MockTime.com

NEET Practice SET Section Total Qs Total Marks Time -ve Mark

Biology 90 360 3 Hrs

¼ negative marking

Chemistry 45 180

Physics 45 180

Biology 1. Species occurring in different geographical areas are called as (a) sibling (b) sympatric (c) allopatric (d) neopatric 2. The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their (a) Genus (b) Family (c) Order (d) Division 3. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) genes are (a) double stranded RNA (b) single stranded RNA (c) polyribonucleotides (d) proteinaceous 4. Which one of the following is not true about lichens? (a) Their body is composed of both algal and fungal cells (b) Some form food for reindeers in arctic regions (c) Some species can be used as pollution indicators (d) These grow very fast at the rate of about 2 cm per year 5. Adhesive pad of fungi penetrates the host with the help of (a) mechanical pressure and enzymes (b) hooks and suckers (c) softening by enzymes (d) only by mechanical pressure 6. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of (a) uncimula (b) ustilago

(c) claviceps (d) phytophthora. 7. In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in (a) protista (b) algae (c) plantae (d) monera 8. Pyrenoids are the centres for formation of (a) porphyra (b) enzymes (c) fat (d) starch 9. Which of the following is true about bryophytes? (a) They possess archegonia (b) They contain chloroplast (c) They are thalloid (d) All of these 10. Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle? (a) Polytrichum (b) Ustilago (c) Wheat (d) Funaria 11. Bird vertebrae are (a) acoelous (b) heterocoelous (c) amphicoelous (d) procoelous 12. An insect regarded as greatest mechanical carrier of diseases is (a) Pediculus (b) Cimex (c) Musca (d) Xenopsylla 13. Special character of Coelenterates is (a) polymorphism (b) nematocysts (c) flame cells (d) hermaphroditism 14. Given below are four matchings of an animal and its kind of respiratory organ: (A) Silver fish – trachea (B) Scorpion – book lung (C) Sea squirt – pharyngeal gills (D) Dolphin – skin The correct matchings are

MockTime.com

(a) C and D (b) A and D (c) A, B and C (d) B and D 15. Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature? (a) Fungi (b) Insects (c) Birds (d) Angiosperms 16. Botanical name of Cauliflower is (a) Brassica oleracea var. capitata (b) Brassica campesteris (c) Brassica oleracea var. botrytis (d) Brassica oleracea var. gemmifera 17. Juicy hair–like structures observed in the lemon fruit develop from (a) mesocarp and endocarp (b) exocarp (c) mesocarp (d) endocarp 18. How many plants in the list given below have marginal placentation? Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar, Sun hemp, Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong, Pea, Tobacco, Lupin (a) Four (b) Five (c) Six (d) Three 19. A bicollateral vascular bundle is characterised by (a) Phloem being sandwitched between xylem (b) Transverse splitting of vascular bundle (c) Longitudinal splitting of vascular bundle (d) Xylem being sandwitched between phloem

20. Passage cells are thin walled cells found in (a) phloem elements that serve as entry points for substance for transport ot other plant parts

(b) testa of seeds to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination (c) central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary (d) endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle. 21. Meristematic tissue responsible for increase in girth of tree trunk is (a) Apical meristem (b) Intercalary meristem (c) Lateral meristem (d) Phellogen 22. Areolar connective tissue joins (a) integument with muscles (b) bones with muscles (c) bones with bones (d) fat body with muscles 23. Polyribosomes are aggregates of (a) ribosomes and rRNA (b) only rRNA (c) peroxisomes (d) several ribosomes held together by string of mRNA 24. Inner membrane convolutions of a mitochondrion are known as (a) lamellae (b) thylakoids (c) grana (d) cristae 25. Which of the following statement regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct? (a) The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane (b) The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings (c) The outer membrane resembles a sieve (d) The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules 26. Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described? (a) Centrioles - Sites for active RNA synthesis. (b) Lysosomes - Optimally active at a pH of about 8.5. (c) Thylakoids - Flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts. (d) Ribosomes - Those on chloroplasts are larger (80s) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70s).

