olive greens institute · 2016-04-15 · 1 olive greens institute {final test paper nda-1 apr 2016}...

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1 OLIVE GREENS INSTITUTE {FINAL TEST PAPER NDA-1 APR 2016} Questions 1 to 50 - English Questions 51 to 100 - Science Questions 101 to 150 - Gen Studies English DIRECTIONS for Questions (1 to 25) : In each of the following questions, find out grammatical or idiomatic mistake. If there is no mistake, the answer is:- 1. It is time (a)/ we decide not to play cricket, (b)I for the next two years. (c)/ No error (d). 2. He likes (a)/ the sceneries (b)/ of the hills (c)/ No error (d). 3. I did not know (a)/ that you have left your handbag in our office (b)/ when you came to see me last Friday. (c)/ No error (d) 4. He wanted me (a)/ to bring two breads and some butter (b)/ for breakfast (c)/ No error (d) 5. The parents are happy to know (a)/ that a number of summer programmes have been arranged (b)/ for the benefit of their children (c)/ No error (d) 6. We are meeting today afternoon (a)/ to discuss the matter (b)/ and reach a compromise. (c)/ No error (d) 7. Either Ram or (a)/ you is responsible (b)/ for this action. (c)/ No error (d) 8. The student flatly denied (a)/ that he had copied (b)/ in the examination hall. (c)/ No error (d) 9. By the time you arrive tomorrow (a)/ I have finished (b)/ my work. (c)/ No error (d) 10. The speaker stressed repeatedly on (a)/ the importance of improving (b)/ the condition of the slums. (c)/ No error (d) 11. The captain with the members of his team (a)/ are returning (b)/ after a fortnight. (c)/ No error (d) 12. After returning from.(a)/ an all-India tour (b)/ I had to describe about it. (c)/ No error (d) 13. The teacher asked his students (a)/ if they had gone through (b)/ either of three chapters included in the prescribed text. (c)/ No error (d) 14. Although they are living in the country (a)/ since they were married (b)/ they are now moving to the town. (c)/ No error (d) 15. Do you know (a)/ how old were you (b)/ when you came here? (c)/ No error (d) 16. Let us congratulate him (a)/ for his success (b)/ in the examination. (c)/ No error (d) 17. Many people prefer to travel (a)/ by the road (h)/ because it is less eypensiv. (c)/ No error (d) 18. She was beside herself in joy (a)/ when she came to know (b) I that she had been selected for the job. (c)/ No error (d)

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Page 1: OLIVE GREENS INSTITUTE · 2016-04-15 · 1 OLIVE GREENS INSTITUTE {FINAL TEST PAPER NDA-1 APR 2016} Questions 1 to 50 - English Questions 51 to 100 - Science Questions 101 to 150

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OLIVE GREENS INSTITUTE

{FINAL TEST PAPER NDA-1 APR 2016} Questions 1 to 50 - English

Questions 51 to 100 - Science

Questions 101 to 150 - Gen Studies

English DIRECTIONS for Questions (1 to 25) : In each of the following questions, find out grammatical or idiomatic mistake. If there is no mistake, the answer is:- 1. It is time (a)/ we decide not to play cricket, (b)I for the next two years. (c)/ No error (d).

2. He likes (a)/ the sceneries (b)/ of the hills (c)/ No error (d).

3. I did not know (a)/ that you have left your handbag in our office (b)/ when you came to see me last

Friday. (c)/ No error (d)

4. He wanted me (a)/ to bring two breads and some butter (b)/ for breakfast (c)/ No error (d)

5. The parents are happy to know (a)/ that a number of summer programmes have been arranged (b)/

for the benefit of their children (c)/ No error (d)

6. We are meeting today afternoon (a)/ to discuss the matter (b)/ and reach a compromise. (c)/ No

error (d)

7. Either Ram or (a)/ you is responsible (b)/ for this action. (c)/ No error (d)

8. The student flatly denied (a)/ that he had copied (b)/ in the examination hall. (c)/ No error (d)

9. By the time you arrive tomorrow (a)/ I have finished (b)/ my work. (c)/ No error (d)

10. The speaker stressed repeatedly on (a)/ the importance of improving (b)/ the condition of the slums.

(c)/ No error (d)

