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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12TRƯỜNG THPT AN KHÁNH

TỔ NGOẠI NGỮCỘNG HÒA XÃ HỘI CHỦ NGHĨA VIỆT NAM

Độc lập – Tự do – Hạnh phúc

An Khánh, ngày 10 tháng 02 năm 2020

KẾ HOẠCH VÀ NỘI DUNG Ôn thi THPT quốc gia năm 2020 (Giai đoạn 1)

Giai đoạn 1: 7 tuần x 2 tiết= 14 tiết

Thời gian Tiết Nội dung Ghi chú

23/3 đến 28/3 1-2 Practice test 1( Unit 10)Vocabulary + Grammar Unit 10

More TestsUnit 6 (10 yrs)

30/3 đến 4/4 3-4 Practice test 2( Unit 11) Vocabulary + Grammar Unit 10

More Tests;Unit 7 (10 yrs)

6/4 đến 11/4 5-6 Practice test 3 ( Unit 12)Vocabulary + Grammar Unit 12






27/4 đến 2/5 11-12 Practice test 5 ( Unit 15)Vocabulary + Grammar Unit 15

More Tests

4/5 đến 9/5 13-14 Practice test 6( Unit 16) Vocabulary + Grammar Unit 16 Overal Revision

More Tests

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12PERIOD 1-2

PRACTICE TEST 1 (Unit 10)OBJECTIVES: By the end of the lesson, Ss will be able to master the main grammar points of Unit 10, enhance new vocabulary relating to Unit 10 and improve their reading skill through practice.Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. cut B. number C. hunt D. human2. A. chance B. which C. chemical D. ChinaMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 3. A. sociable B. rhinoceros C. vulnerable D. habitat4. A. biodiversity B. exploitation C. deforestation D. urbanizationMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 5. You’re having a sore throat. You ___________ go to the doctor.

A. ought B. had better C. had to D. may6. I would rather ____________ poor but happy than become rich without happiness.

A. being B. to be C. was D. be7. “What are you doing this weekend?” –“I haven’t decided yet. I __________ go on a picnic with my family”

A. may B. may not C. must D. needn’t8. “Have you seen Jack?” –“No. But he __________ be studying in the library”

A. must B. should C. needn’t D. may9. It isn’t necessary for him to arrive so early.

A. He needn’t arrive so early B. He shouldn’t arrive so earlyC. He mustn’t arrive late D. He needs to arrive early

10. There are a lot of tickets left, so you ___________ pay for the tickets in advance.A. mustn’t B. won’t C. shouldn’t D. don’t have to

11. I _______ find my own way there. You _______ wait for me.A. should / can't B. have to / must C. can / needn't D. might / mustn't

12. _________ to the last Christmas party, she _________, but nobody invited her.A. Had she been invited – would have come B. If she had been invited – would comeC. If che had invited – would come D. Had she invited – would have come

13. But for the hold-up, we ___________ here in time.A. would have been B. could be C. had been D. must have been

14. He is rumoured to __________ on the way home.A. have been attacked B. attacked C. be attacked D. have attacked

15. Today many species of plant and animal are in ___________ of extinction.A. threat B. danger C. need D. plenty

16. A majority of local people have been infected with a dangerous disease because of the ________ water taken from the river.

A. dusty B. polluting C. chemical D. contaminated17. The Red List has been introduced to raise people’s awareness __________ conservation needs.

A. on B. of C. at D. for18. Different ________________ efforts have been made in order to save endangered species.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12A. conserving B. conserved C. conservation D. conservative

19. It is reported that humans are the main reason for most species' declines and habitat _______ and degradation are the leading threats.

A. destroy B. destructive C. destructor D. destruction20. We have to apply effective measures to save many plant and animal species _______ extinction.

A. from B. in C. for D. on21. Chemical wastes from factories are _______ that cause serious damage to species habitats.

A. pollutes B. pollutants C. pollutions D. pollution

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 22. Life on Earth is disappearing fast and will continue to do so unless urgent action is taken.

A. vanishing B. damaging C. polluting D. destroying23. Hunting for meat and burning forests for soil cause destruction to wildlife.

A. organization B. contamination C. protection D. damageMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 24. World Wide Fund for Nature was formed to do the mission of the preservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of natural resources, and the reduction of pollution and wasteful consumption.

A. contamination B. purity C. extinction D. development25. It is found that endangeredspecies are often concentrated in areas that are poor and densely populated, such as much of Asia and Africa.

A. disappeared B. vanished C. threatened D. protected

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 26. The mobile phone is too expensive for me to buy.

A. The mobile phone is so expensive that I can’t buy it.B. The mobile phone is such expensive that I can’t buy it.C. The mobile phone is too expensive that I can’t buy it.D. It is such expensive mobile phone that I can’t buy it.

27. He cannot afford a new computer.A. So, he would buy a new computer.B. Therefore, he would buy a new computer.C. The new computer is so expensive that he cannot buy it.D. The new computer is so expensive but he can buy it.

28. It is said that the company is planning a new advertising campaign.A. The company is said to be planning a new advertising campaign.B. The company is said to plan a new advertising campaign.C. The company is being planned a new advertising campaign.D. The company is said to be planned a new advertising campaign.

29. My car keys are possibly in the kitchen.A. My car keys should be put in the kitchen. B. My car keys cannot be put in the kitchen.C. I do not know whether my car keys are in the kitchen D. My car keys might be put in the kitchen.

30. I have been studying business administration at the National University in Hanoi for 4 years.3

REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12A. I began studying business administration at the National University in Hanoi 4 years ago.B. I have been studying business administration at the National University in Hanoi since 2004.C. I’ve started studying business administration at the National University in Hanoi 4 years ago.D. I will study business administration at the National University in Hanoi in more 4 years.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 31. What was the name of the man? You met and talked to him this morning.

A. What was the name of the man who you met and talked to him this morning?B. What was the name of the man you met and talked to this morning?C. What was the name of the man you met and talked to whom this morning?D. What was the name of the man whose you met and talked to this morning?

32. Sue lives in the house. The house is opposite my house.A. Sue lives in the house which is opposite my house.B. Sue lives in the house who is opposite my house.C. Sue lives in the house where is opposite my house.D. Sue lives in the house and which is opposite my house.

33. The old man is working in this factory. I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.A. The old man is working in this factory which I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.B. The old man whom is working in this factory I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.C. The old man whom I borrowed his bicycle yesterday is working in this factory.D. The old man whose bicycle I borrowed yesterday is working in this factory.

34. Hung didn’t call Lan. It was too late.A. Hung will call Lan, if it is early.B. If it were not late, Hung would call Lan.C. Hung didn’t plan to call Lan, but he changed his mind at the last minute.D. If it hadn’t been so late, Hung would have called Lan.

35. You don’t try to work hard. You will fail in the exam.A. Unless you don’t try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.B. Unless you try to work hard, you won’t fail in the exam.C. Unless you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.D. Unless do you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 36. Species become extinct or endangerment for a number of reasons, but the primary cause is the

A B

destruction of habitat by human activities. C D

37. Although species evolve differently, most of them adapt to a specific habitat or environment that best A B C

meets their survive needs. D

38. Without the particularly habitat, the species could not survive. A B C D

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. 39. Lan: you speak English very fluently, Mai. I really enjoy your public speaking.

Mai: …………………………………………A. Thank you, Lan. It’s nice of you to say so. C. You’re welcome.B. Yes, I speak English very well. D. Yes, of course.

40. Daisy: Hi, Susan! …………………………Susan: Oh, hi. It has been a long while.A. Haven’t seen you in ages! C. How are you?B. How’s your family? D. it was great seeing you. Bye!

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blank.

From our start in 1961, WWF has worked (41) ____ endangered species. We're ensuring that the world our children inherit will be home to elephants, tigers, giant pandas, whales and other wildlife species, as well as people.WWF safeguards hundreds of species around the world, but we focus special attention (42) ____ our flagship species: giant pandas, tigers, polar bears, endangered whales and dolphins, rhinos, elephants, marine turtles and great apes. These species not only need special measures and extra protection (43)______ survive, they also serve as umbrella species: helping them helps numerous other species that live in the same habitats.WWF and its partners have a number of projects around the world to reduce Human-Wildlife Conflict and (44)______ the livelihoods of the people affected.In addition to our flagship animals, we work to protect numerous species in peril around the world that live within our priority excoriations. Large predators like snow leopards and grizzly bears, migratory species like whooping cranes and songbirds, and a host of other species facing threats also benefit from WWF's (45)_____efforts. Our wildlife trade experts at TRAFFIC work to ensure that trade in wildlife products doesn't harm a species, while also fighting against illegal and unsustainable trade.41. A. to protect B. to destroy C. to damage D. to threaten42. A. in B. at C. on D. about 43. A. so that B. in order to C. due to D. because of44. A. improve B. impact C. protect D. save 45. A. conserve B. conservative C. conserved D. conservation

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

By the year 2025, the Earth could lose as many as one fifth of all species known to exist today. In recent centuries, hundreds of species have disappeared, almost always as a result of human activities. The passenger pigeon, one familiar example, was a source of food until excessive hunting and habitat loss caused its extinction in 1914. The North American bison, whose populations were decimated by settlers and market hunters in the 1800s, came close to sharing the same fate. Bison survive today only because of the efforts of early conservationists.

Today, species require such efforts more urgently than ever. An essential task that falls to present-day conservationists is to determine which species are most, endangered, so that conservation resources' can be applied where action is needed most. Species are categorized by the degree to which their survival in the wild is threatened. World Wildlife Fund offers a sampling of animals and plants that fall mainly within the two most serious categories of- threat: critically endangered and endangered. What threatens these species' existence? Some of the top threats are habitat destruction by unsustainable logging and ever-encroaching human settlement; pollution of water, soil, and air by toxic chemicals; unnatural climate changes due to fossil fuel use; unmanaged fishing that exhausts fish stocks; and illegal hunting to supply the demand for skins, hides, traditional medicines,

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http://www.worldwildlife.org/wildplaces/about.cfm

REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12food, and tourist souvenirs. The list which conservationists presents only a fraction of the species at risk of extinction today and does not include thousands of species whose status we do not yet know. Hundreds of species without common names have been left out, which means that while many mammals are on this list, only a few insects and mollusks are included.

Species listed here range from the largest animal on Earth, the blue whale, to the majestic tiger, to the humble thick-shell pond snail. Large or small, beautiful or ugly, all species play a role in the complex circle of life. All of us depend on the natural resources of our planet. Each time a species is lost, the complexity, natural balance, and beauty of our world is diminished. And what threatens plants and animals ultimately threatens people as well.46. According to the first paragraph _______.

A. species extinction is only caused by huntingB. human beings protect wife life much more than they do harm to themC. the main cause of species extinction is human activitiesD. we can stop radically species extinction by 2025

47. The North American bison _______.A. was completely extinct in 1800s B. was not the aim of human huntingC. was raised by settlers in 1800s D. has escaped from extinction thanks to conservationists

48. Species are categorized _______.A. to prevent hunting B. to provide foodC. to destroy their habitats D. to give preferential right to conserve

49. Which sentence is true?A. Medicine is not a factor to cause species extinction.B. The list which conservationists present does not include all kinds of species.C. Pollution does nothing to species extinction.D. Conservationists have good knowledge of all kinds of mollusks.

50. According to the last paragraph, _______.A. species extinction has no relationship to human beingsB. what threaten plants and animals can do nothing to human beingsC. human beings depend on natural resources to surviveD. not every, species has a role in the circle of life.

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PRACTICE TEST 2 (UNIT 11: BOOKS)OBJECTIVES: By the end of the lesson, Ss will be able to master the main grammar points of Unit 11, enhance new vocabulary relating to Unit 11 and improve their reading skill through practice.Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. hour B. exhibition C. helicopter D. vehicle2. A. swallow B. hallow C. below D. allowMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 3. A. survive B. digest C. romance D. journey4. A. wilderness B. fascinate C. character D. understandMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 5. Books in the home are a wonderful______________ of knowledge and pleasure.

A. source B. resource C. list D. sum6. Reviewers describe books ______________ "hard-to-put-down", or "hard-to-pick-up-again".

A. as B. for C. into D. in7. Books are still a cheap______________ to get knowledge and entertainment.

A. means B. way C. method D. measure 8. A short story is a prose writing about______________ events and characters.

A. imagined B. imagination C. imagining D. imaginatively 9. If I find any book ______a subject which I am interested in, I want to “chew and digest it”

A. about B. of C. on D. with10. If you like books with an exciting story especially one about crime and spies, read a_______.

A. novel B. comic C. thriller D. science fiction11. What are the advantages of e-newspapers______________the printed ones?

A. than B. with C. over D. in12. You say ______________anything. Your eyes have told me everything.

A. need B. mustn’t C. must D. needn’t13. Don’t smell that wild follower! It______________cause you an allergy.

A. won’t smell B. might C. should D. ought to14. _________, books continue to be the primary means for the storage of human’s experience.

A. Although other media have been challenged B. When the challenge from other media comes upC. provided that you book in advance D. Despite the challenge from the other media

15. She was overjoyed because her article______________.A. has been published B. has published C. had been publishedD. had published

16. Nowadays a large number of young people spend much time______________.A. with surfing the Internet B. surf the Internet C. surfing the Internet D. to surf the Internet

17. Wash these grapes thoroughly because the preservatives__________on unwashed fruit.A. can be finding B. can find C. can found D. can be found

18. Skiing is a popular American sport, ______________________.A. however it is quite expensive B. despite its quite expensiveC. even though it is quite expensive D. it is quite expensive

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 1219. Take your money with you ____________________.

