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TEST BOOKLET

TARGET PRELIMS 2017

GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER - 1

CURRENT AFFAIRS & ENVIRONMENT

PRELIMS MODEL TEST-11 Time Allowed: Two Hour Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

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the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses

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case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you

consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

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one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above

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penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Date: 17-04-2017


1. With reference to ecological niche, consider the following statements: 1. Niche is the physical space occupied by

an organism and its functional role in the community of organisms

2. A habitat have several ecological niche 3. Two species can have same ecological

niche Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. ‗NoMore50‘, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (a) campaign calling for stronger and higher

penalties for Tax evading (b) campaign calling for stronger and higher

penalties for animal cruelty (c) campaign calling for stronger and higher

penalties for environmental pollution (d) campaign calling for stronger and higher

penalties for smoking in public place

3. The Animal Welfare Board of India, country‘s apex institution for promoting welfare of animals is constituted under the (a) Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (b) Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act,

1960 (c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

4. With reference to Species richness, consider the following statements: 1. Species richness refers to the number of

species in an area or community. 2. Species richness in general tends to

increase with the size of the area or from higher to lower latitudes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. ‗One planet city challenge‘, an initiative to recognize and reward cities for their efforts to combat climate change, is a programme created by (a) World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) (b) International Union for the Conservation

of Nature and Natural Resource (IUCN) (c) United Nations Framework Convention

on Climate Change (UNFCCC) (d) United Nations Conference on

Sustainable Development, Rio+20

6. With reference to ‗sangai‘, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an herbivorous animal. 2. It is found along the entire Western

Ghats regions of India.

3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only

7. Consider the following pairs: 1. Kamlang Tiger

Reserve : Arunachal

Pradesh

2. Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve

: Madhya Pradesh

3. Umred-Karhandla wildlife sanctuary

: Maharashtra

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

8. Recently, which of the following states has declared some butterfly as ‗State Butterfly‘? 1. Arunachal Pradesh 2. Maharashtra 3. Karnataka 4. Himachal Pradesh Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

9. Consider the following statements: 1. National Board for Wildlife is established

under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

2. National Board for Wildlife is a statutory body.

3. National Board for Wildlife is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

10. If an animal is included in the Vermin category, what does it imply? (a) The animal comes under the Schedule I

of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (b) That particular animal can be culled as

it cause‘s harm to crops and humans (c) That particular animal is a man-eater

wild animal (d) The animal is given a high degree of

protection by Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

11. One of the Ramsar site in India which is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity, is deteriorating primarily because of the change in water regime due to construction


of a barrages and the commissioning of a Hydro-Power Project in that region. Which of the following could be that Ramsar site? (a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves (b) Chilika Lake (c) East Calcutta Wetlands (d) Loktak Lake

12. Consider the following protected areas: 1. Khangchendzonga 2. Achanakmar Amarkantak 3. Seshachalam 4. Manas Which of the above are included in the world network of Biosphere reserve by UNESCO? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

13. Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of wildlife? (a) Tiger Reserve (b) National Park (c) Wildlife Sanctuary (d) Zoological Park

14. Which one of the following statements is not true? (a) Teesta river originates in the Himalayas

and flows through Sikkim and West Bengal to merge with the Brahmaputra

(b) Harikke barrages water is utilized in the Indira Gandhi Canal

(c) River Luni is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kuchch

(d) Cauvery River rises from Trimbakeshwar

15. Which of the following animals are listed in the Vermin category in certain states by the Ministry of Environment and Forest? 1. Nilgai 2. Peacock 3. Rhesus Macaque 4. Elephant

5. Wild boar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

16. Consider the following States: 1. Nagaland 2. West Bengal 3. Meghalaya In which of the above States do ‗Tropical Evergreen Forest‘ occur? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

17. ‗BIOTA 1.0‘, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (a) a biofuel (b) a satellite in PSLV C37 (c) a biodiversity app

(d) an anti-cancer drug produced form plants

18. Consider the following statements regarding the Earth hour: 1. Earth hour is a global environmental

movement by International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource (IUCN).

2. Rajkot is declared as the National Earth hour capital of 2016.

3. The global Earth Hour City Challenge (EHCC) is a year-long competition that rewards cities for their long term efforts to combat climate change.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

19. Consider the following protected areas: 1. Satkosia 2. Ratapani 3. Kaziranga 4. Ranthambhore Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

20. Which of the following biotic components are producers of ecosystems? 1. Mosses 2. Ferns 3. Fungi 4. Phytoplankton Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

21. Consider the following statements: 1. Species evenness means relative

abundance of each species in a community

2. If a habitat has similar abundance for each species present, the habitat is said to have evenness.

3. Evenness tells whether a particular ecosystem is numerically dominated by one species or whether all of its species have similar abundances

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

22. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? 1. Carbon dioxide. 2. Ammonia 3. Ozone 4. Lead


5. Methane Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

23. Consider the following statements regarding Eco-sensitive Zone: 1. These are the land falling inside the

protected areas which act as the shock absorber to ecological damages.

2. These are declared to prevent ecological damage caused due to developmental activities around the protected areas.

3. Eco-sensitive Zones are declared under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.


24. Which of the following pairs is/are correct? Protected Area State

1. Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary

: Arunachal

Pradesh

2. Panna Tiger Reserve

: Kerala

3. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

: Madhya Pradesh

4. Dandeli - Anshi Tiger Reserve

: Karnataka

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1 only (d) 1 and 4

25. With reference to ‗hangul‘, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a subspecies of elk native to India. 2. It is found along the entire deccan

regions of India 3. It is given legal protection under

Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only

26. With reference to an organisation known as ‗Wetlands International‘, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a global organisation dedicated to

maintaining and restoring wetlands for their environmental values as well as for the services they provide to people.

2. It identifies the sites known as ‗Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas‘.

3. They work at the field level to develop and mobilise knowledge, giving respect to traditional values and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

27. With reference to coral bleaching, consider the following statements: 1. Coral bleaching takes place when the

symbiotic relationship between algae (zooxanthellae) and their host corals breaks down under certain environmental stresses

2. Coral beaching occurs only due to the rise in temperature


28. Consider the following statements: 1. The sum total of the populations of the

same kind of organism constitute the community.

2. Community consists of interacting populations and all the species living in an area.

3. Population consists of all the species living in an area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only

29. Consider the following statements: 1. The Home range of an animal could be

the whole area that can sustain the animal with living conditions such as food, shelter, and mating partners.

2. Home range is expressed to identify the total inhabited area of a particular species, subspecies, or other taxonomic group.

3. The territory expresses only the area of a particular group of animals in the same species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

30. Consider the following protected areas: 1. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary 2. Agasthyamalai 3. Sundarbans 4. Western Ghats Which of the above are declared World Heritage Sites?


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

31. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. IUCN is a membership union composed

of both government and civil society organisations (NGOs) for the conservation of biodiversity

2. IUCN has an official Observer Status at the United Nations General Assembly

3. IUCN runs field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.


32. Which of the following is/are the factors determining the primary productivity? 1. Availability of nutrients 2. Photosynthetic capacity of plants 3. Photosynthetic active radiation Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3only (d) 1, 2 and 3

33. Consider the following pairs: Tributary River Main River 1. Ken : Narmada 2. Wainganga : Ganga 3. Shyok : Indus Which of the pairs above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only

34. Which one of the following is the best description of World Heritage Sites? (a) A place of importance that is listed by

the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) as of special cultural or physical significance.

(b) The sites of outstanding example of ongoing ecological process and beauty only.

(c) The sites protected by IUCN without any human interventions.

(d) The places having ecologically important wetlands which are protected by Ramsar Convention.

35. Consider the following statements: 1. A biome is a large ecological area with a

distinct climate and a distinct biological community of plants, animals and other organisms.

2. One or more communities of different species interacting with one another and with their no-living environment is called as ecosystem.


36. With reference to an initiative called Asian Waterbird Census (AWC), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The AWC is a citizen science programme

that supports the management and conservation of waterbirds and wetlands.

2. AWC is only monitoring waterbirds. 3. The Bombay Natural History Society

(BNHS) along with Wetlands International is organizing Asian Waterbird Census (AWC) to count waterbirds all over India.


37. Which one of the following is an example of parasitic food chain? (a) Phytoplankton→ Zooplankton→ Fish→

Hawk (b) Grass→ Grasshopper→ Frog→ Snake→

Hawk (c) Trees→ Fruit eating birds→ Lice and

bugs→ Bacteria and fungi (d) Dead leaves→ Earthworm→ Blackbird

38. With reference to India Biodiversity Awards (IBA), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of

Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) and United Nations Development programme (UNDP).

2. It recognise the contribution of stakeholders towards the conservation of biodiversity and excellence in biodiversity governance.

3. It is only giving awards to the steps taken for conservation of threatened species.


39. Which of the following is not a correct statement? (a) Materials are cycling through

ecosystems (b) Energy is cycling through ecosystem


(c) Energy will be reduced in every trophic level

(d) Energy transfer happens in an ecosystem through the food chain

40. What would happen if excess fertilisers are run off in to a lake ecosystem? 1. The excess in nutrients results in algal

bloom 2. Biodiversity of the lake will increase 3. Decrease in the oxygen level of the lake

and becomes dead zones Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

41. Which of the following is/are not a correct statement? 1. Ecological succession is the process

through which ecosystems tend to change over a period of time.

2. The xerarch succession starts from a wetter area and ends in a mesic state.

3. The hydrarch succession starts from a dry area and ends in a mesic state.


42. A snow covered region is the natural habitat of an Indian species, which were not sighted in the Kargil‘s Drass Sector after the 1999 Kargil war, due to its habitat destruction. The species is again spotted in that region recently. Which one of the following could be that animal? (a) Himalayan Musk Deer (b) Himalayan Brown Bear (c) Himalayan Tahr (d) Snow leopard

43. Which of the following is not a correct statement? (a) Primary productivity is related to

producers (b) Primary productivity is the organic

material that plants produce (c) Net Primary Production (NPP) represents

the amount of energy or organic matter fixed or stored at trophic level one (Producers) after respiration

(d) Annual productivity of an ecosystem is greater than the annual increase in biomass of the herbivores in the ecosystem

44. With reference to speciation, consider the following statements: 1. Speciation occurring when the

population becomes separated by

geographical barriers is called as allopatric speciation.

2. The formation of two or more species from a single ancestral species all occupying the same geographical area is known as sympatric speciation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

45. Consider the following: 1. Irrawaddy dolphin 2. Humpback dolphin 3. Bottlenose dolphin 4. Finless Porpoise Which of the above are naturally found in India? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

46. Other than indiscriminate cutting, what are the possible reasons for the very high mortality rate in the population of Khejri tree, a Keystone species found in Rajasthan? 1. Decrease in groundwater level 2. Fungal attacks 3. Use of mechanical ploughs 4. Lopping off of branches for fodder 5. Changing topography with the Indira

Gandhi Canal making water flow through once arid desert

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

47. Recently, from one of the global biodiversity hotspot in India four new tiny Night Frogs belong to the Nyctibatrachus genus were found which are endemic to that region; they are in threat posed by human activities, especially due to hydroelectric projects. The species can be seen in: (a) Himalaya (b) Western Ghats (c) Indo-Burma (d) Sundaland

48. Consider the following pairs: 1. Manas River : Assam 2. Peddavagu river : Arunachal Pradesh 3. Pala Rapu cliff : Telangana Which of the above pairs is / are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

49. In India, one of the strongest contenders for the top spot as the next-best substitute for petrol and diesel is biofuel. Which of the


following is/are the source/sources for biodiesel? 1. Jatropha 2. Pongamiapinnata 3. Mahua 4. Neem 5. Castor Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

50. With reference to ‗pacha chedi‘ (Neurocalyx calycinus), sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a medicinal plant endemic to the

southern parts of Western Ghats and Sri Lanka.

2. It has a potential for developing anti-cancer drug.


51. ‗Aquila‘, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (a) Waste management technology (b) Wireless communication technology (c) Nuclear power production technology (d) Water conservation technology

52. Regarding ‗BharatNet‘ sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It aims to provide on demand, affordable broadband connectivity of 2 Mbps to 20 Mbps for all households and on demand capacity to all institutions.

2. The entire project is being funded by Universal service Obligation Fund (USOF).

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

53. The province known as ‗Idlib‘ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to (a) Yemen (b) Syria (c) North Korea (d) Somalia

54. With reference to ‗Islamic Military Alliance to Fight Terrorism (IMAFT)‘; consider the following statements: 1. It is a specialised agency of Organisation

of Islamic Cooperation in working relation with NATO.

2. It calls for all member states to cooperate to combat terrorism in all its forms and manifestations.

3. It was established by Saudi Arabia in December 2015 and its joint operations centre is based in Riyadh.


55. With reference to ‗International Energy Agency (IEA)‘, consider the following statements: 1. The IEA was founded in 1974 to help

countries collectively respond to oil supply disruptions.

2. India recently became a member of International Energy Agency.


56. In the South Asia Subregional Economic Cooperation (SASEC), an initiative of seven countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants? 1. Pakistan 2. Bangladesh 3. Thailand 4. Myanmar 5. Nepal Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 5

57. Consider the following statements: 1. Tawang is a disputed territory in the

Western sector of the India- China boundary.

2. Tawang district is situated in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeastern India.


58. Consider the following pairs: Community sometimes

mentioned in the news

In the affairs of

1. Yazidis : Afghanistan

2. Pashtuns : Syria

3. Baloch : Pakistan

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

59. With reference to ‗Organoid‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It was created by coating tiny gel beads

with liver-derived stem cells.


2. It aims to study the diseases, including idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.


60. Which one of the following is the best description of ‗Shenzhou-11‘ that was in the news recently? (a) Supercomputer of Russia (b) Remote sensing satellite of China (c) Rice variety made by India (d) Manned spacecraft of China

61. With reference to ‗Pelargonic Acid Vanillyl Amide (PAVA)‘ shell, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is otherwise called Nonivamide. 2. It is a Russian-based ammunition. 3. It aims to find an alternative to pellet

guns for crowd control. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

62. With reference to ‗Sarathi vessel‘, consider the following statements: 1. It is a torpedo recovery vessel. 2. It is capable of carrying pollution

response equipment to contain oil spill at sea.