11. The captain with the members of his team (a)/ are returning (b)/ after a fortnight. (c)/ No error (d)

12. After returning from.(a)/ an all-India tour (b)/ I had to describe about it. (c)/ No error (d)

13. The teacher asked his students (a)/ if they had gone through (b)/ either of three chapters included in

the prescribed text. (c)/ No error (d)

14. Although they are living in the country (a)/ since they were married (b)/ they are now moving to the

town. (c)/ No error (d)

15. Do you know (a)/ how old were you (b)/ when you came here? (c)/ No error (d)

16. Let us congratulate him (a)/ for his success (b)/ in the examination. (c)/ No error (d)

17. Many people prefer to travel (a)/ by the road (h)/ because it is less eypensiv. (c)/ No error (d)

18. She was beside herself in joy (a)/ when she came to know (b) I that she had been selected for the

job. (c)/ No error (d)

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19. Mother tongue is as natural (a)/ for the development of man's mind (b)/as mother's milk is for the

development of the (c)/ infant's body (c)/ No error (d)

20. The Prime Minister as well as his secretary were (a)/ expected to arrive in Chennai b)/ on Saturday

morning (c)/ No error d

21. The speaker was (a)/ not only slow (b)/ but also inaudible as well. (c)/ No error (d)

22. The crowd surged forward (a)/ to have a glimpse (b)/ of their favourite leader. (c)/ No error (d)

23. There is a distinctive possibility (a)/ that he will leave the job (b) I once the investigation is over. (c)/

No error (d)

24. Many a star (a)/ are twinkling (b)/ in the sky (c)/ No error (d)

25. We discussed the problem (a)/ so thoroughly that (b)/ I found it easy to work it out. (c)/ No error (d)

PASSAGE 1:

Mountaineering is now looked upon as the king of sports. But men have lived amongst the mountains since prehistoric times and in some parts of the world, means the Andes and Himalayas, difficult mountain' journeys have inevitably been part of their everyday life. However, some of the peaks were easily accessible from most of the cities of Europe. ft is quite interesting that while modern mountaineers prefer difficult routes for the greater enjoyment of sport, the early climbers looked for the easiest ones, for the summit was the prize they all set their eyes on. Popular interest in mountaineering increased considerably after the ascent of the Alpine peak of Matterhorn in 1865 and Edward Whymper's dramatic account of the climb and fatal accident which occurred during the descent.

In the risky sport of mountaineering the element of competition between either individuals or teams is totally absent. Rather one can say that the competition is between the team and the peaks themselves. The individuals making up a party must climb together as a team, for they depend upon one another for their safety. Mountaineering can be dangerous unless reasonable precautions are taken. However, the majority of fatal accidents happen to parties which are inexperienced or not properly equipped. Since many accidents are caused by bad weather, the safe climber is the man who knows when it is time to turn back, how so ever tempting it may be to press on and try to reach the summit.

26. Mountaineering is different from other sports because :- (a) it is risky and dangerous (b) it can be fatal (c) it is most thrilling and exciting, between individuals (d) None of the above 27. People living in the Andes and mountain journeys because :- (a) it was a kind of sport (b) they had to undertake them in (c) they lived in pre-historic time (d) of the challenge offered by the 28. Mountaineers climb as a team because : (a) the height is too much for one individual (b) the competition is between the team and the peak (c) they have to rely on each other for safety (d) there is no competition among them 29. “…….. the summit was the prize they all set their eyes on”. In the context of the passage, this means: (a) reaching the top was their exclusive concern (b) they kept their eyes steadily on reaching the summit (c) they cared for nothing but the prize of reaching the summit (d) they chose a route from which they could see the summit clearly 30. "to press" in the last sentence of the passage means : (a) to struggle in a forceful manner (b) to force upon others (c) to work fearlessly (d) to continue in a determined manner

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PASSAGE-2 On the morning of August 31, 1573, 3000 horsemen of the Imperial Mughal army paused at the banks of the Sabarmati. The rebels, they were after, lay just beyond the swollen river but the soldiers were exhausted, they had traversed 960 kilometers of difficult terrain in nine days, riding almost continuously. Suddenly a warrior on a chestnut charger plunged into the raging torrent. As man and horse struggled on to the opposite bank, a thrill ran through the army. It was the emperor, Jalaluddin Akbar! With a roar, the soldiers followed him across and within two days, they had put down the rebellion so thoroughly that Gujarat remained in 3 Mughal hands for the next 185 years.