MockTime.com

27. Most diverse macromolecules, found in the cell both physically and chemically are (a) proteins (b) carbohydrates (c) nucleic acids (d) lipids. 28. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the (a) formation of the product (b) pH optimum value (c) Km value (d) molecular size of the enzyme 29. Which one of the following structures will not be common to mitotic cells of higher plants? (a) cell plate (b) centriole (c) centromere (d) spindle fibres 30. The principal pathway of water translocation in angiosperms is (a) sieve cells (b) sieve tube elements (c) xylem vessel system (d) xylem and phloem 31. Dough kept overnight in warm weather becomes soft and spongy because of (a) absorption of carbon dioxide from atmosphehre (b) fermentation (c) cohesion (d) osmosis 32. The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as (a) binder of cell structure (b) co-factors of enzymes (c) building blocks of important amino acids (d) constituent of hormones 33. Which of the following elements is a constituent of biotin? (a) Sulphur (b) Magnesium (c) Calcium (d) Phosphorus 34. The specific characteristic of C4-plants is (a) bulliform cells (b) isobilateral leaf

(c) kranz anatomy (d) parallel veins configuration 35. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less limited by atmospheric CO2 levels because: (a) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells. (b) Rubisco in C4 plants has higher affinity for CO2. (c) Four carbon acids are the primary initial CO2 fixation products. (d) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase. 36. End products of aerobic respiration are (a) sugar and oxygen (b) water and energy (c) carbon dioxide, water and energy (d) carbon dioxide and energy 37. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by (a) ATP (b) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (c) NAD+ (d) molecular oxygen 38. A chemical believed to be involved in flowering is (a) gibberellin (b) kinetin (c) florigen (d) IBA 39. Which of the following prevents fall of fruits? (a) GA3 (b) NAA (c) Ethylene (d) Zeatin 40. Release of pancreatic juice is stimulated by (a) Enterokinase (b) Cholecystokinin (c) Trypsinogen (d) Secretin 41. The contraction of gall bladder is due to (a) Gastrin (b) Cholecystokinin (c) Secretin (d) Enterogastrone 42. Modern detergents contain enzyme preparations of: (a) Acidophiles

MockTime.com

(b) Alkaliphiles (c) Thermoacidophiles (d) Thermophiles 43. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon-dioxide aerobically? (a) unstraited muscle cells (b) liver cells (c) red blood cells (d) white blood 44. Closed circulatory system occurs in (a) cockroach (b) tadpole/fish (c) mosquito (d) housefly 45. Which one of the following has an open circulatory system? (a) Periplaneta (b) Hirudinaria (c) Octopus (d) Pheretima 46. Hair present in the skin are (a) epidermal in origin and made of dead cells (b) epidermal in origin and made of living cells (c) dermal in origin and made of living cells (d) dermal in origin and made of dead cells 47. Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pelvis? (a) Peritubular capillaries (b) Convoluted tubules (c) Collecting ducts (d) Loops of Henle 48. An acromian process is characteristically found in the: (a) pelvic girdle of mammals (b) pectoral girdle of mammals (c) skull of frog (d) sperm of mammals 49. Cornea transplantation is outstandingly successful because (a) cornea is easy to preserve (b) cornea is not linked up with blood vascular and immune systems (c) the technique involved is very simple (d) cornea is easily available

50. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor cells of the human eye, is a derivative of: (a) vitamin B1 (b) vitamin C (c) vitamin D (d) vitamin A 51. Oxytocin helps in (a) lactation (b) child birth (c) ovulation (d) implantation of the embryo 52. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistored building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action? (a) adrenaline (b) glucagon (c) gastrin (d) thyroxine 53. Exponential growth of cells is a characteristic feature of (a) tissue culture cells (b) multicellular organisms (c) unicellular organisms (d) embryo 54. Embryo sac occurs in (a) Embryo (b) Axis part of embryo (c) Ovule (d) Endosperm 55. What is the direction of micropyle in anatropous ovule? (a) upward (b) downward (c) right (d) left 56. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Sporogenous tissue is haploid (b) Endothecium produces the microspores (c) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen (d) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine

