1 and L2 emit sound waves of wavelength 2 m. The waves emitted are

exactly opposite in phase. Which of the following graphs best represents the variation of sound intensity I

along the line XY?

2. 1990/II/27

Which of the following statements about sound is/are correct?

(1) Sound cannot travel through water

(2) Loudness increases with the amplitude of the sound wave

(3) Pitch increases with the wavelength of the sound wave


3. 1990/II/28

A bat emits sound waves of frequency 30 kHz and receives a reflected signal from an obstacle after 0.15 s.

The speed of sound in air is 340 ms-1

. How far is the obstacle away from the bat?

A. 11.3 m B. 25.5 m C. 51.0 m D. 88.2 m E. 102 m

4. 1990/II/29

Infra-red P Q X-rays

The diagram shows part of the electromagnetic spectrum. Which of the following statements is/are true?

(1) The wavelength of P is longer than that of Q

(2) The velocity of P in a vacuum is smaller than that of Q

(3) Q can be deflected by an electric field


HKCEE PHYSICS | 3.3 Sound and Electromagnetic waves | P.1

116

5. 1991/II/22

A man stands in front of a large wall. He claps two pieces of wood together regularly at 0.5 second intervals.

The echo of the first clap coincides with the third clap. If the speed of sound in air is 340 ms-1

, the approximate

distance between the man and the wall is

A. 85 m B. 170 m C. 255 m D. 340 m E. 510 m

6. 1991/II/27

The diagrams above show the traces of two musical notes X and Y on an oscilloscope. Which of the following

is/are true?

(1) X has a higher pitch than Y

(2) The loudness of X is greater than that of Y

(3) X and Y are longitudinal waves


7. 1991/II/43

1st statement 2

nd statement

In a thunderstorm, lighting is seen before thunder is heard. The frequency of light waves is higher than that of

sound waves.

8. 1992/II/27

Given that the wavelengths if visible light range from 4 x 10-7

m to 7 x 10-7

m, which of the following

combinations of wavelengths for infrared, red and violet lights is possible?

Infrared Red light Violet light

A. 1 x 10-4

m 7 x 10-7

m 4 x 10-7

m

B. 1 x 10-7

m 7 x 10-7

m 4 x 10-7

m

C. 1 x 10-4

m 4 x 10-7

m 7 x 10-7

m

D. 1 x 10-7

m 4 x 10-7

m 7 x 10-7

m

E. 1 x 10-10

m 4 x 10-7

m 7 x 10-7

m

9. 1992/II/28

Which of the following is an application of microwaves in everyday life?

A. Radar B. Carbon-14 dating C. Radiotherapy D. Detecting cracks in railway track

E. Checking bankbook signature

10. 1992/II/43

1st statement 2

nd statement

Ultrasonics is deflected by a magnetic field. Ultrasonics is an electromagnetic wave.


117

11. 1993/II/24

A radio broadcast at a frequency of 94 MHz. Given that the speed of radio waves is 3 x 108

ms-1

, find the

wavelength of the radio waves.

A. 0.31 m B. 3.19 m C. 31.91 m D. 3191 m E. 2.82 x 1016

m

12. 1993/II/27

The frequencies of two musical notes X and Y are 256 Hz and 512 Hz respectively. If X and Y have the same

amplitude, which of the following statements is/are true?

(1) Y has a higher pitch than X

(2) The loudness of X is a larger than that of Y

(3) The wavelength of Y is longer than that of X


13. 1993/II/28

Which of the following statements about ultrasonics is INCORRECT?

A. Ultrasonics are longitudinal waves.

B. The frequency of ultrasonics is above 20 kHz.

C. Ultrasonics can be used to measure the depth of the sea.

D. Ultrasonics are deflected by a magnetic field.

E. Ultrasonics cannot travel through a vacuum.

14. 1993/II/44

1st statement 2

nd statement

Both microwaves and X-rays are electromagnetic waves. Both microwaves and X-rays can undergo reflection.

15. 1994/II/21

(1) X-rays

(2) Ultra-violet rays

(3) Radio waves

Arrange the above electromagnetic waves in ascending order of frequencies.

A. (1), (2), (3) B. (1), (3), (2) C. (2), (1), (3) D. (3), (1), (2) E. (3), (2), (1)

16. 1994/II/22

Which of the following statements concerning infra-red radiation is correct?

A. Infra-red is red in colour B. Infra-red can be detected by a Geiger-Muller counter

C. Infra-red can be used to sterilize drinking water D. Infra-red is a longitudinal wave

E. Warm objects emit infra-red


118

17. 1994/II/23

Which of the following is NOT an application of ultrasonics?

A. Camera auto focusing B. Satellite communication

C. Measurement of the depth of the sea-bed D. Detection of cracks in railway tracks

E. Examination of foetuses (babies not yet born)

18. 1995/II/25

When a sound wave travels from air into water, its wavelength is increased by five times. If the speed of sound

in air is 330 ms-1

, find the speed of the sound wave in water

A. 66 ms-1

B. 165 ms-1

C. 330 ms-1

D. 1650 ms-1

E. It cannot be determined since the frequency of the sound wave is not given

19. 1996/II/26

X-rays P

Visible

light Q Microwaves

Part of the electromagnetic spectrum is shown above. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) P is ultra-violet and Q is infra-red

(2) The wavelength of P is shorter than that of Q

(3) The speed of P in vacuum is higher than that of Q


20. 1996/II/28

Which of the following is not an application of the corresponding electromagnetic wave?

Electromagnetic wave Application

A. Ultra-violet Camera autofocusing

B. Infra-red Detecting survivors buried in landslides

C. Microwaves Satellite communication

D. X-rays Detecting weapons hidden in suitcases

E. Radio waves TV broadcasting

21. 1997/II/22

Which of the following statements concerning microwaves and ultrasonic waves is/are correct?

(1) Microwaves are electromagnetic waves while ultrasonic waves are not

(2) Microwaves and ultrasonics waves travel with the same speed in air

(3) Microwaves can be diffracted while ultrasonic waves cannot



119

22. 1997/II/26

Which of the following is an application of ultra-violet radiation?

A. Camera autofocusing B. Detecting cracks in railway tracks

C. Detecting survivors buried in landslides D. Measurement of the depth of the sea-bed

E. Sterilization of drinking water

23. 1998/II/28

Which of the following statements about ultrasonic waves is correct?

A. They are transverse waves B. They are electromagnetic waves

C. They travel with a speed of 3 x 108 ms

-1 in air D. They cannot travel through a vacuum

E. They can be used to sterilize drinking water

24. 1999/II/25

Which of the following statements about light and sound is/are correct?

(1) Both light and sound are transverse waves

(2) Both light and sound travel faster in air than in water

(3) Both light and sound can undergo refraction when travelling from one medium to another


25. 1999/II/45

1st statement 2

nd statement

Astronauts cannot talk to each other directly on the moon; Sound waves cannot travel through

they have to communicate via a radio system. a vacuum but radio waves can

26. 2000/II/25

Scientist have discovered that ozone molecules in the earth’s atmosphere are being destroyed. Which of

the flowing electromagnetic waves is mainly responsible for causing hazard to human health as a result of

the damaging of the ozone layer?

A. gamma radiation B. visible light C. infra-red D. microwaves E. ultra-violet

27. 2000/II/28

A microphone and a CRO are used to detect the sound emitted by two tuning forks X and Y in turn. The figure

above shows the traces obtained, with the setting of the CRO unchanged. Find the ratio of the frequency of the

sounds emitted by X to that of Y.

A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 1 C. 2 : 3 D. 4 : 5 E. 5 : 4


120

28. 2001/II/22

Which of the following is not a transverse wave?

A. radio waves B. visible light C. ultra-violet D. X-rays E. ultrasonic waves

29. 2001/II/24

A sonar on a ship is used to find the depth of the sea. An ultrasonic wave pulse is sent downwards from the ship

towards the sea bed. The pulse travels with a speed of 1500 ms-1

in sea water. If the reflected pulse is

received after 0.16 s, find the depth of the sea.

A. 120 m B. 240 m C. 480 m D. 4688 m E. 9375 m

30. 2001/II/44

The speed of gamma rays in air is much higher Gamma rays can pass through aluminium sheets

than that of visible light. of a few mm thick but visible light cannot.

31. 2001/II/45

1st statement 2

nd statement

In examining foetuses (babies not yet born), ultrasonics X-rays will cause damage to

are used but not X-rays. human cells whereas ultrasonics will not.

32. 2002/II/27

Which of the following is/are the reason(s) for not over-using ultra-violet lamps to produce a suntan effect?

(1) Ultra-violet radiation is highly penetrating and will damage body tissue

(2) Ultra-violet radiation has a strong heating effect and will damage body tissue

(3) Over exposure to ultra-violet radiation may cause skin cancer


33. 2002/II/28

The figure above shows the image of a foetus (a baby not yet born) taken by a scanner.

Which of the following waves should be used in the scanning process?

A. infra-red B. microwaves C. ultrasonics D. X-rays


121

34. 2002/II/29

The above figures show the CRO displays of two musical notes X and Y. The settings of the CRO for

displaying the two notes are identical. Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) Notes X and Y are of different qualities.

(2) Note X is of a higher pitch than note Y.

(3) Note X is louder than note Y.


35. 2003/II/29

A ringing electric bell is placed inside a glass jar as shown above. As air is pumped out of the jar, the sound

will die away. Which of the following can explain this phenomenon?

A. The hammer of the bell cannot vibrate in a vacuum

B. Sound waves are internally reflected by the glass surface

C. Sound waves cannot travel in a vacuum

D. The frequency of sound waves in a vacuum exceeds the audible frequency range

36. 2003/II/30

The photograph shows a digital video camera recorder. The recorder has a night shot function for capturing

images in the dark. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is employed by the recorder in capturing

images in the dark?