31. The rebels were camped :

(a) across the Sabarmati river (b) on the banks of Sabarmati river (c) in Gujarat (d) in imperial Mughal courts

32. The expression "swollen river" means : (a) a river in flood (b) a calm and serene river (c) a deep river (d) a shallow river

33. The Mughal soldiers didn't cross the river because : (a) they were cowards (b) they had joined hands with the rebels (c) they were waiting for the king to arrive (d)-they were tired after a difficult journey

34. The sudden arrival of king Akbar : (a) surprised the soldiers (b) angered the soldiers (c) dismayed the soldiers (d) enthused the soldiers

35. The attack on the rebels turned out to be : (a) a dismal failure (b) a grand success (c) of no particular significance (d) an ordinary affair

DIRECTIONS

Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the synonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

36. A wise man puts past RANCOUR behind and moves ahead. (a) Dislike (b) Hatred (c) Division (d) Criticism 37. Many of the villagers were ISOLATED by heavy showers of rains. (a) Destroyed (b) Separated from others (c) Battered (d) Devasted 38. A series of COLUMNS supporting a large porch is typical of medieval architecture. (a) Statues (b) Arches (c) Pillars (d) Murals. 39. Threes that BLOCK the view of oncoming traffic should be cut down. (a) Alter (b) Obstruct (c) Improve (d) Spoil 40. The landscape changed ABRUPTLY after the snowfall. (a) Suddenly (b) Sharply (c) Favourably (d) Slightly DIRECTIONS Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the antonym of the word occurring in the sentence in capital letters as per the context. 41. His CANDID remarks impressed the authorities. (a) Blunt (b) Guarded (c) Sincere (d) Unconventional. 42. The guilty appealed to the jury to CONDONE his punishment. (a) Accept (b) Forgive (c) Condemn (d) Criticise. 43. His family SEVERED ties with him for marrying inter- caste. (a) Joined (b) Included (c) Detached (d) Disrupted. 44. It is easy to understand his FUZZY thoughts. (a)Misty(b) Vague (c) Clear (d) Useful 45. He drove his car through SLIMY road to reach your office. (a) Ugly (b) Clean (c) Beautiful (d) Slippery

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DIRECTIONS In the following items some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your answer sheet accordingly. Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you. Z - some people believe that the effect is very bad on children of cinema

P Q R S The correct sequence should be : (a) PSRQ (b) SPQR (c) SRPQ (d) QSRP 46. she and neither have I the assignment yet hasn’t finished

P Q R S The correct sequence should be : (a) QRSP (b) QPSR (c) PQSR (d) PSRQ

47. himself a child can usually feed By the age of six months P Q R S

The correct sequence should be : (a) QPRS (b) SRQP (c) PQRS (d) QRPS

48. Every experience in the life makes on some of the cells P

or other nerve centres of the brain an impression Q R S The correct sequence should be : (a) SPRQ (b) QRSP (c) RSPQ (d) PSQR

49. You’ll know how to do it have to because she does not help her P Q R S

The correct sequence should be : (a) QSPR (b) SRPQ (c) QPRS (d) QSRP

50. would you like to come on Saturday at the International House to a concert P Q R S

The correct sequence should be : (a) PQRS (b) PSQR (c) RSPQ (d) PQSR

Science 51. The total number of electrons present in 18ml of water is [density of water is 1g/ml]

(a) 6.02 x 1020 (b) 6.02 x 1023 (c) 6.02 x 1024 (d) 6.02 x 1026

52. Consider the following statements.

1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers. 2. Quick lime is used in the manufacture of glass. 3. Gypsum is used in the manufacture of glass.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 only (d) 1,2 and 3 53. When metallic copper comes in contact with moisture, a green powdery/pasty coating can be seen over it.This is chemically known as (a) copper carbonate – copper sulphate (b) copper sulphate – copper sulphide (c) copper carbonate – copper hydroxide (d) copper sulphide – copper carbonate

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54. Gold dissolves in aqua regia to produce (a) AuCl4 (b) HAuCl4 (c) HACl3 (d) [Au (CN)2]

