moddule 6.pdf

UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS Faculty of Pharmacy PRE-BOARDS: MODULE 6 Microbiology- Quality Control/Assurance

1. Kochs week bacillus A. Haemophilus influenza B. Heamophilus aegyptis

C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Mycobacterium leprae

2. Also called intermittent sterilization and is simply pasteurization done for 3 times with a period or gap A. Modified pasteurization B. Tyndallization

C. Antisepsis D. Fractional disinfection

3. Discovered sulfanilamide, a forerunner of the sulphonamides A. Waksman B. Domagk

C. Lister D. Semmelweiss

4. Introduced Phenol coefficient A. Waksman B. Domagk

C. Lister D. Semmelweiss

5. Disproved abiogenesis using the swan-neck experiment and he is also the Father of Immunology A. Paul Erhlich B. Joseph Lister

C. Edward Jenner D. Louis Pasteur

6. Completeness of an autoclave process is measure by the following methods, except; A. Special tapes B. Biological markers

C. Heat sensors D. Thermocouples

For numbers 7-9; 2 batches Amoxicillin 125mg/ 5ml made under different production set-ups were compared in terms of its sedimentation volume Unsettled height Settled height

BATCH 1 20cm 17cm BATCH 2 20cm 15cm

7. What is the sedimentation volume of Batch 1? A. 0.85 B. 0.80

C. 0.75 D. 0.70

8. What is the sedimentation volume of Batch 2? A. 0.85 B. 0.80

C. 0.75 D. 0.70

9. Which batch is better? A. Batch 1 B. Batch 2

C. Cant be determined D. Neither

10. The totality of characteristics or features of a product that bear on its capacity to satisfy stated or implied needs. A. Quality B. Monograph

C. Limits D. Certificate of Analysis

11. Which of the following is a chemical method for identity test? A. Specific gravity B. Refractive index

C. Optical rotation D. Visible reactions

12. Uses a paddle type of accessory A. Type 1 B. Type 2

C. Type 3 D. Type 4

13. A media used for sterility tests A. Trypsin Soya Broth B. Fluid Thioglycollate

C. BOTH D. NOTA

14. Assay method of Vitamin E employs which of the following? A. HPLC B. Fluorometry

C. Spectrophotometry D. GC


15. Maximum number of rabbits to be used in the pyrogen test A. 3 B. 5

C. 6 D. 8

16. All are forms of microbial control using radiation, except; A. Gamma rays B. UV rays

C. Alpha rays D. Beta rays

17. Heavy metals are also used to control microbial growth; Cu is commonly used as what? A. Algicide B. Fungicide

C. Anti-protozoan D. Antivirus

18. A prototype of anti-staphylococcal penicillin but is off marketed due to cases of thrombocytopenia. A. Nafcillin B. Methicilin

C. Cloxacillin D. Oxacillin

19. All are non-beta-lactam cell wall inhibitor, except; A. PZA B. Vancomycin

C. INH D. Bacitracin

20. Loefflers syndrome is caused by A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichuris trichuria

C. Strongyloides stercolralis D. Ancylastoma duodenale

21. The East and West African sleeping disease is carried by what vector? A. Phlebotomous sandfly B. Tse-tse fly

C. Kissing Bug D. Reduvid bug

22. Visceral leischmaniasis affects the following organ, except; A. Liver B. Lungs

C. Spleen D. Heart

23. Acceptance limit for new formulations in friability tests? A. NMT 1% B. NLT 1%

C. NMT 0.8% D. NLT 0.8%

24. Examination for possible presence of bacterial endotoxin gives what positive result? A. Gel clot formation B. No bacterial growth

C. Blue coloration D. Green-metallic sheen

For numbers 25-26; Paracetamol 500mg/tab Intial weight: 7 grams Final weight: 6.92grams

25. What is the % friability? A. 2.14% B. 21.4%

C. 1.24% D. 1.14%

26. What is the disposition of the batch? A. Passed B. Failed

C. Retest D. Cant be determined

27. Maximum weight a balance can measure A. Capacity B. Sensitivity

C. Accuracy D. Precision

28. Which of the following is not an analytical balance? A. Ohaus B. Anscale

C. Sartorius D. Mettler

29. Which of the following biuret can be used for both acidic and basic solution? A. Geissler Biuret B. Mohr Biuret

C. Teflon valve Biuret D. PET valve Biuret


30. All are type of pipet, except; A. Ostwald-Folin pipet B. Syringe pipet C. Volumetric pipet

D. Serological pipet E. NOTA

31. Mostly vector transmitted except for Coxiella sp., highly resistant to sulphonamides and is commonly identified using the Weil-Felix test. A. Chlamydia B. Mycobacteria