A. radio waves B. infra-red C. ultra-violet D. X-rays


122

37. 2004/II/24

A ship is equipped with certain devices. Which device is NOT an application of electromagnetic waves?

A. the radar system B. the sonar system

C. the infra-red system for night navigation D. the wireless telecommunication system

38. 2004/II/26

Which of the following descriptions about microwaves and ultrasonic waves is correct?

A. They can both travel in a vacuum B. They are both transverse waves

C. They can both be deflected by magnetic fields D. They travel with different speeds in air

39. 2005/II/13

Which of the following statements about sound waves are correct?

(1) Sound waves are longitudinal waves

(2) Sound waves are electromagnetic waves

(3) Sound waves cannot travel in a vacuum


40. 2005/II/16

Which of the following shows the correct order of the relative positions of five electromagnetic waves in the

electromagnetic spectrum, in the order of decreasing wavelength?

A. microwaves, infra-red, visible light, ultra-violet, X-rays

B. microwaves, ultra-violet, visible light, infra-red, X-rays

C. X-rays, infra-red, visible light, ultra-violet, microwaves

D. X-rays, ultra-violet, visible light, infra-red, microwaves

41. 2005/II/37

Which of the following is a unit of sound intensity level?

A. decibel B. hertz C. sievert D. watt


123

42. 2005/II/38

Two musical notes are produced by two different kinds of musical instruments. The two notes have the same

pitch but different loudness. Which of the following combinations of notes satisfies the above description?

Note: The settings of the CRO for displaying the notes are identical

43. 2006/II/16

In December 2004, an earthquake in the Indian Ocean caused a tsunami which produced water waves having

wavelength about 100 m and frequency about 2 Hz. What was the approximate time take for these water waves

to travel from the earthquake centre to Sri Lanka across a distance of about 1500 km?

A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours

44. 2006/II/17

A loudspeaker is connected to a signal generator to produce sound waves. The frequency is varied and the

corresponding wavelength is measured. The wavelength is plotted against the reciprocal of the frequency

as shown above. Which of the following are correct deductions obtained from the graph?

(1) The wavelength of the sound is inversely proportional to its frequency

(2) The shape of the graph is equal to the speed of the sound

(3) The speed of the sound depends on its frequency



124

45. 2006/II/18

John and Tom communicate with each other by using two paper cups connected with a string. Which of the

following statements are correct?

(1) The sound waves transmitted along the string are transverse waves

(2) The speed of the sound waves along the string is faster than that in the air

(3) When John whistles a note of 1000 Hz toward the paper cup, Tom will also hear a note of 1000Hz


46. 2006/II/34

The following data show the frequencies and sound intensity levels of some musical notes produced by a piano.

Note Frequency / Hz Intensity level / dB

C 256 64

D 288 68

E 320 65

F 341 63


(1) The note F has the lowest pitch

(2) The note D has the greatest loudness

(3) The note C played on a guitar will sound differently from the same note produced by the piano


47. 2007/II/36

Which of the following descriptions about ultrasonic waves must be correct?

A. In the same medium, the speed of the ultrasonic waves higher than that of the audible sound waves

B. In the same medium, the wavelength of the ultrasonic waves is longer than that of the audible sound waves

C. In the same medium, the intensity of the ultrasonic waves is higher tan that of the audible sound waves

D. In the same medium, the frequency of the ultrasonic waves is higher than that of the audible sound waves.

48. 2007/II/37

Two identical loudspeakers X and Y are connected in parallel to a signal generator. A microphone connected to a

CRO detects a maximum when it is 0.2 m from X and 0.4 m from Y. It detects a minimum when it is 0.9 m from

X and 0.4 m from Y. What is the possible wavelength of the sound wave?

A. 0.1m B. 0.2m C. 0.4m D. 0.5m


125

49. 2007/II/39

Noise barriers built along highways are used to block the noise generated by road traffic. Which of the following

statements correctly explain how the noise barriers can block the noise?

(1) The noise from vehicles is reflected

(2) The noise is absorbed by the noise barriers

(3) The noise is diffracted at the top edge of the noise barriers


50. 2008/II/14

A ship uses a sonar system to detect the depth of the sea. A sound wave signal of frequency 30000 Hz is sent

vertically downwards from the sea surface and the reflected signal is received 5 s later. Which of the following is

correct? (The speed of sound wave in sea water is 1400 ms-1

)

Wavelength of the sound wave in sea water/m Depth of the sea/m

A. 4.67×10-2

3500

B. 4.67×10-2

7000

C. 9.33×10-2

3500

D. 9.33×10-2

7000


126

1. 1990/II/30

A positively-charged metal sphere is mounted on an insulating stand. When the sphere is earthed with a finger,

A. protons will move from the sphere to the earth.

B. protons will move form the earth to the sphere.

C. electrons will move from the sphere to the earth.

D. electrons will move form the earth to the sphere.

E. neutrons will move from the earth to the sphere.

2. 1990/II/45

1st statement 2

nd statement

When a negatively charged rod is brought near to an A net positive charge is induced on the sphere.

insulated neutral metal sphere, an attractive force

exists between them.

3. 1991/II/29

In the above diagram, X and Y are two insulated uncharged metal sphere in contact with each other.

A negatively charged object C brought near X. X is touched momentarily with a finger, and the X and Y

are separated. The charge on X and Y are

Sphere X Sphere Y

A, zero negative

B. positive negative

C. negative negative

D. positive zero

E. positive positive

HKCEE PHYSICS | 4.1 Electrostatics | P.1

127

4. 1992/II/30

A positively charged rod is brought near an insulated uncharged metal sphere as shown above. If the sphere is

earthed with a finger,

A. positive charges flow from the earth to the sphere.

B. electrons flow from the earth to the sphere.

C. electrons flow from the sphere to the earth.

D. the sphere is completely discharged.

E. there is no charge flow between the sphere and the earth.

5. 1993/II/31

An uncharged light conducting sphere is suspended by an insulating thread. The metal dome of an operating

Van de Graaff generator is brought near the sphere. Which of the following statements describes the motion

of the sphere?

A. The sphere remains stationary.

B. The sphere moves away from the dome.

C. The sphere moves towards the dome, touches it and remains there.

D. The sphere moves towards the dome, touches it and then moves away.

E. The sphere moves towards the dome, touches it, moves away and the swings back to repeat the motion again.

6. 1994/II/24

An insulated charged metal rod is brought near to insulated uncharged metal sphere as shown above, Which of

the following can change the sphere?

(1) Touching the sphere momentarily with a finger

(2) Touching the sphere momentarily with the rod

(3) Touching the rod momentarily with a finger and then touching the sphere momentarily with the same

finger



128

7. 1994/II/25

Which of the following involves the application of electrostatics?

(1) A photocopier

(2) A precipitator in the chimney of a coal-fired power station

(3) A Van de Graaff generator


8. 1995/II/29

Two insulated uncharged metal sphere X and Y are in contact with each other. A positively charged rod is

brought near X as shown above. Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the distribution of charges

on the spheres?

9. 1996/II/29

A small conducting sphere is suspended by an insulated thread. When a positively charged rod is brought near

the sphere, the sphere is attracted as shown above. Which of the following is/are reasonable deduction(s)?

(1) The sphere may carry a positive charge.

(2) The sphere may carry a negative charge.

(3) The sphere may be neutral.



129

10. 1997/II/27

The following are the steps to charge an isolated metal by induction but they are in the wrong order.

(1) Removing the finger away from the metal sphere.

(2) Touching the metal sphere with a finger.

(3) Bringing a positively charged rod near the metal sphere.

(4) Removing the positively charged rod away from the metal sphere.

Which of the following shows the correct order?

A. (2), (1), (3), (4) B. (2), (3), (4), (1) C. (3), (2), (1), (4) D. (3), (2), (4), (1) E. (3), (4), (2), (1)

11. 1998/II/29

Three insulated uncharged metal sphere X, Y and Z are placed in contact as shown above. A negatively charged

rod is brought near X and sphere Y is then earthed momentarily. If the charged rod is still near X, which of the

following describes the charges on X, Y and Z?

Sphere X Sphere Y Sphere Z

A. positive zero zero

B. positive zero negative

C. positive positive positive

D. zero zero zero

E. zero negative negative

12. 1999/II/26

An insulated metal sphere carries positive charges. Which of the following will discharge the sphere?

(1) bringing an alpha source near the sphere

(2) touching the sphere momentarily with a finger

(3) bringing a negatively charged metal rod near the sphere (but without touching it)



130

13. 2000/II/29

Two insulated uncharged metal spheres X and Y are placed in contact. A positively-charged rod is brought near

X as shown above. X is then earthed momentarily. The charged rod is removed and the two spheres are then

separated. Which of the following describes the charges on X and Y?

Sphere X Sphere Y

A. negative negative

B. negative uncharged

C. positive positive

D. uncharged uncharged

E. uncharged positive

14. 2001/II/28

Two charged spheres A and B are hanging at a point on a ceiling by two identical nylon threads. They remains

at rest as shown above. Which of the following statements must be correct?

(1) Both spheres carry positive charges.

(2) The force acting on B by A is larger than the force acting on A by B.

(3) The mass of A is larger than B



131

C

+

+

-

-

15. 2002/II/31

A plastic ruler is place close to a stream of running water coming from an insulated tap. The stream of water is

attracted towards the ruler as shown above. Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) The ruler carries an electric charge.

(2) The ruler and the running water are attracting each other with forces of equal magnitude.

(3) Both positive and negative charge are induced on the running water.


16. 2002/II/45

1st statement 2

nd statement

A lighting conductor can protect a building from being As the lighting conductor and the thundercloud

damaged by lighting during a thunderstorm. carry like charges, there is a strong repulsion

between them.

17. 2003/II/31

Four point charges of equal magnitude are placed at the four ventricles of a square. The signs of the charges

are as shown above. A point charge C is placed at the centre of the square. What will be the direction of the

resultant electrostatic force, if any, acting on C?