55. Phosphorus is kept in

(a) cold water (b) kerosene oil (c) Alcohol (d) ammonia

56. During evaporation of liquid, the temperature of liquid

(a) rises (b) falls (c) Remain unaffected (d) none of these

57. A solution has [OH-] = 4.8 X 10-3. Its pH is

(a) 11.7 (b) 8.4 (c) 4.8 (d) 3.7

58. An air bubble in a glass slab (µ = 1.5) is 6 cm deep as viewed from one face and 4 cm deep as viewed

from other face. The thickness of the glass slab is –

(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 6.67 cm (d) 11.67 cm

59. Which is correct for an exothermic process?

(a) HR

= HP

(b) HR

> HP

(c) HR

< HP

(d) None of these

60. The low volatility of water is due to

(a) Its bend structure

(b) Small size of hydrogen

(c) Six electrons present in the valence shell of oxygen

(d) Hydrogen bonding

61. Which of the following is used in the preparation of Portland’s cement?

(a) Limestone, clay and sand (b) limestone, gypsum and sand

(c) limestone, gypsum and alumina (d) limestone ,clay and gypsum

62. When excess CO2 IS passed through the lime water, the limited cloudiness formed disappears. This is

due to :-

(a) Conversion of insoluble Caco3

to soluble Calcium

(b) Conversion of insoluble CaCo3

to soluble Ca (HCO3

)2

(c) Formation of H2

Co3

(d) Formation of Soluble Ca (OH)2

63. Anopheles and culex mosquitoes can be distinguished with the help of (a) Antenna (b) Mouth part (c) Sitting posture (d) Feeding habits

64. Consider the following minerals :-

1. Calcium 2. Iron 3. Sodium Which of the mineral given above is /are required by human body contraction of muscles? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and three only (d) 1,2and 3

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65. In an accident, a person’s brain was injured due to which he could not regulate body temperature, hunger and water balance. Which one among the following parts of his brain affected?

(a) Cerebellum (b) Medulla Oblongata (c) Hypothamus (d) Corpus Callosum

66. Which of the following is true about bacteria

(a) All the bacteria are autotrophs (b) All bacteria are heterotrophs (c) Most of them are heterotrophs but some are autotrophs (d) All bacteria are photosynthetic

67. A biological process in which sugar is oxidised to release energy

(a) Transpiration (b) Respiration (c) Photosynthesis (d) Fermentation

68. ATP is

(a) An enzyme (b) A protein (c) A hormone (d) A molecule with high energy phosphate bond

69. Most of the plants obtain nitrogen from the soil in the form of (a) Free nitrogen gas (b) Nitric acid (c) A hormone (d) Nitrates 70. The speed of wave in a certain medium is 960 m/s .If 3600 waves pass over a certain point of the medium in 1 min the wavelength is (a) 2m (b) 4m (c) 8m (d) 16m 71. The intensity level of a sound wave is 10-5 Wm-2 .What will be its value in decibel (given IO =10-12 Wm-2) (a) 50 dB (b) 60 dB (c) 40 DB (d) 70 dB 72. Which of the following is not representing periodic motion?

(i) A swimmer completing one (return) trip from one bank of a river to the other and back. (ii) A freely suspended bar magnet displaced from its N-S direction and released. (iii) Halle’s Comet (iv) A hydrogen molecule rotating about its centre of mass.

73. Which Thermos flask will lose heat more rapidly? (a) A bottle with square area of cross section. (b) A bottle with circular area of cross section. (c) A bottle with triangular area of cross section. (d) All will lose heat equally 74. Boiling is defined as the process in which vapour pressure of a liquid become equal to atmospheric pressure. So boiling is an (a) Isothermal process (b) Adiabatic process (c) Isochoric process (d) Isobaric process

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75. Pendulum rods are made up of Invar because (a) It has an alloy nickel and steel and do not undergo corrosion. (b) It has high tensile strength. (c) It is light in weight. (d) It has negligible co-efficient of linear expansion. 76. Which if the following factors does not effect surface tension (a) Nature of the liquid. (b) Temperature of the liquid. (c) Atmospheric pressure (d) Presence of impurities 77. If a satellite orbits as close to the earth’s surface. Which of the following is not true?

(a) Its speed is maximum. (b) Time period of rotation is minimum.

(c) The total energy of the ‘earth plus satellite’ system is minimum. (d) The total energy of the ‘earth plus satellite’ system is maximum.