63. With reference to ‗Intellectual Disability (ID), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is otherwise called cystic fibrosis. 2. It is measured by an intelligence

quotient below 70. 3. It significantly limits an individual‘s

practical skills. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

64. Yudh Abhyas 2016, recently seen in the news, is a joint military exercise between India and (a) Turkmenistan (b) Russia (c) U.S.A (d) Uzbekistan

65. With reference to ‗Barak-8 missile‘, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a surface-to-air missile.

2. It was jointly developed by India and Russia.


66. With reference to ‗Three parent technique‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It involves fertilising both the mother‘s

egg and a donor egg with the father‘s sperm.

2. It is legally approved in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

67. With reference to ‗avian influenza‘, consider the following statements: 1. It is a disease caused by bacteria. 2. It is a zoonotic disease. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

68. With reference to ‗Quantum radar‘, recently seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a device that uses quantum

entanglement photons to provide better detection capabilities than conventional radar systems

2. It will be useful for tracking targets with stealth technology.


69. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana? (a) Members of the scheduled caste and

scheduled tribe households (b) Economically weaker sections, low-

income group and mid-income group (c) Physically differently abled or senior

citizens

(d) All the above

70. Regarding ‗Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana‘, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It aims to skill all the youth who are

poor and provide them with jobs having regular monthly wages.

2. It envisages setting up of at least 1500 to 2000 training centers across the country.


3. It guarantees placement for at least 75% trained candidates.


71. With reference to ‗Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It provides for accidental Death

Insurance. 2. It is available to people between 18 and

70 years of age with bank accounts Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

72. The endeavour of ‗Pradhan Mantri YUVA Yojana‘ Programme is 1. to provide skills training and enhance

the employability of unemployed youth 2. to provide industry-relevant skill

training for unemployed youth 3. to provide entrepreneurship education

and training Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

73. ‗Swavlamban Health Insurance Scheme‘ launched by the Government of India pertains to (a) provide affordable Health Insurance to

the persons with disabilities (b) provide one year life insurance scheme

to people in the age group of 18 to 50 years

(c) Social security scheme for rural landless household

(d) Financial inclusion of all the households in the country

74. Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of ‗National Rural Health Mission‘ of the Government of India? 1. To provide accessible, affordable and

quality health care to the rural population, especially the vulnerable groups.

2. To achieve the goal of making the public health delivery system fully functional, community owned, decentralized health delivery system with inter-sectoral convergence at all levels

3. It aims to promote access to improved healthcare at household level through the female health activist (ASHA).

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

75. With reference to ‗Mission Poorna Shakti‘, consider the following statements: 1. It aims to ensure violence against

women is eliminated progressively. 2. It aims to prevent gender biased sex

selective elimination Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

76. Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission is aimed at (a) enhancing livelihood security of people

in rural areas (b) development of 300 rural growth

clusters (c) creating efficient and effective

institutional platforms of the rural poor (d) All the above

77. With reference to Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, consider the following statements: 1. It provides a legal guarantee of 100 days

of work in a financial year. 2. Adult members of below poverty line

(BPL) households are eligible to get the benefits.

3. One-third of the stipulated work force must be women.


78. ‗PRAGATI‘, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at (a) starting a culture of timely

implementation of government projects and programmes, improving the governance in the country proactively

(b) providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs

(c) bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal financial system

(d) protecting, restoring and enhancing India‘s diminishing forest cover

79. Subramanian panel‘s recommendations are based on (a) MSP procurement operations (b) Mandi taxes (c) Agri warehousing facilities (d) Working of eNAM

80. Consider the following crops of India: 1. Sorghum 2. Buck wheat


3. Pearl millet Which of the above is/are coarse cereals? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3

81. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, and it has many other uses. Which one of the following is not a use of it? (a) The gum made from its seeds is used in

the extraction of shale gas. (b) Guar gum is used in baking as a dough

thickener. (c) The oil extracted from seeds is used in

the manufacture of biodegradable plastics.

(d) Guar is used in mining, petroleum drilling and textile manufacturing industries.

82. With reference to ‗sunflower‘, consider the following statements: 1. Besides oil, almost every part of

sunflower has commercial value. 2. Crop gained importance due to its short

duration of maturity. 3. Since it is a photo-insensitive crop, it

can be grown throughout the year. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

83. Consider the following crops: 1. Cowpea 2. Cluster bean 3. Green gram 4. Pigeon pea Which of these are leguminous Green Manures? (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

84. Suez Canal connects (a) Red Sea and Gulf of Aden (b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea (c) Black Sea and Caspian Sea (d) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea

85. With reference to ‗Article 50 of European Union‘, consider the following statements: 1. It sets out the process by which member

states may withdraw from the European Union.

2. It gives the leaving country two years to negotiate an exit deal.

3. It was created as part of the Treaty of Lisbon.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only

86. What is ‗Raisina Dialogue‘?

(a) It is a flagship conference of India on geopolitics and geo-economics.

(b) It was a meeting of global business leaders in November 2016 which was organised by the Government of India.

(c) It is the nickname given to the Indus Water Treaty.

(d) It is the initiative of India to fight piracy in Indian Ocean region.

87. With reference to ‗World Food Programme (WFP)‘, consider the following statements: 1. It was established very recently in

response to Syrian Civil War. 2. It is the largest humanitarian

organisation implementing school feeding programmes worldwide.


88. With reference to ‗United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund (UNICEF)‘, consider the following statements: 1. It is a United Nations (UN) programme

headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. 2. It advocates for the protection of

children's rights. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

89. With reference to ‗Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC)‘, consider the following statements: 1. It was established in response to

incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.

2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.


90. Diego Garcia island, which is a US military base is located in (a) Indian Ocean (b) Atlantic Ocean (c) Pacific Ocean (d) Arctic Ocean

91. ‗Ram Sethu‘, recently in news, lies between which one of the following pairs of islands? (a) Andaman and Nicobar (b) Amini and Canannore (c) Sumatra and Java (d) Pamban and Mannar

92. Consider the following pairs:


National Cities Highway connected 1. NH 2 : Delhi and Kolkata 2. NH 5 : Chennai and Bhubaneshwar 3. NH 4 : Mumbai and Chennai Which of the above pairs is / are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

93. Consider the following pairs: Hills State

1. Dafla Hills : Nagaland 2. Nallamalai Hills : Tamil Nadu 3. Agasthyamala : Kerala 4. Maikala range : Madhya Pradesh Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

94. Which of the following statements regarding ‗Carbon Offsetting Scheme for International Aviation‘ is/are correct? 1. It suggests a single global market-based

measure to address CO2 emissions from international aviation.

2. The agreement was adopted at UNFCCC meeting in Paris in 2015.


95. With reference to ‗Gravitational waves‘, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Gravitational waves are ripples in the

fabric of space-time. 2. Coalescing neutron stars produce

gravitational waves. 3. It was first discovered using Laser

Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory (LIGO).


96. Which of the following statements regarding ‗gas hydrates‘ is/are correct? 1. They are ice-like combination of natural

gas and water found in oceans and polar regions.

2. Deposits of Gas hydrates are found in Krishna-Godavari Basin.


97. Which of the following describes/describe the objective of ‗Ujwal Discom Assurance Yojna‘? 1. Financial turnaround and operational

improvement of State electricity distribution utilities.

2. Reduction of cost of generation of power 3. Development of Renewable Energy Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

98. Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer was recently amended at Kigali, Rwanda. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Parties of Montreal Protocol agreed to

phase out Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). 2. The Kigali Amendment will enter into

force only if it is ratified by at least 20 parties to the Montreal Protocol.

3. Kigali agreement is not legally binding and countries can opt out of the agreement at any stage.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

99. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? Major Ports State

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Port

: Goa

(b) Ennore : Tamil Nadu

(c) Paradip : Maharashtra (d) Mormugao : Odisaa

100. The Chenani-Nashri tunnel, the longest

highway tunnel in India, is a part of which of the following National Highways? (a) NH 8 (b) NH 37 (c) NH 2

(d) NH 44


TEST BOOKLET

TARGET PRELIMS 2017

GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER - 1

ECONOMY & ECONOMY RELATED CURRENT AFFAIRS





BOOKLET.





the Test Booklet.



























Date: 23-04-2017


1. Consider the following statements regarding

the Liquidity Adjustment Facility:

1. It is one of the chief monetary tools of the RBI.

2. Under LAF, RBI sells Government

Securities when there are inflationary

trends in the economy and buys the same

during deflationary periods.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Public Sector Enterprises-

Exchange Traded Funds (CPSE-ETF):

1. CPSE-ETF follows the Nifty50 index.

2. It includes Maharatna, Navaratna as well

as Miniratna companies.

3. ONGC holds the maximum share of the CPSE ETF.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

3. Which of the following is/are the major

constraints for the better monetary

transmission in the Indian economy?

1. Deposit rates of the small savings schemes

are higher compared to the bank deposits. 2. Twin Balance Sheet Problem.

3. High Statutory Reserve Requirements.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

4. The World Economic Forum 2016 at Davos

discussed about the Fourth Industrial

Revolution that are fusing the physical, digital and biological worlds, and impacting all

disciplines, economies and industries. But the

world fear that this may lead to more

unemployment and increasing inequality. The

type of unemployment mentioned above can

be (a) Seasonal Unemployment

(b) Disguised unemployment

(c) Cyclic Unemployment

(d) Structural unemployment


the Gender Inequality Index (GII) released by

the UNDP:

1. GII measures gender inequalities in three

important aspects of human development- reproductive health, the labour market

participation and empowerment.

2. Higher the GII value the more disparities

between females and males and the more

loss to human development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only


6. Which of the following is the correct

arrangement of BRICS economies based on

their GDP (Purchasing Power Parity $) in decreasing order?

(a) China-India-Brazil-Russia-South Africa

(b) China-Brazil-India-Russia-South Africa

(c) China-India-Russia-Brazil-South Africa

(d) China-Russia-India-Brazil-South Africa

7. One of the appropriate ways to compare the

income levels of the different countries across

the globe is

(a) GDP at nominal rate (b) GDP at constant rate

(c) Purchasing Power Parity

(d) IMF quota

8. Consider the following statements regarding the Repo rate:

1. It is the rate at which the RBI lends money

to commercial banks generally against the

Government Securities.

2. It is the rate at which the RBI borrows

money from the commercial banks against the Government Securities.

3. It is the rate at which the Commercial

Banks keep deposits with the RBI.


(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of the above


the State GST bills:

1. All the 29 States and 2 Union Territories with legislatures i.e. Delhi and

Puducherry needs to pass the State GST

bills for the introduction of GST regime in

the country.

2. Telangana is the first state to pass the State GST bill.




10. Which of the following periods in the history of

Indian planning has been a period of Annual

Plans?

(a) 1966-69 (b) 1979-80

(c) 1990-92 (d) All of the Above

11. Which of the following criteria is/are

considered while computing the Multi-

Dimensional Poverty Index of UN Development

Programme? 1. Nutrition

2. Expected years of schooling

3. Standard of living

4. Child Immunisation


below. (a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

12. Which of the following statements regarding

the 2016 Human Development Report (HDR)


released by the United Nations Development

Programme (UNDP) is/are correct?

1. Both India and Pakistan comes under the ‗medium development‘ category.

2. Among SAARC members, India is fourth

after Sri Lanka, Maldives and Bhutan.

3. While India‘s HDI value increased from

0.428 in 1990 to 0.624 in 2015, it still had

the lowest rank among BRICS nations. Select the correct answer using the code given

below.


(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

13. Which of the following areas is/are not

covered under the Human Development

Index?

1. Poverty 2. Empowerment

3. Life expectancy 4. Inequalities Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

14. When the Indian rupee appreciates against

the international currencies in the global

economy?

(a) the black money in the system may get

reduced (b) the country will have the export

competitiveness over other countries

(c) the RBI will offload more government

securities into the system

(d) the import bill of the country will benefit

15. The NK Singh panel to review the India‘s

Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management

Act has recommended

1. Debt-to-GDP ratio target for both Central and State governments to be achieved by

2022-23.

2. Setting up of a Fiscal Council.

3. Repealing the existing FRBM Act.


below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

16. Cyber Security and Information Technology

Examination (C-SITE) cell was established by (a) Reserve Bank of India

(b) Ministry of Electronics and Information

Technology

(c) NITI Aayog

(d) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development

17. The main function associated with the

‗Currency Chest‘, sometimes seen in the news

is (a) To store the returned soiled and mutilated

currency notes.

(b) To design and issue the new currency

notes

(c) To stock rupee notes and coins.

(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are true

in this context.

18. India has amended Double Taxation

Avoidance Agreements with a number of

countries. Which of the following countries

is/are eligible for the Limitation of Benefit

clause under the amended agreements? 1. Cyprus

2. Singapore

3. Mauritius

4. Republic of Korea



(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

19. Which of the following items is/are exempted under the Goods and Services Tax system?

1. Electricity

2. Real Estate

3. Petroleum products

4. Alcohol


(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

20. Which of the following taxes is/are subsumed

under the proposed Goods and Services Tax?

1. Entry Tax

2. Service Tax

3. Customs Duty

4. Countervailing Duty Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only



the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code:

1. The code creates time-bound processes for

insolvency resolution of companies and

individuals. 2. The National Company Law Tribunal

(NCLT) will adjudicate insolvency

resolution for companies as well as

individuals.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only


22. Which of the following is/are related to the International Monetary Fund?

1. International Monetary Financial

Committee

2. Group 77

3. Group 10

4. Group 15 Select the correct answer using the code given

below.




23. Recently Indian Government has amended the

Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement with

various countries. This is to 1. curb the revenue loss

2. prevent the double non taxation

3. streamline the flow of investments


below.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3


the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of RBI: 1. MPC includes 6 members and is headed by

RBI Governor.

2. MPC is taking decisions based on

consensus.

3. MPC has only advisory power on monetary

policy and the policy rate is set by Government of India.

4. MPC members appointed by the Central

Government hold the office for a period of

four years and also eligible for

reappointment.


(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only

25. Which of the following statements regarding

the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is

correct?

(a) IIP is published by the Central Statistical

Organisation

(b) IIP gives maximum weightage to the manufacturing sector

(c) IIP receives data compilation from 16

different agencies across the country

(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are

correct in this context.