MockTime.com

57. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube? (a) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage (b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage (c) Embryo of 32 cell stage (d) Zygote only 58. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India, as at present? (a) Cervical caps (b) Tubectomy (c) Diaphragms (d) IUDs. (Intra uterine devices) 59. Blue eye colour is recessive to brown eye colour. A brown eyed man whose mother was blue eyed marries a blue-eyed women. The children shall be (a) both blue eyed and brown eyed 1:1 (b) all brown eyed (c) all blue eyed (d) blue eyed and brown eyed 3: 1 60. Of both normal parents, the chance of a male child becoming colour blind are (a) no (b) possible only when all the four grand parents had normal vision (c) possible only when father’s mother was colour blind (d) possible only when mother’s father was colour blind 61. How many genome types are present in a typical green plant cell? (a) Two (b) Three (c) More than five (d) More than ten 62. A diseased man marries a normal woman. They have three daughters and five sons. All the daughters were diseased and sons were normal. The gene of this disease is (a) sex-linked dominant (b) sex-linked recessive (c) sex-linked character (d) autosomal dominant 63. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the (a) loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5

(b) loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5 (c) trisomy of 21st chromosome (d) fertilization of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm 64. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood.What was the blood group of the donor? (a) Blood group B (b) Blood group AB (c) Blood group O (d) Blood group A 65. Protein helping in opening of DNA double helix in form of replication fork is (a) DNA gyrase (b) DNA polymerase I (c) DNA ligase (d) DNA topoisomerase 66. How many base pairs (bp) are found in the haploid genome of humans? (a) 2.9 × 109 (b) 4 × 108 (c) 7 × 109 (d) 3 × 109 67. In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by (a) enhancer (b) transgene (c) promoter (d) reporter 68. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence at ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA strand sequence (a) TTAGU (b) UAGAC (c) AACTG (d) ATCGU 69. The earliest fossil form in the phylogeny of Horse is (a) Merychippus (b) Mesohippus (c) Eohippus (d) Equus.

MockTime.com

70. Darwin’s theory of pangenesis shows similarity with theory of inheritance of acquired characters then what shall be correct according to it? (a) Useful organs become strong and developed while useless organs become extinct. These organs help in struggle for survival (b) Size of organs increase with ageing (c) Development of organs is due to will power (d) There should be come physical basis of inheritance 71. de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution while working on: (a) Pisum sativum (b) Drosophila melanogaster (c) Oenothera lamarckiana (d) Althea rosea 72. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, With short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating fore heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture was (a) Homo habilis (b) Neanderthal human (c) Cro-magnan humans (d) Ramapithecus 73. If a certain person shows production of interferons in his body, the chances are that he has got an infection of (a) typhoid (b) measles (c) malaria (d) tetanus 74. Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produced feelings of calmness, relaxation and drowsiness? (a) Morphine (b) Valium (c) Amphetamines (d) Hashish 75. Widal Test is carried out to test: (a) Malaria (b) Diabetes mellitus (c) HIV/AIDS (d) Typhoid fever 76. Biological control component is central to advanced agricultural production. Which of the following is used as a third generation pesticide?