78. A particle revolves round a circular path with a constant speed. The acceleration of the particle is (a) Along the circumference of the circle (b) along the tangent (c) along the radius (d) zero 79. When the K.E. of a body is increased by 300% the momentum of the body is increased by: (a) 20% (b) 50% (c) 100% (d) 200% 80. Photocells are used for the:

(a) Reproduction of the pictures from the cinema film. (b) Reproduction of sound from the cinema film. (c) Automatic switching of the street light. (d) None of the above

81. Biotechnology is

(a) Technology used in biology (b) Use of genetic engineering (c) Development of technology for medicine application (d) Use of microorganism in industrial process

82 . The genetically engineered ‘golden rice’ is rich in which of the following (a) Vitamin A and Nicotinic acid. (b) Carotene, vitamin a and folic acid (c) Carotene and iron (d) Vitamin a and niacin 83. Water pollution of river is measured by- (a) Amount of chlorine dissolved in water. (b) Amount of calcium dissolved in water. (c) Amount of nitrogen dissolved in water. (d) Amount of oxygen dissolved in water.

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84. Which of the following statement about vitamins are correct? (1) Vitamin C is essential to make connective tissue in body. (2) Vitamin D is needed for synthesis of eye pigment. (3) Vitamin B12 helps in maturation of RBCS (4) Vitamin C is required to make use of calcium absorbed from the intestine. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

85. Pressure is defined as (a) Momentum per unit area per unit time (b) Momentum per unit area (c) Momentum per unit volume (d) Energy per unit volume 86. A man in a train moving with constant velocity drops a ball on the Platform. The path of the ball as seen by the observer standing on the Platform is: (a) Straight line (c) A Parabola (b) Circle (d) Elliptical 87. A cup of tea cools from 900C to 800C in exactly one minute. It will cool from 700 C to 600 C in (a) Less than one minute (c) Nearly one minute (b) Exactly one minute (d) more than one minute 88. The gravitational force with which the earth attracts the sun (1) Is less than the force with which sun attracts the earth (2) Is same as the force with which the sun attracts the earth (3) Is more than the force with which sun attracts the earth (4) Varies with distances between them Which of the above statement is/are correct? (A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 4 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 3 and 4 89. Weight of a person can be zero when (i) He is falling freely (ii) He is orbiting in a satellite (iii) He is in an aeroplane flying at a high altitude (iv) He is having ride in a gas filled balloon

(A) (i) & (iii) are correct (C) (i) , (ii) & (iv) correct (B) (i) & (iv) are correct (D) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) are correct

90. The ratio of inertial mass to gravitational mass is equal to (a) ½ (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) None of these 91. The Correct order of electron affinity among the following is: (a) F>CI>Br (b) Br>CI>F (c) CI>F>Br (d) F>Br>CI

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92. In cold countries, ethylene glycol is added to warm car radiator during winters. It result in (a) Lowering in Boiling Point (c) Reducing specific heat (b) Reducing viscosity (d) lowering the Freezing Point 93. These are different types of commercial cells/batteries. Consider the Following cells/Batteries paired with their uses, which one is not correctly matched : - (A) Mercury Cell – Calculators (B) Lead Storage batteries – Inverters (C) Dry Cell – Transistors (D) Nickel - Cadmium battery – Watches 94. Fly ash mainly consist of – (a) Limestone (b) Calcium Silicate (c) Magnesium Carbonate (d) Alumina 95. Which catalyst is used for manufacturing of vanaspati ghee by Hydrogenation of vegetable oils? (a) Nickel (b) Copper (c) Zinc (d) Hydrogen 96. Arrange the acid in decreasing order of acidity. (i) H2 SO3 (ii) H3 PO3 (iii) HCIO3

(a) I >III> II (b) I > II > III (c) III > I > II (d) II > III > I 97. One atom of an element weighs 1.8 X 10-22 g. Its atomic mass (a) 18 (b) 29.4 (c) 108.36 (d) 154 98. Which one among the following transitions is associated with the largest Change in energy in hydrogen atom? (a) n = 5 to n = 3 (b) n = 2 to n = 1 (c) n = 3 to n = 2 (d) n = 4 to n = 2 99. Match the following using code given below: - List I (Compound) List II (Use) A. Cellulose nitrate 1. Soft Soap B. Potassium Sulphate 2. Gun Powder C. Potassium salt of fatty acid 3. Fertilizer D. Calcium Oxide 4. Glass A B C D (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 4 1 3 2 100. A light and a heavy body have equal momentum. Which are has greater K.E.? (a) The light body (c) Both has equal K.E (b) The heavy body (d) Data given is insufficient

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Gen Studies 101. Consider the following statements :

1. Different plant species grow together.

2. Light cannot penetrate into the lower strata full of undergrowth.

Which of the following types of vegetation is characterized by the above?