26. On 8th November 2016, Government of India

demonetised the high value currency notes to

fasten its fight against black money and

advance towards the cashless economy. Consider the following statements regarding

the Mahatma Gandhi (new) series notes

introduced after the demonetisation. 1. The new ₹2000 denomination note has

motif of the Mangalyaan on the reverse, depicting the country's first venture in

interplanetary space. 2. ₹ 2000 is the maximum denomination

that RBI can issue as bank notes.


correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only


27. When the Reserve Bank of India carry out the

Open Market Operations (a) it may sell off the government securities to

the public

(b) it may take loans from the International

Finance Institutions

(c) it may buy the government securities from

the pubic

(d) Both (a) and (c) are correct in this context

28. An increase in the repo rate generally

indicates that the

(a) Market rate of interest is likely to fall

(b) Central bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks

(c) Central bank is following tight money

policy

(d) Both (a) and (c) are true in this context.

29. Which of the following brings out the ‗Index of

Industrial Production‘?

(a) NITI Aayog

(b) Central Statistics Organisation

(c) Office of the Economic Advisor, DIPP (d) Ministry of Labour, Govt. of India

30. Which of the following statements is not

correct?

(a) Inflation benefits debtors (b) Inflation affects the creditors

(c) Inflation benefits the bond holders

(d) Inflation affects the fixed income people

31. The most appropriate term to express the deliberate action of the Government to

increase the rate of inflation in the economy?

(a) Appreciation (b) Revaluation

(c) Reflation (d) Disinflation

32. A rise in general level of the prices may be

caused by

1. Cheap money policy

2. An increase in the money supply

3. An increase in the public expenditure Select the correct answer using the code given

below.


(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

33. With reference to the inflation, consider the

following statements:

1. Monthly combined Consumer Price Index

(CPI) is now taken as the

measure of headline inflation in India. 2. RBI uses the same to formulate its

monetary policy.


correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


Indian Performing Right Society Limited

(IPRS): 1. IPRS issue licences to users of music.

2. IPRS collect royalties from users of music,

for and on behalf of its members i.e. the

Authors, the Composers and the

Publishers of Music.

3. IPRS distribute the royalty amongst them after deducting its administrative costs.


correct?


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

35. The public sector shipyard which recently

decided to get listed in Indian stock market is

(a) Hooghly Dock & Port Engineers Limited

(HDPEL), Kolkata

(b) Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL), Mumbai (c) Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), Goa

(d) Cochin Shipyard Limited(CSL), Kochi

36. Which of the statements regarding the

copyright is not correct? (a) Copyright protection extends to

expressions, ideas, procedures,

mathematical concepts etc.

(b) Copyright protects both economic and

moral rights. (c) The economic rights under the copyright

have a time limit.

(d) None of the above

37. Which of the following is/are the focus areas of lending of BRICS led New Development

Bank?

1. Infrastructure

2. Sustainable development

3. Climate change mitigation & adaption Select the correct answer using the code given

below.


(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

38. Consider the following statements:

1. Non-convertible debentures are used as

tools to raise long-term funds by

companies through a public issue.

2. Non-convertible debentures can't be

converted into shares or equities after sometime.


correct?



39. Which of the following is the major objective

behind the proposed ‗Standing Deposit

Facility‘ under RBI?

(a) To help the Reserve Bank of India absorb surplus funds without having to provide

lenders collateral in exchange.

(b) To help the Reserve Bank of India inject

sufficient capital into the economy during

demonetisation period. (c) To help the Government of India raise the

funds for farm loan waiver schemes.

(d) To help the banks borrow from the Reserve

Bank of India in an emergency situation

when inter-bank liquidity dries up

completely.


the merger of 5 associate banks with State

Bank of India on 1st April 2017:

1. The merger would bring SBI in the list of top 50 banks in terms of its asset.

2. This merger includes the following 6 banks

viz. State Bank of Travancore, State Bank

of Hyderabad, State Bank of Indore, State Bank of Saurashtra, State Bank of Mysore

and Bharatiya Mahila Bank.


correct?


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither nor 2

41. Which of the statement regarding the Banks

Board Bureau (BBB) is not correct?

(a) BBB will recommend selection of heads for Public Sector Banks

(b) BBB is chaired by the RBI Governor

(c) BBB is based in Mumbai

(d) BBB is an autonomous body

42. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly

matched? Economic

activity/Economic units

Funds associated

with them

Disinvestment : NIF

Infrastructure

Development

: NIIF

CPSE : ETF


below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

43. Which of the following public sector

organizations are having the ‗Maharatna‘ status?

1. Steel Authority of India

2. Indian Railway

3. National Thermal Power Corporation

4. Air India Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4

44. With reference to monetary policy in India,

which of the following statements is not

correct?

(a) Monetary policy is handled by the Reserve

Bank of India (b) Consumer Price Index-combined is used

as a tool to decide the interest rates

(c) The reverse repo and Marginal Standing

Facility rates are in gap of 100 basis points

with repo rate

(d) Inflation control is the major objective


the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN):

1. GSTN is a non-Government, private

limited company. 2. The Government of India holds 49% equity

in GSTN and the rest is held by the non-

governmental banking institutions.


3. The Company has been set up primarily to

provide IT infrastructure and services to

the Central and State Governments, tax payers and other stakeholders for

implementation of the Goods and Services

Tax (GST).


correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

46. In the context of which of the following, do you

sometimes find the term ‗NASDAQ‘ in the news?

(a) American capital market

(b) National Air Quality index of India

(c) China Pakistan Economic Corridor

(d) IMF quota reforms

47. Which of the following measures is/are taken

to reinforce the strategic control of

Government of India over the Goods and

Service Tax Network (GSTN)?

1. The Chairman of the GSTN will be nominated through a joint approval

mechanism of Central and State

Governments.

2. Certain matters of strategic importance

shall be decided only through Special Resolution (i.e. three fourth (3/4) of the

shareholders must vote in favour of such

matters)

3. The major shareholding of the GSTN is

kept under the Government control.



(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

48. Which of the following is/are the tools likely to

be used by the RBI to mop up the extra

liquidity in the system?

1. Market Stabilization Scheme

2. Open market operations

3. Standing Deposit Facility Select the correct answer using the code given

below.


(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

49. With reference to the recent amendments

made in India Singapore Double Taxation

Avoidance Agreement, consider the following

statements:

1. It will provide source based taxation of capital gains arising on transfer of shares

in a company from April 1, 2017 onwards.

2. Derivatives traded in India remain exempt

from the new capital gains tax under this

amendment.





1. PM Garib Kalyan Yojna is a mandatory

income declaration scheme under which

those with unaccounted income were allowed to come clean by paying 50% of

their untaxed wealth.

2. Central Board of Direct Tax is the agency

responsible for the implementation of the

scheme.




51. Which of the statements regarding the

Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme is not correct?

(a) The bonds are issued by the Ministry of

Finance in consultation with RBI.

(b) The bonds can be used as collateral for

loans. (c) The bonds qualify for SLR holdings.

(d) They bear fixed interest rate on the initial

amount invested.

52. Which of the following is/are Small Saving Schemes of Government of India?

1. Sukanya Samridhi Yojna

2. Kisan Vikas Patra

3. National Savings Certificate



(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

53. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Countervailing Duties are imposed in

order to counter the negative impact of

export subsidies to protect domestic

producers. 2. An anti-dumping duty is a

protectionist tariff that a domestic

government imposes on foreign imports

that it believes are priced below fair

market value.




54. In the context which of the following do you sometimes find the term ‗Economic Needs

Test‘ in the news?

(a) India-RCEP negotiations

(b) India-ASEAN free trade agreement

(c) India‘s model Bilateral Investment Treaty (d) India-Singapore Comprehensive Economic

Cooperation Agreement


the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF):

1. The objective of NIIF would be to maximize

economic impact mainly through

infrastructure development in

commercially viable projects, both green


field and brown field, including stalled

projects.

2. Its governing council will have the participation from the experts of the

infrastructure sector.

3. Government will be the majority

shareholder of the fund.


correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

56. Which of the following is/are the members of Goods and Service Tax Council?

1. Union Finance Minister

2. Union Minister of Commerce and Industry

3. Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog

4. State Finance Ministers




57. Goods and Service Tax likely to be levied in India is not a

(a) gross value tax

(b) value added tax

(c) consumption tax

(d) destination based tax


the Goods and Services Tax likely to be levied

in India:

1. GST will make India one unified common market.

2. Assam is the first state to ratify the 122nd

constitutional amendment bill on GST.

3. France is the first country to introduce the

GST system in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?


(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3


the Sovereign Credit rating:

1. The Sovereign Credit Rating ‗AAA‘ means

the lowest degree of safety and highest

degree of credit risk.

2. India‘s Sovereign Credit Rating is ‗BBB-‘. Which of the statements above is/are correct?



60. Economic Survey 2016-17 has criticised the

global credit rating agencies for India‘s lower

credit rating though the Government of India

carried out a lot of reforms since 2014. Which

of the following factors is/ are the major

hindrances to the India‘s credit rating upgrade as per the credit rating agencies?

1. History of credit default

2. Low per capita GDP

3. Combined Government fiscal deficit



(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

61. Recently the Government of India has

amended the Double Taxation Avoidance

Agreements with various countries in order to

avoid double non taxation. Which of the

following countries is/are awarded with the Grandfathering clause but not the Limitation

of Benefit clause under the amended

agreements?

(a) Mauritius (b) Singapore

(c) Cyprus (d) All of the above

62. What is the purpose of the General Anti

Avoidance Rule (GAAR) arrangement that is to

kick start from the 1st April 2017 in India?

(a) It seeks to give the tax department powers to scrutinize transactions structured in

such a way as to deliberately avoid paying

tax in India.

(b) It seeks to give the OECD authorities

powers to scrutinize transactions

structured in such a way as to deliberately avoid paying tax in India.

(c) It seeks to give the tax department powers

to ban the foreign investments that avoid

tax payment in India.



the General Anti Avoidance Rule that came to

existence in India on 1st April 2017:

1. GAAR is not applicable if the availing tax benefit of the foreign investor is more than ₹3 Crore.

2. The proposal to apply GAAR will be vetted

first by an officer at the level of the

principal commissioner or commissioner of income tax and at the second stage by an

approving panel headed by the Secretary

of Ministry of Finance.




64. In the ‗Index of Eight core Industries‘, which

one of the following is given the lowest

weightage?

(a) Coal production (b) Electricity Generation

(c) Fertilizer production

(d) Steel production

65. Which of the following will be the benefits

associated with the Goods and Service Tax

system?

1. It will create a common Indian market

2. Improve tax compliance and governance

3. Boost investment and growth Select the correct answer using the code given

below.


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3


66. Which of the following will be the long term

benefits of the demonetization of higher

denomination notes? 1. Reduced corruption

2. Greater digitalization of the economy

3. Increased flows of the financial savings

4. lesser formalisation of the economy


below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only


67. Consider the following statements: 1. At present, India‘s export of services/world

GDP is higher compared to its exports of

goods/world GDP.

2. But in case of China, export of

goods/world GDP is higher compared to its

exports of services/world GDP. Which of the above statements is/are correct?



68. Which of the following best describes the term ‗demographic dividend‘?

(a) It is the difference between the working

age and the non-working age population

(b) It is the ratio of the working age to the

non-working age population (c) It is the difference between labour force

and working force of the population

(d) It is the ratio of the labour force and

working force of the population


the ‗Google Tax‘:

1. It is a direct tax

2. India is the first country to levy this type of

tax over the digital transactions 3. Both domestic as well as the foreign web

advertising companies are covered under

it.


(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

70. Ratan Watal Committee, sometimes seen in

the news, is related to (a) Monetary policy committee

(b) Bitcoin

(c) Digital payments

(d) Small Finance Banks

71. The first country to have a full series of

circulating polymer bank notes is

(a) Venezuela

(b) Australia

(c) USA (d) South Korea

72. Which of the following scheme/schemes is/are

unveiled by RBI for the resolution of the

stressed asset problem? (a) Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets

(b) Asset Quality Review

(c) Private Asset Reconstruction Companies

(d) All of the above

73. Accessible India Campaign is launched by

(a) NITI Aayog

(b) Ministry of Social Justice and

Empowerment

(c) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

(d) Ministry of Human Resource and Development

74. Marginal Cost of fund based Lending Rate

(MCLR) is a new methodology to calculate the

lending rate of the commercial banks. Which of the following elements is/are considered

while calculating MCLR?

1. Marginal cost of funds

2. Tenur premium

3. Net Demand and Time Liability of the bank Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

75. Which one of the following statements

regarding the shadow banks is not correct?

(a) They are not subjected to regulatory

oversight

(b) They carry out traditional banking functions

(c) They were one of the main reasons for the

global financial crisis in 2008


76. What is the major objective of carrying out a

bioequivalence test?

(a) To certify the generic drug by the

competent authority

(b) To ensure the proper functioning of the

transplanted organs (c) To evaluate any drugs dissolution and

efficacy levels in blood

(d) To screen people who are affected with the

Multi Drug Resistant Tuberculosis

77. With reference to the Soil Health Card (SHC),

consider the following statements:

1. Using a grid-wise approach, representative

soil samples from the fields are tested for

nutrient content in designated chemical laboratories.

2. Both macro and micro nutrients needed by

the soil are identified and translated into

specific, measured quantities of fertilisers

required. Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?



78. With reference to ‗Gokul Gram‘ under National

Gokul mission, which of the following

statements is/are correct?

1. It will act as centres for development of

Indigenous Breeds.


2. It will be established in the native breeding

tracts and near metropolitan cities for

housing the urban cattle. Select the correct answer using the code given

below.



79. With reference to uses of Sugar, which of the

following statements is/are correct?

1. It provides raw material for the

manufacturing of alcohol.

2. It is used for manufacturing of paper. 3. It is an efficient substitute for petroleum

products

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below.


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

80. With reference to ‗border method of irrigation‘,


1. If the borders are constructed along the

general slope of the field, they are known as contour borders.

2. If the borders are constructed across the

general slope of the field they are called

straight borders or slope borders.




81. With reference to Tueboponics, which is a fairly recent development in the field of

irrigation, consider the following statements:

1. Water is provided to plants/trees to its

root zone area through trickle.

2. It is practiced in the desert areas in order to convert it into green lush forests.


correct?




1. Rural Infrastructure Development Fund

[RIDF] helped to complete hitherto

incomplete irrigation projects by mobilizing

deposits out of the shortfall in commercial banks‘ lending targets to agriculture.