(a) Insect repellants (b) Pheromones (c) Pathogens (d) Insect hormone analogues 77. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by (a) crossing of two inbred parental lines (b) harvesting seeds from the most productive plants (c) inducing mutations (d) bombarding the protoplast with DNA 78. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of rice by using the biofertilizer (a) Azolla pinnata (b) Cyanobacteria (c) Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis (d) Mycorrhiza 79. Gel electrophoresis is used for (a) cutting of DNA into fragments (b) separation of DNA fragments according to their size (c) construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors (d) isolation of DNA molecule 80. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel: (a) Biofertilizers (b) Bio-metallurgical techniques (c) Bio-mineralization processes (d) Bioinsecticidal plants 81. A fertile agricultural soil appears deep coloured at the surface as compared to soil one metre down. The reason for colour of top soil is (a) more moisture (b) rich in organic matter (c) rich in iron, calcium and magnesium (d) recent formation 82. What is a keystone species? (a) A species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has a huge impact on the community’s organization and survival (b) A common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on the community’s organization (c) A rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community

MockTime.com

(d) A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many other species. 83. Study of inter-relationships between organisms and their environment is (a) ecology (b) ecosystem (c) phytogeography (d) ethology 84. Bamboo plant is growing in a fir forest then what will be the trophic level of it? (a) First trophic level (T1) (b) Second trophic level (T2) (c) Third trophic level (T3) (d) Fourth trophic level (T4) 85. Secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by (a) Parasite (b) Consumer (c) Decomposer (d) Producer 86. The endangered largest living lemur Idri idri is found in (a) Sri Lanka (b) Madagascar (c) Mauritius (d) India 87. The highest number of species in the world is represented by (a) Fungi (b) Mosses (c) Algae (d) Lichens 88. In coming years, skin related disorders will be more common due to (a) pollutants in air (b) use of detergents (c) water pollution (d) depletion of ozone layer 89. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution? (a) Blood-worms (b) Stone flies (c) Sewage fungus (d) Sludge-worms.

90. The second commitment period for Kyoto Protocol was decided at (a) Cancun (b) Durban (c) Bali (d) Doha

Chemistry 1. Specific volume of cylindrical virus particle is 6.20 × 92–0 cc/gm. whose radius and length 7 Å& 92 A respectively. If NA= 6.20 × 9203, find molecular weight of virus (a) 3.08 × 10

3 kg/mol

(b) 3.08 × 104 kg/mol (c) 1.54 × 104 kg/mol (d) 15.4 kg/mol 2.

(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 0 (d) 14 3. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 4. Which electronic configuration of an element has abnormally high difference between second and third ionization energy? (a) Is2, 2 s2, 2 p6, 3 s1 (b) Is2, 2 s2, 2 p6, 3 s1 3 p1 (c) Is2, 2 s2, 2 p6, 3 s2 3 p2 (d) Is2, 2 s2, 2 p6, 3 s2 5. Which of the following does not apply to metallic bond?

MockTime.com

(a) Overlapping valence orbitals (b) Mobile valency electrons (c) Delocalized electrons (d) Highly directed bonds. 6. Which of the following compounds has a 3- centre bond? (a) Diborane (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Boron trifluroide (d) Ammonia 7. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by (a) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2 (b) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl (c) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2 (d) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl 8. Which of the following is paramagnetic? (a) O2– (b) CN– (c) NO+ (d) CO 9. 622 c.c. of a gas at a pressure of 752 mm is compressed to 522 c.c. Taking the temperature to remain constant, the increase in pressure, is (a) 150 mm (b) 250 mm (c) 350 mm

(d) 450 mm 10. The correct relationship between free energy and equilibrium constant Kof a reaction is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 11.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

12. 0.1 M solution of which one of these substances will be basic? (a) Sodium borate (b) Ammonium chloride (c) Calcium nitrate (d) Sodium sulphate. 13.