A. in case you’ll see any good souvenirs to buy B. unless you see any good souvenirs to buyC. in case you see any good souvenirs to buy D. provided that you’ll see any good souvenirs to buy

20. John was sacked last year. He ________________ harder.A. may have worked B. should have worked C. must have worked D. should be working

21. _____________Europe is _____________second smallest continent in _____________world.A. An/ the/ the B. The/ the/ the C. Ø/ the/ the D. Ø/ the/ a

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 22. As a newspaper reporter she always wants to get information at first hand.

A. quickly B. slowly C. easily D. directly23. Don’t believe in what he says because what he says is incredible.

A. unbelievable B. reasonable C. illegal D. uncomfortableMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 24. Her thoughtless comments made him very angry.

A. honest B. kind C. pleasant D. thoughtful25. I can’t understand why she did that. It really doesn’t add up.

A. makes the wrong addition B. doesn’t make sense C. seem reasonable D. is not mathematics

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.26. Her phone card ran out during her conversation with her mother.

A. Although her phone card ran out, she had a conversation with her mother.B. Her phone card ran out because she had a conservation with her mother.C. Her phone card ran out while she was talking to her mother.D. Her phone card ran out after she had talked to her mother.

27. It was mistake of you to lose your passport.A. You needn’t have brought your passport. B. Your passport must be lost.C. You shouldn’t have lost your passport. D. There must be a mistake in your passport.

28. You mustn’t spit and litter in public places.A. Spitting and littering in public places is not recommended.B. You are not allowed to spit and litter in public places.C. No one is allowed spit and litter in public places but you.D. It’s unnecessary that you spit and litter in public places.

29. Workers are not allowed to use the office phone for personal calls.A. They don’t let workers use the office phone.B. The office phone is supposed to be used by workers only.C. They don’t allowed workers to make phone calls personally.D. Workers must not use the office phone for personal purposes.

30. Without his help, we would all have died.A. If it doesn’t be for his help, we would all have died. B. If it hadn’t been for his help, we would all have died.C. we would all have died if it wasn’t for his help. D. Unless it hadn’t been for his help, we would all have died.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 31. You must read the instructions, otherwise you won’t know how to use this machine without reading them.

A. Reading the instructions, so you will know how to use this machine.B. Without reading the instructions, the use of this machine won’t be known.C. Unless you read the instructions, you won’t know how to use this machine.D. You will know how to use this machine unless you read the instructions

32. She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.A. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.B. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.C. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.

33. His speech was boring. Everyone got up and left.A. He got up and left because everyone was talking.B. No one stayed to listen to him because his speech was so boring.C. Every one stood up so that they could hear his speech.

D. His speech was interesting enough for everyone to listen.34. She is the first participant. She takes part in this game.

A. She is the first participant who took part in this game.B. She is the first participant whose takes part in this game.C. She is the first participant taken part in this game.D. She is the first participant to take part in this game.

35. The children were attracted by the show. It was performed by the animals.A. The children attracted by the show which was performed by the animals.B. The children were attracted by the show to have been performed by the animals.C. The show performing y the animals attracted the children.D. The children were attracted by the show performed by the animals.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.36. According t o some reliably reports. The Malaysian missing plane MH370 with 239 people on board A B C

might have crashed into the Indian ocean. D

37. Bella had better to change her study habits if she wants to be admitted to a good college. A B C D

38. I can’t help you with your homework until I will finish mine. A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. 39. Liz is telling Andrew about her first novel. Liz: “Guess what? My first novel has just been published.” Andrew: “______________”

A. It’s my pleasure. B. Congratulations! C. Better luck next time D. It’s very kind of you.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 1240. Mr. and Mrs. Pike are talking about books. Mr. Pike: “What are you reading, honey?” Mrs. Pike: “A book about Albert Einstein. It’s actually very interesting.” Mr. Pike: “________________.”

A. Yes, this book is about his life B. I don’t think you’re good at physics. C. How much is it? D. Albert Einstein? The physicist?Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blank from 41 to 45. Reference books are not designed to be read from the first page to the last but rather to be consulted to answer the questions and provide both general and specific pieces of information. One of the most widely used reference books is a dictionary, which provides information about words. It lists meanings and spellings, tells how a word is pronounced, gives (41) ______ of how it is used, may reveal its origins and also lists synonyms and (42) ______. To help you find the words faster, there are guide words at the top of each page showing the first and last words on that page and of course it helps to know the alphabet! An atlas is also a reference book and (43) ______ charts, tables and geographical facts, as well as maps. Political maps locate countries and cities, physical maps show the formation of the land with its mountains and valleys, and economic maps show industries and agriculture. To find a specific place, you need to look in the (44) ______ at the back of the atlas and the exact position on the map. There are numerous map (45) ______ that you need to know in order to be able to read a map-almost like a special language-and these are explained at the front of the atlas.41. A. evidence B. roof C. examples D. cases42. A. antonyms B. Closest C. opposite D. controversies43. A. composes B. Includes C. Consists D. contains44. A. foreword B. Preface C. complement D. index45. A. marks B. signs C. signals D. symbols

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50.

In the 20th century, magazines have been a major growth area of popular publishing. Specialist magazines cater to every imaginable field and activity. In the United Kingdom, over 12,000 periodicals, magazines, bulletins, annuals, trade journals, and academic journals are published on a regular basis. There are some 40 women‘s magazines and over 60 dealing with particular sports games, hobbies, and pastimes. Although some US magazines, such as The Saturday Evening Post, has succumbed to the circulations, The Reader‘s Digest over 16 million, the National Geographic over 10 million. For many people, magazines have been the most available and widely used form of continuing education, providing information about history, geography, literature, science, and the arts, and as well as guidance on gardening, cooking, home decorating, financial management, psychology, even marriage and family life.

Until the rise of television, magazines were the most available form of cheap, convenient entertainment in the English-speaking world. Radio served a similar function, but it was more limited in what it could do. Magazines and television, however, both address the more powerful visual sense. During the third quarter of the 20th century, coincident with a dramatic rise in the popularity of television, many general interest, especially illustrated magazines went out of business. The shift in attention of a mass audience from reading such magazines to watching television has been a major factor in this decline, but it is an implicit tribute to the older genre that its programs are generally organized in a single format and content.46. The passage mainly discusses _________.

A. the rise and fall of the radio business.B. the growth and decline of magazines in the 20th century.C. magazines and continuing education.D. the decline of international circulation.

47. The phrase “every imaginable field” is closest in meaning to __________.10

REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12A. all imaginable fields in stories and poems B. all images in a camera‘s field of visionC. all professions that one can think of D. all trade journals about farming and psychology.

48. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.A. television B. publishing C. entertainment D. radio

49. According to the passage, which of the following magazines is no longer printed?A. The Saturday Evening post B. The Reader’s Digest C. The Nation D. The National Geographic

50. What does the author say about mass audiences?A. They have little influence on communication in the 20th century.B. They have gone out of business.C. They get information about gardening and psychology from radio.D. They have shifted their attention from magazines to television.

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PRACTICE TEST 3 (UNIT 12: WATER SPORTS)OBJECTIVES: By the end of the lesson, Ss will be able to master the main grammar points of Unit 12, enhance new vocabulary relating to Unit 12 and improve their reading skill through practice.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

1. A. punch B synchronized C. March D. touching

2. A. interfered B. allowed C. visited D. played

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 3. A. personal B. penalty C. defensive D. vertical4. A. overtime B. decision C. period D. penalize

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 5. The final match of the World Cup is one of the most popular sporting in the world.

A. events B. celebrations C. competitions D. tournaments6. The goalie tried to catch _____ ball, but he failed.

A. a B. an C. the D. Ø7. The more' goals the players _____, the more exciting the match became.

A. marked B. made C. scored D. sprinted8. If a defender_____ a foul within the five meter area that prevents a likely goal, the attacking team is awarded a penalty throw or shot.

A. commits B. interferes C. punches D. touches9. _____is a sport in which people or teams race against each other in boats with oars.

A. Rowing B. Windsurfing C. Swimming D. Water polo10. _____ is a sport in which two or more people perform complicated and carefully planned movements in water in time to music.

A. Rowing B. Windsurfing C. Diving D. Synchronized swimming11. I am worried about the contest tomorrow because my _____ has once won the championship.

A. player B. enemy C. partner D. opponent12. In water polo, the _____ wear red caps with the number one in white.

A. goalies B. referees C. coaches D. umpires13. Shots usually succeed when the goalie is out _____ position.

A. into B. of C. for D. off14. If a defender _____ with a free throw, holds or sinks an attacker, he is excluded from the game for twenty seconds.

A. punches B. passes C. plays D. interferes15. __________ completion _______ each activity, you will have to answer the questions on the worksheets within two minutes.

A. At / with B. In / with C. On / of D. With / of16. Minor _____ occur when a player impedes or otherwise prevents the free movement of an opponent including swimming on the opponent's shoulders, back or legs.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12A. penalties B. shots C. fouls D. motions

17. Peter said that if he ________ rich, he ________ a lot.A. is – will travel B. were / would travelC. had been – will travel D. was – will travel

18. He asked the children ___________ too much noise.A. not to make B. not making C. don’t make D. if they don’t make

19. ___________ that few buildings were left standing in the town.A. Such was the strength of the earthquake B. So strong the earthquake wasC. Such the strength of the earthquake was D. So was the strength of the earthquake

20. The referee's _______ is the most important in any sport competition.A. decide B. decisive C. decision D. decider

21. The main task of a defender in a sport game is to _____the opponents from scoring.A. prevent B. preventing C. prevention D. preventable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 22. After a tie, there are two overtime periods of three minutes each.

A. penalty B. draw C. score D. goal23. The goalkeeper can also be ejected for twenty seconds if a major foul is committed.

A. advanced B. sprinted C. played D. excludedMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 24. Whatever the activity level, all types of hobbies can require high levels of expertise.

A. incapable B. incompetence C. expertness D. skillfulness 25. We try to create an atmosphere of comfort and security or our children.

A. danger B. harmony C. shelter D. safetyMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 26. Besides movies and music, it’s sports that most Americans enjoy.

A. Sports are enjoyed by most Americans besides movies and music.B. It was sports that are enjoyed by most Americans besides movies and music.C. Besides movies and music, it’s sports that are enjoyed by most Americans.D. Besides movies and music, sports are that enjoyed by most Americans.

27. If people want to go snorkeling, they need a mask, a snorkel and swimming trunks. A. In order for us to go snorkeling, they need a mask, a snorkel and swimming trunks.B. In order to go snorkeling, people need a mask, a snorkel and swimming trunks.C. So that to go swimming, they need a mask, a snorkel and swimming trunks.D. For them going snorkeling, they need a mask, a snorkel and swimming trunks.

28. I have to book the hotel, and I have to make the travel arrangements.A. I have to book the hotel in addition to make the travel arrangements.B. In addition to booking the hotel, I have to make the travel arrangements.C. Though I book the hotel, I have to make the travel arrangements.D. I have to make the travel arrangements despite booking the hotel.

29. He could escape from hurt because he was wearing protective clothes.A. Thanks to his protective clothes, he could escape from hurt. B. His protective clothes made him hurt.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12C. Due to his protective clothes, he was hurt. D. His being hurt made his unable to wear protective clothes.

30. Because it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel, therefore, it was interesting.B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would stay up all night to finish it.C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 31. The match on Sunday is very popular. It was wise of him to buy the tickets in advance.

A. Since it is a popular match, he should have brought the tickets beforehand.B. Although he bought the tickets in advance, he wasn’t wise to foresee the match popularity.C. Such is the popularity of the match on Sunday that he wisely bought the tickets beforehand.D. The match on Sunday is so popular that he had enough wisdom to buy the tickets in advance.

32. He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work. A. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.

B. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.D. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.

33. We didn’t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.A. Rather than spend a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had a lot of money to spend.D. We didn’t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.

34. It has rained heavily for three days. All rivers and lakes have got flooded.A. All rivers and lakes have got flooded because it rained heavily for three days.B. The three-day heavy rain has flooded all rivers and lakes.C. It rained heavily for three days, which caused all rivers and lakes got flooded.D. All rivers and lakes have got flooded after it rained heavily for three days.

35. He applied for the job abroad. He wanted to develop himself and earn more money.A. So as to earn more money for development, he applied for the job abroad.B. He applied for the job abroad in order to develop himself and earn more money.C. He applied for the job abroad, so he developed himself and earn more money.D. To earn more money was the reason why he applied for the job abroad.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 36. The first world championship of windsurfing held in 1973. Windsurfing first became an Olympic

A B C D

sport in 1984 for men and 1992 for women.37. Skydiving, a difficult and dangerous sport, are becoming very popular with both men and women.

A B C D

38. William Samuel Johnson, who helped write the Constitution, become the first president of A B C D

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12Columbia University in 1787.Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. 39.-John: "Do you feel like going to the stadium this afternoon?" - Mary: “____________”

A. I don't agree. I'm afraid. B. I feel very bored. C. You're welcomed. D. That would be great.40. “What would you like to do at the weekend?” “_________________”

A. I like to do a lot. B. I can’t stand it.C. I’d like to see a football match. D. I don’t like the weekend.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blank. As well as being a necessary life-saving skill, swimming also (41) _______ us with a source of great pleasure and relaxation. Swimming, as well as other water sports like diving, surfing or just floating on your back, are some of the best ways to have fun and keep fit at the same time. Water sports are enjoyable for people of all ages and even babies can learn to swim. For elderly people or those with physical handicaps, swimming provides gentle, yet effective exercise, Swimming for fitness and recreation has been popular (42) _____ the earliest times, for instance in ancient Egypt, Greece and Roma. Swimming competitions developed in the nineteenth century and swimming races were (43) ________ in the first of the modern Olympic Games in 1896. Now water sports are practiced all over the world and most towns have at least one swimming pool. Most water sports - swimming, surfing and water-skiing, etc, take (44) _______ on the surface of the water, but scuba divers explore deep below the waves. There they can find fascinating sea creatures and strange rock formations. Some archaeologists are divers who search the seabed for wrecks of ships sunk hundreds of years ago (45) _____ contain objects that show how people lived in ancient times.41. A. provides B. gives C. offers D. delivers42. A. in B. for C. within D. since43. A. included B. consisted C. presented D. mentioned44. A. part B. place C. time D. up45. A. who B. whom C. which D. whoseRead the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Recreational diving or sport diving is a type of diving that uses scuba equipment for the purpose of leisure and enjoyment. In some diving circles, the term "recreational diving" is used in contradistinction to "technical diving", a more demanding aspect of the sport which requires greater levels of training, experience and equipment.