A. B.

C. The resultant force acting on C is zero D. It cannot be determined since the sign of C is not given


132

18. 2003/II/44

1st statement 2

nd statement

When a positively charged rod is brought near an When a positively charged rod is brought near

insulated uncharged conductor, they attract each other. an insulated uncharged conductor, a net negative

charge is induced on the conductor.

19. 2004/II/27

Three conducting sphere are suspended by separated nylon threads. When any two of them are brought near

each other, they attract each other. Which of the following deductions is correct?

A. All three spheres are charged.

B. Only one sphere is charged and the other two are uncharged.

C. One sphere is uncharged and the other two carry like charges.

D. One sphere is uncharged and the other two carry unlike charges.

20. 2005/II/17

Two conducting spheres are hanging in air by insulating threads. In which of the following will the tow spheres

attract each other?

Note : ‘N’ denotes that the sphere is uncharged.


21. 2006/II/22

A rubbed plastic ruler can attract paper scraps before actually touching them. Which of the following

descriptions about the charges on the rubbed ruler and the original charges on the paper scraps are

possible?

(1) The ruler and the paper scraps carry opposite charges.

(2) Both the ruler and the paper scraps are uncharged.

(3) The ruler carries charges and the paper scraps are uncharged.



133

22. 2007/II/19

In the above figures, P, Q, R and S are identical light conducting spheres and they are hanging freely by

insulating threads of the same length. Which of the following deductions is/are correct?

(1) P and Q must carry like charges.

(2) R and S must carry unlike charges

(3) P and Q must carry the same amount of net charges.



186

1. 1992/II/45

1st statement 2

nd statement

High voltages are used for long distance transmission Alternating voltages can be stepped up or down

of electricity. by a transformer.

2. 1999/II/34

Which of the following is/are advantage(s) of using high voltages for long distance transmission of electricity?

(1) The transmission speed can be increased.

(2) Some heavy industries operate at high voltages.

(3) The energy loss in the transmission can be reduced


3. 2005/II/43

Which of the following statements about long distance power transmission at high alternating voltages are

correct?

(1) Alternating voltages can be stepped up or down efficiently by transformers.

(2) For a given transmission power, the current will be reduced if a high voltage is adopted.

(3) The power loss in the transmission cables will be reduced if a high voltage is adopted.


HKCEE PHYSICS | 4.10 High voltage transmission of electrical energy | P.1

134

1. 1990/II/32

In the circuit above, the potential difference between X and Y is

A. zero B. 1.5 V C. 3.0 V D. 4.5 V E. 6.0 V

2. 1990/II/34

In the circuit above, L1, L2 and L3 are identical light bulbs. Which of the following statements is/are correct

when the switch S is closed?

(1) The brightness of L1 decreases.

(2) L2 and L3 are of the same brightness.

(3) L1 is brighter than L2.

A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (3) only D. (1) and (2) only E. (2) and (3) only

3. 1990/II/35

An electric heater takes a time T to boil a kettle of water when connected to a 200 V source. What will be the

time required to boil the same kettle of water when the heater is connected to a 100 V source?

( You may assume that the resistance of heater remains unchanged. )

A. T4

1 B. T

2

1 C. T D. 2 T E. 4 T

4. 1990/II/43

1st statement 2

nd statement

A 40 W filament lamp is not so bright as a 40 W A filament lamp has a stronger heating effect than a

fluorescent lamp fluorescent lamp.

HKCEE PHYSICS | 4.2 Electric circuit and power | P.1

135

5. 1991/II/30

In the above circuit, P, Q and R are identical resistors. Which of the following is true when switch S is closed?

A. The potential difference across Q increases.

B. The potential difference across P remains unchanged.

C. The current through Q remains unchanged.

D. The current through P decreases.

E. The power output from the battery increases.

6. 1991/II/31

(1) (2)

(3)

Arrange the above networks in descending order of equivalent resistances:

A. (1), (2), (3) B. (2), (1), (3) C. (2), (3), (1) D. (3), (1), (2) E. (3), (2), (1)

7. 1991/II/33

In the circuit above, what are the readings of voltmeters V1 and V2 if switch S is closed?

Voltmeter V1 Voltmeter V2

A. 0 V 2 V

B. 0 V 3 V

C. 1 V 2 V

D. 3 V 0 V

E. 3 V 2 V


136

8. 1991/II/36

Two light bulbs A and B of ratings ‘ 10 W , 6 V’ and ‘5 W , 6 V’ respectively are connected in series to a 6 V

battery. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The resistance of A is smaller than that of B.

(2) The current through A is the same as that through B.

(3) A is brighter than B.


9. 1992/II/29

The potential difference between two points X and Y in a circuit is 10 V. Which of the following must be correct?

A. 1 J of electrical potential energy is transferred in passing 10 C of charges from X to Y.

B. 5 J of electrical potential energy is transferred in passing 2 C of charges from X to Y.

C. 10 J of electrical potential energy is transferred in passing 1 C of charges from X to Y.

D. The resistance between X and Y is 100.

E. The current flowing through X and Y is 10 A.

10. 1992/II/31

In the circuit above, what happens to the readings of the three ammeters if switch S is closed?

A1 A2 A3

A. increases increases increases

B. remains unchanged becomes zero increases

C. increases becomes zero remains unchanged

D. decreases increases becomes zero

E. increases increases becomes zero

11. 1992/II/32

In the circuit above, what is the power dissipated in the 10Ω resistor?

A. 0.8 W B. 1.6 W C. 2.4 W D. 3.6 W E. 7.2 W


137

12. 1992/II/44

1st statement 2

nd statement

An ammeter should have a low resistance. An ammeter of high resistance significantly changes the current

in the circuit to which it is connected.

13. 1993/II/29

In the above circuit, all resistors are identical and the ammeters are of negligible resistance. If the reading of

ammeter A1 is 2 A, find the readings of ammeter A2 and A3.

A2 A3

A. 1 A 3 A

B. 2 A 2 A

C. 2 A 4 A

D. 4 A 2 A

E. 4 A 6 A

14. 1993/II/30

Which of the following circuits can be used to measure the resistance of the light bulb?

15. 1993/II/32

In the above circuit, L1, L2 and L3 are identical light bulbs. Which of the following statements is/are true?

(1) L2 and L3 are of the same brightness

(2) L1 is brighter than L2

(3) The power dissipated in L1 is equal to the sum of powers dissipated in L2 and L3.


138

16. 1993/II/33

Which of the following is NOT a correct unit for the corresponding physical quantity?

Physical quantity Unit

A. charge coulomb

B. current ampere

C. resistance ohm

D. potential difference joule

E. electrical energy kilowatt-hour

17. 1994/II/26

A student uses an ammeter and a voltmeter to find the resistance of a light bulb. He incorrectly connects the

circuit as shown above. Which of the following is the most probable outcome?

A. The ammeter burns out.

B. The voltmeter burns out.

C. The light bulb burns out.

D. The reading of the ammeter is zero.

E. The reading of the voltmeter is zero.

18. 1994/II/27

Find the potential difference between X and Y in the above circuit.

A. 0 V B. 1 V C. 2 V D. 3 V E. 4 V


139

19. 1994/II/28

In the above circuit, all the light bulbs are identical. What happens to the brightness of the bulbs L1, L2 and L3

if the switch S is closed?

L1 L2 L3

A. decreases increases remains unchanged

B. decreases increases decreases

C. decreases remains unchanged remains unchanged

D. remains unchanged decreases increases

E. increases remains unchanged increases

20. 1994/II/30

The above diagram shows the label attached to a rice cooker. Which of the following statements is/are true

when the cooker is working at its rated value?

(1) The resistance of the cooker is 96.8 Ω

(2) The cooker draws a current of 4.4 A from the mains supply

(3) The cooker consumes 1 kW h of the electrical energy in 2 hours.


21. 1994/II/34

100 kW of electrical power is transmitted at 20 kV through cables of total resistance 4 Ω. Find the potential

drop and power loss in the cables.

Potential drop Power loss

A. 20 V 20 W

B. 20 V 100 W

C. 100 V 20 W

D. 100 V 100 W

E. 20 kV 100 kW

Operating voltage 220 V/50 Hz

Power 500 W


140

22. 1995/II/27

In the above circuit, the reading of ammeter A1 is 0.6 A. Find the potential difference between points P and Q.

A. 3 V B. 6 V C. 9 V D. 12 V E. It cannot be determined since the e.m.f. of

the battery is not given.

23. 1995/II/28

Which of the following values is equivalent to one kilowatt hour?

A. 1000 W B. 1000 J C. 3600 J D. 3.6 x 104 W E. 3.6 x 10

4 J

24. 1995/II/30

A Christmas tree is illuminated with four strings of light bulbs. Each string has ten identical light bulb connected

in series as shown above. If one light bulb suddenly burns out, which of the following will happen?

A. Only that light bulb will go out. B. One light bulb in each string will go out.

C. One string of light bulbs will go out. D. All the light bulbs will go out.

E. Half of the light bulbs will go out.

25. 1995/II/33

In the above circuit, the ammeters are of negligible resistance. Which of the following statements is/are ture

if switch S is closed?

(1) The reading of ammeter A1 decreases.

(2) The reading of ammeter A2 increases.

(3) The reading of the voltmeter remains unchanged.



141

26. 1995/II/44

1st statement 2

nd statement

The resistance of a ‘200 V, 100 W’ light bulb is greater The current flowing through the ‘200 V, 100 W’ light

than that of a ‘200 V, 40 W’ bulb when they work at bulb is greater than that of the ‘200 V, 40 W’ bulb

their rated values. when they work at their rated values.

27. 1996/II/27

In the above circuit, the reading of ammeter A2 is 0.3 A. Find the reading of ammeter A1.