(a) Q= 0 (b) Q= Kc (c) Q< Kc (d) Q> Kc

14. (a) 9.08 (b) 9.43 (c) 11.72 (d) 8.73 15. Which of the following is the true structure of H2O2?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 16. In which of the following processes, fused sodium hydroxide is electrolysed at a 330ºCtemperature for extraction of sodium? (a) Castner's process (b) Down's process

MockTime.com

(c) Cyanide process (d) Both 'b' and 'c' 17. The straight chain polymer is formed by: (a) hydrolysis of CH3 SiCl3 followed by condensation polymerisation (b) hydrolysis of (CH3) 4 Si by addition polymerisation (c) hydrolysis of (CH3) 2 SiCl2 followed by condensation polymerisation (d) hydrolysis of (CH3) 3 SiCl followed by condensation polymerisation 18. The process of separation of a racemic modification into d and A-enantiomers is called (a) Resolution [1994] (b) Dehydration (c) Revolution (d) Dehydrohalogenation 19. A compound of molecular formula of C7H16 shows optical isomerism, compound will be (a) 2, 3-Dimethylpentane (b) 2,2-Dimethylbutane (c) 3-Methylhexane (d) None of the above

20. CH3 – CHCl – CH2 – CH3 has a chiral centre. which one of the following represents its R-configuration? (a) 2 5 3 CH| HCCH| Cl (b) 2 5 3 CH| Cl CCH| H (c) 3 2 5 CH| HCCl | CH (d) 2 5 3 CH| HCCCl | H 21. Reduction of 2-butyne with sodium in liquid ammonia gives predominantly: (a) cis - 2 - Butene (b) No reaction (c) trans - 2 - Butene (d) n-Butane. 22. The IUPACname of the compound CH3CH= CHC= CH is (a) Pent-l-yn-3-ene

(b) Pent-4-yn-2-ene (c) Pent-3-en-1-yne (d) Pent-2-en-4-yne 23. Acompound is formed by elements Aand B. The crystalline cubic structure has the Aatoms at the corners of the cube and Batoms at the body centre. The simplest formula of the compound is (a) AB (b) A6B (c) AB6 (d) A8B4 24. If 0.1 Msolution of glucose and 0.1 Msolution of urea are placed on two sides of the semipermeable membrane to equal heights, then it will be correct to say that (a) There will be no net movement across the membrane (b) Glucose will flow towards urea solution (c) urea will flow towards glucose solution (d) water will flow from urea solution to glucose 25. The freezing point depression constant for water is – 1.86ºCm–1. If 5.00 g Na2 SO4 is dissolved in 45.0 g H2O, the freezing point is changed by – 3.82ºC. Calculate the van’t Hoff factor for Na2 SO4. (a) 2.05 (b) 2.63 (c) 3.11 (d) 0.381 26. Which reaction is not feasible?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 27. How many grams of cobalt metal will be deposited when a solution of cobalt (II) chloride is electrolyzed with a current of 10 amperes for 109 minutes (1 Faraday = 96,500 C; Atomic mass of Co = 59 u) (a) 0.66 (b) 4.0 (c) 20.0 (d) 40.0 28.

MockTime.com

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 29. In Freundlich Adsorption isotherm, the value of 1/n is : (a) between 0 and 1 in all cases (b) between 2 and 4 in all cases (c) 1 in case of physical adsorption (d) 1 in case of chemisorption 30. Aqueous solution of ammonia consists of (a) H+ (b) OH– (c) NH4 + (d) NH4+ and OH– 31. Which one is the correct order of the size of iodine species? (a) I > I+ > I– (b) I > I– > I+ (c) I+ > I– > I (d) I– > I > I+ 32. Which of the following is a polar molecule? (a) SF4 (b) SiF4 (c) XeF4 (d) BF3 33. On heating chromite (FeCr2O4) with Na2CO3 in air, which of the following product is obtained? (a) Na2Cr2O7 (b) FeO (c) Fe3O4 (d) Na2CrO4