Recreational scuba diving grew out of related activities such as snorkeling and underwater hunting. For a long time, recreational underwater excursions were limited by the amount of breath that could be held. However, the invention of the aqualung in 1943 by Jacques-Yves Cousteau and its development over subsequent years led to a revolution in recreational diving. However, for much of the 1950s and early1960s, recreational scuba diving was a sport limited to those who were able to afford or make their own kit, and prepared to undergo intensive training to use it. As the sport became more popular, manufacturers became aware of the potential market, and equipment began to appear that was easy to use, affordable and reliable. Continued advances in' SCUBA technology, such as buoyancy compensators, modern diving regulators, wet or dry suits, and dive computers, increased the safety, comfort and convenience of the gear encouraging more people to train and use it.

Until the early 1950s, navies and other organizations performing professional diving were the only providers of diver training, but only for their own personnel and only using their own types of equipment. There were no training courses available to civilians who bought the first scuba equipment. Professional instruction started in 1959 when the non-profit National Association of Underwater Instructors was formed.

Further developments in technology have reduced the cost of training and diving. Scuba-diving has become a popular leisure activity, and many diving locations have some form of dive shop presence that can offer air fills, equipment and training. In tropical and sub-tropical parts of the world, there is a large market in holiday

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12divers, who train and dive while on holiday, but rarely dive close to home. Generally, recreational diving depths are limited to a maximum of between 30 and 40 meters (100 and 130 feet), beyond which a variety of safety issues make it unsafe to dive using recreation diving equipment and practices, and specialized training and equipment for technical diving are needed.46. Recreational diving _______.

A. requires more equipment than technical divingB. are taken up by many people for leisure and entertainmentC. needs no equipmentD. requires more experience than technical diving

47. Recreational underwater excursions used to be limited _______.A. as underwater hunting was bannedB. because the necessary amount of breath was too expensive to affordC. because divers could not take enough amount of breath with themD. because the necessary amount of breath was too heavy to bring

48. According to the second paragraph, in the 1950s and early 1960s, recreational scuba diving was a sport limited because _______.

A. divers did not like to take part in any intensive training coursesB. there were not any intensive training courses for diversC. there were not enough kit for many diversD. kit and intensive training were too expensive for many people to afford

49. These following sentences are true EXCEPT _______.A. In the early 1950s anyone who wanted to dive could be professionally trained.B. In the early 1950s there were no training courses available to civilians who bought the first scuba equipment. C. As recreational diving became more popular, manufacturers have made more and more diving equipment.

D. Advances in scuba technology encourage more and more people to train and use it.50. Holiday divers _______.

A. do not like to dive in tropical and sub-tropical partsB. can dive as deep as they like because of safetyC. are those who go away from home to diveD. are limited in tropical and sub-tropical parts

------------------

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12

PERIOD 7-8

PRACTICE TEST 4 (UNIT 13: THE 22ND SEA GAMES)OBJECTIVES: By the end of the lesson, Ss will be able to master the main grammar points of Unit 13, enhance new vocabulary relating to Unit 13 and improve their reading skill through practice.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. peace B. great C. increase D. team2. A. player B. nervous C. determine D. termMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 3. A. history B. horrible C. important D. hopefully4. A. institution B. recognition C. stimulation D. spectacularMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 5. He drives as __________ his father does.

A. careful as B. more carefully C. the most careful D. carefully as6. Of the four dresses, which is ______ expensive?

A. the best B. the most C. the more D. most7. He spent a year in India and loves spicy food. ___________ the food is, ________ he likes it.

A. The hotter / the more and more B. The hotter / the moreC. The more and more hot/ the more D. The hottest / the most

8. It gets ___________ to understand what the professor has explained.A. the more difficult B. more difficult than C. difficult more and more D. more and more difficult

9. I feel ______________ I did yesterdayA. much more tired than B. many more tired than C. as many tired as D. as more tired as

10. The more waste paper we recycle, __________________.A. the more trees we preserve B. the less trees we preserveC. the most trees we preserve D. the least trees we preserve

11. It is the first time I _______ snow.A. saw B. see C. have seen D. had seen

12.Be careful of that dog. It _______ bite you.A. may B. should C. would D. must

13.Swimming and water skiing are both __________sportsA. freestyle B. aquatic C. field D. blood

14. Everybody was exhausted. It looked as if they ________ hard.A. had been working B. worked C. were working D. have worked

15. I clean my bathroom _________.A.out of the blue. B. feeling blue. C. once in a blue moon. D. blue in the face.

16. ___________ is the activity of doing special exercises regularly in order to make your muscles grow bigger.A. Wrestling B. Bodybuilding C. Weightlifting D. Badminton

17. The athlete had tried his best to ______ his SEA Games title and records.A. carry B. perform C. defend D. support

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 1218. They told me he had __________a gold medal in wushu.

A. won B. scored C. gained D. got19. Singapore and Vietnam had ________who were awarded the Most Outstanding Athlete titles in the Swimming and Shooting events.

A. participates B. participations C. participants D. participated20. The SEA Games ________every two years, with 11 countries in Southeast Asia participating.

A. comes down B. sets up C. takes place D. brings about21. A: “ How about a biscuit?” B: “ ________ . I’m on a diet.”

A. Yes, please B. Yes, thank you C. No, thanks D. It’s OK

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 22. I will communicate with you as soon as I have any news.

A. be related B. be interested in C. get in touch D. have connection23 . The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took place.

A. organized B. impressed C. participated D. defended

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 24. She could not hide her dismay at the result.

A. disappointment B. depression C. happiness D. pessimism25. Certain courses are compulsory; others are optional.

A. voluntary B. free C. pressure D. mandatory

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 26. I have never met anyone who is more intelligent than Mr Ba.

A. Mr Ba is the most intelligent man I have ever met.B. The more I meet Mr Ba, the more intelligent he seems to be.C. Mr Ba is the most intelligent man in the world.D. Nobody in the world is as intelligent as Mr Ba.

27. David was narrowly defeated and blew his own chance of becoming a champion.A. Losing the championship came as a terrible blow to David.B. In spite of the narrow defeat, David won the championship.C. As a result of his narrow defeat, David did not win the championship.D. But for his title as the former champion, David would not have defeated his rivals.

28. He tries to practise English every day so he can speak English more fluently now.A. The more he practises English, the more he can speak English.B. The more he practises English, the more fluently he can speak it.C. The more he tries to practise English, the most fluently he can speak it.D. He tries to practise English every day, but he finds it difficult to speak English

29. The crowd became increasingly angry at the long delay.A. The crowd became very angry because the delay was so long.B. The more increasingly the crowd became, the longer the delay was.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12C. The longer the delay was, the angrier the crowd became.D. The more the crowd became angry at the delay, the longer they feel.

30. I regret that you didn’t give me a chance to tell you the truth.A. I wish you didn’t give me a chance to tell you the truth.B. I wish you gave me a chance to tell you the truth.C. I wish you had given me a chance to tell you the truth.D. I wish you hadn’t given me a chance to tell you the truth.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 31. He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.

A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

32. In spite of having a broken leg, he managed to get out of the car.A. In spite of the fact that his leg was broken, he managed to get out of the car. B. In spite of having broken legs, he managed to get out of the car. C. Despite of the fact that his leg was broken, he managed to get out of the car. D. Although his leg was broken but he managed to get out of the car.

33. Emily didn’t receive a scholarship. She is a good student.A. Despite being a good student, Emily didn’t receive a scholarship.B. Emily didn’t receive a scholarship unless she is a good student.C. Though a good student, but Emily didn’t receive a scholarship.D. She didn’t receive a scholarship as Emily is a good student.

34. Mathew ran away from home. He thought no one loved him.A. Mathew ran away from home when he thought no one loved him.B. Mathew ran away from home because he thought no one loved him.C. Thought that no one loved him, Mathew ran away from home.D. Mathew thought no one loved him and so he ran away from home.

35. The other passengers will get on the bus soon. Then we’ll leave.A. We’ll leave before the other passengers will get on the bus.B. Unless we leave, the other passengers will get on the bus.C. As soon as the other passengers get on the bus, we will leave.D. The other passengers will get on the bus the moment we leave.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 36. The suitcase seemed to get heavy and heavier as I carried it along the road. A B C D

37. The more expensive the hotel is, the best the service is. A B C D

38. I think she's about 20, but in fact she is much elder than she looks. A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. 39. ________ but he also proved himself a good athlete.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12A. A good student not only showed him B. Not only did he show himself a good studentC. He did not show himself only a good student D. Not only he showed himself a good student

40. ____________ the better results you will have.A. The harder you practise, B. The more hardly you practise, C. The hardest you practise, D. The more harder you practise,

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blank. 25th SEA Games Vientiane Laos The next best thing that ever happened in living memory is that Laos has become member of ASEAN. Lao youth now have (41) ________ to freely roam around surround countries which vastly differ from Laos itself in wealth or culture. Hopefully as they travel they bring home plenty of good ideas to develop.As member of ASEAN, Laos was given an opportunity to host SEA Games for the very first time. A week after National Day is 2nd of December, SEA Games will (42) ________ commence. Thanks to all nations which have been helping in making the biggest event to be held in Laos happen.In less than five years rice fields have transformed into world class sport complex ever built in Laos to host the 25th SEA Games. Located approximately 15 kilometres from Vientiane Capital, many (43) ________ of Laotians and visitors will get to enjoy the stadium as ASEAN sport stars grace the arena.There is certainly an edge of excitement in the air; way up in the sky as SEA Games is coming so close. Lao people (44) ________ all athletes, coaches, administrators and other officials with their opened arms and hearts. As a Laos born person, I am so proud and welcome!There will always be challenge anywhere. Lao people will do the best they can. Thanks to those marvellous group of volunteers who will contribute to spectacular Opening & Closing (45) ________. And of course all of those volunteers who will take part in helping visitors and tourists with general knowledge and information about the places they are visiting. They are amazing.41. A. time B. money C. opportunity D. occasion42. A. mainly B. officially C. usually D. surely43. A. generations B. peoples C. citizens D. officers44. A. greet B. meet C. surprise D. welcome45. A. Holidays B. Vocations C. Festivals D. CeremoniesRead the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The Southeast Asian Games owes its origins to the Southeast Asian Peninsular Games or SEAP Games. On 22 May 1958, delegates from the countries in Southeast Asian peninsula attending the 3rd Asian Games in Tokyo, Japan had a meeting and agreed to establish a sport organization. The SEAP Games was conceptualized by Laung Sukhumnaipradit, then Vice-President of the Thailand Olympic Committee. The proposed rationale was that a regional sports event will help promote cooperation, understanding and relations among countries in the Southeast Asian region.

Thailand, Burma (now Myanmar), Malaya (now Malaysia), Laos, South Vietnam and Cambodia (with Singapore included thereafter) were the founding members. These countries agreed to hold the Games biannually. The SEAP Games Federation Committee was formed.The first SEAP Games were held in Bangkok from 12–17 December 1959 comprising more than 527 athletes and officials from Thailand, Burma, Malaya (now Malaysia), Singapore, South Vietnam and Laos participating in 12 sports.At the 8th SEAP Games in 1975, the SEAP Federation considered the inclusion of Indonesia and the Philippines. The two countries were formally admitted in 1977, the same year when SEAP Federation changed their name to Southeast Asian Games Federation (SEAGF), and the games were known as the Southeast Asian Games. Brunei was admitted at the 10th SEA Games in Jakarta, Indonesia, and East Timor at the 22nd SEA Games in Hanoi, Vietnam, etc.

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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hanoi

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/East_Timor

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jakarta

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brunei

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Southeast_Asian_Games_Federation

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indonesia

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bangkok

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Singapore

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cambodia

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/South_Vietnam

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laos

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Malaysia

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Federation_of_Malaya

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Myanmar

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burma

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thailand

http://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Laung_Sukhumnaipradit&action=edit&redlink=1

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/3rd_Asian_Games

http://www.laopress.com/2010/qs/index.php?option=com_content&view=article&id=287:25th-sea-games-vientiane-laos&catid=58:football&Itemid=386

REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 1246. Which country hosted the third Asian Games?

A. Vietnam B. China C. Japan D. Korea47. What was Laung Sukhumnaipradit’s attitude towards the SEAP Games?

A. to form an idea B. to give money C. to ask for help D. to give up48. How many countries were the former founding members of the Games?

A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 749. When were the first SEAP Games held?

A. 1958 B. 1959 C. 1975 D. 197750. Which SEA Games was Vietnam the host country?

A. 19th B. 20th C. 21st D. 22nd

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http://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Laung_Sukhumnaipradit&action=edit&redlink=1

REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12

PERIOD 9-10

PRACTICE TEST 5 (UNIT 14)OBJECTIVES: By the end of the lesson, Ss will be able to master the main grammar points of Unit 14, enhance new vocabulary relating to Unit 14 and improve their reading skill through practice.Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. symbol B. emergency C. poverty D. qualify2. A. appalled B. dedicated C. designed D. injuredMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 3. A. colleague B. appall C. devote D. appeal 4. A. suffering B. president C. protection D. conferenceMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 5. The international Red Cross has about 97 million volunteers whose main _______is to protect human life and

health.A. mission B. experience C. organization D. rule

6. The international Red Cross helps people in need without any discrimination based on _______, race, religion, class or political opinions.