A. 0.75 A B. 0.6 A C. 0.5 A D. 0.45 A

E. It cannot be determined since the e.m.f. of the battery is not given.

28. 1996/II/30

It is known that the resistance of a resistor R is about 5 kΩ. Which of the following circuits is most suitable

for measuring the resistance of R? The ammeter and voltmeter used are common moving coil meters.

29. 1996/II/32

In Figure (a), the ammeter reading and the total power dissipated in the two identical resistors are I and P

respectively. The resistors are rearranged as shown in Figure (b). Find the ammeter reading and the total

power dissipated in the two resistors.

Ammeter reading Total power dissipated

A. 2 I 2 P

B. 2 I 4 P

C. 4 I 2 P

D. 4 I 4 P

E. 4 I 8 P


142

30. 1997/II/28

The kilowatt-hour is a unit of

A. charge B. current C. energy D. potential difference E. power

31. 1997/II/29

All the resistors in the above networks are identical. Arrange the networks in ascending order of equivalent

resistances:

A. (1), (2), (3) B. (1), (3), (2) C. (2), (1), (3) D. (3), (1), (2) E. (3), (2), (1)

32. 1997/II/31

In the above circuit, X and Y are identical heaters. The ammeter has negligible resistance while the voltmeter

has very high resistance. When switch S is closed, the ammeter records a reading but the voltmeter reading is

zero. Which of the following provides a possible explanation?

A. The heater X burns out. B. The heater Y burns out.

C. The heater X is short-circuited. D. The heater Y is short-circuited.

E. The battery is short-circuited.

33. 1997/II/44

1st statement 2

nd statement

When a ‘220 V, 100 W’ bulb P and a ‘220 V, 40 W’ When a ‘220 V, 100 W’ bulb P and a ‘220 V, 40 W’

bulb Q are connected in series to a 220 V supply, the bulb Q are connected in series to a 220 V supply, the

power dissipated in P is larger than that in Q. current passing through P is larger than that through Q.


143

34. 1998/II/30

In the above circuit, the reading of the ammeter is 0.4 A. Find the resistance of the resistor R.

A. 3 Ω B. 5 Ω C. 6 Ω D. 9 Ω E. 12 Ω

35. 1998/II/31

A motor is connected in series with a 10 Ω resistor and a 12 V power supply as shown above. If the current

in the circuit is 0.5 A, find the power consumed by the motor.

A. 3.5 W B. 5 W C. 6 W D. 7 W E. 14 W

36. 1998/II/33

An electrical appliance is connected to a power supply of voltage V by long connecting wires of total

resistance R as shown in the above circuit. It is found that the current passing through the appliance is only

2

0I, where I0 is the current required for the appliance to work at its rated value. Which of the following changes

could increase the current through the appliance to I0?

Voltage of power supply Total resistance of connecting wires

A. increases to 2 V increases to 2 R

B. increases to 2 V remains unchanged

C. increases to 2 V reduces to 2

R

D. remains unchanged increases to 2 R

E. remains unchanged reduces to 2

R


144

37. 1999/II/27

A student uses the above circuit to find the resistance of a resistor R (i.e. resistance = readingammeter

readingvoltmeter ).


(1) The ammeter reading records the actual current passing through R.

(2) The voltmeter reading records the actual potential difference across R.

(3) The value of the resistance R obtained is smaller than its actual value.


38. 1999/II/28

In the above circuit, the current delivered by the cell is I. What is the current passing through the 30 Ω resistor?

A. I2

1 B. I

3

1 C. I

4

1 D. I

5

1 E. I

5

4

39. 2000/II/30

Three resistors are connected to a battery as shown above. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The current passing through R1 is equal to that passing through R2.

(2) The potential difference across R1 is equal to that across R2.

(3) The energy dissipated by a coulomb of charge passing through the 4Ω-resistor is equal to that dissipated

by a coulomb of charge passing through PQ.



145

40. 2000/II/31

If switch S in the above circuit is closed, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The readings of A1 and A2 are both increased.

(2) The ratio of the readings of ammeter A1 and A2 is increased.

(3) The reading of ammeter A3 remains unchanged.


41. 2000/II/34

A resistor and a bulb are connected in parallel to a 9 V battery as shown above. The reading of the ammeter is

5 A. If the power dissipated by the resistor is 18 W, find the power dissipated by the bulb.

A. 9 W B. 18 W C. 22.5 W D. 27 W E. 45 W

42. 2000/II/36

The above diagram shows an experimental set-up for measuring the resistance of a bulb. To which of the

terminals P, Q and R of the ammeter and voltmeter should each of the wires be connected?

Wire (1) Wire (2) Wire (3)

A. P Q R

B. P R Q

C. Q P R

D. R P Q

E. R Q P


146

43. 2001/II/27

Which of the following reactions is incorrect?

A. 1 pascal (Pa) = 1 newton per meter squared (N m-2

)(Out of syll.)

B. 1 watt (W) = 1 joule per second (J s-1

)

C. 1 coulomb (C) = 1 ampere per second (A s-1

)

D. 1 volt (V) = 1 joule per coulomb (J C-1

)

E. 1 ohm (Ω) = 1 volt per ampere (V A-1

)

44. 2001/II/29

If the ammeter in the above circuit reads 3 A, find the voltage of the battery.

A. 11 V B. 12 V C. 13.5 V D. 15 V E. 18 V

45. 2001/II/30

In the above circuit, the two resistors are identical. If switch S is closed, which of the following predications

is incorrect?

A. The reading of the ammeter A1 increases.

B. The reading of the ammeter A2 remains unchanged.

C. The reading of the voltmeter remains unchanged.

D. The power delivered by the battery increases.

E. The potential difference between points X and Y increases.

46. 2001/II/32

Two electrical heaters X and Y are of ratings ‘110 V, 40 W’ and ‘110 V, 80 W’ respectively. Which of the

deductions about the two heaters is/are correct?

(1) The operating resistance of X is twice that of Y.

(2) X will consume a power of 80 W when it is connected to a 220 V mains supply.

(3) Both heaters work at their rated values when they are connected in series to a 220 V mains supply



147

47. 2002/II/30

In the above circuit, both ammeters A1 and A2 read 1 A when switch S is open. Find the readings of the two

ammeters when S is closed.

A1 A2

A. 0.5 A 1.5 A

B. 1.67 A 1 A

C. 1 A 1.5 A

D. 1 A 3 A

48. 2002/II/33

The figure above shows the voltage-current (V-I ) graphs of two resistors X and Y. Which of the following

deductions is/are correct?

(1) The resistance of X is higher than that of Y.

(2) If X and Y are connected in series, the V-I graph of the combined resistor will lie in region P.

(3) If X and Y are connected in parallel, the V-I graph of the combined resistor will lie in region Q.


49. 2002/II/34

Three identical lamps L1, L2 and L3 of ratings ‘6 V, 12 W’ are connected to a 6 V battery as shown above.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The potential difference across L2 is 3 V.

B. The current passing through L1 is 2 A.

C. The total power drawn from the battery is 12 W.

D. The total power dissipated in L1 and L2 is smaller than that in L3.


148

50. 2003/II/32

A square loop PQRS is made of uniform resistance wire. Let X, Y and Z be the equivalent resistance of the

loop when connected as shown below:

Method of connection Equivalent resistance

X

Y

Z

Which of the following relations is correct?

A. X = Y = Z B. X = Z > Y C. X = Z < Y D. X < Y < Z

51. 2003/II/33

Figure (a) shows a circuit used to investigate how the potential difference V across a resistance wire varies

with the current I through the wire. The result is shown in Figure (b). If the experiment is repeated using a

thinner wire of the same material and of equal length, which of the following graphs (denoted by the dashed

line) represents the expected result?


149

52. 2003/II/34

Three light bulbs P, Q and R of ratings ’24 V, 80 W’ , ’12 V, 80 W’ and ’12 V, 40 W’ respectively are connected

in parallel to a 12 V battery. Which of the bulbs will be the brightness, and which will be dimmest?

The brightest The dimmest

A. P Q

B. P R

C. Q P

D. Q R

53. 2003/II/36

The figure shows the energy label of a washing machine. If the average working time per wash is 1.8 hours,

estimate the average electric power consumed by the machine.

A. 450 W B. 534 W C. 962 W D. 1731 W

54. 2003/II/45

1st statement 2

nd statement

A bird can stand on an overhead high voltage transmission When a bird stands on an overhead high voltage

cable without getting any electric shock. transmission cable, the potential difference across

the bird’s two legs is very small.


150

55. 2004/II/28

The photograph shows a rechargeable cell. If the cell is charged for 16 hours using the standard charge mode,

estimate the total amount of charge flowed through the charging circuit.

A. 182.4°C B. 3040 C C. 10 944 C D. 27 360 C

56. 2004/II/29

An ammeter with negligible resistance and a high-resistance voltmeter are connected into a circuit as shown

above. Find the ammeter and voltmeter readings.

Ammeter reading /A Voltmeter reading /A

A. 0 2

B. 1 2

C. 3 2

D. 3 6

57. 2004/II/30

David wants to design a battery-powered toy car. Which of the following circuits should he use?


151

58. 2004/II/31

An ammeter and a 0 – 40 Ω rheostat are connected to a 6 V battery. The sliding contact is located at a position

X where AX = AB4

1 as shown above. Find the ammeter reading.

A. 0.15 A B. 0.2 A C. 0.45 A D. 0.6 A

59. 2004/II/32

In the above circuits, X, Y and Z are identical resistors. The power dissipated in X is 20 W. Find the total

power dissipated in Y and Z.

A. 10 W B. 20 W C. 80 W D. 160 W

60. 2005/II/18

In the above circuit, the bulbs are identical. If the reading of ammeter A1 is 1 A, find the readings of ammeters

A2 and A3.