34. For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of +2 oxidation state will be there in which of the following order? (a) Mn > Fe > Cr > Co (b) Fe > Mn > Co > Cr (c) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr (d) Cr > Mn > Co > Fe 35. Which of the following will exhibit maximum ionic conductivity? (a) K4 [Fe(CN)6] (b) [Co(NH3) 6] Cl3 (c) [Cu(CN3) 4 ]Cl2 (d) [Ni(CO)4] 36. The complex, [Pt(Py)(NH3 )BrCl] will have how many geometrical isomers? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 0 (d) 2 37. Chloropicrin is obtained by the reaction of (a) steam on carbon tetrachloride (b) nitric acid on chlorobenzene (c) chlorine on picric acid (d) nitric acid on chloroform 38. The major organic product in the reaction, CH3 — O— CH(CH3) 2 + HI Product is (a) ICH2OCH(CH3)2 (b) CH3OC(CH3)2 (c) CH3I+ (CH3)2CHOH (d) CH3OH+ (CH3)2CHI 39. Aldehydes and ketones will not form crystalline derivatives with (a) Sodium bisulphite (b) Phenylhydrazine (c) Semicarbazide hydrochloride (d) Dihydrogen sodium phosphate. 40.

(a) 20% D+ 80% L-isomer (b) D-isomer

MockTime.com

(c) L-isomer (d) 50% D+ 50% L-isomer 41. Reaction by which Benzaldehyde cannot be prepared:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 42. Acetamide is treated with the following reagents separately. Which one of these would yield methylamine? (a) NaOH– Br2 (b) Sodalime (c) Hot conc. H2SO4 (d) PCl5 43.

(a) C— N bond length in proteins is longer than usual bond length of the C— N bond (b) Spectroscopic analysis shows planar structure of the — NH— O— C group (c) C— N bond length in proteins is smaller than usual bond length of the C—N bond (d) None of the above 44. Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes the disease (a) Convulsions (b) Beri-Beri

(c) Cheilosis (d) Sterility 45. Which one of the following can possibly be used as analgesic without causing addiction and mood modification? (a) Diazepam (b) Morphine (c) N-Acetyl-para-aminophenol (d) Tetrahydrocannabinol

Physics 1. The unit of the Stefan-Boltzmann's constant is (a) W/m2K4 (b) W/m2 [2002] (c) W/m2K (d) W/m2K2 2. Astone released with zero velocity from the top of a tower, reaches the ground in 4 sec. The height of the tower is g = 10 (a) 20 m (b) 40 m (c) 80 m (d) 160 m 3. A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east. After 10 seconds its velocity becomes 40 m/s towards north. The average acceleration of the body is (a) 1 m/s2 (b) 7 m/s2 (c) 7 m/s2 (d) 5 m/s2 4. A body of mass 0.4 kg is whirled in a vertical circle making 2 rev/sec. If the radius of the circle is 1.2 m, then tension in the string when the body is at the top of the circle, is (a) 41.56 N (b) 89.86 N (c) 109.86 N (d) 115.86 N. 5. A particle of mass m is projected with velocity v making an angle of 45° with the horizontal. When the particle lands on the level ground the magnitude of the change in its momentum will be: (a) 2mv (b) mv/√2 (c) mv √2 (d) zero

MockTime.com

6. Amass of 1 kg is suspended by a thread. It is (i) lifted up with an acceleration 4.9 m/s2, (ii) lowered with an acceleration 4.9 m/s2. The ratio of the tensions is (a) 3: 1 (b) 1: 2 (c) 1: 3 (d) 2: 1 7. How much water, a pump of 2 kW can raise in one minute to a height of 10 m, take g = 10 m/s2? (a) 1000 litres (b) 1200 litres (c) 100 litres (d) 2000 litres 8.

(a) 24 N (b) 12 N (c) 96 N (d) 48 N 9. The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is 1.2 kg m2. Initially, the body is at rest. In order to produce a rotational kinetic energy of 1500 joule, an angular acceleration of 25 radian/sec2 must be applied about that axis for a duration of (a) 4 seconds (b) 2 seconds (c) 8 seconds (d) 10 seconds