A. national B. nationally C. nationality D. native7. The AIDS _______continues to spread around the word. Up to 4,000 people are infected with the HIV virus every single day.

A. treatment B. epidemic C. tsunami D. damage8. During the flood, Army helicopters came and tried to evacuate _______injured.

A. a B. an C. the D. Ø9. They decided to _______ their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.

A. take up B. turn round C. put off D. do with10. The International Red Cross and Red Crescent Movement is the world’s largest _______ network.

A. human B. humanity C. humanization D. humanitarian11. The Red Cross helps people who are suffering from the results of war, disease or _______ .

A. victims B. disasters C. opportunities D. conditions12. This woman has dedicated her whole life _______ helping others.

A. for B. by C. about D. to13. They were _______to hear that hundreds of people were killed in the air crash.

A. appealed B. appalled C. initiated D. dedicated14. The mission of the Red Cross is also to supervise the _______of prisoners of war.

A. education B. encouragement C. treatment D. runaway15. _______ hard he worked, he could not earn enough money to support his family.

A. But B. Therefore C. Whatever D. However16. Hardly had they arrived at the airport _______ it began to rain.

A. than B. when C. before D. after17. I am tired because I _______ late last night.

A. stayed up B. kept off C. put out D. brought up18. _______ is a situation in which large numbers of people have little or no food, and many of them die.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12A. Disaster B. Famine C. Poverty D. Flood

19. __________ the dance, Jerry said good-bye to his girlfriend.A. Before left B. Before he leaves C. Before leaving D. Before he will leave

20. They expected __________ at the airport by the General Director.A. to meet B. met C. to be met D. being met

21. Are you going to the party, ___________?A. is you B. are you C. aren’t you D. were you

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 22. In times of war, the Red Cross is dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war.

A. mounted B. excited C. devoted D. interested23. The Red Cross gives medical aid and other help to victims of major disasters such as floods, earthquakes, epidemics, and famines.

A. shortage of water B. serious droughts C. serious shortage of food D. povertyMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 24. He is interested in voluntary activities designed by Youth Union Organization.

A. obligatory B. desired C. ambitious D. willing25. The soldiers were told to commence firing in the mock battle.

A. continue B. stop C. begin D. evokeMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.26. After she had finished her homework, she watched television.

A. Had she finished her homework she would have watched television.B. As soon as she finished her homework she would have watched television.C. Before she had watch television she finished her homework.D. She had finished her homework before she watched television.

27. The bridge was so low that the lorry couldn’t go under it.A. It was so low bridge that the lorry couldn’t go under it.B. The bridge isn’t high enough for the lorry to go under it.C. It was such low bridge that the lorry couldn’t go under it.D. The bridge was too low for the lorry to go under.

28. People say that the price of gold is going up.A. The price of gold is said going up B. It was said that the price of gold is going upC. The price of gold is said to going up D. The price of gold is said to be going up.

29. “Let’s go out for a walk now.” he suggested.A. He suggested going out for a walk then. B. He suggested to go out for a walk then.C. He suggested them to go out for a walk then. D. He suggested them going out for a walk then

30. . “How long will you stay in England?”, Tam’s friends asked him. A. Tam’s friends asked him how long will he stay in England. B. Tam’s friends asked him how long he will stay in England. C. Tam’s friends asked him how long he would stay in England.

D. Tam’s friends asked him how long would he stay in England.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 31. They moved out of the town three years ago. We haven’t heard from them since.

A. We haven’t heard from them since they moved out of the town three years ago.B. We haven’t heard from them after they moved out of the town three yearsago.C. Since we haven’t heard from them, they moved out of the town three yearsago.D. We have heard from them until they moved out of the town three years ago.

32. It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish itA. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it. C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.

33. He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

34. The hotel is not spacious. The hotel is not comfortable.A. The hotel is neither spacious nor comfortable. B. The hotel is either spacious or comfortable.C. The hotel is both spacious and comfortable. D. The hotel is not spacious but comfortable.

35. We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we'd do at night.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.36. Among many other program, UNICEF also supports the international Child Rights Information Network.

A B C D

37. The World Health Organization was established in 7 th April 1948 . A B C D

38. Remember to take over your shoes when you are in a Japanese house. A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.39. Rachel : “Would you mind turning down the volume?”

Sue: “…………………………”A. Of course. B. I’m glad to. C. Not at all. D. Yes, sure.

40. Thank you for the nice gift. - ______________.A. But do you know how much it costs? B. The same to you.C. In fact, I myself don’t like it D. I’m glad you like it.


UNICEF (The United Nations Children’s Fund) is mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to advocate for the (41)_____ of children's rights, to help meet their basic needs and to expand their opportunities to reach their full potential. UNICEF is guided by the Convention on the Rights of the Child and tries to establish

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12children's rights as enduring ethical principles and international standards of (42)_____ towards children. UNICEF (43)_____ that the survival, protection and development of children are universal development. UNICEF mobilizes political will and material (44)_____ to help countries, particularly developing countries, ensure a "first call for children" and to, build their capacity to form appropriate policies and (45)_____ services for children and their families. 41. A. protest B. destruction C. protection D. achievement42. A. poverty B. behavior C. medicine D. injure43. A. insists B. devotes C. treats D. mounts44. A. sources B. mines C. budgets D. funds45. A. care B. appeal C. deliver D. reactRead the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations that acts as a coordinating authority on international public health. Established on 7 April, 1948, and headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, the agency inherited the mandate and resources of its predecessor, the Health Organization.

The WHO's constitution, states that its objective is "the attainment by all peoples of the highest possible level of health. " Its major task is to combat diseases, especially key infectious diseases, and to promote the general health of the people of the world. The WHO also sponsors programs to prevent and treat serious epidemics such as SARS, malaria, and AIDS. The WHO supports the development and distribution of safe and effective vaccines, pharmaceutical diagnostics, and drugs. After over 2 decades of fighting smallpox, the WHO declared in 1980 that the disease had been eradicated - the first disease in history to be eliminated by human effort.

The WHO is nearing success in developing vaccines against malaria and aims to eradicate polio within the next few years. The organization has already endorsed the world's first official HIV/AIDS Tool kit for Zimbabwe making it an international standard. In addition to its work in eradicating disease, the WHO also carries out various health-related campaigns, for example, to boost the consumption of fruits and vegetables worldwide and to discourage tobacco use.

Experts met at the WHO headquarters in Geneva in February, 2007, and reported that their work on pandemic influenza vaccine development had achieved encouraging progress. More than 40 clinic trials have been completed or are ongoing. Most have focused on healthy adults. Some companies, after completing safety analyses in adults, have initiated clinical trials in the elderly and in children. All vaccines so far appear to be safe arid well-tolerated in all age groups tested.46. The World Health Organization (WHO) _______.

A. works on international public health B. has no relation to the United NationsC. only takes care of Swiss people D. has no predecessor

47. Which is NOT mentioned in the second paragraph 'as the tasks of the World Health Organization?A. to promote the general health of everyone in the worldB. to support pharmaceutical diagnostics, and drugsC. To combat diseasesD. To supply food for patients.

48. According to the text, which disease has been eradicated?A. Malaria B. AIDS C. SARS D. Smallpox

49. The word “it” in the passage refers to _______.A. the WHO B. the world C. the first official HIV/AIDS Tool kit D. Zimbabwe

50. Influenza vaccine _______.A. has only been used for adults B. cannot be used for childrenC. has appeared to be safe in all age groups tested D. causes bad effects on children and elderly people

------------------------

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PRACTICE TEST 6 (UNIT 15)OBJECTIVES: By the end of the lesson, Ss will be able to master the main grammar points of Unit 15, enhance new vocabulary relating to Unit 15 and improve their reading skill through practice.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. women B. movie C. lose D. prove2. A. intellectual B. international C. interview D. responsibility3. A. rear B. bear C. fear D. dearMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 4. A. achievement B. involvement C. confinement D. argument5. A. pioneer B. mountaineer C. suggestion D. engineer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 6. People used to consider women to be better_________ for childbearing and homemaking.

A. regarded B. suited C. understood D. kept7. In the past, men seemed to_________ their duties at home.

A. expect B. inspect C. neglect D. collect8. Nowadays, women have gained significant legal_________.

A. wrongs B. rights C. responsibilities D. works9. The pioneer thinkers_________that women shouldn’t be discriminated on the basis of their sex.

A. recommended B. disapproved C. showed D. passed10. The_________for women’s rights began in the 18th century.

A. battle B. war C. struggle D. fight11. Women are only asking to be given equal_________to that of men.

A. state B. status C. situation D. ideas12. That scholar_________on people who haven’t been to university.

A. looks up B. looks at C. looks down D. looks on13. Most relations between men and women soon_________in to love.

A. deep B. deepen C. deeply D. depth14. The newspaper provided little_________about the cause of the war.

A. enlightenment B. meanings C. reasons D. ideas15. It’s_________to say that women are slaves at home.

A. truth B. action C. legality D. rubbish 16. Martha Graham,_______of the pioneers of modern dance, didn’t begin dancing until she was 21.

A. one B. who, as one C. she was D. was one17. From 1865 to 1875, a remarkable variety of inventions_________.

A. was produced B. were produced C. are produced D. produced18. The French Quarter is_________ famous and the oldest section of New Orleans.

A. more B. the most C. the more D. most19. The painting_________Ms. Wallace bought was very expensive.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12A. whom B. whose C. which D. where

20. You_________carry that carpel home yourself; the shop will send it. A. can’t B. couldn’t C. needn’t D. mustn’t

21. Will it be necessary for us_________ this accident to the police?A. report B. to reporting C. to report D. reporting

22. She’s very old and can’t live alone. She needs someone to look_________her. A. for B. at C. up D. after

23. The homeless people_____story appeared in the paper last week have now found a place to live. A. who B. whom C. that D. whose

24. It is our duty to care for_________sick. A. an B the C. a D. ф

25. Rachel will be pleased if she_________ her driving test. A. would pass B. had passed C. passes D. passed

26. The_________ you are, the more quickly you learn. A. more young B. youngest C. younger D. young

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.27. I couldn't make out what he had talked about because I was not used to his accent.

A. stand B. understand C. write D. interrupt28. If you don't pay your rent, your landlord is going to kick you out!

A. lend you some money B. play football with you C. give you a kick D. force you to leaveMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.29. They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community. A. cooperate B. put together C. separate D. connect30. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.

A. excess B. large quantity C. small quantity D. sufficiencyMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 31. “I’m awfully sorry, Carol, but I’ve broken your watch”, said Jim.

A. Jim apologized to Carol to breaking her watch. B. Jim apologized to Carol to break her watch. C. Jim apologized to Carol for breaking her watch. D. Jim apologized for Carol to break her watch.

32. Living in Sydney is strange to her. A. She’s not used to live in Sydney. B. She’s not used to living in Sidney. C. She used to live in Sydney. D. She is used living in Sydney.

33. When I heard the telephone ring, I answered it immediately. A. On hear the phone rang, I answered it immediately. B. On hear the phone ring, I answered it immediately. C. On hearing the phone ring, I answered it immediately. D. On hearing rang, I answered the phone immediately.

34. If you don’t wake up early, you can’t catch the first bus to the city center. A. You have to wake up early to catch the first bus to the city center. B. You don’t have to wake up early to catch the first bus to the city center. C. You have to not wake up early to catching the first bus to the city center.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12D. You haven’t to wake up early to catch the first bus to the city center.

35. The birthday cake is too big for us to eat. A. The birthday cake is so big for us to eat. B. The birthday cake is so big that we can’t eat it. C. The birthday cake is enough big for us to eat. D. The birthday cake is too big for us that eating.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 36. Actually , I strongly disapprove of your bad behave towards your parents.

A B C D

37. Modern motorcycles are lighter, faster, and specialized than motorcycles of 25 years ago. A B C D

38. Job enrichment is a technique used to increase satisfaction workers by giving them more responsibilities. A B C D

39. In spite of their frightening appearance, the squid is shy and completely harmless. A B C D

40. Virgin Islands National park features a underwater preserve with coral reefs and colorful tropical fish. A B C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blank. The future role of women can be looked at more optimistically. Nowadays, there seems (36) ___ recognition of the vital role women play in society and more status is given to women. Overall, excellent progress has been made (37) ___ education. This has played a powerful role for women self-esteem. It demonstrates women’s intellectual abilities to gain expertise in the field of their choice. However, this progress has still to be reflected in the job market. Since a more educated society is good for industry and society (38) ___ a whole, it is even more urgent for women to gain an acceptable status in their profession. The message is that women have the ability to change their roles and that they will demand to have the means to do it. It is (39) ____ accepted by the new generation of young men and women that co-operation and mutual aid are far more productive than the divider camp of men and women. Society is changing and with it the role of men and women. In many fields women have come a long way from just their roles as mothers and homemakers. They no longer think that children rearing and home management are their (40) _____duties. 41. A. be B. being C. to being D. to be42. A. in B. at C. on D. for43. A. to B. as C. out D. for44. A. general B. generally C. generality D. generalize45. A. sole B. lonely C. alone D. ownRead the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Until the 19th century, the denial of equal rights to women met with only occasional protest and drew little attention from most people. Because most women lacked the educational and economic resources that would enable them to challenge the prevailing social order, women generally accepted their inferior status as their only option. At this time, women shared these disadvantages with the majority of working class men, as many social, economic, and political rights were restricted to the wealthy elite [phần tử ưu tú]. In the 19th century, as governments in Europe and North America began to draft new laws guaranteeing equality among men, significant numbers of women – and some men – began to demand that women be accorded equal rights as well.