2. The Command Area Development

Programme was launched to bridge the

gap between irrigation potential created

and its actual utilization. Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither nor 2

83. With reference to ‗Long Term Irrigation Fund‘

as part of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee,


1. Ministry of Agriculture and NABARD

signed an agreement to operationalise the Long Term Irrigation Fund.

2. It would be raised by way of budgetary

resources and market borrowings to fund

fast tracking of implementation of incomplete irrigation projects.


correct?



84. With reference to the concept of ‗Seed Village‘,

which of the following statements is/are

correct?

1. Organizing seed production in cluster (or) compact area

2. Replacing existing local varieties with new

high yielding varieties.

3. Increasing the seed production Select the correct answer using the codes

given below.


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

85. With reference to benefits of eNAM, which of

the following statements is/are correct?

1. It will reduce the gap between farm to fork

prices (the prices farmers get and prices

paid by retail consumers). 2. Bulk buyers of agri commodities will be

able to conduct e-procurement operations

across regions.

3. It eliminates the number of intermediaries

and improves the scope for more income for farmers.


below.


(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

86. With reference to ‗Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima

Yojana‘, consider the following statements:

1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of only 2% for all

Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops as

well as annual commercial and

horticultural crops.

2. In this scheme, remote sensing will be

used to increase the number of crop cutting experiments.


correct?



87. An objective of the National Food Security

Mission is to increase the production of

certain crops through area expansion and

productivity enhancement in a sustainable manner in the identified districts of the

country. What are those crops?

(a) Rice, wheat, pulses and millets only

(b) Rice, wheat, pulses and oil seeds only

(c) Rice, wheat, pulses, millets and commercial crops

(d) Rice, wheat, pulses, oil seeds and

vegetables


88. With reference to Minimum Support Price

(MSP), consider the following statements:

1. MSP is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure all

agricultural producers against any sharp

fall in farm prices.

2. MSPs have also been used as a tool by the

Government to incentivise farmers to grow

crops that are in short supply. Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?



89. Consider the following crops:

1. Cotton 2. Wheat

3. Rapeseed 4. Gram

Which of these are Rabi crops?

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

90. The recommendation for Minimum Support

Price (MSP) of agriculture commodities is

approved by the (a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

(b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and

Prices

(c) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection,

Ministry of Agriculture (d) Agricultural Produce Market Committee

91. With reference to Public Distribution System

(PDS), consider the following statements:

1. For Public Distribution System, FCI has assumed the responsibility for

procurement, storage, transportation and

bulk allocation of food grains to the State

Governments.

2. Foodgrains are issued by the FCI to the States at a uniform Central Issue Price

(CIP).


correct?



92. Consider the following types of irrigation:

1. Drip Irrigation

2. Furrow Irrigation

3. Check basin irrigation 4. Sprinkler Irrigation

Which of these are considered as micro-

irrigation?

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

93. A ‗wilful default‘ would be deemed to have

occurred if

1. the unit has defaulted eventhough it has

the capacity to repay the loans 2. the unit has defaulted and has diverted

the funds for other purposes.

3. the unit has defaulted and the fund has

not utilized for the specific purpose to

which it is availed.

4. the unit has defaulted and has sold off the

mortgaged asset without knowledge of the

lender Select the correct answer using the codes

given below.


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

94. Which of the following has/have been

accorded the ‗Geographical Indication‘ status?

1. Chettikulangara temple offerings

2. Peruvian Pisco

3. Coimbatore Wet Grinder Select the correct answer using the codes

given below.


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

95. The establishment of ‗Small Finance Banks‘ is

being allowed in India to promote the financial

inclusion. Which of the following statements

is/are correct in this context?

1. Existing Non-Banking Finance Companies

(NBFCs), Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs), and Local Area Banks (LABs) that

are owned and controlled by residents can

opt for conversion into Small Finance

Banks.

2. Small Finance Banks will be required to extend 50 per cent of its Adjusted Net

Bank Credit (ANBC) to the sectors eligible

for classification as priority sector lending

(PSL) by the Reserve Bank.

3. Small Finance Banks can undertake both

deposit and lending activities. Select the correct answer using the code given

below.


(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

96. Which of the following do not come under the

purview of ‗Place of Effective Management‘

(PoEM) guidelines recently unveiled by Central

Board of Direct Taxes?

1. Shell companies that are created to evade taxes through establishing overseas

subsidiaries.

2. Firms with an annual turnover of less than ₹ 50 Crore.

3. All the businesses with active business operations overseas.

4. MNC‘s with their units in India.


below.



97. OECD has recently put forward a global

agreement called ‗Multilateral Instrument‘

(MLI). What is the overall goal of this

initiative? 1. To provide the framework through which

over 100 countries and jurisdictions are

collaborating to tackle anti-treaty shopping

provisions.


2. To promote seamless flow of goods and

services across the border without trade

and non-trade barriers. 3. To help the countries especially developing

countries to prevent the Base Erosion and

Profit Shifting (BEPS) and ensure the

profits are genuinely taxed.


below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

98. With reference to capital market, consider the following statements:

1. Share buyback is a tool for disinvestment.

2. Under it, additional shares are allowed to

existing shareholders.

3. Close to half of the disinvestment in

Financial Year 2016-17 came through this route.


correct?


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3


the ‗Annual Survey of Industries‘:

1. ASI is the principal source of industrial statistics in India.

2. Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is more

comprehensive than ASI to measure the

industrial growth as the former includes

small and medium industries.




100. Which of the following States have the ‗special

category status‘?

1. Assam

2. Meghalaya

3. Sikkim

4. Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only


TEST BOOKLET

TARGET PRELIMS 2017

GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER - 1

INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE





BOOKLET.





the Test Booklet.



























Date: 30-04-2017


1. Consider the following statements: 1. The Council of Ministers are responsible

to the Lok Sabha and not to the Rajya Sabha.

2. Rajya Sabha has no power to pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.

3. Both elected and nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are exempted from filing their assets and liabilities under Representation of the People Act, 1951.


2. Which of the following is the ‗Upholder of the Rule of Law‘ and ‗Enforcer of the Right to Liberty‘? (a) President of India (b) Indian Judiciary (c) Constitution (d) Union executive

3. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following: 1. Fundamental Rights 2. Fundamental Duties 3. Directive Principles of State Policy Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the ‗Swachh Bharat Abhiyan‘ launched by the Government of India? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

4. Which among the following states are considered under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution for the purpose of granting maximum autonomy to tribal areas? 1. Assam 2. Nagaland 3. Meghalaya 4. Mizoram 5. Arunachal Pradesh Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

5. Consider the following statements: 1. Lok Sabha Speaker has the special

power to summon the joint sitting of the Parliament to resolve legislative deadlocks.

2. Joint sitting cannot be resorted to, for passing Constitutional Amendment Bill.

3. Joint sitting is not allowed for ‗Money Bills‘.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

6. The establishment or abolition of a State Legislative Council can be effected through (a) passing a resolution on respective state

assembly followed by an Act in Parliament.

(b) Presidential Ordinance on the recommendation of the Governor.

(c) passing a Constitutional Amendment for the purpose.

(d) passing a resolution in the Council of States.

7. President of India can be impeached on the ground of 1. Proved misbehaviour or incapacity 2. Violation of the Constitution 3. Insolvency Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only

8. Which of the following cases can only be taken up in the Supreme Court of India? (a) Enforcing a fundamental right (b) Public Interest Litigation (c) Removing high court judges (d) Federal disputes

9. Which among the following famous cases are related to or dealt with the conflicts between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution? 1. Golaknath case 2. Keshavanth Bharati case 3. Minerva Mills case Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

10. Consider the following statements: 1. The functions and powers of Gram

Sabha is delineated in the Constitution. 2. The Gram Panchayat Secretary is

responsible for calling the meeting of the Gram Sabha.


11. The power to declare an area as schedule area is with (a) Parliament (b) Governor of respective States (c) President (d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs


12. Consider the following statements: 1. In the absence of Speaker of Lok Sabha,

Chairman of Rajya Sabha will preside over joint session of the Parliament.

2. In case of a tie, Speaker of Lok Sabha can exercises the right of casting vote.


13. Which of the following motions can only be exercised in the Lok Sabha? 1. Adjournment motion 2. No-confidence motion 3. Censure motion Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

14. The term ‗delegated legislation‘ refers to (a) Parliament asking the States to pass

legislation on the model of a Union law (b) Parliament authorising the Executive to

frame rules and regulations (c) the legislation passed on to Standing

Committees for detailed scrutiny (d) the practice of taking public opinion on

a legislation under the consideration of the Parliament

15. Consider the following statements with regard to State Legislative Councils: 1. Ministers can be drawn from State

Legislative Councils. 2. All the members in State Legislative

Councils are elected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on foreign relations? 1. Preamble of the Constitution 2. Center-State Relations 3. Fifth Schedule 4. Fundamental Duties 5. Directive Principle of State Policy Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

17. Consider the following statements: 1. Chief Secretary heads the state

administrative machinery whereas DGP heads the state police force.

2. DGP can be removed from the post if he/she loses confidence of Chief

Minister where as Chief Secretary of the State enjoys security of tenure.


18. The principle of ‗locus standi‘ refers to (a) court as an upholder of liberty (b) ability of a party to demonstrate his

connections with the case (c) appeal against the writs (d) case which have complete evidence to

prove someone guilty

19. Consider the following statements: 1. A case pending in the court and a case

at the pre-litigative stage can be referred to Lok Adalats.

2. A nominal court fee has to be paid by litigants in Lok Adalats.


20. Which among the following is not a part of Directive Principles of State Policy? (a) Protecting and improving the

environment (b) Opportunities for healthy development of

children (c) Promotion of international peace (d) Safeguarding the public property

21. Consider the following with regard to ‗Office of the Whip‘: 1. It is an arrangement to ensure financial

control over executive by the legislature. 2. It is a unique innovation by Indian

Parliament and procedures for its application is laid down in the rules of procedure.


22. Consider the following statements: 1. All members of Estimates Committee are

elected from Lok Sabha only. 2. Estimates Committee can only scrutinize

Budget estimates and cannot recommend any improvements.


23. Indian President is elected from the electoral college consisting of 1. All members of the Lok Sabha 2. All elected members from Rajya Sabha


3. All elected members of Legislative Assemblies

4. All elected members of Legislative Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

24. Consider the following statements: 1. Gram Nyayalaya is a mobile court. 2. It exercises the powers of both Criminal

and Civil Courts. 3. The Gram Nyayalaya will not be bound

by Indian Evidence Act, 1872 but guided by the principles of natural justice.


25. 73rd Amendment provides for the establishment of 1. State Election commission 2. State Finance Commission 3. District Planning Committee Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

26. Indian Constitution is considered to be a living document mainly because (a) different communities in the country can

relate to the Constitution as a legitimate document

(b) it has been amended to suit the demands of the time while retaining its basic principles

(c) provisions in the Constitution is open for multiple interpretation

(d) it maintains proper balance between different organs of the state

27. Which of the following features in the Indian Constitution is/are adapted from the British Constitution? (a) Rule of law (b) Federal System (c) Directive Principles of State Policy (d) Fundamental Rights

28. ‘Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana‘ has been launched for (a) providing Free LPG connections to

Women from BPL Households across the country

(b) providing integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence

(c) provide piped cooking (PNG) gas to residents of the eastern region of the country

(d) providing public assistance to its citizens in case of unemployment

29. A new state can only be created through (a) a resolution passed in state assemblies

concerned (b) an ordinary legislation passed in the

Parliament (c) a Constitutional Amendment Act (d) resolution passed in Rajya Sabha with

the special majority

30. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is enjoyed by the Indian citizens alone? (a) Right against exploitation (b) Freedom of Speech and Expression (c) Equality before law (d) Right to Religion

31. Consider the following with regard to the Overseas Citizenship: 1. Overseas Indian Citizens will be granted

multiple-entry, multi-purpose life-long visa to visit India.

2. They are exempted from registration with local police authority.


32. Securing ―Equality of status and of opportunity;‖ is a provision made in the (a) Preamble of the Constitution (b) Fundamental Rights (c) Directive Principles of State Policy (d) Fundamental Duties

33. With reference to Fundamental Rights in Indian Constitution, which of the following statements is correct? (a) Judicial remedy for the violation of

Fundamental Rights is provided for the executive actions only.

(b) It guarantees economic justice to citizens.

(c) Fundamental Rights are not amendable. (d) None of the above

34. Which of the following actions may amount to corrupt practice in elections as per the Representation of the People Act, 1951? 1. Offering dinner to vote for a particular

candidate. 2. Hiring government vehicle for the

campaigning. 3. Appealing to the national flag for

furthering the prospect of a candidate. 4. Agent of the candidate offering free lift to

the polling station. 5. Use of caste and language to canvass

votes.


Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

35. Consider the following statements: 1. In all the institutions recognized and

funded by the government, religious instruction is not allowed.

2. Right to freedom of religion is extended to both individuals and denominations.


36. Which of the following writs is/are used to restrict the jurisdiction of lower courts or tribunals within its limit? 1. Quo Warranto 2. Prohibition 3. Certiorari Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

37. According to Article 370, most of the provisions in the Constitution of India can only be extended to Jammu and Kashmir State through (a) a legislation passed in the Jammu and

Kashmir State Assembly (b) a resolution passed in both houses of

the Parliament (c) a Presidential order issued in agreement

with the state government (d) a notification by the State Governor in

agreement with the state government

38. The authority to impose restriction on Inter-state trade lies with 1. State Legislature 2. President 3. Ministry of Commerce 4. Parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

39. With regard to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, State governments are entitled to legislate on 1. Public Order 2. Criminal Law 3. Forest 4. Banking 5. Electricity Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

40. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to Finance Commission? (a) It assists the Parliament to scrutinize

the CAG reports. (b) Finance Commission‘s recommendations

are binding on the Government. (c) The Constitution mandates that the

Chairman of the Commission must be a High Court Judge or one qualified to be so.

(d) President is required to lay down the recommendations of the commission and action taken on these before the Parliament.

41. Consider the following statements: The function(s) of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is/are 1. to allow the withdrawal of the money out

of the Consolidated Fund of India 2. to audit the expenditure from

Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund and Public Account of India.

3. to prescribe the form in which accounts of Union and State shall be kept.

4. to compile and maintains accounts of Union Government.