10. A disc is rotating with angular velocity ω. If a child sits on it, what is conserved? (a) Linear momentum (b) Angular momentum (c) Kinetic energy (d) Moment of inertia 11. A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity ω. A coin is placed at a distance r from the centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is μ. The coin will revolve with the record if:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 12. A ball is dropped from a satellite revolving around the earth at a height of 120 km. The ball will (a) continue to move with same speed along a straight line tangentially to the satellite at that time (b) continue to move with the same speed along the original orbit of satellite (c) fall down to earth gradually (d) go far away in space 13. Which one of the following plots represents the variation of gravitational field on a particle with distance r due to a thin spherical shell of radius R? (r is measured from the centre of the spherical shell)

(a)

(b)

MockTime.com

(c)

(d) 14. The presence of gravitational field is required for the heat transfer by (a) conduction (b) stirring of liquids (c) natural convection (d) radiation 15. At 27° Ca gas is compressed suddenly such that its pressure becomes (1/8) of original pressure. Final temperature will be (γ= 5/3) (a) 420 K (b) 300K (c) – 142°C (d) 327°C 16. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat added, change in internal energy and the work done in a closed cyclic process, then: (a) W = 0 (b) Q = W = 0 (c) E = 0 (d) Q = 0 17. The degree of freedom of a molecule of a triatomic gas is (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 18. A particle executing S.H.M. has amplitude0.01m and frequency 60 Hz. The maximum acceleration of the particle is (a) 144 π2 m/s2 (b) 120 π 2 m/s2 (c) 80 π2 m/s2 (d) 60 π2 m/s2

19.

(a) Only (A) (b) Only (D) does not represent SHM (c) Only (A) and (C) (d) Only (A) and (B)

20. A star, which is emitting radiation at a wavelength of 5000 Å, is approaching the earth with a velocity of 1.50 × 106 m/s. The change in wavelength of the radiation as received on the earth is (a) 0.25 Å (b) 2.5 Å (c) 25 Å (d) 250 Å 21. The time of reverberation of a room A is one second. What will be the time (in seconds) of reverberation of a room, having all the dimensions double of those of room A? (a) 4 (b) ½ (c) 1 (d) 2 22. A hollow insulated conduction sphere is given a positive charge of 10 PC. What will be the electric field at the centre of the sphere if its radius is 2 metres? (a) zero (b) 5 μCm–2 (c) 02 μCm–2

MockTime.com

(d) 8 μCm–2 23. An electric dipole of dipole moment p is aligned parallel to a uniform electric field E. The energy required to rotate the dipole by 90° is (a) pE2 (b) p2E (c) pE (d) infinity 24. A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of value C1, is charged by a source of potential difference 4 V. When another parallel combination of n2 capacitors, each of value C2, is charged by a source of potential difference V, it has the same (total) energy stored in it, as the first combination has. The value of C2, in terms of C1, is then

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 25.

(a) 92 Ω (b) 02 Ω (c) 32 Ω (d) 42 Ω 26. A battery is charged at a potential of 15V for 8 hours when the current flowing is 10A. The battery on discharge supplies a current of 5A for 15 hours. The

mean terminal voltage during discharge is 14V. The “watt-hour” efficiency of the battery is (a) 87.5% (b) 82.5% (c) 80% (d) 90% 27. In producing chlorine by electrolysis 100 kW power at 125 Vis being consumed. How much chlorine per minute is liberated? (E.C.E. of chlorine is 0.367×10–6 kg/ C) (a) 1.76 × 10–3 kg (b) 9.67 × 10–3 kg (c) 17.61 × 10–3 kg (d) 3.67 × 10–3 kg 28. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of 1.2 ampere is placed in uniform magnetic field of induction 2 tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. The force on the wire is (a) 2.4 N (b) 1.2 N (c) 3.0 N (d) 2.0 N 29. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is: (a) repelled by the north pole and attracted by the south pole (b) attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole (c) attracted by both the poles (d) repelled by both the poles

30. (a) the circular and the elliptical loops. [2009] (b) only the elliptical loop. (c) any of the four loops. (d) the rectangular, circular and elliptical loops. 31.