At the same time, the Industrial Revolution in Europe and North America further divided the roles of men and women. Before the Industrial Revolution most people worked in farming or crafts-making, both of which took place in or near the home. Men and women usually divided the numerous tasks among themselves and their children. Industrialization led male workers to seek employment outside of the home in factories and other large-scale [extensivve]enterprises. The growing split between home and work reinforced the idea that women’s “rightful place” was in the home, while men belonged in the public world of employment and politics.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12Organized efforts by women to achieve greater rights occurred in two major waves. The first wave began

around the mid-19th century, when women in the United States and elsewhere campaigned to gain suffrage [right to vote in political elections]– that is, the right to vote. This wave lasted until the 1920s, when several countries granted women suffrage.46. Why did the denial of equal rights to women draw little attention from the society until the 19th century?

A. They could not challenge the prevailing social order.B. They did not have any other option.C. Most women lacked the educational and economic resources. D. All are correct.

47. Until the 19th century, what was the status of the working class men in the society?A. They had the same rights as women. B. They had no right at all.C. They did not have much power compared to the wealthy people.D. They had much power in the society.

48. When did the women’s movement start in Western countries?A. in the 18th century B. in the late 18th century C. in the 19th century D. in the early 20th century

49. What did the effect of the Industrial Revolution in Europe and North America bring about?A. Male workers tried to seek employment outside of the home.B. It did not bring the equality to women.C. Well-educated, upper-class men controlled most positions of employment and power in society. D. All are correct.

50. What was the aim of the women’s movement in the United States in the 1920s?A. to gain the right to have much power in the societyB. to gain the right to voteC. to gain the right to go to work in the factory D. to have the complete equality to men

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PRACTICE TEST 7 (UNIT 16)OBJECTIVES: By the end of the lesson, Ss will be able to master the main grammar points of Unit 16, enhance new vocabulary relating to Unit 16 and improve their reading skill through practice.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.1. A. progress B. associate C. total D. improve2. A. southern B. thus C. Thailand D. withoutMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.3. A. accelerate B. economic C. commercial D. stability4. A. region B. member C. promote D. progress

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 5. Vietnam became the 7th _________ of ASEAN on July 28, 1995.

A. member B. host C. participant D. observer6. The population of ASEAN is about 600 million, ________ for 9% of the world’s population.

A. counting B. accounting C. searching D. account7. One of the challenges related to globalization is ______ the rate of domestic economic growth.

A. pushing B. rising C. applying D. accelerating8. The AESAN Vision 2020 is aimed ______ forging closer economic integration _____ the region.

A. for –in B. to – within C. at – within D. to – among9. The 2017 ASEAN Summits are _________ conferences centering on the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) which were held in the Philippines.

A. diplomatic B. diplomate C. diplomatically D. diplomat10. ASEAN was _________ in August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand.

A. discovered B. constructed C. invented D. founded11. My grandfather has worked since he ________ in high school.

A. was being B. had been C. was D. has been12. _______ the firemen arrived to help, we had already put out the fire.

A. Until B. No sooner C. By the time D. After13. My mouth is burning! This is ______ spicy food that I don’t think I can finish it.

A. so B. such C. very D. too14. Hundreds of species of Hawwaiin flowers have become extinct or rare ______ land development and the grazing of wild goats.

A. now that B. due to C. because D. for15. Jane would never forget ______ first prize in such a prestigious competition.

A. to be awarded B. being awarded C. to have awarded D. having awarded16. _______ in Rome than he was kidnapped.

A. No sooner he arrived B. Had he no sooner arrivedC. No sooner had he arrived D. No sooner he had arrived

17. On the table ______.

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https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Association_of_Southeast_Asian_Nations

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Association_of_Southeast_Asian_Nations

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diplomatic_conferences

REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12A. lay a yellow cat B. a yellow cat lay C. did a yellow cat lie D. a yellow cat lies

18. _____ the problem, he wouldn’t have committed those mistakes.

A. Had he understood B. He had understood C. If had he understood D. Unless had he understood19. Scarcely ______ out of bed when the doorbell rang.

A. had I got B. had I got C. I had got D. I have got

20. Two thirds of Cambodia is covered ____ dense forests.A. of B. at C. with D. from

21. "My daughter, Mary, tries to ________ to see me at least once a week," Mrs. Jones told the social worker.A. call up B. go up C. come on D. drop in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 22. Southeast Asia is a region of diverse cultures.

A. same B. adopted C. various D. respected23. My wife was so keen on the picture that she paid through her nose for it.

A. paid nothing B. turned a deaf ear C. was offered D. paid much more than usual

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.24. They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community.

A. cooperate B. put together C. separate D. connect25. The situation in the country has remained relatively stable for a few months now.

A. constant B. changeable C. objective D. ignorant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 26. It was wrong of you not to call the fire brigade at once.

A. Calling the fire brigade must be done at once. B. You called the fire brigade and it was wrong.C. You should have called the fire brigade at once. D. The fire brigade was called at the wrong time.

27. Keeping calm is a secret of passing your driving test.A. As long as you keep calm, you will pass your driving test.B. If you don’t keep calm, you will pass your driving test.C. Passing your driving test without calm is a secret.D. Keep a secret to pass your driving test calmly.

28. I came to live here ten years ago. A. I had lived here for ten years. B. I've been living here for ten years.

C. I lived here for ten years. D. I came here to live for ten years.29. John Smith is a farmer. I bought his land. A. John Smith, whose land I bought, is a farmer. B. John Smith, who is a farmer, whose land I bought.

C. John Smith, whom I bought his land, is a farmer. D. John Smith, a farmer, bought his land.30. “Do you enjoy reading books?”, Phong asked Peter.

A. Phong asked Peter if he enjoyed reading books. B. Phong asked Peter whether he enjoys reading books or not. C. Phong asked Peter if he enjoyed reading books or not.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12D. Phong asked Peter whether did he enjoy reading books.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 31.Name exercises every day. Exercise makes hime strong.

A. Name exercises less, he gets the stronger. B. The more Name exercises, the stronger he gets.C. The less Name exercises, he gets stronger. D. Name exercises the more, the stronger he gets.

32. John is studying hard. He doesn’t want to fail the next exam.A. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.B. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam.C. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam.D. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.

33. It was cold. Minh and his friends still went swimming.A. Because Minh and his friends still went swimming, it was cold.B. It was cold while Minh and his friends still went swimming.C. Minh and his friends still went swimming though it was cold.D. Until it was cold, Minh and his friends still went swimming.

34. You buy a sport car. You have to pay higher insurance.A. Buying a sports car, you have to pay higher insurance.B. Having bought a sports car, you have to pay higher insurance.C. To buy a sports car, you have to pay higher insurance.D. To have bought a sport car, you have to pay higher insurance.

35. Peter regretted buying the second-hand computer.A. Peter didn’t want to buy the second-hand computer.B. Peter wished he didn’t buy the second-hand computer.C. Peter wished he hadn’t bought the second-hand computer.D. Peter was glad to buy the second-hand computer.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. 36. “My sister has been awarded a schoolarship to study in Australia.” “Uh, really? ________!”

A. How lucky she is B. What lucky she isC. What lucky she be D. Lucky as she is

37. “What are you doing this weekend?” “________________”A. I think it will be interesting B. I’m very busy nowC. I hope it isn’t raining D. I plan to visit my aunt

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 38. I won’t give up until I will finish what I have set out to do.

A B C D

39. The harder it rained, the stronger the wind blew. A B C D

40. Some of his favourite subjects at school are Maths, English and Geographical. A B C D


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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12The ASEAN Declaration is a short, simply-worded document containing just five articles. It declares the

establishment of an Association for Regional Cooperation among the Countries of Southeast Asia to be (41) _____ as the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and spells out the aims and purposes of that Association. These aims and purposes are about the cooperation in (42) _____, society, culture, techniques, education and other fields, and in the promotion of regional peace and stability through abiding respect for justice and the principles of the United Nations Charter. It stipulates that the Association will be open for (43) ____ by all States in the Southeast Asian region subscribing to its aims, principles and purposes. It proclaims ASEAN as representing the collective (44) ____ of the nations of Southeast Asia to bind themselves together in friendship and cooperation and, (45) ____ joint efforts and sacrifices, secure for their peoples and for posterity the blessings of peace, freedom and prosperity. The goal of ASEAN, then, is to create, not to destroy. 41. A. considered B. known C. told D. believed42. A. economics B. economic C. economizing D. economy43. A. participate B. participating C. participation D. participant44. A. will B. process C. cooperation D. can45. A. across B. through C. above D. underRead the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Southeast Asia foreign ministess agreed to set up an ASEAN Development Fund aimed at narrowing the economic and development gap among its ten members. Each country in the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) group would contribute an initial one million dollars to the fund. They also signed a pact to improve their united response to disasters and put in place early warning systems to cope with devastation similar to that caused by last year's tsunami. In this year's session, Asia's biggest security forum focused on fighting against terrorism, keeping the Straits of Malacca piracy-free and fending off conflicts through diplomacy. The forum capped a-six-day conference of ASEAN members that saw Australia sign a non-aggression pact with regional neighbours, joining efforts to build an Asian trade bloc on a par with Europe and North America. At a meetings with Russia, both sides agreed that the ASEAN-Russian Federation Economic and Development Cooperation Agreement and the programme on ASEAN-Russia cooperation should be expedited. 46. What is the aim of setting up an ASEAN Development Fund? A. to make the economic and development gap among its ten members narrow

B. to develop economy among its ten membersC. to slow down the economic development of its ten members D. to solve the problems related to economy development

47. The word “pact” the passage is closest in meaning to _____________. A. an agreement B. a contract C. a document D. a will48. The word “they” in the passage refers to _________.

A. the Association of Southeast Asian Nations B. ASEAN's ten members C. Southeast Asia foreign ministers D. Asian nations

49. According to the passage, Asia's biggest security forum focused on all of the following EXCEPT _________. A. struggling against terrorism B. improving their united response to disasters

C. keeping the Straits of Malacca piracy-free D. avoiding conflicts through diplomacy 50. The word “bloc” the passage is closest in meaning to _____________.

A. foreign ministers B. cooperationC. relationship between countries D. a group of countries

_____________________________

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12MORE EXERICSES

READING COMPREHENSION:READING 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Species that belong to an area are said to be native species. Typically, they have been part of a given biological landscape for a long period, and they are well adapted to the local environment and to the presence of other native species in the same general habitat. Exotic species are interlopers, foreign elements introduced intentionally or accidentally into new settings through human activities. In one context an introduced species may cause no obvious problems and may, over time, be regarded as being just as "natural" as any native species in the same habitat. In another context, exotics may seriously disrupt delicate ecological balances and create a cascade of unintended consequences. The worst of these unintended consequences arise when introduced species put native species in destruction by preying on them, altering their habitats, or out-competing them in the struggle for food resources. Although biological continue to suffer high rates of exploitation, the most destructive, effects have occurred on islands, where introduced insects, cats, pigs, rats, mongooses, and other nonnative species have caused the grave endangerment or outright extinction of literally hundreds of species during the past 500 years.One of other reason to cause species extinction is overexploitation. This word refers to the utilization of a species at a rate that is likely to cause its extreme endangerment or outright extinction. Among many examples of severe overexploitation, the case of the great whales stands out in special relief. By the middle of the 20th century, unrestricted whaling had brought many species of whales to incredibly low population sizes. In response to public pressure, in 1982 a number of nations, including the USA, agreed to an international moratorium on whaling. As a direct result, some whale species which are thought to have been on extinction's doorstep 25 years ago have made amazing comebacks, such as grey whales in the western Pacific. Others remain at great risk. Many other species, however, continue to suffer high rates of exploitation because of the trade in animal parts. Currently, the demand for animal parts is centered in several parts of Asia where there is a strong market for traditional medicines made from items like tiger bone and rhino horn.1. Native species _______.

A. are not used to the local environmentB never get along well with other native species in the same environmentC. tend to do harm to exotic speciesD. have been part of a given biological landscape for a long period

2. Exotic species _______.A. do no harm to native species and the local environmentB. are foreign elements introduced intentionally or accidentally into new settingsC. always share the environment peacefully with native speciesD. help to make the local environment more ideal to survive

3. The following statements are things that exotic species can cause to native species EXCEPTA. effectively protect delicate ecological balances B. create a cascade of unintended consequencesC. prey on the native species D. out-competing them in the struggle for food resources

4. The word “moratorium” is closest in meaning to _________A. a postponed payment B. the temporary prohibition C. the delayed debt D. a stop

5. According to the first paragraph, we can imply that _______.A. non-native species have caused badly damage to native onesB. introducing new exotic species to local environments is necessaryC. exotic species have never been introduced on islandsD. very few native species have been damaged by exotic species

6. According to the second paragraph, by the middle of the 20 century ___.A. whale population was the most crowded in marine life B. whale hunting was illegal

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12C. whale population increased dramatically D. whaling was not restricted

7. The trade in animal part ____________A. had brought many species of whales to incredibly low population sizes.B. caused species continue to suffer high rates of exploitationC. had led some species on extinction's doorstep 25 years agoD.is centered in several parts of Europe

8. Tiger bone and rhino horn _______.A. are not popular in Asian markets B. are never in the trade of animal partsC. are used for making traditional medicines D. cannot be found in Asian markets

READING 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8.The New York Times is a daily newspaper published in New York City. For a long time, it has been a newspaper of record in the United State and one of the world’s great newspapers. Its strength is in its editorial excellence; it has never been the largest newspaper in terms of circulation.The Times was established in 1851 as a penny paper whose editors wanted to report the news in a restrainedand objective fashion. It enjoyed early success as its editors set a pattern for the future by appealing to a cultured, intellectual readership instead of a mass audience. However, in the late nineteenth century, it came into competition with more popular, colorful, if not lurid, newspapers in New York City. Their publishers ran sensational stories, not because they were true, but because they sold newspapers. Despite price increases, the time was losing £1,000 a week when Adolph Simon Ochs bought it in 1896.Ochs built the Times into an internationally respected daily. He hired Carr Van Anda as editor. Van Anda placed greater stress than ever on full reporting of the news of the day, and hisreporters maintained and emphasized existing good coverage of international news. The management of the paper decided to eliminate fiction from the paper, added a Sunday magazine section, and reduced the paper’s price back to a penny. In April 1912, the paper took many risks to report every aspect of the sinking of the Titanic. This greatly enhanced its prestige, and in its coverage of two world wars, the Times continued to enhance its reputation for excellence in world news.In 1971, the Times was given a copy of the so-called “Pentagon Papers,” a secret government study of U.S. involvement in the Vietnam war. When it published the report, it became involved in several lawsuits. The U.S. Supreme Court found that the publication was protected by the freedom-of-the-press clause in the First Amendment of the U.S Constitution. Later in the 1970s, the paper, under Adolph Ochs’s grandson, Arthur Ochs Sulzberger, introduced sweeping changes in the organization of the newspaper and its staff and brought out a national edition transmitted by satellite to regional printing plants.1. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. The New York Times publishes the best fiction by American writers.B. The New York Times became highly respected throughout the world.C. The New York Times broadcasts its news to TV stations via satellite.D. The New York Times lost its prestige after the Vietnam War.