Which of these statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4

42. What will follow, if a national emergency is declared on ground of external aggression? (a) All of the fundamental rights will be

suspended (b) State Assembly will be dissolved. (c) Distribution of powers between Centre

and States is suspended (d) Power of state legislatures to make laws

in State subjects will be suspended

43. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India: 1. A financial emergency is always declared

along with National Emergency. 2. Once approved by the Parliament, the

financial emergency shall remain in force for an indefinite period till the President revokes it.

3. President may reduce salaries of Constitutional functionaries and civil servants while the Financial Emergency is in force.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

44. Which of the following is not a ground for disqualification under Anti-Defection law?


(a) An elected member voluntarily resigns from his political party and joins any other political party

(b) An elected member votes or abstains from voting contrary to party whip

(c) An independent member of legislature joins any political party

(d) A nominated member of a House joins a political party within six months after becoming a member of the house

45. Speaker of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies can be removed by passing a resolution with (a) a majority of all then members of the

house (b) a majority of not less than 2/3rd

members present and voting (c) a majority of members present and

voting (d) a majority of the total strength of house

46. Consider the following statements: The function(s) of Election Commission of India is/are 1. To cancel polls in the event of rigging or

booth capturing. 2. To advise the Supreme Court on matters

relating to the disqualifications of MPs. 3. To register and to grant them status of

national or state parties. 4. To prepare and periodically revise

electoral rolls. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

47. Which of the following are Constitutional bodies? 1. State Public Service Commission 2. National Human Right Commission 3. National Commission for STs 4. Inter-State Council 5. Central Vigilance Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

48. Which of the following functions is/are performed by the Union Public Service Commission? 1. Pay and Service Conditions of Civil

Servants. 2. Cadre Management of All India Services. 3. Conducting examinations for

appointments in public banks. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) None

49. Annual reports of which among of the following bodies is/are submitted to the President of India? 1. Central Vigilance Commission 2. Joint Public Service Commission 3. Finance Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

50. An Attorney General appointed by the President of India must be a person qualified to be appointed as a (a) Chief Justice of high court (b) Supreme Court Judge (c) High Court Judge (d) Senior most advocate in Supreme Court

51. Which among the following Union Territories have Legislatures? (a) Puducherry (b) Delhi (c) Chandigarh (d) Puducherry and Delhi

52. Regarding the inter-relationship between two houses of Parliament, which of the following statement is/are correct? 1. Prime Minister must always belongs to

the Lok Sabha while Ministers can belong to either houses of the Parliament.

2. A Minister is entitled to vote only in the House of which he is a member.

3. Members of both houses have equal privileges and immunities.


53. In which among the following areas, Lok Sabha Speaker and Rajya Sabha Chairman have similar power(s) and function(s)? 1. In deciding a bill as money bill 2. Right to vote on a resolution for their

removal 3. Salaries and allowance Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

54. Special leave petition refers to (a) taking permission to be heard in appeal

against lower court verdict (b) applying for shifting the hearing of a

case from one high court to another (c) referring a case to the Constitutional

bench by the Supreme Court (d) Public Interest Litigation that requires

urgent hearing


55. Establishment of the village panchayats through 73rd Constitutional Amendment ensured 1. Participatory governance 2. Self-sustenance 3. Women empowerment 4. Bottom-up policy making Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

56. Consider the following statements regarding a Money Bill: 1. It can be introduced with prior

permission from the President. 2. Rajya Sabha can‘t recommend any

changes in a Money Bill. 3. President cannot return a Money Bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

57. Which of the following are the ‗expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India‘? 1. Salary and Allowances of High Court

Judges 2. Emoluments and allowance of the

President 3. Pensions of High Court Judges 4. Debt charges of Government of India 5. Salary and pensions of Comptroller and

Auditor General of India Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1, 2 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

58. Which among the following can said to be the important functions of the Parliament? 1. Keeping a check on government actions 2. Highlighting peoples‘ grievances 3. Adjudication of disputes 4. Providing the informations 5. Appointing the judges Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

59. Consider the following with respect to the judicial powers of the President: 1. Commutation means reducing the

amount of sentence without changing its character.

2. Respite means substituting one form of punishment for another of a lighter character.


60. Consider the following statements: 1. A cognizable offence means that a police

officer can arrest without warrant. 2. Any crime, which can be settled by

making up for damages is known as compoundable offence.


61. With reference to ‗Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission‘; consider the following statements: 1. It aims at development of 300 rural

growth clusters called ‗Rurban Clusters‘. 2. Under this scheme, each Member of

Parliament needs to choose one village each from the constituency that they represent.


62. In Indian Constitution, Gandhian ideals and principles are reflected in the provisions of 1. Fundamental Rights 2. Fundamental Duties 3. Directive Principles of State Policy 4. Part IX of the Constitution Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

63. Consider the following statements with regard to 97th Constitutional Amendment Act: 1. It inserted right to form cooperative as a

Fundamental Right. 2. State Governments‘ power to regulate

cooperatives became enhanced. 3. It fixed minimum and maximum

numbers of directors allowed for a co-operative.


64. ‗Operation Muskaan-II‘ is a campaign to (a) prevent trafficking of women and

children from commercial sexual

exploitation

(b) clean up the country and promote

hygiene and sanitation among

government employees

(c) trace and rescue missing children and

those found abandoned

(d) make people aware about cashless

economic system


65. In which among the following situations Parliament can legislate on a state subject? 1. When the President rule is declared on

the State. 2. When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution

to do so with simple majority. 3. When a State Legislative Assembly

request to do so on its behalf. Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

66. The elected members of State Legislative Assemblies can participate in 1. Electing President 2. Electing Vice-President 3. Electing members of State Legislative

Council 4. Impeaching the President 5. Removing High Court judge Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 5 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 4 and 5

67. Which one of the following is a purpose of ‗NIDHI‘‘, a scheme of the Government? (a) providing access to information,

knowledge and skills for operating

computers / digital access devices

(b) providing technological solutions to the

pressing needs of the society and create

new avenues for wealth and job creation

(c) Providing accessible, affordable and

quality health care to the rural

population

(d) providing Free LPG connections to

Women from BPL Households across the

country

68. Consider the following statements regarding contempt of court: 1. In India, on certain occasions, contempt

of court can be a criminal offence. 2. There is no mention of contempt of court

in the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

69. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, Ashok Mehta Committee and L.M Singvi Committee are dealt with (a) Judicial reform (b) Electoral reform (c) Democratic decentralization (d) Inclusive development

70. With reference to GST Council, consider the following statements:

1. It is the first Constitutional body having representatives from both Union and State Governments as its members.

2. Decisions in the council are taken by a majority of two-third of weighted votes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

71. Which among the following bodies embody the principle of cooperative federalism in its working? 1. Monetary Policy Committee 2. GST Council 3. National Institution for Transforming

India Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

72. Which of the following provisions of Constitution of India mentions about protection and preservation of cattle? 1. Seventh Schedule 2. Ninth Schedule 3. Directive Principles of State Policy 4. Fundamental Duty Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

73. Consider the following statements regarding nominated members to the Rajya Sabha: 1. They are nominated by the President of

India to provide wider representation to marginalized communities.

2. They enjoy all privileges like any other MPs.

3. The system is adopted from Irish Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

74. Consider the following statements with regard to Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban: 1. It aims to build affordable pucca houses

with water facility, sanitation and electricity supply

2. It is only meant to cover people in the economically weaker sections and low-income group

3. It aims to transform slum areas by building homes for slum dwellers in collaboration with private developers Which of the following statements given above are correct?


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

75. Consider the following statements with regard to National Commission for Backward Classes? 1. It is a Constitutional body set up for the

welfare of the Socially and Educationally backward classes.

2. It recommends the inclusion or exclusion of communities from OBC Central list.

3. The body has the authority to prosecute government officers who fail to ensure mandated reservation for OBCs.


76. Consider the following statements with regard to National Commission for Women: 1. It is a statutory body set up to review the

Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women.

2. One stop centers are organized by the National Commission as an Alternative Justice Delivery System for gender related cases.


77. In conducting Parliament elections, the role of a returning officer is to (a) carry out and oversee elections at the

level of Parliamentary constituency. (b) check irregularities in the voting list at

district level. (c) carry out and oversee elections at the

level of polling booth. (d) assist the presiding officer in conducting

elections at the booth level.

78. Which of the followings is not a department under the Ministry of Finance? (a) Department of Disinvestment (b) Department of Expenditure (c) Department of Financial Service (d) Department of Investment and Public

Asset Management

79. National Human Rights Commission can inquire into a human right violation case 1. if a petition is filed before it 2. when court directs to conduct

investigation 3. by way of suo moto Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

80. According to the seventh schedule of the Constitution. which of the following taxes are levied exclusively by the Union? 1. Tax on Agriculture Income 2. Corporate Tax 3. Tax on Profession 4. Goods and Services Tax 5. Taxes on sales of goods in inter-state

trade Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 5 only (d) 3, 4 and 5 only

81. Consider the following with regard to Central Administrative Tribunals: 1. Administrative tribunals are

Constitutional bodies to provide for speedy disposal of disputes relating to service matters.

2. They have the power to adapt their own rules of procedure.


82. Which of the following is not found in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution? (a) English (b) Sanskrit (c) Konkani (d) None of the above

83. Which of the followings is set up to foster cooperative federalism while functioning as a policy Think Tank? (a) Inter-State Council (b) Zonal Councils (c) NITI Aayog (d) GST Council

84. According to the Constitution of India, an election petition with respect to disputes in the election to Lok Sabha can be filed (a) in the Lok Sabha Secretariat after the

declaration of the results. (b) with the Election Commission of India. (c) in the High Court after the polling has

been completed. (d) in the High Court after the declaration of

the result.

85. Consider the following with regard to Cabinet Secretary: 1. His main function is to coordinate

between different ministries. 2. Apex Committee on Digital India

Programme is headed by Cabinet Secretary.



86. Consider the following pairs: Department Ministry 1. Department

of Space

: Ministry of Science

and Technology

2. Department

of Justice

: Ministry of Law and

Justice

3. Department

of States

: Ministry of Home

Affairs

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

87. Consider the following with respect to National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA): 1. Prime Minister is the Chairman of

NDMA. 2. Ministry of Defence is the nodal ministry

for Disaster Management. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

88. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs? 1. Forming Consultative Committees of

Members of Parliament for various Ministries.

2. Pursues with the other Ministries for implementation of assurances give in the Parliament.

3. Drafting the Legislations on behalf of different Ministries.


89. Appointment of Parliamentary Secretaries are discouraged and termed it as an unconstitutional practice by various courts, because (a) it will lead to overlapping functions of

different Ministers hindering the administration.

(b) there is ample number of Civil Servants for assistance.

(c) they perform primarily the functions of civil servants.

(d) legislators would be obliged to the executives.

90. Consider the following with respect to Prime Miniter‘s Office: 1. The Prime Minister‘s Office is headed by

Cabinet Secretary.

2. The main function of Prime Minister‘s Office is inter-Ministerial coordination and framing rules of business.


91. Which of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble of Indian Constitution? (a) Sovereign (b) Socialist (c) Federal (d) Republic

92. ‗Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana‘ has been launched for (a) Indian youth to take up industry-

relevant skill training (b) providing integrated support and

assistance to women affected by violence (c) skill training of rural youth and provide

them with jobs (d) providing public assistance to its citizens

in case of unemployment

93. Which of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution is incorporated through 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, also known as ―mini-Constitution‖? 1. Added the phrases ―socialist‖ and

―secular‖ to the Preamble of Indian Constitution.

2. Provided restrictions in proclamation of National Emergency.

3. Added Fundamental Duties into the Constitution.

4. Restricted the discretionary power of the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

94. Under Article 368, Indian Parliament cannot destroy independence of Judiciary because (a) Parliament is accountable to the people (b) federal principles are enshrined in the

Preamble itself (c) it will lead to secession (d) it is part of the basic structure of the

Constitution

95. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties as listed in the Constitution? 1. To safeguard public property and to

abjure violence. 2. To promote international peace and

universal brotherhood. 3. To value and preserve the rich heritage

of our composite culture. 4. To develop a sense of respect for elders

and to help disabled. Select the correct answer using the code given below.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

96. In which one of the following does the subject of cyber security fall? (a) Union List (b) State List (c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary Power of Union Government

97. Present Lok Sabha does not have a Leader of Opposition because (a) no opposition alliance has secured 20

per cent of the total seats. (b) no opposition party has secured 10 per

cent of the total seats. (c) all opposition parties together does not

fulfill the quorum criteria of the House. (d) None of the above

98. The dissolution of Lok Sabha does not affect (a) a bill passed in the Lok Sabha and

pending in the Rajya Sabha. (b) a bill originated in the Rajya Sabha and

not send to the Lok Sabha.

(c) a bill that originated in the Lok Sabha but has been sent to Rajya Sabha.


99. President of India submit the resignation letter to (a) Chief justice of India (b) Lok Sabha Speaker (c) Vice President of India (d) Prime Minister of India

100. Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana is aimed at (a) providing loans to poor farmers for

cultivating particular crops (b) instilling certain value in the villages

and their people so that they get transformed into models for others

(c) building affordable pucca houses with water facility, sanitation and electricity supply

(d) development of 300 rural growth clusters called ‗Rurban Clusters‘


TEST BOOKLET

TARGET PRELIMS 2017

GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER - 1

GEOGRAPHY, GENERAL SCIENCE AND SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY





BOOKLET.





the Test Booklet.



























Date: 07-05-2017


1. With reference to ‗Aquila‘, recently in the news, which of the following statement is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative of Google launched in collaboration with Tata Trusts to educate women in rural India on the benefits of using the Internet.

2. Rather than use under-ground fibre optic cables or construct cell towers to connect users, it will use balloons that float in the stratosphere.


2. The term ‗Cyber Physical Systems‘, sometimes seen in the news, refers to

(a) computer-based systems that do things in the physical world

(b) the practice of using a network of remote servers hosted on the Internet to store data

(c) industrial applications of Internet of things

(d) a mechanism used in 3D printing

3. Which one of the following is the best description of ‗VoLTE‘, which was in the news recently? (a) Derived unit for electric potential (b) India's first deep-sea robot (c) Wireless technology that transmits

high-speed data using visible light communication

(d) Technology that makes it possible for voice calls to be carried over 4G networks

4. With reference to ‗Cyber Swachhta Kendra‘, which of the following statement is/are correct? 1. It provides Indian citizens a dedicated

cloud storage space that is linked to their Aadhaar number.