Reading of A2 Reading of A3

A. 0.5 A 1 A

B. 0.5 A 1.5 A

C. 2 A 2 A

D. 2 A 3 A


152

61. 2005/II/19

In the above circuit, what is the reading of the voltmeter when switch S is closed?

A. zero B. 6 V C. 12 V D. It cannot be determined since insufficient information is given.

62. 2005/II/39

A student wants to measure the resistance of a resistor R and sets up a circuit as shown above. Which of the

following describe(s) the mistake(s) made by the student in setting up the circuit?

(1) The polarity of the ammeter is reversed.

(2) The polarity of the voltmeter is reversed.

(3) The voltmeter is connected across both R and the rheostat.



153

63. 2005/II/40

A teacher sets up the circuit as shown in Figure (a) and provides the following information to her students.

Which of the following shows the variation of the ammeter reading I with the temperature of the thermistor θ?

64. 2005/II/41

Which of the following shows the variation of the voltmeter reading V with the temperature of the thermistor θ?

Thermistors are devices whose resistance varies with temperature.

The variation of the resistance of the thermistor used with

temperature is shown in Figure (b).


154

65. 2006/II/21

The figure shows the label of a kilowatt-hour meter connected to a mains supply. When an appliance is

switched on for 2 minutes, the circular disc rotates through 24 complete revolutions. What is the electric

power consumed by the appliance?

A. 900 W B. 1200 W C. 1800 W D. 2400 W

66. 2006/II/23

In the current in the circuit shown is 0.8 A, what is the number of electrons passing through the point X in 1

minute? (The charge on each electron is 1.6 x 10-19

C.)

A. 8.3 × 1016

B. 1.6 × 1017

C. 5.0 × 1018

D. 3.0 × 1020

67. 2006/II/24

The diagram shows the circuit of a camping light which uses four 1.5 V cells and four identical light bulbs.

The current passing through each light bulb is 1 A. What is the current passing through the point P and what

is the power of each light bulb?

Current passing through the point P Power of each light bulb

A. 4 A 6 W

B. 4 A 1.5 W

C. 1 A 6 W

D. 1 A 1.5 W


155

Lithium cell: 3.6 V

Capacity : 800 mAh

Time (stand-by mode) : about 3

68. 2006/II/26

Three identical light bulbs are connected to a cell as shown in the diagram. After some time, the filament of

bulb Z breaks. What will happen to the brightness of the remaining light bulbs?

Brightness of X Brightness of Y

A. increases increases

B. increases decreases

C. decreases increases

D. decreases decreases

69. 2006/II/35

The figure shows a label on a lithium cell of a mobile phone. The capacity 800 mA h indicates the quantity of

electric charges that the cell will discharge in 3 days when the mobile phone is in stand-by mode. Estimate the

average power of the cell assuming the voltage remains constant during the discharge.

A. 16 mW B. 40 mW C. 120 mW D. 960 mW

70. 2006/II/40

Two light bulbs are marked ‘220 V, 50 W’ and ‘220 V, 100 W’ respectively. If they are connected in series to a

220 V mains supply, what is the current drawn from the mains supply?

A. 0.15 A B. 0.23 A C. 0.46 A D. 0.68 A

71. 2006/II/41

In the circuit above, the resistors represent the heating elements in a rice cooker. The resistances of the elements

are 5R and R respectively. The rice-cooker can be operated in two modes, namely, cooking and keeping warm.

The power consumed by the cooker in the cooking mode is 600 W when S is closed. What is the power

consumed by the rice-cooker in the mode of keeping warm when S is open?

A. 100 W B. 120 W C. 150 W D. 180 W


156

72. 2007/II/18

A household circuit breaker is marked ‘220 V, 15 A’. Now an iron rated ‘220 V, 1100 W’ and a cooker rated

‘220 V, 550 W’ are connected in parallel to the mains socket. How many light bulbs rated ‘220 V, 100 W’ at

most can be connected in parallel to the mains without triggering the circuit breaker?

A. 12 B. 16 C. 17 D. 20

73. 2007/II/20

In the circuit shown below, a voltage of 10 V is applied across X Y.

What is the current passing through the 8 Ω resistor?

A. 0.5 A B. 0.8 A C. 1 A D. 2 A

74. 2007/II/21

If the ammeter in the above circuit reads 3 A, what is the voltage of the battery?

A. 8.5 V B. 9.6 V C. 21 V D. 24 V

75. 2007/II/22

The voltage and the capacity of the cell of a portable music player are 3.6 V and 700 mA h respectively.

The continuous playing time of the player is 15 hours. The capacity 700 mA h indicates the quantity of electric

charges that the cell will discharge in 15 hours of playing. Assume that the voltage remains constant during

discharge, what is the estimated power of the player when it is playing?

A. 0.047 W B. 0.168 W C. 0.194 W D. 0.252 W


157

76. 2007/II/23

In the following circuit, three identical light bulbs are connected to a cell. Under what conditions will light

bulb P have the maximum brightness?

Switch X Switch Y

A. open closed

B. open open

C. closed closed

D. closed open

77. 2007/II/41

A student sets up the above circuit to study the effect of the length of a resistance wire on its resistance. As the

crocodile clip is moved from A to B along the resistance wire, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The reading of the ammeter increases.

(2) The reading of the voltmeter increases.

(3) The voltmeter reading is directly proportional to the reading of the ammeter.


78. 2007/II/45

1st statement 2

nd statement

When two light bulbs P and Q are connected in When two light bulbs P and Q are connected in parallel to

parallel to a power supply, Q is brighter than P a power supply, the voltage across Q is greater than that

if the resistance of P is greater than that of Q. across P if the resistance of P is greater than that of Q.


158

79. 2008/II/18

Method of connection Equivalent resistance

X

Y

Z

A circular loop is made of uniform resistance wire. Let X, Y and Z be the equivalent resistance of the loop when

connected as shown above. Which of the following is correct?

A. X = Y = Z B. X > Y = Z C. X < Y = Z D. X < Y < Z

80. 2008/II/20

The above figure shows two light bulbs A and B, which are connected in series. The voltages across A and B

are 3 V and 1 V respectively. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The resistance of A is greater than that of B.

(2) The current flowing through A is greater than that through B.

(3) A is dimmer than B.



159

81. 2008/II/21

In the above circuit, the reading of the ammeter is 0.3 A. What is the voltage V of the battery?

A. 4.8 V B. 5.4 V C. 9.0 V D. 14.4 V

82. 2008/II/22

A lighting system consists of 3 bulbs, each rated ‘220 V, 30 W’. These three bulbs should be connected in

parallel to the 220 V mains supply. However, the bulbs are wrongly connected in series to the mains supply.

What is the power dissipation of the wrongly connected system?

A. 3.33 W B. 10 W C. 30 W D. 90 W

83. 2008/II/23

A cell fully discharges at a constant current 225 mA in 10 hours. If its average voltage is 1.2 V, what is the

estimated total energy stored in the cell?

A. 2.7 J B. 6750 J C. 8100 J D. 9720 J


160

1. 1991/II/28

For safety, the correct way of connecting the fuse and switch to electrical appliances should be

A. fuse in live wire, switch in neutral wire. B. fuse in earth wire, switch in live wire.

C. fuse in earth wire, switch in neutral wire. D. both in neutral wire.

E. both in live wire.

2. 1994/II/29

Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the connection of the wires of an iron to the pins of a plug?

(L : Live, N : Neutral, E : Earth)

3. 1994/II/31

Which of the following statements about the direct current (d.c.) and alternating current (a.c.) is/are correct?

(1) All d.c. sources produce constant voltages.

(2) The direction of current in an a.c. circuit changes with time.

(3) Both d.c. and a.c. produce a heating effect in a resistor.


4. 1995/II/35

The diagram above shows a three-pin plug and the wires connecting to it. To which of the pins should each of

the wires X, Y and Z be connected?

P Q R

A. X Y Z

B. Y X Z

C. Y Z X

D. Z X Y

E. Z Y X

HKCEE PHYSICS | 4.3 Domestic electricity | P.1

161

5. 1996/II/34

The switch S and the fuse of an iron are incorrectly fitted in the neutral wire as shown above. Which of the

following statements is correct?

A. The iron will not operate even when S is on.

B. The iron will still operate even when S is off.

C. The iron will still operate, but if there is high current the fuse will not blow.

D. The iron will still operate, but if the live wire accidentally touches the body of the iron the current cannot

be conducted to the earth.

E. The iron will still operate, but the heating element will remain at a high potential even when S is off.

6. 1997/II/30

Which of the following statements about the earth wire in an electric iron is/are correct?

(1) The earth wire should be connected to the metal body of the iron.

(2) If the iron is working property, no current passes through the earth wire.

(3) In case the neutral wire is broken, the earth wire provides a spare wire for the return path to the mains

socket.


7. 1999/II/43

1st statement 2

nd statement

If the fuse in an electrical appliance is blown, it Copper has low resistance and will easily cause a

should not be replaced by a piece of copper wire. short-circuit if it is used to replace the blown fuse.

8. 2000/II/35

The above diagram shows the main parts of an electric iron. In which of the following statements will the fuse

blow when the switch is closed?

(1) The insulation at constant point X is worn out so that the wire touches the metal case.

(2) The insulation at constant point Y is worn out so that the wire touches the metal case.

(3) The heating element is broken.



162

9. 2000/II/44

1st statement 2

nd statement

If an a.c. supply is connected to a resistor, no internal If an a.c. supply is connected to a resistor, the direction

energy will be dissipated by the resistor. of current flowing through the resistor will change

with time.

10. 2001/II/31

Which of the following diagrams shows the correct connection to the fuse and switch of an electric kettle to

the main supply? ( L : live, N : neutral, E : earth)

11. 2002/II/36

If the live and neutral wires of an electric kettle are mistakenly interchanged inside the plug as shown above,

which of the following will happen ?