(a) Equatorial moist evergreen

(b) Tropical deciduous

(c) Mediterranean

(d) Warm temperate broad leaved deciduous

102. From which one of the following is the percentage of reflected amount of radiation highest?

(a) wet ground (b) thick cloud

(c) forest (d) snow cover

103. Which of the following statement / s is / are correct with regards to National Mission for Clean Ganga

(NMCG)?

1. The area of operation of NMCG shall be Ganga River Basin including the states through which Ganga

flows as well as National Capital territory of Delhi.

2. The area of operation of NMCG may be extended to any extent as the National Ganga River Basin

Authority (NGRBA) may decide in states through which tributaries of Ganga flow.

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above

104. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List I (Fishing Bank) List II (Coast)

A. Dogger Bank 1. Newfoundland

B. Grand Bank 2. Australia

C. Great Barrier Reef 3. North Sea

D. Tonga Trench 4. East of Fiji Island

Code:-

A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 4 2 1 3

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 4 1 2 3

105. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List I (Himalayan Peak) List II (State)

A. K2 1. Uttarakhand

B. Nanda Devi 2. Jammu and Kashmir

C. Tara Pahar 3. Sikkim

D. Kanchenjunga 4. Himachal Pradesh

Code :-

A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3

(b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 3 1 4 2

(d) 3 4 1 2

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106. Shimsha, Hemavati and Arkavati are the tributaries of which of the following rivers?

(a) Tapti (b) Tungabhadra (c) Kaveri (d) Krishna

107. Full time organizational Framework of the NITI Aayog consists of which of the following?

1. Vice-Chairperson

2. Chief Ministers of States and UTs’ with legislatures and Lieutenant Governors of other UTs

3. Chief Executive Officer

4. Experts with relevant domain knowledge nominated by the PM.

(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

108. Who among the following was the author of Tarikh-i-Alai, which contains the details of the first few years of

Sultan Alauddin Khilji?

(a) Ziauddin Barani (b) Shams Siraj Afif

(c) Amir Khusrau (d) Yahiya Bin Ahmed

109. Who among the following was a contemporary of Gautam Buddha?

(a) Nagarjuna (b) Kanishka (c) Kautilya (d) Mahavir

110. Sati was declared illegal and punishable by the Regualtion XVII during Governor-Generalship of

(a) Lord William Bentick (b) Lord Canning

(c) Lord Ripon (d) Lord Dalhousie

111. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List I(Battle) List II (Year)

A. 1st Battle of Panipat 1. 1565

B. Battle of Plassey 2. 1526

C. Battle of Haldighati 3. 1757

D. Battle of Talikota 4. 1576

Code:-

A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 2 4 3 1

(c) 1 4 3 2

(d) 1 3 4 2

112. On which of the following grounds can a Judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court be impeached?

1. Violation of the Constitution

2. Proved misbehaviour

3. Incapacity

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only

113. Which of the following are objectives of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)

1. Har Khet ko pani

2. Per Drop More Crop

3. Increase agricultural production and productivity

4. Achieve convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level

(a) Only 1 and 4 (b) Only 1, 3 and 4

(c) Only 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above

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114. If any question arises whether a bill is a Money Bill or not, whose decision shall be final?

(a) The Supreme Court of India.

(b) The President of India.

(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

(d) Joint Parliamentary Committee.

Directions:-

The following consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine these two statements

carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Code:-

(a) Both the statements are individually true and statements II is the correct explanation of statement I.

(b) Both the statements are individually true and statements II is not the correct explanation of statement I.

(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false.

(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true.

115. Statement I : Mahatma Gandhi launched the Rowlatt Satyagraha as an all-India mass protest.

Statement II : Rowlatt Act was passed by the British Government in 1919 to authorize the government to

imprison any person without trial.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

116. Statement I : A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy indicates the success of the democratic

project: it transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen.