2. It can be inferred from the passage that the circulation of the Times isA. not the largest in the world. B. not the best in the world.C. the smallest in the world. D. the worst in the world.

3. According to the passage, what caused the loss of money at the Times?A. Other newspapers were more colorful. B. Other newspapers had better reporters.C. Other newspapers added a Sunday magazine. D. Other newspapers were better managed.

4. What word or phrase does the word “his” in paragraph 3 refer to?A. Van Anda. B. Reporters. C. News of the day. D. International news.

5. Which word or phrase is closest in meaning to the word “enhanced” in paragraph 3?

35

REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12A. made the best of B. increased C. reduced D. made worse

6. To improve its circulation, the management of the Times did all the following EXCEPT:A. emphasized good coverage of international news.B. added a Sunday magazine section.C. increased the number of lurid stories, even if they were not true.D. eliminated fiction from the paper.

7. The passage implies that the newspaper’s reputationA. decreased when it lowered its price to a penny.B. grew because Adolph Ochs bought it in 1896.C. increased because of its coverage of the Titanic’s sinking.D. decreased because it could not compete with other New York papers.

8. What word or phrase does the word “publication” in paragraph 4 refer to?A. The Times. B. “The pentagon Papers”. C. The Report. D. The Constitution.

READING 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The first Olympic games were held at the first of Mount Olympus to honor the Greeks’ chief god, Zeus. The warm climate for outdoor activities, the need for preparedness in war, and their lifestyle caused the Greeks to create competitive sports. Only the elite and military could participate at first, but later the games were open to all free Greeks male who had no criminal record. The Greeks emphasized physical fitness and strength in their education of youth. Therefore, contests in running, jumping, discus and javelin throwing, boxing and horse and chariot racing were held individual cities, and the winners competed every four years at Mount Olympus. Winners were greatly honored by having olive wreaths placed on their heads and having poems sung about their deeds Originally these contests were held as games of friendship, and any wars in progress were halted to allow the games to take place. They also helped to strengthen bonds among competitors and the different cities represented.The Greeks attached so much importance to the games that they calculated time in four-year cycles called Olympiads,” dating from 776 B.C. The contests coincided with religious festivities and constituted an all-out effort on the part of the participants to please the gods. Any who disobeyed the rules were dismissed and seriously punished. These athletes brought shame not only to themselves, but also to the cities they represented.1. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Winners placed olive wreaths on their heads. B. The game was held in Greece every four years.C. Battles were interrupted to participate in the games. D. Poems glorified the winners in song.

2. The word “elite” is closest in meaning toA. aristocracy B. intellectuals C. brave D. muscular

3. Why were the Olympic Games held? A. To stop wars. B. To honor Zeus.C. To crown the best athletes. D. To sing songs about the athletes.

4. Approximately how many years ago did these games originate? A. 800 years B. 1.200 years C. 2.300 years D. 2.800 years

5. What conclusion can we draw about the ancient Greeks? A. They were pacifists. B. They believed athletic events were importantC. They were very simple. D. They couldn’t count, so they used “Olympiads” for dates.

6. What is the main idea of this passage?A. Physical fitness was an integral part of the lives of the ancient Greeks.B. The Greeks severely punished those did not participate in physical fitness programs.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12C. The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate in the games.D. The Greeks had the games coincided with religious festivities so that they could go back to war when the games were over.

7. The word “deeds” is closest in meaning to _____. A. accomplishments B. documents C. ancestors D. property

8. The word “halted” means most nearly the same as _____. A. encouraged B. started C. curtailed D. fixed

READING 4: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frames of an object, each slightly different than the preceding frame. In computer animation, although the computer may be the one to draw the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and ending frames and the computer will produce the drawings between the first and the last drawing. This is generally referred to as computer-assisted animation, because the computer is more of a helper than an originator. In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final sequence of pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that define the objects in the pictures as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints, and color and intensity information. Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such effects because animation that obtains high degrees of realism involves computer techniques for three-dimensional transformation, shading, and curvatures. High-tech computer animation for film involves very expensive computer systems along with special color terminals or frame buffers. The frame buffer is nothing more than a giant image memory for viewing a single frame. It temporarily holds the image for display on the screen. A camera can be used to film directly from the computer's display screen, but for the highest quality images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer computes the positions and colors for the figures in the picture, and sends this information to the recorder, which capturesit on film. Sometimes, however, the images are stored on a large magnetic disk before being sent to the recorder. Oncethis process is completed, it is repeated for the next frame. When the entire sequence has been recorded on the film, the film must be developed before the animation can be viewed. If the entire sequence does not seem right, the motions must be corrected, recomputed, redisplayed, and rerecorded. This approach can be very expensive and time consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first do motion tests with simple computer-generated line drawings before selling their computers to the task of calculating the high-resolution, realistic-looking images.

1. What aspect of computer animation does the passage mainly discuss? A. The production process B. The equipment needed C. The high cost D. The role of the artist

2. According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer is to draw the........ A. first frame B. middle frames C. last frame D. entire sequence of frames

3. The word "they" in the second paragraph refers to........ A. formulas B. databases C. numbers D. objects

4. According to the passage, the frame buffers mentioned in the third paragraph are used to............ A. add color to the images B. expose several frames at the same time C. store individual images D. create new frames

5. According to the passage, the positions and colours of the figures in high-tech animation are determined by........ A. drawing several versions B. enlarging one frame at a lime C. analyzing the sequence from different angles D. using computer calculations

6. The word "captures" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to...... A. separates B. registers C. describes D. numbers

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 127. The word "Once" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to.....

A. before B. since C. after D. while 8. According to the passage, how do computer-animation companies often test motion?

A. They experiment with computer-generated line drawings. B. They hand-draw successive frames. C. They calculate high-resolution images. D. They develop extensive mathematical formulas.

READING 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In the mid-nineteenth century, the United States had tremendous natural resources that could be exploited in order to develop heavy industry. Most of the raw materials that are valuable in the manufacture of machinery, transportation facilities, and consumer goods lay ready to be worked into wealth. Iron, coal, and oil - the basic ingredients of industrial growth - were plentiful and needed only the application of technical expertise, organizational skill, and labour. One crucial development in this movement towards industrialization was the growth of the railroads. The railway network expanded rapidly until the railroad map of the United States looked like a spider's web, with the steel filaments connecting all important sources of raw materials, their places of manufacture, and their centers of distribution. The railroads contributed to the industrial growth not only by connecting these major centers, but also by themselves consuming enormous amounts of fuel, iron, and coal. Many factors influenced emerging modes of production. For example, machine tools, the tools used to make goods, were steadily improved in the latter part of the nineteenth century - always with an eye to speedier production and lower unit costs. The products of the factories were rapidly absorbed by the growing cities that sheltered the workers and the distributors. The increased urban population was nourished by the increased farm production that, in turn, was made more productive by the use of the new farm machinery. American agricultural production kept up with the urban demand and still had surpluses for sale to the industrial centers of Europe. The labour that ran the factories and built the railways was recruited in part from American farm areas where people were being displaced by farm machinery, in part from Asia, and in part from Europe. Europe now began to send tides of immigrants from eastern and southern Europe - most of whom were originally poor farmers but who settled in American industrial cities. The money to finance this tremendous expansion of the American economy still came from European financiers for the most part, but the American were approaching the day when their expansion could be financed in their own "money market". 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The history of railroads in the United StatesB. The major United States industrial centers C. Factors that affected industrialization in the United States D. The role of agriculture in the nineteenth century

2. The word “themselves” in bold type refers to______. A. sources B. centers C. railroads D. places

3. According to the passage, what was one effect of the improvement of machine tools? A. Lower manufacturing costs B. Better distribution of goods C. More efficient transportation of natural resources D. A reduction in industrial jobs

4. Which of the following is NOT true of United States farmers in the nineteenth century? A. They lost some jobs because of mechanization B. They were unable to produce sufficient food for urban areas. C. They raised their productivity by using new machinery. D. They sold food to European countries

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 125. The word “ran” in bold type is closest in meaning to______.

A. operated B. hurried C. constructed D. owned 6. The word “ingredients” in bold type is closest in meaning to_______.

A. minerals B. products C. methods D. components 7. According to the passage, all of the following were true of railroads in the United States in the nineteenth

century EXCEPT that__________. A. they connected important industrial cities B. they were necessary to the industrialization process.C. they were expanded in a short time. D. they used relatively small quantities of natural resources.

8. According to the passage, who were the biggest consumers of manufactured products? A. Railway workers B. Farmers C. City dwellers D. Europeans

READING 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The ASEAN Vision 2020 was developed at the Second Informal ASEAN Summit as a guide for future ASEAN cooperation. Recognizing that the past 30 years had helped lay the foundations for national and regional resilience, it demonstates how ASEAN’s main concern is no longer characterized by defensiveness originating from self-acknowledged vulnerability.

The focus is now on claiming ASEAN’s stake in world affairs by establishing the region as a stabilizing force in the Asian Pacific region and in the world. This requires an outward-looking ASEAN, with an important capacity for advancing ASEAN interests internationally, through intensified engagement and dialogue with regional and world partners.

To realize the ASEAN Vision 2020, ASEAN leaders have agreed on the need to strengthen and improve ASEAN and its mechanisms, especially the Secretariat. The value of the ZOPFAN Declaration, TAC and ARF are affirmed through re-endorsement. There is notable emphasis on constructing development and integration strategies that align with people’s aspirations for generating sustainable, fair growth. Consequently, ASEAN governments have promised solemnly to invest in human resources, narrow development gaps and reduce socio-economic disparities within and among member states. They will also promote energy efficiency and conservation, as well as the development of new and renewable energy resources.

Pacing value in vibrancy and openness, ASEAN will also strive for reasonable and universal access to total human development, on top of its aims to promote environmental and transnational security awareness.1. Which among thes is the present focus of ASEAN?

A. defensiveness B. self-acknowledged vulnerabilityC. Participation in world’s affairs D. regional resilience

2. The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to __________.A. ASEAN Vision 2020 B. ASEAN SummitC. ASEAN cooperation D. national and regional resilience

3. Which among these is NOT mentioned as an emphasis of ASEAN?A. economic development B. integration strategiesC. sustainable growth D. socio-economic disparities

4. To realize the ASEAN Vision, ASEAN leaders have agreed on the need _____________.A. to develop the relationship among countries.B. to strengthen ASEAN and its mechanisms, especially the Secretariat.C. to strengthen and improve ASEAN and its mechanisms, especially the Secretariat.D. to improve constructing development.

5. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?39

REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12A. ASEAN will use energy more effectively.B. ASEAN will do more to conserve energy.C. ASEAN will try to find new energy resources.D. ASEAN will do its best to exploit non-renewable energy resources.

6. The word “disparities” the passage is closest in meaning to _____________.A. prosperity B. similarities C. differences D. stability

7. The word “transnational” the passage is closest in meaning to _____________.A. national B. domestic C. international D. internal

8. What is the best title of the passage?A. How was the ASEAN Vision written? B. What are the members of the ASEAN?C. Objectives of the ASEAN Vision 2020 D. History of the ASEAN Vision 2020

__________________________

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12THAM KHẢO

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

THÀNH PHỐ CẦN THƠ

KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II LỚP 12 GDTHPT

NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017

Bài kiểm tra: Tiếng Anh

(Đề kiểm tra gồm có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ và tên học sinh………………..………………….…...

Số báo danh…………………..........................................

A. PHẦN RIÊNG

I. Phần dành cho chương trình đại trà:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 1: Ann and Matthew are talking about the effects of global warming.

Ann: “Does the global warming worry you?”

Matthew: “__________________________”

A. What a shame! B. I can’t bear to think about it.

C. Oh, it’s hotter and hotter. D. I don’t like hot weather.

Question 2: Hana and Jenifer are talking about a plan for the weekend.

Hana: “We’ve just finished the school project. Let’s go to the cinema this weekend!”

Jenifer: “____________________________”

A. Well done. B. Ok. Why not? C. Congratulations. D. Yes, I will.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions.

Question 3: In order to reduce energy consumption, please_________the lights when you are not using them.

A. look after B. turn on C. turn off D. put on

Question 4: In the past, widespread doubt about women’s _________ ability led most societies to deny education, employment and many legal and political rights to women.

A. intellectualize B. intellectual C. intelligence D. intellectually

Question 5: Although the smart phone is mostly used for communication, it is one of the great tools to _________ information on the Internet.