A. The kettle will not operate.

B. The fuse of the kettle will blow.

C. The metal case of the kettle will still stand at a high potential even when the switch of the kettle is off.

D. The heating element of the kettle will still stand at a high potential even when the switch of the kettle is off.

12. 2003/II/35

The photograph shows a three-pin plug of an appliance. Which of the following is a function of pin P?

A. It prevents the appliance from being short-circuited.

B. It protects the user from getting an electric shock.

C. It provides a return path for the current.

D. It can break the circuit when the current flowing through the appliance is too large.


163

13. 2004/II/33

One day, Donald used the following electrical appliances at home :

A. C1 > C2 > C3 B. C2 > C1 > C3 C. C2 > C3 > C1 D. C3 > C2 > C1

14. 2005/II/20

The following table shows three electrical appliances which Clara used in a certain mouth :

Calculate the cost of electricity used. Note : 1 kW h of electricity costs $ 0.86.

A. $ 62.25 B. $73.79 C. $282.94 D. 536.64

15. 2005/II/21

If a 15 A fuse is installed in the plug of an electric kettle of rating ‘220 V, 900 W’, which of the following

descriptions is correct?

A. The kettle will not operate.

B. The kettle will be short-circuited.

C. The output power of the kettle will be increased.

D. The chance of the kettle being damaged by an excessive current will be increased.

16. 2006/II/25

The figure shows a label on a lithium cell of a mobile phone. The capacity 800 mA h indicates the quantity of

electric charges that the cell will discharge in 3 days when the mobile phone is in stand-by mode. Estimate

The average power of the cell assuming the voltage remains constant during the discharge.

A. 16 mW B. 40 mW C. 120 mW D. 960 mW

Appliance Rating Duration Cost of electricity

electric heater 220 V, 2500 W 30 minutes C1

television 220 V, 270 W 5 hours C2

lamp 220 V, 150 W 8 hours C3

Appliance Rating Duration

air-conditioner 220 V, 1200 W 250 hours

television 220 V, 250 W 80 hours

computer 220 V, 150 W 60 hours

Lithium cell: 3.6 V

Capacity : 800 mA h

Time (stand-by mode) : about 3 days


164

17. 2006/II/39

An electric appliance draws a current 2 A when it is operating at 220 V. Which of the following is the best

description of the current and the voltage of each wire of the electric appliance when it is connected to a 220 V

mains supply ?

Live wire Neutral wire Earth wire

Current Voltage Current Voltage Current Voltage

A. 2 A 220 V 1 A 220 V 1 A 0

B. 2 A 220 V 2 A 220 V 0 0

C. 2 A 220 V 2 A 0 V 0 0

D. 2 A 220 V 0 0 0 0


165

1. 1990/II/31

In the figure, a copper rod is suspended horizontally by two insulating threads AB and CD, and the direction

of the magnetic field is into the paper. What happens when the switch of the circuit is closed?

A. The copper rod will move into the paper.

B. The copper rod will move out of the paper

C. The copper rod will swing into and out of the paper alternately.

D. The tension in each thread is decreased.

E. The tension in each thread is increased.

2. 1995/II/34

The diagram above shows a simple electromagnet. Which of the following can increase the strength of the

electromagnet?

(1) Decreasing the resistance of the variable resistor

(2) Replacing the soft iron core with one made of steel

(3) Replacing the battery with a 50 Hz a.c. source


3. 2001/II/36

The figure above shows an electromagnet which is used to pick up iron objects. Which of the following can

increase the strength of the electromagnet?

(1) increasing the number of turns of the coil

(2) reducing the resistance of the variable resistor

(3) replacing the battery with a 12 V a.c. power supply


HKCEE PHYSICS | 4.4 Magnetic effect of an electric current | P.1

166

4. 2003/II/37

Two compasses P and Q are placed near the poles of an electromagnet as shown above. In which of the

following diagrams are the north poles of the compass needles pointing in the correct directions?

P Q

A.

B.

C.

D.

5. 2005/II/22

Which of the following diagrams shows the magnetic field pattern formed around a flat circular current-carrying

coil, in the plane as shown above?


167

6. 2007/II/40

Under an external force, a metal rod PQ is moving with a uniform speed v on a metal rail placed in a uniform

magnetic field as shown above. Which of the following descriptions is/are correct?

(1) Current flows through the ammeter from Q to R.

(2) The metal rod will accelerate to right if the direction of the magnetic field is reversed.

(3) The pointer of the ammeter will deflect to opposite direction if the direction of the magnetic field is

reversed.


7. 2008/II/42

The figure above shows a rectangular loop of wire carrying a steady current I. The rectangular loop can rotate

freely about PQ. If a uniform magnetic field to the right is applied, which of the following is correct?

Resultant magnetic field acting on the rectangular loop Rotation of the rectangular loop about PQ

A. non-zero clockwise

B. non-zero anti-clockwise

C. zero clockwise

D. zero anti-clockwise


168

8. 2008/II/43

A compass is placed inside an air-cored solenoid XY which is connected to a d.c. supply with terminals P, Q

as shown. If the end X of the solenoid behaves as magnetic north pole, what are the polarity of the terminal P

and the direction in which the north pole of the compass needle points? (The tip of the arrow represents the

north pole of the compass needle.)

Polarity of P Compass

A. +

B. +

C. –

D. –


169

1. 1992/II/33

A small compass is placed near a long current carrying wire. In which of the following diagrams is the compass

needle pointing in the correct direction?

(1) Compass above the wire

(2) Compass below the wire

(3) Current flowing out of paper


2. 1994/II/33

The above diagram shows three long straight wires X, Y and Z. X and Y carry currents flowing into the paper

while Z carries a current flowing out of the paper. The currents are all equal in magnitude. What is the direction

of the resultant force acting on X?


3. 1996/II/35

Two long insulated wires carrying equal currents are placed perpendicular to each other on a table as shown

above. The points P, Q, R and S are all of equal distances from the wires. At which point(s) is the resulting

magnetic field pointing out of the paper?

A. P only B. Q only C. S only D. P and Q only E. R and S only

HKCEE PHYSICS | 4.5 Current carrying conductor in a magnetic field | P.1

170

4. 1998/II/32

The above diagram shows the cross-section of three parallel straight wires X, Y and Z. X and Y carry currents

flowing out of the paper and Z carries a current flowing into the paper. What is the direction of the resultant

force acting on Y?

A. towards the left B. towards the right C. upwards D. downwards E. into the paper

5. 2002/II/32

P, Q and R are three parallel straight wires carrying equal currents flowing out of the paper. R is equidistant

from P and Q. What is the direction of the resultant force acting on R by P and Q?

A. → B. ← C. ↑ D. ↓

6. 2004/II/34

Two parallel straight wires P and Q carry equal currents flowing into the paper. A compass is placed at a point

R where PR = QR. In which of the following diagrams is the north pole of the compass needle pointing in the

correct direction? The effect on the Earth’s magnetic field may be ignored.

A. B. C. D.

7. 2008/II/19

Two parallel wires carry equal currents flowing in the same direction. Which of the following statements are

correct?

(1) The magnetic forces acting on the two wires form an action-reaction pair.

(2) The two wires attract each other.

(3) If the directions of the current in the two wires are reversed, the wires will repel each other.


HKCEE PHYSICS | 4.5 Current carrying conductor in a magnetic field | P.2

171

1. 1990/II/36

In figure 1, the galvanometer deflects to the right with a reading with a reading of 10 µA. The north pole of the

same magnet is now pushed towards the coil from the other side at a faster rate as shown in Figure 2. The

deflection on the galvanometer will be

A. 10 µA to the left. B. less than 10 µA to the right.

C. more than 10 µA to the right. D. less than 10 µA to the left

E. more than 10 µA to the left.

2. 1993/II/34

Two coils of conducting wires are wrapped on a soft-iron core as shown above. Switch S is closed and after a

while re-opened. Which of the following statements is/are true?

(1) At the moment when S is closed, a current flows through R from P to Q.

(2) When S remains closed, there is no current flowing through R.

(3) At the moment when S is re-opened, a current flows through R from P to Q.


3. 1994/II/36

A magnet is initially placed between the ends of a soft iron core as shown above. The magnet is then quickly

rotated clockwise through one complete revolution. Which of the following statements correctly describes

the induced current flowing through the resistor R?

A. The current flows through R from P to Q, and then reverses its direction.

B. The current flows through R from Q to P, and then reverses its direction.

C. The current flows through R from P to Q.

D. The current flows through R from Q to P.

E. There is no current flowing through R.

HKCEE PHYSICS | 4.6 Electromagnetic induction | P.1

172

4. 1997/II/34

A metal ring is released and falls vertically around a magnet as shown above. Which of the following

diagrams/statement correctly describes the directions of the induced current, if any, in the ring at positions

X and Y?

E. There are no induced currents in either case.

5. 1998/II/34

In the above diagram, a metal rod is placed inside a magnetic field pointing into the paper. In which direction

should the rod be moved in order to produce an induced current as shown in the diagram?

A. into the paper B. out of the paper C. upwards

D. downwards E. towards the right

6. 2000/II/38

A bar magnet is placed near a solenoid. Which of the following correctly shows the direction of the induced

current in the solenoid?

(Note : The arrow “ “ indicates the direction of motion of the magnet or solenoid.)


173

7. 2004/II/35

A rectangular coil is moved with a uniform speed from position A to position B as shown above. Which of

the following graphs represents the variation of the current induced in the coil with time?

8. 2005/II/42

A conducting rectangular coil ABCD is moved across a uniform magnetic field pointing into the paper as shown

above. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The induced current flows from A to C through B when the coil is at P.

(2) The magnitude of the induced current is the largest when the coil is at Q.

(3) The direction of the induced current when the coil is at R is the same as that when it is at P.