2. It is set up in accordance with the objectives of the "National Cyber Security Policy".


5. With reference to ‗Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AEPS)‘, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. AEPS is a new payment service

developed by State Bank of India. 2. AEPS functions through the Unified

Payments Interface (UPI).

3. It empowers a bank customer to use Aadhaar as his/her identity to access his/ her respective Aadhaar enabled bank account and perform basic banking transactions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

6. In the context of Digital India initiatives, the term ‗DigiSevak‘, sometimes seen in the news, refers to (a) a crop Insurance mobile app that can

be used to calculate the Insurance Premium for notified crops.

(b) a mobile application that has been developed with an aim to keep farmers

abreast with the crop prices and discourage them to carry-out distress sale.

(c) a campaign for achieving universal accessibility that enables people with disabilities to gain access for equal opportunity.

(d) an online volunteering platform for interested citizens who want to contribute to the success of Digital India program.

7. With reference to ‗Long Term Evolution (LTE) Technology, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a fourth generation mobile

wireless technology. 2. EDGE and WiMAX are the other 4G

technologies competing with LTE. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. What is ‗eBASTA‘, recently in the news? (a) An initiative to improve the business

environment in the country by enabling fast and efficient access to Government-to-Business (G2B) services through an online portal

(b) An e-Governance initiative for the rural sector

(c) A project to make school books accessible in digital form

(d) National agency to secure Indian cyber space

9. With reference to ‗quantum communication lines‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is impossible to wiretap, intercept or

crack the information transmitted through them.


2. China has recently launched a quantum communication line 712 kilometers in length for safely transmitting sensitive information.


10. The Government of India has launched Digitize India Platform (DIP) under the Digital India Programme. The objective of this initiative is (a) To create an integrated system for

enhancing the efficiency of policing (b) To provide a comprehensive software

solution attempting automation of Gram Panchayat functions

(c) To connect the government directly with citizens across India by running mailer, outbound dialing and SMS campaigns

(d) To computerize and make usable all the existing content in different formats and media, languages, and create data extracts for document management

11. Regarding ‗Internet of Things (IoT)‘ sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 3. Internet of Things generally refers to

scenarios where network connectivity and computing capability extends to objects, sensors and everyday items not normally considered computers.

4. Centre of Excellence for IoT was announced as a part of the Digital India Initiative to jump start the IOT ecosystem in India.


12. Which one of the following is the best description of ‗Net Neutrality‘, that was in the news recently? (a) It is the principle that affordable high

speed broadband connectivity should be available to all households and institutions.

(b) It is the principle that Internet service providers (ISP) and governments should treat all data on the Internet the same, not discriminating or charging differentially by user, content, site, platform, application, type of attached equipment, or mode of communication.

(c) It is an initiative of the Government of India under the Digital India Programme to provide access to bandwidth in a non-discriminatory manner to all eligible service providers to enable them to provide services in rural areas.

(d) It is an initiative of the Government of India to impart IT training to women in rural India.

13. With reference to ‗Origins Spectral Interpretation Resource Identification Security - Regolith Explorer (OSIRIS-REX), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was developed by European space

agency.

2. It is a spacecraft to study on comet. 3. It will help scientists investigate how

planets formed and how life began. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

14. With reference to ‗Gaia space probe‘, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was launched by National

Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)

2. Recently, it has mapped more than a billion stars in the Milky Way.


15. With reference to ‗Light Utility Helicopter (LUH)‘, which of the following statements is/are correct? 3. It was developed by Hindustan

Aeronautics Limited (HAL). 4. It was developed to replace the

military‘s obsolescent fleet of Chetak and Cheetah helicopters.


16. In relation to ‗INSAT-3DR‘ recently in news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was launched by European Ariane-5

VA-227 launch vehicle 2. It is a 3654 kg satellite placed in an

orbit at 36000km above the surface of the Earth.



17. Which one of the following is the best description of ‗INS Mormugao‘ that was in the news recently? (e) Visakhapatnam-class stealth Guided-

missile destroyer (f) Arihant class Ballistic missile

submarine (g) Shishumar class Attack submarine (h) Kiev class Aircraft carrier

18. With reference to ‗Electroactive bandage‘, recently seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was developed by Japan Aerospace

Exploration Agency (JAXA). 2. It creates an electric charge to help

promote the healing process of wounds.


19. With reference to ‗Mining surveillance system (MSS)‘, recently seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was developed by Defence Research

and Development Organisation (DRDO).

2. It aims to curb illegal mining without human intervention and subjectivity.


20. With reference to ‗Great Balls of Fire (GBF), recently seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. They are super-hot blobs of gas. 2. They were detected by Hubble space

telescope. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

21. With reference to ‗CYSVAX‘, recently seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is the world's first vaccine to fight

against roundworms in dogs. 2. It was developed by Indian

Immunologicals Ltd (IIL).


22. With reference to ‗Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS)‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is popularly known as the

pacemaker for the brain. 2. It is only for patients who can‘t control

their movements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

23. ‗Druzhba 2016‘, recently seen in the news, is a joint military exercise between Pakistan and (a) Turkmenistan (b) Russia (c) China (d) Uzbekistan

24. With reference to ‗Magnetar‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is an extremely dense type of

neutron star. 2. It can cause earthquakes on stars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics, the term ‗proteome‘, sometimes seen in the news, refers to (a) a range of enzymes used in genome

editing (b) the entire set of proteins expressed by

an organism (c) the description of the mechanism of

gene expression

(d) a mechanism of genetic mutations taking place in cells

26. With reference to ‗scramjet engine‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It uses Hydrogen as fuel and the

Oxygen from the atmospheric air as the oxidizer.

2. India is the first country to demonstrate the flight testing of Scramjet Engine.



27. ‗DMH-11‘, often seen in the news, is the name of (a) India‘s latest indigenously developed

robot (b) GM mustard developed in India (c) India‘s first fully dedicated helicopter

for disaster management operations (d) High breed wheat variety developed in

India

28. Which one of the following is the best description of ‗Tiantong-01‘ that was in the news recently? (a) It is the sophisticated super computer

of china (b) It is a proposed space lab of china (c) It is the china‘s satellite for mobile

communication

(d) It is the guided missile destroyer of china

29. With reference to the ‗Agni-V‘, consider the following statements: 1. It is an indigenously developed,

intercontinental, surface to surface, nuclear capable ballistic missile.

2. Agni-V is India's first intercontinental ballistic missile.

3. Agni-V can cover a range of over 5000 kilometers in any direction.

4. On the successful test of Agni-V, India has now joined the elite Intercontinental range ballistic missile (ICBM) club with just five other countries across the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

30. ‗Proxima b‘ sometimes seen in the news, is (a) an asteroid that orbits the proxima

century (b) an exoplanet that orbits the proxima

century (c) a comet that orbits the proxima

century (d) None of the above

31. With reference to ‗DNA Index System‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It aims to make Tamil Nadu a crime

free state in India. 2. It allows generation of DNA profiles

from live samples. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

32. Consider the following statements with reference to andrographolid drug: 1. It is a drug which has ability to inhibit

tumour growth. 2. It was developed by National Centre for

Cell Science (NCCS) in Pune. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

33. Consider the following pairs: Change Type of Change 1. Melting of ice cube : Physical Change 2. Digesting food : Chemical Change 3. Burning wood : Chemical Change 4. Breaking a glass : Chemical Change 5. Cooking an egg : Physical Change

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 4 and 5 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

34. Consider the following statements with reference to Xmu-Mp-1 Molecule: 1. It is a small molecule which can

regenerate the tissue. 2. It was developed by Indian Institute of

Science (IISc) in Bangalore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

35. Consider the following diseases: 1. Lymphatic filariasis 2. Hepatitis B 3. Smallpox Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated from India? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

36. With reference to ‗virtual black hole‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is an experiment based on light,

rather than sound. 2. It aims to prove that Hawking‘s theory

of radiation emanating from black holes is correct.


37. Consider the following statements with reference to maglev trains: 1. They are less expensive to operate and

maintain.


2. They produce no air pollution during operation.

3. Maglev trains are in operation in India.


38. Consider the following statements with reference to DNA sequencing: 1. DNA sequencing is the process of

determining the sequence of nucleotides in a piece of DNA.

2. DNA sequencing cannot be used to determine the paternity of the child.

3. DNA sequencing is used to identify the criminals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

39. With reference to ‗Regenerative medicine‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It develops methods to regrow, repair

or replace damaged or diseased cells, organs or tissues.

2. It includes the generation and use of therapeutic stem cells, tissue engineering and the production of artificial organs.


40. With reference to ‗Asteroid psyche‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is the largest metallic asteroid in our solar system.

2. Recently, scientists have detected the presence of water on Psyche


41. Which one of the following is the best description of ‗Halophytes‘ that was in the news recently? (a) Pest resistant plants (b) Frost tolerant plants (c) Disease resistant plants (d) Salt tolerant plants

42. Which one of the following is the best description of ‗GJ 536b‘ that was in the news recently?

(a) Exoplanet (b) Comet (c) Asteroid (d) Star

43. Consider the following pairs: Disease Pathogen 1. Japanese encephalitis : Virus 2. Athlete's foot : fungus 3. Leprosy : Bacteria 4. Dengue : protozoan 5. Measles : bacteria Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 and 5 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

44. Consider the following statements with reference to Electromagnetic (EM) Drive: 1. It is a propulsion system. 2. It was developed by ESA

3. It defies Newton's third law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

45. Directly Observed Treatment Short course or DOTS, a highly efficient and cost-effective strategy for Tuberculosis control is launched by (a) World Health Organization (WHO) (b) Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (c) National Centre for Disease Control

(NCDC) (d) United Nations

46. With reference to ‗Bio-Indicator Lidar Instrument (BILI), recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a fluorescence-based lidar 2. It uses light to detect and ultimately

analyse the composition of particles in the atmosphere.


47. With reference to ‗INS Chennai‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is the third indigenously designed

Ballistic missile submarine in an Arihant class.

2. It is armed with supersonic surface-to-surface BrahMos missiles and Barak-8 long range surface-to-air missiles.



48. ‗Robot lakshmi‘ sometimes seen the news, is (a) a banking robot (b) a space robot (c) a mining robot (d) a medical robot

49. With reference to CERN, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. CERN is the European Organisation

for Nuclear research. 2. Recently India got associate

membership in CERN. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

50. ‗Coradia iLint‘, sometimes seen in the news, is (a) the world's first zero-emission

hydrogen passenger train. (b) the pest resistant rice verity developed

by India (c) a spacecraft launched by Russia (d) None of the above

51. Which of the following statements regarding red soils of India is/are correct? 1. The colour of the soil is red due to

ferric oxide content. 2. Red soils are rich in lime, humus and

potash. 3. They are porous and have friable

structure. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

52. Which of the following methods is/are suitable for soil conservation in arid regions? 1. Wind breaks 2. Shifting cultivation 3. Contour ploughing Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

53. Consider the following pairs: Rocks Type 1. Shale : Sedimentary 2. Basalt : Igneous 3. Slate : Metamorphic Which of the pairs given above is / are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

54. In which of the following states is Bellandur lake situated? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Karnataka (c) Uttarakhand (d) Telangana

55. Consider the following pairs: Well Known lake State 1. Chilika Lake : Odisha 2. Kolleru Lake : Andhra Pradesh 3. Pulicat Lake : Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

56. Consider the following pairs: Islands Country 1. Reunion Island : India 2. Havelock Island : United Kingdom 3. Thengar Char Island: Bangladesh Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

57. Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the western most and southern most State? (a) Rajasthan and Kerala (b) Gujarat and Kerala (c) Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu (d) Gujarat and Tamil Nadu

58. Which of the following countries share border with Myanmar? 1. India 2. Bangladesh 3. Laos 4. Thailand Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

59. A State in India has the following characteristics: 1. Indian standard Meridian (82.50 E)

passes through this State. 2. It has only 9.01% of its area under

forest and tree cover. 3. The main cash crop in the state is

sugarcane, with 46% of the total production in the country.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics? (a) Maharashtra (b) Haryana (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh

60. Which one of the following Islands is of volcanic origin? (a) Reunion Island (b) Andaman & Nicobar Islands (c) Lakshadweep Islands


(d) Maldives

61. With reference to ‗Ozone layer‘, which of the following statements is/are not correct? 1. It is continuously being created and

destroyed naturally. 2. It is formed in the atmosphere through

photochemical reaction. 3. Controlling and phasing out ozone

depleting substances is associated with Nagoya protocol.

Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

62. Consider the following statements: 1. Increased cloud cover will lead to

warmer winters due to clouds reflecting more intense solar energy.

2. Cloudy conditions reduce diurnal range of temperature.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. Stalactites and stalagmites are features of (a) glacial topography (b) volcanic topography (c) karst topography (d) fluvial topography

64. Consider the following statements: 1. The earth is farthest away from the

Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on July 4.

2. The earth is nearest to the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on January 3.

3. The earth is farthest away from the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on July 4.

4. The earth is nearest to the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on January 3.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only

65. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following hills as one proceeds from north to south? 1. Nilgiri Hills 2. Anaimalai Hills 3. Mahadeo Hills 4. Satmala Hills Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3 (b) 3 – 2 – 4 – 1

(c) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2 (d) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

66. Consider the following statements: 1. In troposphere, temperature increases

with altitude. 2. In mesosphere, temperature decreases

with altitude. 3. The lowest temperature of the

atmosphere is recorded in the upper part of mesosphere.

4. Tropopause is an isothermal zone. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

67. Turkey, which is frequently in the news, does not have a border with which of the following? (a) Romania (b) Iran (c) Georgia (d) Bulgaria

68. A particular lake in India has the following characteristics: 1. It is the largest freshwater Lake in

Northeast India. 2. It carries floating islands that are

known as phumdis. 3. World‘s only floating national park,

Keibul Lamjao, is located at the south-western part of this lake.