A. turn up B. take up C. look up D. give up41

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

MÃ ĐỀ: 209

REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12Question 6: Rhinoceros horn trade has driven this species to the verge of _________.

A. extinction B. contamination C. unemployment D. appearance

Question 7: Nowadays, finding a stable job is becoming ________for the young people who are ill-trained.

A. more difficult and more difficult B. more difficult and difficult

C. more and more difficult D. difficult and more difficult

Question 8: To reduce the traffic accidents, the authorities should raise people’s_________ of obeying the traffic rules strictly.

A. view B. attitude C. awareness D. policy

Question 9: During women’s liberation movement, political philosophers in Europe advocated that women should not be discriminated __________ on the basis of their sex.

A. from B. against C. for D. with

Question 10: Habitat destruction is one of the main ________ to various kinds of plants and animals that live in a particular area.

A. ideas B. things C. killing D. threats

Question 11: I’ll hand over all my files to my assistant before I _________.

A. leave B. will leave C. am leaving D. would leave

Question 12: _________broken several world records in swimming.

A. She is said that she has B. People say she had

C. It is said to have D. She is said to have

Question 13: There is plenty of time for you to make up your mind. You _________decide now.

A. can’t B. needn’t C. mustn’t D. won’t

Question 14: The main goals of ASEAN are to _________economic growth, social progress and cultural development between countries in the region.

A. reduce B. release C. accelerate D. decrease

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 15: He has just applied for a temporary job to earn some more money to support his study.

A. additional B. part-time C. extra D. permanent

Question 16: Before the 18th century, the attitude of societies towards women’s roles was doubtful so women were denied education and employment.

A. supportive B. resentful C. certain D. disbelieving

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17: The trouble with Frank is that he never turns up on time for the meeting.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12A. arrives B. recovers C. resembles D. delays

Question 18: Scientists claimed that early warnings of rising water levels prevented another major catastrophe.

A. disaster B. poverty C. resource D. deforestation

II. Phần dành cho chương trình 10 năm:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable question/response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 1: Ken and Tom are high-school students. They are discussing where their study group will meet.

Ken: "Where is our study group going to meet next weekend?"

Tom: “____________________________”

A. Studying in a group is great fun. B. We are too busy on weekdays.

C. The library would be best. D. Why don’t you look at the atlas?

Question 2: Mai and Tam are talking about careers.

Mai: “____________________________”

Tam: “I’ve always wanted to be a doctor because I love taking care of kids.”

A. What do you like to do after you finish secondary school?

B. Why do you think being a doctor is not a good choice for you?

C. Why do many people like choosing medicine as their career?

D. Do you think working as a doctor helps you make more money?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions.

Question 3: It was _________that Mary couldn’t put it down.

A. so a good novel B. such good a novel C. so good novel D. such a good novel

Question 4: Many factors are _________into consideration, such as the remaining numbers, the overall increase or decrease in the population, breeding success rates, and known threats.

A. made B. done C. brought D. taken

Question 5: By the time you come home, I ________cooking dinner.

A. will have finished B. have finished C. am finishing D. will be finishing

Question 6: The government is trying not to ________the money they are spending on vocational training.

A. run out of B. drop out of C. go on with D. cut down on

Question 7: Many students in Western countries like taking a_______ year, instead of going straight to university, to do volunteer work or travel here and there.

A. span B. stop C. distance D. gap

Question 8: To help students speak English better, the teacher had the students ________the new vocabulary.

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12A. to revise B. revise C. revised D. revising

Question 9: He refused to tell me _________because that information was confidential.

A. what the director’s salary is B. what the director’s salary was

C. what was the director’s salary D. what is the director’s salary

Question 10: The apprentice finished the work ________ Mr. Smith had requested.

A. or B. as C. like D. although

Question 11: Some people think that saving species in danger of extinction means _________against the laws of nature.

A. doing B. coming C. going D. taking

Question 12: The more noise and smoke you make, _________

A. the less safe the environment becomes for the animals.

B. the more safe the environment becomes for the animals.

C. less safe the environment becomes for the animals.

D. the environment becomes less safe for the animals.

Question 13: If I had been able to improve my professional skills through self-learning, I _____a manger now.

A. am B. would be C. will be D. would have been

Question 14: She feels a strong sense of_________towards her employees.

A. responsibility B. responsible C. responsibly D. irresponsible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 15: I usually think back on my childhood with great pleasure.

A. maintain B. tolerate C. recall D. continue

Question 16: You should remember to tailor your CV to the job you are applying for.

A. adapt B. write C. cut D. create

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17: Instead of being short and demanding, the exam season is long and tedious.

A. challenging B. monotonous C. interesting D. boring

Question 18: The society was set up to preserve endangered species from extinction.

A. help B. protect C. destroy D. save

B. PHẦN CHUNG CHO HAI CHƯƠNG TRÌNH

44

https://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/season

https://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/exam

https://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/demand

https://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/instead

REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 19: The children spend much time playing computer games. They’ll feel very tired easily.

A. The children are getting more and more time playing computer games.

B. The easier tired the children feel, the more time they’ll spend playing games.

C. The more time the children spend playing computer games, the more tired they’ll get.

D. The more time children spend playing computer games, the much tired they’ll fell.

Question 20: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window.

A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.

B. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.

C. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.

D. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 21: We benefit greatly for the many medicines and other products that biodiversity provides.

A B C D

Question 22: In my opinion, I think that women are usually better with children than men.

A B C D

Question 23: The team leader demanded from his team members a serious attitude towards work, good

A B C

team spirit, and they work hard.

D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 24: A. solidarity B. combination C. energetic D. excellently

Question 25: A. derive B. modern C. provide D. depend


GARBAGE

Garbage cans are not magical portals. Garbage does not disappear when you toss it in a can. There are four methods to managing waste: recycling, landfilling, composting, and incinerating. Each method has its strengths and weaknesses. Let's take a quick look at each.

Recycling is the process of turning waste into new materials. For example, used paper can be turned into paperboard, which can be used to make book covers. Recycling can reduce pollution, save materials, and lower energy use. Yet, some argue that recycling wastes energy. They believe that collecting, processing, and

45

REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12converting waste uses more energy than it saves. Still, most people agree that recycling is better for the planet than landfilling.

Landfilling is the oldest method of managing waste. In its simplest form, landfilling is when people bury garbage in a hole. Over time the practice of landfilling has advanced. Garbage is compacted before it is thrown into the hole. In this way more garbage can fit in each landfill. Large liners are placed in the bottom of landfills so that toxic garbage juice doesn't get into the ground water. Sadly, these liners don't always work. Landfills may pollute the local water supply. Not to mention that all of that garbage fills a place with a strong, unpleasant smell. Nobody wants to live next to a landfill. This makes it hard to find new locations for landfills.

As landfill space increases, interest in composting grows. Compositing is when people pile up organic matter, such as food waste, and allow it to decompose. The product of this decomposition is compost. Compost can be added to the soil to make the soil richer and better for growing crops. While composting is easy to do onsite somewhere, like home or school, it's hard to do after the garbage gets all mixed up. This is because plastic and other inorganic materials must be removed from the compost pile or they will pollute the soil. There's a lot of plastic in garbage, which makes it hard to compost on a large scale.

One thing that is easier to do is burning garbage. There are two main ways to incinerate waste. The first is to create or harvest a fuel from the waste, such as methane gas, and burn the fuel. The second is to burn the waste directly. The heat from the incineration process can boil water, which can power steam generators. Unfortunately, burning garbage pollutes the air. Also, some critics worry that incinerators destroy valuable resources that could be recycled. Source: ereadingworksheets.com

Question 26: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as one of the benefits of recycling?

A. Recycling can make the soil better. B. Recycling can save materials.

C. Recycling can reduce pollution. D. Recycling can lower energy use.

Question 27: Which was NOT cited in paragraph 3 as a problem with landfilling?

A. It is difficult to find locations for landfills. B. Landfills are smelly.

C. Usable materials are wasted in landfills. D. Landfills may pollute the water supply.

Question 28: The word “it” in bold in paragraph 3 refers to__________?

A. landfilling B. garbage C. form D. method

Question 29: Which best defines the meaning of “incinerate” as it is used in paragraph 5?

A. To burn waste materials and harvest the energy

B. To allow waste products to decompose and become fertilizer

C. To bury waste materials in a large hole

D. To turn waste materials into products like book covers

Question 30: Which conclusion could best be supported with the passage?

A. All large cities should create massive compost piles.

B. Recycling is without a doubt the best way to handle waste.

C. Incineration is the best way to process waste.

D. Each method of waste management has its drawbacks.

Question 31: Which best expresses the author's main purpose in writing this text?

A. To compare and contrast recycling and landfilling

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REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12B. To convince readers to recycle and compost

C. To persuade readers that recycling is a waste of resources

D. To inform readers of methods of waste management

Question 32: Which title best expresses the main idea of this text?

A. Methods of Waste Management: Pros and Cons

B. Do Your Part: How to Save the Earth by Recycling and Composting

C. The Magic of Recycling: Bringing Back What Was Once Lost

D. Recycling, Landfilling, or Composting: Which is Best for You?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 33: Walking on the grass in the park is not permitted.

A. We do not have to walk on the grass in the park. B. People like walking on the grass in the park.

C. You can walk on the grass in the park if you want to. D. We must not walk on the grass in the park.

Question 34: The test we did last time was more difficult than this one.

A. This time we have to do the most difficult test of all.

B. The test we have done this time is not difficult at all.

C. This test is not as difficult as the one we did last time.

D. We did an easy test last time and a difficult one this time.

Question 35: She did not thank us for our help when she left.

A. She did not leave and thanked us for our help. B. When she left, she didn’t help us and say thanks.

C. We thanked for her help and she left. D. She left without thanking us for our help.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 36: A. history B. pioneer C. significant D. philosophy

Question 37: A. nature B. question C. initiate D. picture

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

HOMESTAY

When studying a foreign language abroad, a large majority of students choose “homestay” accommodation, living with a host family while they (38)_________classes in a nearby language school. Very often, however, once lessons have finished, students speak their mother tongue with other class members of the same nationality. On a Homestay Language International study trip, we ensure total immersion in the target language environment by arranging accommodation and one-to-one tuition in your teacher's home, (39)_________you are surrounded by the language during every moment of your stay.

47

REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12As you are the (40)_________student, you can learn at your own pace, and lessons are tailor-made to suit

your individual interests and objectives. You will also have the chance to (41)_________fully in your host teacher's family and social life, including trips to places of interest in the local area. All of our teachers have a university degree and a relevant teaching qualification, and most have spent time abroad so they understand the needs and concerns of their student guests.

Homestay Language International offers a wide (42)_________of general or business courses for young and old alike, with a choice of over 80 destinations throughout the world. Whether it's English in New Zealand, French in Canada or German in Austria, you can expect a warm welcome in a relaxed home environment and an unforgettable study experience.

Source: Macmillan Exams- Ready for FCE by Roy Norris

Question 38: A. go B. present C. assist D. attend

Question 39: A. because of B. so that C. in order D. in case

Question 40: A. only B. lonely C. unique D. alone

Question 41: A. enjoy B. include C. participate D. involve

Question 42: A. kind B. range C. type D. sort


STUDY HABITS OF SUCCESSFUL STUDENTS

We all know that every successful student needs to study. However, having good study habits can be more difficult than you might think. Here are ten study habits of successful students. Work to develop these in your studies and you may just see the results you have been hoping for.

1. Try not to study for too long at one time. Studying for long periods can make you tired and may make your studying less effective. Study for short times, and take short breaks to refresh your mind.

2. Plan specific times to study. Rather than just studying whenever you have a free moment, set aside specific times throughout the day or week only for study.

3. Study at the same time each day. Establish a routine in your studies. Just like sleeping or eating, set aside a specific time each day to study. That way, your mind will be prepared when it is time to study.

4. Set goals for your study time. By being very clear about what you hope to accomplish, your study time will have more value.

5. Stick to your plan. Once you have decided when to study and what your goals are, do not procrastinate or delay. Focus and get started.

6. Complete the assignment that you find most difficult first. Since the most difficult assignment will require more effort, start with that one. Then the others will seem even easier.

7. Review your notes before getting started. By reviewing, the information you need for an assignment will be fresh in your mind when you begin.

8. Get rid of distractions. Turn off the television and your mobile phone. Tell friends not to call during the time you have set aside to study. There will be time to talk once you have accomplished your goals.

9. Sometimes two heads really can be better than one. So for some assignments, find a partner or group to study with. You may be able to help each other work through an assignment and achieve better results.

10. Review your assignments over the weekends. We all need a break, and the weekends should be fun. However, taking a few minutes to review your work once you have stepped away from it might help you be better prepared for the week ahead.

Use these ten study habits throughout your education, and they will become part of your normal routine.

Source: Select Readings, Second Edition, Oxford University Press

Question 43: The reading passage is primarily about __________.48

REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12A. how much time you should study every week B. how to get better scores on tests

C. how to set up good habits for studying D. how good study habits can help you get a good job

Question 44: According to the passage, studying for long periods at a time __________.

A. makes your studying less effective B. is a good way to refresh your mind

C. is better right before sleeping D. is best done after a break

Question 45: According to the reading, setting goals for your study time __________.

A. will bring more value to your work B. will help you focus

C. will help you stick to your plan D. will let you study with a clear head

Question 46: If you complete the most difficult assignment first, __________.

A. it will require more effort B. you may not have time for the easier ones

C. you won’t be likely to delay your studying D. the other assignments won’t seem as hard

Question 47: According to the reading, you should tell your friends __________.

A. to call you on your mobile phone after studying

B. to turn off the television when you’re trying to study

C. to set aside time to talk to you

D. not to call you during your study time, so that you can focus

Question 48: The reading suggests that studying with another student __________.