9. 2007/II/43

An electronic balance reads X when a closed-loop copper coil is placed on it as shown above. A bar magnet

drops from certain height vertically above. Just before the magnet reaches the coil, the reading of the electronic

balance is

A. the same as X. B. first smaller than X and then greater than X.

C. smaller than X. D. greater than X.


174

10. 2008/II/39

An experiment about electromagnet is designed as shown above. Coil B has a greater number of turns than coil

A. Coil B is connected to a sensitive ammeter. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) When the switch is closed, a steady current flows through the ammeter.

(2) At the moment the switch is opened, a current flows through the ammeter momentarily.

(3) If the soft iron rod is replaced by a glass rod, the ammeter will have a greater deflection at the moment

the switch is opened.


11. 2008/II/40

In the above figure, a rectangular coil is pulled to the right with uniform speed in a uniform magnetic field

pointing into the paper. Which of the following descriptions about the current induced in the coil and the

magnetic force acting on the coil is correct?

A. No current is induced in the coil and no magnetic force is acting on the coil.

B. A current is induced in the coil but the resultant magnetic force acting on the coil is zero.

C. A current is induced in the coil and a resultant magnetic force acting on the coil to the left.

D. A current is induced in the coil and a resultant magnetic force acting on the coil to the right.


175

1. 1992/II/38

Which of the following devices is/are designed to convert electrical energy into sound?

(1) A buzzer (2) A microphone (3) A loudspeaker


2. 1994/II/32

Which of the following correctly shows the major energy change in the device when it is working?

Device From To

A. A microphone electrical sound

B. A loudspeaker sound electrical

C. A dynamo electrical electrical

D. A ticker-tape timer electrical mechanical

E. A transformer mechanical electrical

3. 1995/II/31

Which of the following involve(s) the application of electromagnets?

(1) A ticker-tape timer

(2) A moving-coil loudspeaker

(3) A telephone receiver


4. 1996/II/31

Which of the following devices is not an application of electromagnet induction?

A. a transformer B. a bicycle dynamo C. a magnetic tape playback head

D. a moving coil microphone E. a moving coil loudspeaker

5. 2006/II/36

The diagram shows a home-made device which can produce sound. In the device, a magnet is fixed to the base

of a plastic cup. When a signal passes through the coil, the base vibrates to produce a sound. Which of the

following methods can make the sound louder?

(1) using a stronger magnet

(2) inserting a copper rod into the coil

(3) increasing the number of turns in the coil


HKCEE PHYSICS | 4.7 Application of electromagnetism | P.1

176

1. 1993/II/37

The above diagram shows an electricity generator. Which of the following graphs shows the variation of

e.m.f. produced by the generator?

2. 1997/II/37

The above diagram shows an electricity generator connected to a load. Which of the following can increase

the e.m.f. produced by the generator?

(1) Rotating the coil at a greater speed

(2) Reducing the resistance of the load

(3) Replacing the coil with one of larger area


HKCEE PHYSICS | 4.8 Motor and generator | P.1

177

3. 2004/II/36

The diagram shows a generator connected to a load. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The generator produces an alternating current through the load.

(2) At the instant shown, a current is flowing through the load from P to Q.

(3) The current produced reaches a maximum when the coil is vertical.


4. 2005/II/23

The figure shows a simple motor. Which of the following changes can increase the turning effect of the coil?

(1) using a stronger magnet

(2) reducing the resistance of the rheostat

(3) using a coil with a smaller number of turns



178

5. 2007/II/42

The above figure shows a simple structure of a d.c. generator. Which of the following statements is/are

correct?

(1) The current delivered to the load is constant.

(2) The current generated in the coil is alternating, but the current delivered to the load is unidirectional.

(3) The current flows through the load from X to Y.



179

1. 1990/II/37

In the circuit above, the efficiency of the transformer is 80%. If the two lamps are to work at their rated values,

what is the current in the primary coil and what kind of transformer is being used?

Current in primary coil Transformer

A. 0.2 A 20:1 step down

B. 0.4 A 20:1 step down

C. 0.5 A 20:1 step down

D. 0.4 A 10:1 step down

E. 0.5 A 10:1 step down

2. 1991/II/38

In the above circuit diagram, the transformer is 100% efficient. What is the maximum number of identical light

bulbs, each of rating ’40 W, 10 V’ that can be connected in parallel across secondary coil without blowing the

fuse? (Assume that the fuse will blow if the current flowing through it exceeds 15 A.)

A. 2 B. 3 C. 20 D. 60 E. 75

3. 1992/II/34

In the above circuit, the rating of each light bulb is ’20 W, 10 V’. The current in the primary coil is 0.5 A. If

all the bulbs work at their rated values, find the turns ratio and efficiency of the transformer.

Turns ratio Efficiency

A. 5:1 step down 40%

B. 5:1 step down 80%

C. 20:1 step down 20%

D. 20:1 step down 40%

E. 20:1 step down 80%

HKCEE PHYSICS | 4.9 Transformer | P.1

180

4. 1992/II/35

Which of the following can increase the efficiency of a transformer?

(1) Increasing the number of turns of the secondary coil.

(2) Using a laminated iron core.

(3) Using thicker copper wires to make the coils.


5. 1993/II/45

1st statement 2

nd statement

The efficiency of a transformer can be increased The secondary voltage of a transformer can be

by increasing the number of turns of the secondary increased by increasing the number of turns of the

coil. secondary coil.

6. 1994/II/35

In the above circuit, the rating of the light bulb is ’40 W, 10 V’. The efficiency of the transformer is 80%. If

the bulb works at its rated value, find the current in the primary coil.

A. 0.16 A B. 0.2 A C. 0.25 A D. 1.6 A E. 2.5 A

7. 1996/II/36

The primary coil of a transformer has 3600 turns and is connected to a 200 V a.c. supply. The secondary coils

has 180 turns, which can be tapped at different points as shown above. A ’40 W, 10 V’ light bulb is connected

to the transformer so that it works at its rated value. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The bulb should be connected to points P and Q.

(2) The current through the bulb is 4 A.

(3) If the efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current in the primary coil is 0.25 A.



181

8. 1996/II/45

1st statement 2

nd statement

The efficiency of a transformer is increased if its iron The energy lost due to induced current (eddy current)

core is laminated. in the iron core of a transformer is reduced if the core

is laminated.

9. 1998/II/35

A 4 V a.c. supply is stepped up to 20 V by a transformer. If the current in the primary core is 1 A and the power

loss of the transformer is 0.8 W, find the current in the secondary coil.

A. 0.04 A B. 0.16 A C. 0.2 A D. 0.24 A E. 0.8 A

10. 1998/II/45

1st statement 2

nd statement

The efficiency of a transformer is increased if the The energy lost in the coils of a transformer is reduced

thickness of the wires in its coils is reduced. if the thickness of the wires in its coils is reduced.

11. 1999/II/31

Two bulbs P and Q are connected to an ideal transformer as shown above. Which of the following statements

is/are true when switch S is closed?

(1) The brightness of bulb P decreases.

(2) The reading of the ammeter increases.

(3) The reading of the voltmeter remains unchanged.


12. 1999/II/36

A ‘6 V , 6 W’ light bulb is to be operated at its rated value. Three circuits are set up as shown below.

The power supplies all have negligible internal resistance. In which of the above circuits is the bulb working at

its rated value?



182

13. 2001/II/34

A 12 V a.c. supply is connected to a transformer with turns ratio 1 : 1. The secondary coil is tapped at equal

intervals as shown above. Two ‘6 V, 0.5 W’ light bulbs are connected to the secondary coil of the transformer.

In which of the following cases will the two bulbs work at their rated values?


14. 2002/II/38

The figure above shows a model power line. An a.c. supply and two ideal transformers are used to operate a

lamp of rating ‘6 V, 24 W’. The total resistance of the cables AB and CD is 10 Ω. If the lamp operates at its

rated value, find the power loss in the cables.

A. 0.4 W B. 3.6 W C. 160 W D. 1440 W

15. 2002/II/44

1st statement 2

nd statement

A transformer can be used to step up the power of A transformer can be used to step up the voltage of an

an a.c. supply. a.c. supply.


183

16. 2003/II/38

Two coils P and Q are wound on a soft-iron core as shown above. Switch S is closed and then opened again.

Which of the following shows the directions of the induced current flowing through the resistor R?

At the instant S At the instant S

is closed is opened again

17. 2006/II/37

In the above circuit, the transformer is ideal (efficiency = 100%). At the beginning, the switch S is closed and

the light bulbs X and Y are operated at their rated values. What would happen to the brightness of the bulb X

and the ammeter reading if S is now opened?

Brightness of X Ammeter reading

A. increases increases

B. increases decreases

C. remains unchanged decreases

D. remains unchanged remains unchanged


184

18. 2006/II/38

The photograph shows an adaptor for charging up the battery inside a mobile phone. Which of the following

statements about the adaptor are correct?

(1) It is used to step down the voltage from the mains to a value suitable for the mobile phone.

(2) It can convert the voltage from a.c. to d.c.

(3) It is black so that it can radiate heat more efficiently than those in other colours.


19. 2007/II/44

Specifications:

The above figure shows a portable transformer. It outputs different voltage by varying the turns ratio between

the primary and the secondary coils. Assume that there is no power lost in the transformer and the resistance

of the load remains unchanged, when the output changes from 6 V to 12 , which of the following statements

describing the transformer is/are correct?

(1) The number of turns of the primary coil should be doubled and the number of turns of the secondary

coil remains unchanged.

(2) The input current should be doubled.

(3) The output power should be 4 times as before.


Voltage input 220 V

Voltage outputs 6 V & 12 V


185

20. 2008/II/41

Specifications:

The figure shows a transformer. Assume the transformer is ideal, what is the current drawn from the mains

supply if the transformer delivers current at the rated value?