MockTime.com

(a) 120 volts (b) 220 volts (c) 30 volts (d) 90 volts 32. If E and B represent electric and magnetic field vectors of the electromagnetic waves, then the direction of propagation of the waves will be along (a) B×E (b) E (c) B (d) E×B 33. A lens is placed between a source of light and a wall. It forms images of area A1 and A2 on he wall for its two different positions. The area of the source of light is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 34. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of refractive index u, falls on a surface separating the medium from air at an angle of incidence ofFor which of the following value of u the ray can undergo total internal reflection? (a) u= 1.33 (b) u= 1.40 (c) u= 1.50 (d) u= 1.25 35. Which of the following shows particle nature of light? (a) refraction (b) interference (c) polarization (d) photoelectric effect

36. Cosmic rays are (a) high energy radiations (b) low energy radiations (c) ultra high energy radiations (d) very low energy radiations 37. The potential difference that must be applied to stop the fastest photoelectrons emitted by a nickel surface, having work function 5.01 eV, when ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls on it, must be: (a) 2.4 V (b) – 1.2 V (c) – 2.4 V (d) 1.2 V 38.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 39.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 40. A nucleus ruptures into two nuclear parts, which have their velocity ratio equal to 2 : 1 What will be the ratio of their nuclear size (nuclear radius)?

MockTime.com

(a) 21/3: 1 (b) 1: 21/3 (c) 31/2: 1 (d) 1: 31/2 41.

(a) A protons and (Z-A) neutrons (b) Z neutrons and (A-Z) protons (c) Z protons and (A-Z) neutrons (d) Z protons and A neutrons 42. The half-life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days. The time interval (t 2 – t 1) between the time t2 when 2/3 of it has decayed and the time t1 when 1/3 of it had decayed is: (a) 30 days (b) 50 days (c) 60 days (d) 15 days 43. When arsenic is added as an impurity to silicon, the resulting material is (a) n-type semiconductor (b) p-type semiconductor (c) n-type conductor (d) insulator 44. In semiconductors, at room temperature (a) the conduction band is completely empty (b) the valence band is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled (c) the valence band is completely filled and the conduction band is partially filled

(d) the valence band is completely filled 45. For transistor action: (1) Base, emitter and collector regions should have similar size and doping concentrations. (2) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped. (3) The eimtter-base junction is forward biased and base-collector junction is reverse based. (4) Both the emitter-base junction as well as the base-collector junction are forward biased. (a) (3), (4) (b) (4), (1) (c) (1), (2) (d) (2), (3) 1. c 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. c 7. b 8. d 9. d 10. b 11. b 12. c 13. b 14. c 15. b 16. c 17. d 18. c 19. d 20. d 21. c 22. a 23. d 24. d 25. a 26. c 27. a 28. c 29. b 30. c 31. b 32. b 33. a 34. c 35. d 36. c 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. b 41. b 42. b 43. c 44. b 45. a 46. a 47. c 48. b 49. b 50. a 51. b 52. a 53. d 54. c 55. b 56. c 57. a 58. d 59. a 60. d 61. b 62. a 63. a 64. c 65. a 66. a 67. b 68. b 69. c 70. d 71. c 72. b 73. b 74. b 75. d 76. b 77. a 78. a 79. b 80. d 81. b 82. a 83. a 84. a 85. b 86. b 87. a 88. d 89. b 90. d 1. d 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. c 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. c 12. a 13. d 14. b 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. a 19. a 20. d 21. c 22. c 23. a 24. a 25. b 26. b 27. c 28. d 29. a 30. d 31. d 32. a 33. d 34. a 35. a 36. a 37. d 38. c 39. d 40. d 41. c 42. a 43. a 44. b 45. c 1. a 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. c 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. b 13. b 14. c 15. c 16. c 17. c 18. a 19. c 20. c 21. d 22. a 23. c 24. d 25. c 26. a 27. c 28. b 29. d 30. a 31. a 32. d 33. a 34. c 35. d 36. a 37. d 38. c 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. a 44. c 45. d