A. will always give you better results B. is better than studying in a group

C. is always better than studying alone D. can be helpful for some assignments

Question 49: The rules suggest that on weekends, __________.

A. you should review your assignments for just a few minutes

B. you need to take a complete break from studying

C. you need to study so you won’t forget your assignments

D. you should step away from your studying sometimes for breaks

Question 50: From the passage, we can infer that __________.

A. it’s difficult for most students to set good study habits

B. setting good study habits can help you even after you’re out of school

C. these rules work better in university than in high school

D. good study habits require that you only need to follow all ten rules

----------- HẾT ----------

49

REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12APPENDIX

UNIT 10. ENDANGERED SPECIES[NHỮNG LOÀI ĐỘNG VẬT BỊ ĐE DỌA]

- bared teeth (n): răng hở- be driven to the verge of… :bị đẩy đến bờ của…..- biologist /bai'ɔlədʒist/ (n): nhà sinh vật học- deforestation /di,fɔris'tei∫n/ (n): sự phá rừng- derive (from) /di'raiv/ (v): bắt nguồn từ- enact /ɪˈnækt/ (v): ban hành (đạo luật)- gorilla /gə'rilə/ (n): con khỉ đột- habitat /ˈhæbɪtæt/ (n):môi trường sống,chỗ ở (người)- leopard /'lepəd/ (n): con báo- parrot /ˈpærət/ (n): con vẹt- reserve /ri'zə:v/ (n): khu bảo tồn, (v): dự trữ- rhinoceros /rai'nɔsərəs/ (n): con tê giác- sociable /'sou∫əbl/ (a): dễ gần gũi, hoà đồng- urbanization /,ə:bənai'zei∫n/ (n): sự đô thị hoá- vulnerable /'vʌlnərəbl/ (a): dẽ bị tổn thương- wildlife /'waildlaif/ (n): động vật hoang dã- worm /wə:m/ (n): sâu, trùng

- damage /ˈdæmɪdʒ/ (v): gây tổn hại,(n): sự thiệt hại- contaminate /kənˈtæmɪneɪt/ (v): làm bẩn, làm nhiễm (bệnh)- fertile /'fə:tail/ (a): màu mỡ- awareness /əˈweənəs/ (a): nhận thức về ai/cái gì- conservation /,kɔnsə:'vei∫n/ (n): sự bảo tồn- survive /sə'vaiv/ (v): sống sót; còn lại- develop /di'veləp/ (v): phát triển- essential /ɪˈsenʃl/ (a): cần thiết,chủ yếu, (n): yếu tố cần thiết- project /'prədʒekt/ (n): dự án, kế hoạch- fashionable /'fỉ∫nəbl/ (a): lịch sự, sang trọng- livelihood /'laivlihud/ (n): cách kiếm sống- numerous /'nju:mərəs/ (a): đông đảo- poach /pout∫/ (v): săn trộm, xâm phạm- endanger /in'deindʒə(r)/ (v):gây nguy hiểm⟹ danger /deindʒə/ (n):mối đe doạ, sự nguy hiểm- extinction /ɪkˈstɪŋkʃn/ (n): duyệt chủng- globe /gloub/ (n): quả cầu

UNIT 11 : BOOKS [SÁCH]-chew /t∫u:/ (v): nhai- digest /'daidʒest/ (v): tiêu hoá- fascinating /ˈfæsɪneɪtɪŋ/ (a): hấp dẫn,quyến rũ- personality /ˌpɜːsəˈnæləti/ (n):tính cách,lịch thiệp- swallow /’swɔlou/(v): nuốt (n):ngụm- reunite /,ri:ju:'nait/ (v): đoàn tụ- taste /teist/ (v): nếm

- unnoticed /,ʌn'noutist/ (a):không để ý thấy- wilderness /'wildənis/ (n): vùng hoang dã- literature /'litrət∫ə/ (n): văn học- advantage /əd'vɑ:ntidʒ/ (n): lợi thế- discovery /dis'kʌvəri/ (n): sự khám phá ra

UNIT 12 : WATER SPORTS[CÁC MÔN THỂ THAO DƯỚI NƯỚC]

- canoeing /kəˈnuːɪŋ/(n): môn đi thuyền- cap /kæp/ (n): mũ lưỡi trai- eject /i:'dʒekt/ (v): tống ra- foul /faul/ (n): phạm luật,sai sót- scuba-diving /ˈskuːbə daɪvɪŋ/: lặn có bình khí- synchronized swimming /ˈsɪŋkrənaɪz/:bơi nghệ thuật- tie /taɪ/ = drawn /drɔːn/ (n): trận hoà- vertical /ˈvɜːtɪkl/ (a): phương thẳng đứng- windsurfing (n): môn lướt ván buồn- water polo (n): môn bóng nước- castle /'kɑ:sl/ (n): lâu đài

- cross-bar (n): xà ngang- goalie = goalkeeper /ˈɡəʊlkiːpə(r)/ (n): thủ môn- sprint /sprɪnt/ (v): chạy hết tốc lực- defensive /di'fensiv/ (a): để phòng thủ- penalize = penalise /ˈpiːnəlaɪz/ (v): phạt- overtime /ˈəʊvətaɪm/ (n): giờ làm thêm,(a): quá giờ- referee /,refə'ri:/ (n): trọng tài- commit /kə'mit/ (v): vi phạm- sail /seil/ (n): buồm,(v): lướt- bend /bend/ (v): cúi xuống- set /set/ (v): lặn- conduct /kənˈdʌkt/ (v):hướng dẫn- postman /ˈpəʊstmən/ (n): người đưa thư

UNIT 13 : THE 22nd SEAGAMES[THẾ VẬN HỘI ĐÔNG NAM Á LẦN THỨ 22]

- clear /klɪə(r)/ (v): nhảy qua- composed /kəm'pouz/ (a): gồm có; bao gồm- countryman /'kʌntrimən/ (n): người đồng hương- deal /diːl/ (n): sự thoả thuận- enthusiast /in'ju:ziỉst/ (n): người say mê- defend /di'fend/ (v): bảo vệ- milkmaid /'milkmeid/ (n): cô gái vắt sữa- outstanding /aʊtˈstændɪŋ/ (a): xuất sắc, nổi bật- overwhelming /ˌəʊvəˈwelmɪŋ/ (a): lớn,vĩ đại- podium /'poudiəm/ (n): bục danh dự- pole vaulting /pəʊl/ /ˈvɔːltɪŋ/ (n): nhảy sào- precision /pri'siʒn/ (n): độ chính xác- rival /'raivəl/ (n): đối thủ- scoreboard /ˈskɔːbɔːd/ (n): bảng điểm- title /'taitl/ (n): danh hiệu, tư cách, đầu đề- spirit /ˈspɪrɪt/ (n): tinh thần- peace /pi:s/ (n): hoà bình

- solidarity /ˌsɒlɪˈdærəti/ (n): đoàn kết- co-operation /kou,ɔpə'rei∫n/ (n): sự hợp tác- development /di'veləpmənt/ (n):phát triển- wrestling /ˈreslɪŋ/ (n): môn đấu vật- basketball /'bɑ:skitbɔ:l/ (n): bóng rổ- volleyball /'vɔlibɔ:l/ (n): bóng chuyền- badminton /ˈbædmɪntən/ (n): cầu lông- body-building (n): thể dục thể hình- athlete /ˈæθliːt/ (n): lực sĩ,vận động viên- energetic /,enə'dʒetik/ (a): mạnh mẽ- propose /prə'pouz/ (v): đề nghị- rank /ræŋk/ (v): xếp vị trí- host /həʊst/ (v): tổ chức, (n): chủ nhà- pullover /pulouvə/ = jersey /'dʒə:zi/(n):áo len chui đầu- disease /di'zi:z/ (n): căn bệnh- acknowledge /ək'nɔlidʒ/ (v): thừa nhận - improve /im'pru:v/ (v): cải tiến, cải thiện

50

REVISION FOR THE SECOND EXAM;GCSE GRADE 12UNIT 14 : INTERNATIONAL ORGANIZATIONS

[CÁC TỔ CHỨC QUỐC TẾ]- appalled (a): bị choáng- appeal /ə'pi:l/ (v): kêu gọi- dedicated /'dedikeitid/ (a): tận tụy,cống hiến- disaster-stricken /dɪˈzɑːstə(r) - /ˈstrɪkən/(a): bị thiên tai tàn phá- epidemic /,epi'demik/(n): bệnh dịch- hesitation /,hezi'tei∫n/ (n): sự do dự- initiate /ɪˈnɪʃieɪt/(v): khởi đầu- tsunami /tsu'na:mi/(n): sóng thần- wash (away) (v): quét sạch- wounded /'wu:ndid/ (a): bị thương- soldier /'souldʒə/ (n): người lính- delegate /ˈdelɪɡət/(n): người đại diện- convention /kən'ven∫n/ (n): hiệp định- federation /,fedə'rei∫n/ (n): liên đoàn- emergency /i'mə:dʒensi/ (n): sự khẩn cấp

- arrest /ə'rest/ (v): bắt giữ- aim /eim/ (v): nhắm/ đề ra mục tiêu- relief /ri'li:f/ (n): sự trợ giúp- comprise /kəm'praiz/ (v): gồm có, bao gồm- impartial /im'pɑ:∫əl/ (a): công bằng, vô tư- neutral /'nju:trəl/ (n): nước trung lập- relieve /ri'li:v/ (v): an ủi- peacetime /'pi:staim/(n): thời bìnhh- agency /'eidʒənsi/(n): cơ quan, tác dụng- stand for :là chữ viết tắt của cái gì.., tha thứ- stand in :đại diện cho- objective /ɔb'dʒektiv/ (a): (thuộc) mục tiêu- potential /pə'ten∫l/ (a): (n): tiềm năng - advocate /ˈædvəkeɪt/ (v): biện hộ- temporary /'temprəri/ (a):tạm thời,lâm thời- headquarters /'hed'kwɔ:təz/ (HQ) (n): sở chỉ huy- colleague /kɔ'li:g/ (n): bạn đồng nghiệp- livelihood /'laivlihud/ (n): cách kiếm sống

UNIT 15: WOMEN IN SOCIETY[PHỤ NỮ TRONG XÃ HỘI]

- age of enlightenment /eɪdʒ -əv -/ɪnˈlaɪtnmənt / :thời đại khai sáng- child-bearing /'t∫aild,beərɪŋ/ (n): việc sinh con - deep-seated /di:p'si:tid/(a): ăn sâu, lâu đời- discriminate /dis'krimineit/(v): phân biệt đối xử- home-making (n): công việc nội trợ- intellectual /,inti'lektjuəl/ (a): (thuộc) trí tuệ- involvement /in'vɔlvmənt/(n): sự tham gia- look down upon /lʊk - daʊn - əˈpɒn/ :coi thường,khinh rẻ- lose contact with /luːz -ˈkɒntækt - /wɪð /: mất liên lạc với- lose one's temper /ˈtempə(r)/: nổi giận, cáu- neglect /ni'glekt/ (v): sao lãng, bỏ bê- nonsense /'nɔnsəns/ (n): lời nói vô lư- prohibit /prə'hibit/ (v): ngăn cấm

- philosopher /fi'lɔsəfə(r)/ (n): nhà triết học- pioneer /,paiə'niə(r)/(n): người tiên phong- rear /riə/ (v): nuôi dưỡng- rubbish /'rʌbi∫/ (n): chuyện nhảm nhí, rác rưởi- struggle /'strʌgl/ (n): (v): sự đấu tranh- role /roul/ (n): vai trò- limit /'limit/ (v), (n): giới hạn, hạn chế- throughout /θruːˈaʊt/ : suốt- civilization /,sivəlai'zei∫n/(n): nền văn minh- doubt /daut/ (n), (v): nghi ngờ- legal /'li:gəl/ (a): hợp pháp- control /kən'troul/(v): có quyền hành- deny / di'nai /(v): phủ nhận- argue /'ɑ:gju:/ (v): cãi nhau;tranh cãi- vote /vout/ (v): bầu,bỏ phiếu,biểu quyết- accord /ə'kɔ:d/ (v): chấp nhận

UNIT 16: THE ASSOCIATION OF SOUTHEAST ASIAN NATIONS [HIỆP HỘI CÁC QUỐC GIA ĐÔNG NAM Á]- accelerate /ək'seləreit/ (v): thúc đẩy,đẩy nhanh- Buddhism /'budizm/(n): đạo Phật- Catholicism /kə'ɔlisizm/(n): đạo Thiên chúa- christianity/ˌkrɪstiˈænəti/(n): đạo Cơ- đốc- Islam /iz'lɑ:m; 'islɑ:m/ (n): đạo Hồi- justice /'dʒʌstis/ (n): sự công bằng- currency /'kʌrənsi/ (n): đơn vị tiền tệ- diverse (a):gồm nhiều loại khác nhau- forge /fɔ:dʒ/ (v): tạo dựng- namely /ˈneɪmli/ (adv): cụ thể là; ấy là

- realization /,riəlai'zei∫n/ (n): sự thực hiện- series /'siəri:z/ (n): loạt,chuỗi- socio-economic (a): thuộc kinh tế xã hội- stability /stə'biləti/ (n): sự ổn định- thus /δʌs/: như vậy, như thế- integration /,inti'grei∫n/(n): sự hoà nhập,hội nhập- culture /'kʌlt∫ə/ (n): văn hoá- average /ˈævərɪdʒ/ (n): trung bình- adopt /əˈdɒpt/ (v): kế tục, chấp nhận, thông qua- vision /'viʒn/(n): tầm nhìn rộng- lead /li:d/ (v): lãnh đạo- enterprise /'entəpraiz/ (n):công trình, sự nghiệp- GDP ( Gross Domestic Product) : tổng sản lượng nội địa

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