A. 5.5 mA B. 100 mA C. 1200 mA D. 1830 mA

21. 2008/II/45

1st statement 2

nd statement

Replacing the soft iron core with a copper core can Copper is a better conductor than soft iron.

improve the efficiency of a transformer.

Input a.c. 220 V

Output a.c. 12 V, 100 mA


202

HKCEE Physics Paper II Answers 1990-2008 1.1 Temperature, heat and internal energy 01. E 02. B 03. C 04. C 05. D 06. E 07. C 08. D 09. D 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. D 16. B 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. B 27. C 28. C 29. A 30. B 31. D 32. B 1.2 Transfer processes 01. B 02. D 03. A 04. D 05. B 06. D 1.3 Change of state 01. A 02. E 03. C 04. C 05. C 06. B 07. C 08. A 09. D 10. B 11. B 12. A 13. D 14. E 15. E 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. B 21. C 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. D 26. A 27. D 28. A 29. D 30. C 31. A 2.1 Position and movement 01. B 02. C 03. E 04. D 05. A 06. D 07. A 08. C 09. A 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. C 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. C 18. E 19. E 20. C 21. C 22. C 23. C 24. E 25. D 26. B 27. E 28. B 29. E 30. C 31. B 32. B 33. D 34. D 35. C 36. E 37. D 38. A 39. B 40. B 41. B 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. D 46. A 47. D 48. B 49. C 50. A 51. D 52. B 53. B 54. B 55. C 56. A 57. B 58. D 59. A 60. A 61. A 62. D 2.2 Force and motion 01. B 02. B 03. A 04. B 05. D 06. D 07. B 08. D 09. D 10. E 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. D 21. B 22. D 23. D 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. E 28. A 29. C 30. B 31. E 32. C 33. B 34. E 35. A 36. B 37. C 38. C 39. A 40. C 41. C 42. B 43. A 44. B 45. A 46. A 47. D 48. A 49. B 50. C 51. B 52. B 53. B 54. C 55. D 56. A 57. C 58. A 59. C 60. C 61. C 62. B 63. B 64. D 65. C 66. D 67. A 68. C 69. B 70. D 71. B 72. C 73. D 74. A 75. D 76. A 77. C 78. C 79. C 80. A 81. B

203

2.3 Work, energy and power 01. C 02. E 03. A 04. A 05. E 06. D 07. D 08. B 09. B 10. A 11. B 12. E 13. C 14. D 15. B 16. E 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. B 24. B 25. C 26. D 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. A 31. D 32. B 33. C 2.4 Momentum 01. A 02. A 03. C 04. D 05. C 06. D 07. B 08. C 09. C 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. C 21. C 22. B 23. D 24. D 3.1 Nature and properties of waves 01. E 02. E 03. C 04. C 05. B 06. D 07. A 08. A 09. A 10. D 11. B 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. E 19. E 20. B 21. A 22. E 23. A 24. C 25. E 26. D 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. E 31. B 32. A 33. A 34. D 35. D 36. C 37. A 38. D 39. D 40. D 41. A 42. C 43. C 44. C 45. D 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. C 50. A 51. A 52. B 53. B 54. C 55. C 56. C 57. D 3.2 Light 01. D 02. A 03. C 04. D 05. E 06. D 07. B 08. C 09. E 10. A 11. D 12. D 13. C 14. E 15. C 16. A 17. B 18. D 19. B 20. E 21. E 22. D 23. C 24. D 25. C 26. B 27. E 28. E 29. D 30. C 31. B 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. D 36. E 37. D 38. A 39. D 40. D 41. B 42. E 43. D 44. A 45. C 46. D 47. A 48. B 49. C 50. A 51. B 52. D 53. C 54. A 55. A 56. D 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. D 61. A 62. D 63. D 64. A 65. B 66. C 67. C 68. C 69. A 70. B 71. B 72. D 73. B 3.3 Sound and Electromagnetic waves 01. D 02. B 03. B 04. A 05. B 06. E 07. B 08. A 09. A 10. E 11. B 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. E 16. E 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. A 21. A 22. E 23. D 24. B 25. A 26. E 27. D 28. E 29. A 30. D 31. A 32. B 33. C 34. B 35. C 36. B 37. B 38. D 39. B 40. A 41. A 42. D 43. B 44. A 45. C 46. D 47. D 48. B 49. A 50. A 4.1 Electrostatics 01. D 02. C 03. D 04. B 05. D 06. C 07. E 08. C 09. D 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. D 16. C 17. C 18. C 19. D 20. D 21. B 22. A

204

4.2 Electric circuit and power 01. B 02. E 03. E 04. A 05. E 06. C 07. A 08. C 09. C 10. E 11. B 12. A 13. E 14. B 15. C 16. D 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. C 21. B 22. A 23. E 24. C 25. D 26. D 27. A 28. A 29. D 30. C 31. A 32. C 33. E 34. C 35. A 36. B 37. D 38. A 39. D 40. A 41. D 42. A 43. C 44. A 45. E 46. A 47. C 48. B 49. D 50. C 51. D 52. C 53. B 54. A 55. C 56. D 57. A 58. B 59. D 60. D 61. D 62. C 63. B 64. A 65. B 66. D 67. A 68. C 69. B 70. A 71. A 72. B 73. C 74. A 75. B 76. D 77. A 78. C 79. B 80. A 81. C 82. B 83. D 4.3 Domestic electricity 01. E 02. A 03. D 04. E 05. E 06. C 07. C 08. A 09. D 10. D 11. D 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. D 16. D 17. C 4.4 Magnetic effect of an electric current 01. D 02. A 03. C 04. D 05. A 06. B 07. C 08. C 4.5 Current carrying conductor in a magnetic field 01. B 02. B 03. B 04. A 05. D 06. B 07. A 4.6 Electromagnetic induction 01. C 02. C 03. A 04. B 05. D 06. C 07. C 08. A 09. D 10. B 11. C 4.7 Application of electromagnetism 01. C 02. D 03. E 04. E 05. B 4.8 Motor and generator 01. B 02. C 03. A 04. A 05. D 4.9 Transformer 01. C 02. E 03. E 04. D 05. D 06. C 07. D 08. A 09. B 10. E 11. D 12. B 13. E 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. A 21. D 4.10 High voltage transmission of electrical energy 01. B 02. B 03. D

205

5.1 Radioactivity 01. B 02. E 03. D 04. B 05. C 06. A 07. A 08. C 09. E 10. E 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. B 5.2 Atomic model and structure 01. B 02. E 03. E 04. A 05. B 06. A 5.3 Radioactive decay 01. B 02. D 03. C 04. D 05. C 06. D 07. C 08. B 09. D 10. B 11. D 12. E 13. D 14. D 15. C 16. B 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. C 21. D 22. A 23. C 24. D 5.4 Application of radioactivity 01. B 02. A 03. B 04. C 05. A 06. A 07. D 5.5 Radiation safety 01. B 02. E 03. C 04. D 5.6 Nuclear fission and fusion 01. C 02. A

206

HKCEE Physics Paper II Answers 1990-2008

1990 1991 1992 1993

01. BCBCD EAEDB 01. ABADA ABAAB 01. CAEBC EDDDB 01. ADCDC BACED

11. DAAAC AECCA 11. CDEED CDCBD 11. DCABE BCACE 11. EADBE BBCBA

21. AEEED CBBAD 21. CBBBE CEEDE 21. EDACA AAACB 21. EDBBA DADEB

31. DBDEE CCBBB 31. CBABC CDEDE 31. EBBED DECDB 31. DCDCC CBCBA

41. BCADC 41. CDBCE 41. DCEAB 41. CDCBD

1994 1995 1996 1997

01. CABED BDCBA 01. CACEE CCCBE 01. CCEDB BCBDA 01. EBDED CDBDB

11. BBCEC CADAC 11. BACAD BADBD 11. EECEE CAEDB 11. ADADC CDCDD

21. EEBCE DCAAC 21. DBEDD EAECC 21. DAECB CAADA 21. BAEEB ECCAC

31. DDBBC AAEBE 31. ECDAE CBEDC 31. EDBEB DBBCA 31. CBABE ACEAB

41. DDEBD 41. DABDB 41. DDCDA 41. DCBEA

1998 1999 2000 2001

01. EBBBD BDDAC 01. DCEBC EBCBA 01. DABBA CEBEC 01. BCBEA BCCAC

11. BBDEE DACCE 11. CADDD DABEC 11. CCEDE DBAAB 11. DBDBE BCBBC

21. CECEA EADAC 21. EDCCB CDABB 21. CBDBE BEDAD 21. EEBAA ACBAE

31. AABDB CDDBA 31. DAABA BDEEA 31. ADADA ACCCE 31. DADEA CEDDD

41. CBACE 41. CECDA 41. ECDDB 41. CDEDA

2002 2003 2004 2005

01. ABCCB ABCAB 01. DADBD ABCAB 01. CBACD DDAAB 01. BBCCC BBDAA

11. ADBDD DACCB 11. ABDDA BDAAB 11. CACAD BDBCB 11. ADBDC ADDDC

21. AABDD CBCBC 21. CBBAA DDDCB 21. ACCBC DDCDA 21. DAABD CDCBB

31. DDBDC DAABB 31. CCDCB BDCBB 31. BDBBC ABABD 31. ADBAB CADCB

41. CCADC 41. CACCA 41. CADAC 41. AADCC

2006 2007 2008

01. BDBDC ACCAD 01. BDDDD ACCBC 01. AADAC DCBDA

11. DABCA BACBA 11. DDABC BBBAC 11. BCAAB BDBAA

21. BBDAD CDABD 21. ABDAC CDCBA 21. CBDDD ABCDC

31. BDADB BCDCA 31. BAAAC DBCAB 31. DABDB CCBBC

41. ACDCD 41. ADDCC 41. ACCDD

phy mc content - wordpress.com...hkcee physics multiple choices contents section 1 heat 1.1...

Documents