Which one among the following lakes has all the above characteristics? (a) Rudrasagar Lake (b) Sangetsar Lake (c) Gurudongmar Lake (d) Loktak Lake

69. Which of the following statements concerning circum-pacific belt are correct? 1. It is an active volcanic realm. 2. It is an active seismic realm. 3. It is prone to Tsunami. 4. It is having divergent plate boundary. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

70. Longest day/night is experienced during a year in the (a) Equator (b) North/South Pole (c) Tropics of Cancer/Capricorn (d) Arctic/Antarctic Circle

71. With reference to salinity of ocean water, consider the following statements: 1. High evaporation and precipitation

increases the salinity. 2. Salinity is high in Red Sea mainly due

to high rate of evaporation.



72. Which one of the following can be used to predict the epicenter of earthquakes? (a) Large scale fluctuations of oil flow in

oil wells (b) Increase in emission of radon gas (c) Seismic gap (d) None of the above

73. Variations in apparent altitude of the midday sun from season to season are due to (a) the earth‘s rotation on its axis (b) the earth‘s revolution around the sun

in an elliptical manner (c) latitudinal position of the place (d) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis

74. ‗Polar Vortex‘, sometimes seen in news, is (a) a threatened species in polar regions

due to rapidly increasing global warming

(b) largescale melting of polar ice caps (c) a gyre formed by cold oceanic currents

in polar seas (d) an upper level low-pressure area lying

near the Earth's pole

75. Recently, the Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) decided to conduct the 'Ram Sethu Pilot Project‘ to determine whether ‗Ram Sethu‘ (Adam‘s bridge) is natural or man-made. Ram Sethu is mainly made up of which one of the following? (a) Granite (b) Gneiss (c) Limestone (d) Marble

76. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The agreement entered into force. 2. The agreement acknowledged the

contributions to global warming from aviation sector.

3. The agreement aims to limit the greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2oC or even 1.5oC above pre-industrial levels.


77. Which of the following statements regarding Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) is/are correct? 1. NDCs are voluntary pledges made by

nations to reduce their carbon emissions.

2. All countries should submit new NDCs every five years representing a progression beyond previous ones.

3. Through its NDC, India committed to achieve 40 percent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel based energy resources by 2030.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

78. REDD+, developed by parties to UNFCCC, incentives for developing countries to keep their forests standing by offering result-based payments for actions to reduce or remove forest carbon emissions. Which of the following are the eligible activities under REDD+? 1. Reducing emissions from

deforestation. 2. Reducing emissions from forest

degradation. 3. Conservation of forest carbon stocks. 4. Sustainable management of forests. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

79. Terrace cultivation is a method of soil conservation used in (a) desert margins, liable to strong wind

action (b) low flat plains, close to stream

courses, liable to flooding (c) scrublands, liable to spread of weed

growth (d) None of the above

80. Consider the following factors: 1. Topography 2. Parent material 3. Climate 4. Geomorphic agents Which of the above factors influence the soil formation? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

81. Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of ‗Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)‘ of the Government of India?


1. To ensure livelihood security to the fishing communities and other local communities living in the coastal areas.

2. To conserve and protect coastal stretches.

3. To promote development in a sustainable manner.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

82. Which of the following are the basic features of ‗National Mineral Exploration Policy (NMEP)? 1. The Ministry of Mines will carry out

auctioning of identified exploration

blocks for exploration by private sector on revenue sharing basis.

2. Government will create baseline geoscience data as a public good and fund the generation and dissemination of such data.

3. Government will carry out a National Aerogeophysical Program for acquiring state-of-the-art baseline data for targeting concealed mineral deposits.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

83. Indian standard Meridian (82030' E meridian) passes through which of the following states? 1. Chhattisgarh 2. Maharashtra 3. Odisha Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

84. With reference to cloudbursts, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It refers to sudden and copious rainfall

over a small area which often lasts for only a few minutes.

2. They are generally associated with thunderstorms.

3. They are formed by orographic lift. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

85. Recently, India‘s highest glaciological research facility was set up in (a) Sikkim (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Jammu & Kashmir (d) Uttarakhand

86. The term ‗Supermoon‘ is recently seen in news in the context of (a) new moon or full moon closely

coinciding with perigee (b) new moon or full moon closely

coinciding with apogee (c) new moon or full moon closely

coinciding with perihelion (d) new moon or full moon closely

coinciding with aphelion

87. ―Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in the Northern plains from Punjab to Bihar with higher intensity between Delhi and Patna‖. Which of the following local storms in India is described in the above passage? (a) Mango Shower (b) Loo

(c) Blossom Shower (d) Nor Westers

88. What could be the main reason/reasons for the frequent landslides in Himalayas? 1. They are tectonically active. 2. The slopes are very steep. 3. Presence of several big thrusts. 4. They are mostly made up of

consolidated deposits. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4

89. Compared to the Himalayas, the Western Ghats along the west coast are tectonically stable but still landslides occur. What could be the main reason/reasons for this? 1. Presence of hard rocks resulting in

rockslides 2. Steeper slopes with almost vertical

cliffs 3. High precipitation and temperature

changes resulting in mechanical weathering

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

90. Which of the following countries will have mid-day Sun exactly overhead only once a year? 1. China 2. Brazil 3. Taiwan Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

91. Consider the following pairs: Ocean currents Country


1. Labrador Current : Canada 2. Falkland Current : Argentina 3. Humboldt current : Peru Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

92. Tropical cyclones are few during southwest monsoon season. What is the reason? (a) Sea surface temperature are low (b) Precipitation weakens cyclonic

depressions (c) High vertical wind shear (d) Coriolis force is too weak

93. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following: 1. U shaped valleys 2. Deep gorges 3. Parallel mountain ranges 4. Steep gradients causing land slide Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for glacial action that has taken in Himalayas? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

94. Consider the following pairs: Clouds Features 5. Cirrostratus : Halo formation 6. Cumulonimbus : Thunderstorms 7. Asperitas : Upturned

Roughened sea surface

Which of the above pairs is / are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

95. Which of the following are the key features of monsoon rain? 1. Recurring spells of rainfall 2. Squally winds 3. Stratiform clouds Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

96. With reference to sea erosion, consider the following statements: 1. Rise in sea level causes sea erosion. 2. In India, sea erosion is more over

western coast when compared with eastern coast.


97. With reference to ‗Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik‘, consider the following statements: 1. It is aimed at reviving dormant

airstrips in the country. 2. Under this scheme, flights between

major airports are priced at Rs. 2500 for one hour of flying time.

3. To fund the scheme, a cess will be charged to airlines flying on metro or trunk routes for each departure.


98. Consider the following: 1. Humanizing landscapes 2. Cyclonic depression

3. Thermal contrast between land and ocean

4. Revolution of earth on its tilted axis Which of the above factors influence Indian monsoon? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

99. Consider the following pairs: Landforms Geomorphic agent 1. Potholes : Running water 2. Drumlines : Glacier 3. Playas : Underground water 4. Stalagmite : Wind Which of the above pairs are not correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only

100. Which one of the following countries border South China Sea? (a) Singapore (b) Malaysia (c) Laos (d) Both (a) and (b)


TEST BOOKLET

TARGET PRELIMS 2017

GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER - 1

HISTORY AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS





BOOKLET.





the Test Booklet.


















(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which has a

penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (.33) of the

marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.







Date: 14-05-2017


1. With reference to the nagara style of Indian temple architecture, amalaka refers to

(a) semi-circular dome on garbhagriha (b) ribbed, lenticular or globoid part

crowning the top of the shikhara (c) semi-circular hall in front of the

temple (d) ornamental pot-design decorating the

shikhara

2. The Indian ministries in all the provinces resigned in the year 1939 because (a) the Wavell plan ignored dominion

status for India (b) the left-wing leaders of congress

formed Socialist Congress Party (c) India was declared a party to the

World War II without the consent of the Provincial Governments

(d) the formation of interim government was accepted by All party conference

3. Consider the following pairs: Term Description

1. Chaitya : Place of congregation

and worship

2. Panchayatan : Main temple

surrounded by four

sub-shrines in each

corner

3. Squinch : Pictorial mosaic

work using semi-

precious stones

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

4. The Cabinet Mission proposals did not include (a) the formation of a Union of India (b) setting up an Interim Government (c) formation of the constituent assembly (d) a strong centre with viceroy as the

head

5. The Karachi session of 1931 is significant because (a) it decided to launch a Civil

Disobedience Movement (b) it anointed Jawaharlal Nehru as the

future Prime Minister of India (c) of the introduction of the idea of a

Planning Commission

(d) it passed resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy

6. Rihla is (a) Abul Fazl‘s book on Mughals (b) Ibn Battuta‘s book of travels (c) Al-Biruni‘s book on epics (d) Abdur Razzak‘s book on Cholas

7. The Jury Act 1827 was opposed by many Indians. Which among the following leader was known for his opposition to the Jury Act? (a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (b) Raja Rammohan Roy (c) Lord Sinha (d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

8. Which one of the following political dramas of ancient Gupta period dealt with Chandragupta II‘s accession to the throne after murdering his elder brother Ramagupta and marriage to Dhruvadevi, his brother‘s widow? (a) Mrichchhakatika (b) Kaumudimahotsava (c) Malavikagnimitra (d) Devichandraguptam

9. With reference to the objectives of Swarajists, consider the following statements: They wanted 1. to end the boycott of Legislative

Councils 2. to expose the basic weaknesses of

Legislative Councils 3. to gain experience of the functioning

of the Councils 4. to use them as an arena of political

struggle to arouse popular enthusiasm

Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only

10. Which one of the following is associated with ‗Delhi Chalo movement‘? (a) Non-Co-operation Movement (b) Civil Disobedience Movement (c) Rowlatt Satyagraha (d) Individual Satyagraha

11. The reforms of Lord Hastings did not include 1. abolition of Censorship Act 2. abolition of Provincial Courts 3. abolition of Sati


4. suppression of thugs Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4

12. Which of the following statement/ statements about the Champaran Satyagraha is/are correct? 1. It was related to

oppressive teenkathiya system. 2. It addressed the economic demands of

the peasants. 3. The middle-class intelligentsia

remained silent. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 only

13. The Tolkappiyam is (a) a Tamil version of Ramacharitamanas (b) an orthodox school of Tamil

philosophy (c) a collection of Vedic hymns in Tamil (d) the book on Tamil Grammar

14. With reference to the Wavell plan proposals, consider the following statements: 1. It proposed the Central Executive

Council to be Indianised. 2. All portfolios including defence would

be held by the Indian Members. 3. It is also known as Breakdown Plan

and was not accepted by the British. Which of the statement/ statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only

15. Who among the following Urdu poets was invited to the Second and Third Round Table Conference? (a) Faiz Ahmad Faiz (b) Josh Malihabadi

(c) Muhammad Iqbal (d) Firaq Gorakhpuri

16. Rabindranath Tagore in response to the massacre at Jallianwala bagh, returned his knighthood award as a 1. protest against inaction of the

Government. 2. method to awaken masses. 3. protest against violence. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 only

17. What was/were the common elements among Walchand Hirachand and Ambalal Sarabhai? 1. They were leaders of Indian Ship

Owners Association. 2. They were Indian industrialists. 3. They were founding members of

Hindustan Aeronautics Limited. 4. They supported Indian National

Movement. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 only

18. The social ideals of Mahatma Gandhi were first put forth in (a) an autobiography—The Story of My

Experiments with Truth (b) Unto this Last - A Paraphrase (c) the Bhaghavad Gita according to

Gandhi (d) Hind Swaraj

19. Consider the following statements regarding Home Rule Movement: 1. It aimed to attain self-government

within the British empire. 2. It was able to combine the moderates,

extremists, and revolutionary terrorists.

3. It dropped the idea of mendicancy of the moderates but continued their concept of patriotism.

4. Tilak made the concept of Home Rule, the popular catchword through the medium of New India and The Commonweal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 only

20. The Bardoli satyagraha resulted in 1. reduction of 30% rise in revenue

payment. 2. Restoration of the confiscated lands

and properties. 3. creation of separate paragana for

kaliparaj. 4. cancellation of job reservation for

ujaliparaj. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only


(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 only

21. Chhau refers to (a) a tribal martial art dance performed by

Kalbelia tribe (b) a dance movement resembling that of

a serpent (c) a religious festival and ritual theatre of

the naga region (d) a tribal martial art dance that employs

mock combat techniques 22. Which one of the following is not correct

about the Cabinet Mission Plan? (a) Grouping of provinces (b) Interim Cabinet of Indians (c) Division of Bengal and Punjab (d) Constitution framing right

23. Which one of the following is an important historical novel written during the latter half of the nineteenth century? (a) Rast Goftar (b) Durgesh Nandini (c) Mahratha (d) Nibandhamala

24. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Satyagraha Persons Actively

Associated with

1. Chambaran satyagraha

: J.B. Kripalani

2. Dharasana march

: Maulana Abul Kalam

Azad

3. Kheda Satagraha

: Shri Mohanlal

Pandya

4. Individual Satyagaha

: Ravishankar vyas

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

25. With reference to which of the following it was said, ―It made its proposals in May. It still wanted a united India. There was to be a Federal Union composed of British provinces.‖ (a) Simon Commission (b) Gandhi-Irwin Pact (c) Cripps Mission (d) Cabinet Mission

26. Which among the following statement/ statements are correct about the Swadeshi movement?

1. It focused on social and economic regeneration of the villages.

2. It provided suitable opportunity for reviving weaving industry.

3. Aravindo Ghosh, Syed Haidar Raza and Bipin Chandra Pal took part in swadeshi.

4. Prafulla Chandra Roy set up Bengal Chemicals Factory.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

27. Consider the following statements: 1. Italian traveller Nicolo de Conti visited

Vijaynagar empire during Krishna Deva Raya.

2. Srirangam copper plates provide the genealogy of Vijayanagar rulers.


28. Consider the following statements: 1. Madalasa Charita, Satyavadu

Parinaya, Rasamanjari and Jambavati Kalyanam were authored by Krishna Devaraya.

2. The battle of Rakasa Tangadi marked the end of Vijaynagar empire and that of Tuluva dynasty which succeeded Aravidu dynasty.


29. Yaoshang is a festival celebrated in India by the (a) people of Himachal Pradesh (b) people of Assam (c) people of Nagaland (d) people of Manipur

30. Consider the following statements: 1. The Chinese pilgrim Fahien visited

India during the reign of Chandragupta II.