Statement II : The fact that people are complaining is itself an affirmation of the success of democracy : it

shows that people have developed awareness and the ability to look critically at the

government.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

117. Statement I : Doldrums is a calm belt between 5o N and 5o S of the equator.

Statement II : The sun rays strike almost vertically over the equator throughout the year.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

118. Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I List II

(Name of the Shipyard) (Location)

A. Hindustan Shipyard Limited 1. Kolkata

B. Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited 2. Vasco-da-Gama

C. Goa Shipyard Limited 3. Mumbai

D. Mazagon Dock, Limited 4. Visakhapatnam

Code:-

A B C D

(a) 4 2 1 3

(b) 3 1 2 4

(c) 4 1 2 3

(d) 3 2 1 4

119. Sirocco is a name used to mean

(a) a local wind (b) a volcano

(c) an island (d) an ocean current

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120. Which among the following is/are the impact/impacts of industrial revolution in England?

1. Cottage industry was replaced by the factory system of production using machines.

2. It led to the overpopulation of villages.

3. It led to the emergence of working class movements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :-

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 only

121. Which of the following statements with regard to the Federal System is/are correct?

1. In a federation, two sets of governments co-exist and there is distribution of power.

2. There is a written constitution.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :-

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

122. Identify the correct sequence of the following events of Indian history :

1. Foundation of the Indian Muslim League

2. Surat Split

3. Partition of Bengal

4. ransfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi

Select the correct answer using the code given below :-

(a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4

(b) 2 - 3 - 4 - 1

(c) 3 - 1 - 2 - 4

(d) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1

123. Rain shadow effect is associated with

(a) Cyclonic rainfall (b) Orographic rainfall

(c) Convectional rainfall (d) Frontal rainfall

124. The Supreme Court of India has expanded the meaning of the Right to Life to include the following derivative

rights. Which one among the following is not included in the Court’s definition?

(a) Right to food and adequate livelihood

(b) Right to education

(c) Right to live in a healthy environment

(d) Right to health and information

125. Operation Maitri is

(a) IAF and Indian Army’s recue and relief operation in Nepal

(b) Bilateral maritime exercise with Sri Lanka

(c) Indian Navy’s MOU with Sri Lanka to protect maritime trade

(d) Indian Army’s Security assistance to Bhutan

126. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List I ( Areas) List II ( Ocean Currents)

A. Peru - Chile 1. Kuroshio

B. Japan 2. Humboldt

C. South Africa 3. Benguela

D. Kamachatka 4. Oyashio

Code:-

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A B C D

(a) 2 1 3 4

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 4 1 3 2

(d) 2 3 1 4

127. The Parliament can legislate on the subjects in the State List if the

(a) President issues an order authorising it do so.

(b) Supreme Court gives authority to the Parliament in this regard.

(c) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds of its members present and voting declaring it expedient

to legislate on a State matter in the national interest.

(d) Prime Minister issues a special order.

128. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List I (Port) List II (Special feature)

A. Kandla 1. Deepest land-locked protected port

B. Kochi 2. Located at the mouth of lagoon

C. Vishakhapatnam 3. Tidal port

D. Kolkata 4. Inland riverine port

Code:-

A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 3 2 1 4

(c) 4 1 2 3

(d) 4 2 1 3

129. Consider the following statements about Cripps Proposals of 1942 :

1. Provision was to be made for participation of Indian States in the Constitution-making body.

2. British Government undertook to accept and implement the Constitution

3. All provinces of British India were to give an undertaking about the acceptance of the Constitution.

4. In the ongoing World War, no resources of British India would be used.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

130. Which one among the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1935 is NOT correct?

(a) Provincial Autonomy came into existence.

(b) Bicameral legislature were provided in six provinces.

(c) The principles of communal electorates and weightage were further extended.

(d) The States were compelled to enter the Federation.

131. Which among the following was a newspaper founded and edited by Rammohan Roy?

(a) The Calcutta Gazette (b) Mirat-ul Akhbar

(c) Harijan (d) The Bharat Mihir

132. The Suez Canal, the Strait of Hormuz and the Strait of Gibraltar are important because they

(a) Prevent attacks on bordering nations

(b) Prohibit the movement of ships carrying nuclear weapons

(c) Unite Russian access to warm water points

(d) Control access to vital trade routes

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133. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I (World Heritage Site) List II (State)

A. Brihadiswavara Temple 1. Maharashtra

B. Ellora Caves 2. Karnataka

C. Hampi 3. Tamil Nadu

D. Mahabodhi Temple 4. Bihar

A B C D

(a) 4 1 2 3

(b) 4 2 1 3

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 3 1 2 4

134. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List I (Atomic power station) List II (states)

A. Narora 1. Tamilnadu

B. Rana Pratap Sagar 2. UP

C. Tarapur 3. Rajasthan

D. Kalpakkam 4. Maharashtra

A B C D

(a) 2 4 3 1

(b) 1 3 4 2

(c) 2 3 4 1

(d) 1 4 3 2

135. Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble of the constitution of India is/are correct?

1. The Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.

2. The words 'secular' and 'socialist' have been part of the Preamble since its inception.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:-

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

136. Who among the following has a right to speak and otherwise take part in proceedings of either House of

Parliament and to be a member of any parliamentary committee but is not entitled to vote?

(a) Chairman, Finance Commission

(b) The Attorney General

(c) The Comptroller and Auditor General

(d) The Chief Election Commissioner

137. Which one among the following wars ended by the Treaty of Salbai?

(a) First Maratha War (b) Second Maratha War

(c) Third Maratha War (d) Fourth Mysore War

138. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I (Peasant Movement) List II (Region)

A. Mappila outbreak 1. Maharashtra

B. Ramosi peasant force 2. Bengal

C. Kuka revolt 3. Malabar

D. Pabna revolt 4. Punjab

A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2

(b) 3 4 1 2

(c) 2 4 1 3

(d) 2 1 4 3

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139. The President of India is elected by proportional representative system by a single transferable vote. This

implies that

(a) Elected MPs and MLAs of States have different number of votes.

(b) All MPs and MLAs of States have one vote each.

(c) All MPs and MLAs of States have equal number of votes.

(d) MPs of the Lok Sabha have equal number of votes.

140. Esker is a geomorphic feature developed by

(a) Mechanical weathering (b) River action

(c) Glaciofluvial deposists (d) Aeolian deposits

141. What would be the date and local time of a place located at 88 degrees 30' E longitude when the local time at

0degrees longitude is 19.00 hrs of 28th February 2016?

(a) 23-54 hrs. of 28th February.

(b) 00-54 hrs. of 1st March.

(c) 23-30 hrs. of 28th February.

(d) 00-44 hrs. of 1st March.

142. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I (Book/ Journal) List II (Author / Editor)

A. Bande Mataram 1. Aurobindo Ghosh

B. New India 2. Mahatma Gandhi

C. India Today 3. Bipin Chandra Pal

D. Young India 4. R.P. Dutt

Code:-

A B C D

(a) 1 4 3 2

(b) 1 3 4 2

(c) 2 3 4 1

(d) 2 4 3 1

143. No Indian shall by reason only of his religion, place of birth, descent, colour or any of them be disabled from

holding any office or employment under the company." This was a pledge first given by the

(a) Charter act of 1813.

(b) Charter Act of 1833.

(c) Queen’s Proclamation of 1858.

(d) Indian Civil Service Act of 1861.

144. At which of the following location/locations the Kumbh Mela is held?

1. Nashik 2. Haridwar 3. Devprayag

4. Ujjain 5. Allahabad 6. Kashi

(a) Only 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) Only 1, 2, 4 and 5

(c) Only 1, 2 and 5

(d) Only 1, 2, 3 and 6

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145. Which of the following statement / s is / are correct?

1. An action Plan is drawn up for Swachh Bharat Mission to become reality by 2019, 125th birth

anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.

2. The action plan calls for an Open Defecation Free (ODF) India in 3 years time.

3. Priority is being given to build toilets for boys and girls in all schools of the country and this is

envisaged to be completed in one year.

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2

(c) Only 3 (d) None of the above

146. Which of the following are correctly matched?

1. National Flag -------------------------- 22nd July, 1947

2. State Emblem ------------------------- 26th January, 1950

3) National Anthem ---------------------- 26th January, 1950

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2

(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

147. Which of the following is/are criteria for inclusion of a currency in IMF basket?

1. A country’s exports of goods and services must be among the largest in the world.

2. Currency should be “widely used” and “widely traded”.

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both (d) None

148. Who was sworn in as the 43rd CJI on 3rd December 2015?

(a) Justice AP Shah (b) Justice MB Shah

(c) Justice HL Dattu (d) Justice TS Thakur

149. Zangmu Dam, regarded as the highest in the world is across

(a) Yellow river (b) Yarlung Tsangpo

(c) Mekong river (d) Yangtze River

150. Five places were being developed as "Panchteerth" in honour of Dr. Ambedkar. Which of the

following are they?

1. Mhow 2. Pune 3. London

(a) 2, 3 (b) 1, 2 (c) 1, 3 (d) All of the above