2. Hiuen Tsang visited India during the reign of Harsha.

3. Itsing refers to the donation of villages to Chinese Buddhists by his contemporary Pushyamitra Sunga.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and3 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

31. Which of the following were not common to both Buddhism and Jainism? 1. Both of them were opposed to animal

sacrifices. 2. Both of them came as subdivisions of

Hindu religion. 3. Both religions believed every matter

has a soul. 4. Both of them advocated Self-

mortifications and severe penances. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only

32. The ancient Indian play Mrichchhakatika of Sudraka has its subject on (a) the story of the power struggle between

two Brahmin rulers (b) a conflict between Chandragupta

Maurya and Karavela I (c) a romantic story of a young Brahmin,

Charudatta and a wealthy courtesan Vasantasena

(d) the court intrigues at the time of Devendra Maurya

33. With reference to trade in Indus civilization, consider the following: 1. Land trade and sea trade were in

vogue. 2. They used metal money but no barter

system. 3. ‗Dilmun‘ and Makan (Makran Coast)

were two intermediate stations between Indus and Mesopotamia.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

34. Simmon commission proposed for dyarchy 1. abolition of dyarchy in the centre.

2. separation of Burma from British India.

3. giving away with communal electorate/separate electorate.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

35. Which one of the following was the purpose of the Radcliffe Committee chaired by Sir Cyril Radcliffe?

(a) Solve the problem of minorities in India

(b) Give effect to the Independence Bill (c) Delimit the boundaries between India

and Pakistan (d) Enquire into the riots in East Bengal

and West Punjab

36. With reference to Cabinet Mission, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the princely states were (a) elected by provincial assemblies (b) directly elected by the people of those

states (c) elected by the princes (d) nominated by the princes

37. Which portfolio was held by John Mathai

in the Interim Government formed in the year 1946? (a) Department of Railways and Transport (b) Food and Agriculture

(c) External Affairs and Commonwealth

(d) Industries and Supplies

38. Which one of the following statement is not correct about Kutiyattam? (a) Netra abhinaya and hasta abhinaya

are prominent (b) The women of the Nangiar caste play

the female roles (c) Udukku is the major musical

instrument used here (d) It is traditionally performed in theatres

called Kuttampalams

39. The failure of Cripps mission resulted in (a) the launch of Quit India Movement (b) the launch of Civil Disobedience

Movement (c) Individual satyagraha (d) Non-cooperation movement

40. Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942? (a) It was not supported by Hindu

Mahasabha (b) Women played no role due to its

violent nature (c) There were no communal clashes

during the movement (d) Formation of parallel government were

highlights of this movement

41. Which one of the following statement is correct about Rajaji formula? (a) It proposed cancellation of separate

electorate


(b) It proposed formation of provisional interim government

(c) It demanded partition of India after 1946 election

(d) It suggested division of princely states between India and Pakistan

42. The forerunner of Indian National Congress, founded by A.O. Hume was (a) Indian National Association (b) Indian Association (c) Indian National Social Conference (d) Indian National Union

43. With reference to Quit India Movement, consider the following statements: 1. Usha Mehta organized the Secret

Congress Radio.

2. Aruna Asaf Ali hoisted tricolor at Gowalia tank maidan.

3. Matangini Hazra aroused nationalism among rural folk in Bengal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

44. Which one among the following is not correct about the Pattachitra paintings? (a) It is a traditional painting of Odisha (b) The base of the painting is treated as

cloth (c) They are inspired from Bhimbetka

Cave Paintings (d) Colours are from natural sources

including burnt coconut shells

45. Suvarnadvipa or Suvarnabhumi, referred by Ancient Sanskrit and Pali texts identified being as (a) North-West of Hindukush (b) Tibet (c) Sri Lanka (d) South-East Asia

46. Consider the following statements about Abul Kalam Azad: 1. He was the founder of Indian National

Association of Calcutta in 1876. 2. He was the President of INC during

Quit India Movement. 3. He published the weekly ‗Al-Hilal‘. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only

47. The outcomes of the Munda rebellion were

1. enactment of Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908.

2. recognition of Khuntkatti rights. 3. abolition of Beth Begari (forced

labour). 4. creation of separate district for

Mundas. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

48. With reference to 1857 revolt, who said it was a Struggle of soldiers, peasants and democratic combine against the foreign and feudal bondage? (a) R C Mazumadar (b) K.Kelappan

(c) T R Holme (d) Karl Marx

49. With reference to Yoga philosophy, consider the following statements: 1. Release of purusha from prakriti

eventually leads to salvation. 2. Practice of control over pleasure

senses and bodily organs is central to this system.

3. This school of philosophy was developed by Vasumitra sage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

50. Which one of the following is not a reason for tribal uprisings in 19th century? (a) Influx of Christian missionaries (b) British Land reforms (c) British Labour reforms (d) Forced labour practice

51. With reference to the tribal uprisings of 19th century, consider the following statements: 1. Tribal movements were supported by

Indian intellectuals. 2. There were intra and inter-tribal

clashes as in cases of Santhal and Munda rebellions.


52. Tattvabodhini Sabha, founded in 1839, aimed to


1. popularize Brahmodharma or Brahmo faith.

2. encourage religious inquiries and disseminate the essence of Upanishads.

3. counter the teachings of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

4. promote Vedic knowledge. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) None of the above

53. Mir Saman, under Mughal administration was (a) in charge of the intelligence

department (b) in charge of the military department

(c) in charge of the imperial department (d) in charge of the judicial department

54. Social reforms such as inter-caste dining, inter-caste marriage, widow remarriage and improvement of women were central demands of (a) Deoband Movement (b) Aryan Dharma Sabha (c) Tabernacle of New Dispensation (d) Prarthana Samaj

55. Which of the following statement/ statements is/are correct about the Theosophical Society? 1. Theosophy subscribed to the spiritual

philosophy of Hinduism and its doctrine of Karma and transmigration of the soul.

2. The beliefs of the Theosophical Society were a mixture of religion, philosophy and occultism.

3. It promoted a spirit of national pride among the Indians.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only

56. The political demands of Young Bengal Movement included; 1. Trial by jury 2. The freedom of the Press 3. Indians in higher government services 4. Self-rule for Indians Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only

57. Consider the following statements: 1. Dipavamsa is Buddhist literature in

Pali language. 2. Mahavamsa is the historical work on

Jainism. Which of the above statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

58. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the permanent settlement system in India during the Company rule? 1. Under permanent settlement system,

land got transferred from cultivating to non-cultivating class in large scale.

2. This settlement was the reason that during the 1857 mutiny, the

Zamindars remained loyal to the company and did not provide any help to the rebels.


59. Consider the following statements about the ‗Dual government‘ introduced in Bengal in 1765: 1. The servants of the East India

Company amassed great wealth by abusing the system.

2. Under this, the British had all the power while the Nawab and his official had the responsibilities.

3. The Nawab exercised absolute revenue and judicial powers.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

60. Which of the following art form depicts mythological tale of a battle between the goddess Kali and the demon Darika?

(a) Kalbelia (b) Mudiyettu (b) Ramman (d) Koodiyattam

61. Consider the following statements: The India – EU summit 1. held in 2016 was the thirteenth such

summit. 2. In 2016, the summit was held in New

Delhi, India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only



62. ‗Dadaab refugee camp‘ sometimes mentioned in the news is located in (a) Kenya (b) Syria (c) South Sudan (d) Iraq

63. ‗457 visa‘ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (a) Australia (b) UK (c) European Union (d) USA

64. With reference to the ‗Arctic Council‘, consider the following statements: 1. All the members of Arctic Council are

Arctic States. 2. The Arctic Council‘s mandate explicitly

excludes military security.

3. India is an observer in Arctic Council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

65. ‗Great Repeal Bill‘ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (a) India (b) UK (c) Australia (d) USA

66. Consider the following countries: 1. China 2. South Korea 3. Japan 4. Russia 5. Vietnam Which among the above countries share land boundary with North Korea? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

67. The Kuril Islands dispute, also known as the Northern Territories dispute, is a dispute between (a) Indonesia and Malaysia (b) Russia and Japan (c) China and Japan (d) China and Philippines

68. Which of the following is not a member of ‗Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)‘? (a) Iran (b) Saudi Arabia (c) Oman (d) Kuwait

69. Strait of Gibraltar connects (a) Atlantic Ocean to Mediterranean Sea (b) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea (c) Red Sea and Gulf of Aden (d) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea

70. The area known as ‗Rakhine‘ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to (a) Vietnam (b) Nepal (c) Bhutan (d) Myanmar

71. ‗World Happiness Report‘ is prepared by the (a) United Nations Sustainable

Development Solutions Network (b) Global Happiness Organization (c) Amnesty International (d) Government of Bhutan

72. With reference to the ‗Wassenaar Arrangement‘, consider the following statements: 4. It was established to promote

transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies.

5. It also aims to prevent the acquisition of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies by terrorists.

6. The headquarters of the Arrangement is located in Wassenaar, Netherlands.


73. With reference to ‗The Australia Group‘; consider the following statements: 1. It aims to allow exporting or

transshipping countries to minimise the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapon (CBW) proliferation.

2. Participants in the Australia Group do not undertake any legally binding obligations.

3. All states participating in the Australia Group are parties to the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) and the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC).

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

74. The ‗Pelindaba Treaty‘ treaty was in the news recently. What is this treaty? (a) It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms

reduction treaty between the USA and the Russian Federation

(b) It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the East Asia Summit


(c) It is a treaty that establishes a Nuclear-Weapon-Free Zone in Africa

(d) It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countries for the promotion of trade

75. The city known as ‗Haifa‘ which was recently in news is located in (a) Syria (b) Israel (c) Yemen (d) India

76. With reference to ‗The Hague Code of Conduct‘, consider the following statements: 3. It is an international pact aimed at

preventing the spread of nuclear weapons.

4. India has recently joined the Hague

Code of Conduct. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

77. ‗Organization of American States‘, often in the news, is (a) Intergovernmental military alliance

between North American and South American nations

(b) Regional intergovernmental organisation of nations in South America

(c) Regional intergovernmental organisation of nations in North America

(d) Intergovernmental organisation of American Republics

78. Amir Amanullah Khan Award, Afghanistan‘s highest civilian honour was recently given to (a) Angela Merkel (b) Raheel Sharif (c) Nawaz Sharif (d) Narendra Modi

79. India is a member of which among the following? 1. Mekong-Ganga Cooperation 2. Commonwealth of Independent States 3. International Atomic Energy Agency Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) India is a member of none of them

80. With reference to ‗Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)‘, consider the following statements:

1. The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) works on the basis of consensus.

2. NSG was created following the explosion in 1974 of a nuclear device by India.


81. With reference to ‗Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)‘; consider the following statements: 1. It is a specialised agency of the United

Nations. 2. The MTCR imposes legally binding

obligations on Partners (members). 3. It seek to limit the proliferation of

missiles and missile technology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

82. The area known as ‗Scarborough Shoal‘ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to (a) South China Sea (b) East China Sea (c) Indian Ocean (d) Sea of Japan

83. Consider the following countries: 1. India 2. Japan 3. Russian Federation 4. United States of America 5. United Kingdom Which of the above are the members of the ‗Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)‘? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 3 and 5

84. Consider the following countries: 1. France 2. Japan 3. Israel 4. India 5. United States of America

Which among the above are permanent participants in the Malabar Naval exercise? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

85. Consider the following pairs: Places sometimes Country mentioned in the news 1. Kigali : Botswana 2. Aleppo : Syria 3. Vientiane : Laos


Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

86. With reference to ‗Balochistan‘ region, consider the following statements: 1. Balochistan was previously part of the

former princely state of Jammu and Kashmir.

2. Gwadar port is located in Balochistan. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

87. ‗BBIN Motor Vehicle Agreement‘ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the

context of the events related to (a) South Asia (b) West Asia (c) Central Asia (d) Southeast Asia

88. With reference to ‗Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA)‘; consider the following statements: 1. LEMOA gives both Indian and United

States of America access to designated military facilities on either side for the purpose of refueling and replenishment.

2. LEMOA does not entail basing of any U.S. troops or assets on Indian soil.


89. Consider the following statements: The Asia-Europe Meeting (ASEM) 3. It was established as a dialogue forum

in 1996 to foster dialogue and cooperation between Asia and Europe.

4. Its partners include 2 regional organisations- ASEAN Secretariat and European Commission.


is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

90. Consider the following statements about ‗Non-Alignment Movement‘ (NAM): 1. Indian delegation at the 17th Summit

of the Non Aligned Movement held in 2016 was led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

2. 17th Summit of the Non Aligned Movement (NAM) was held at Margarita Island in Venezuela.

3. India is one of the founding members of the Non Aligned Movement.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only

91. With reference to ‗Raisina Dialogue‘; consider the following statements: 1. Raisina Dialogue is India‘s flagship

geo-political conference. 2. The conference is held jointly by

Ministry of External Affairs and the Observer Research Foundation (ORF).


is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

92. Which of the following is not a member of ‗Islamic Military Alliance to Fight Terrorism‘ (IMAFT)? (a) Iran (b) Saudi Arabia (c) United Arab Emirates (d) Pakistan

93. With reference to ‗Group of Twenty‘ (G20); consider the following statements: 1. Its membership comprises 19

countries plus the European Union. 2. India is a member of G20. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

94. In the Trilateral Chabahar Agreement, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants? 1. Bangladesh 2. India 3. Turkmenistan 4. Iran 5. Afghanistan

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 5

95. In the South Asia Subregional Economic Cooperation (SASEC), an initiative of seven countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants? 1. Pakistan 2. Nepal 3. Myanmar 4. Bangladesh 5. Sri Lanka


Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 5

96. With reference to the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), consider the following statements: 1. It endeavours to safeguard and protect

the interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony among various people of the world.

2. India is a member of OIC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

97. Consider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation. 1. It was preceded by the Shanghai Five

mechanism. 2. The SCO Secretariat, the main

permanent executive body of the SCO is based in Shanghai.


98. With reference to ‗Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation‘ (BIMSTEC); consider the following statements: 1. It constitutes Member States from

South Asia only. 2. BIMSTEC is a sector-driven

cooperative organization. 3. BIMSTEC Summit is the highest policy

making body in the BIMSTEC process. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

99. Which of the following is not a member of ‗South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation‘ (SAARC)? (a) Bangladesh (b) Maldives (c) Myanmar (d) Afghanistan

100. With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements: 1. All BRICS countries are also members

of G20. 2. India was the last to join the BRICS

grouping. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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