C. Rickettsiae D. Bacteroides

32. All are unique features or virulence factors of Yersinia pestis, except; A. F factor B. V & W factor

C. Y Factor D. A and B

33. Malta fever that is caused by contact with goats is probably caused by which species? A. Brucella melitensis B. Bruccella canis

C. Brucella abortus D. Brucella suis

34. Causes rice-watery stool A. Vibrio cholera B. Vibrio parahemolyticus

C. Helicobacter pylori D. Campylobacter jejuni

35. All are part of the triple therapy indicated for H. pylori associated peptic ulcer, except; A. Metronidazole B. Amoxicillin

C. Chloramphenicol D. Sucralfate

36. P. aeruginosa is a highly resistant g(-) bacilli, which can cause wound and eye infection and URTI infection. P. aeruginosa, produces a distinct pigment known as what? A. Chrysarobin B. Pyroverdin

C. Pyoverdin D. Xanthorybin

37. Travellers disease is caused by A. ETEC B. EHEC

C. EIEC D. EAEC

38. A bacterium which normally causes zoonotic diseases of dogs and cats. A. Bartonnella henslae B. Pasteurella multicoda

C. Brucella canis D. Francisella tularensis

39. A 56-year old patiend arrives in the ER complaining of continuous cough distinct gasping for air feeling and a whoop sound afterwards. This patient is most probably infected with which bacterium? A. Bordatella pertussis B. Legionella pneumophilla

C. Bordetella pertussis D. Legionella pneumophillae

40. Which of the following is not a causative agent of atypical pneumonia? A. Legionella B. Mycoplasma

C. Chlamydia D. Haemophilus

41. An example of atypical Mycobacterium which has a characteristic photochromogen, which allows it to be seen only in light. A. M. kansasii B. M. scrofelacium

C. M. bovis D. M. ulcerans

42. Which of the following is under the spotted fever group of Rickettsial species and causes the Queensland tick fever? A. R. ricketsii B. R. australis

C. R. akari D. R. tsutsugamushi

43. Which of the following endoparasites is not treated with metronidazole? A. Giardia lamblia B. Entamoeba histolytica

C. Isosopora belli D. Cryptosporidium parvum


44. A culture of vaginal secretion was positive for motile, flagellated organism and the patient presents with watery and frotty vaginal secretion with a disntinct burning feeling when urinating, this is an infection of what endoparasite? A. Trichomonas B. Toxoplasma

C. Naegliria D. Isosopora

45. Most oxygen tolerant Clostridium sp. possesses lecithinase as its primary virulence factor. It can cause myonecrosis and is positively identified by Naglers test. A. C. dificile B. C. botulinum

C. C. perfringens D. C. tetani

46. Appears as Chinese character colonies A. Corynebacterium diptheriae B. Listeria monocytogenes

C. Erysipelothrix rhusopiathiae D. Actinomyces isareli

For numbers 47-53; Dissolution time of 2 batches of tablets of Paracetamol BATCH 1 BATCH 2 TABLET 1 481 417 TABLET 2 479 430 TABLET 3 487 444 TABLET 4 494 436 TABLET 5 510 428 TABLET 6 511 422

47. Average dissolution of BATCH 1A. 8.23 secs B. 7.16 secs

C. 8.27 secs D. 7.20 secs

48. Average dissolution of BATCH 2 A. 8.23 secs B. 7.16 secs


49. First dissolution in Batch 1 happens after what time? A. 7.99 secs B. 7.98 secs


50. The last tablet to dissolve in Batch 2, dissolves after how many seconds? A. 7.38 secs B. 7.39 secs


51. Disposition for Batch 1 A. Failed B. Retest

C. Passed D. Cant determined

52. Disposition for Batch 2 A. Cant be determined B. Passed

C. Retest D. Failed

53. Which batch is theoretically expected to exert its effect faster? A. Batch 1 B. Batch 2

C. BOTH D. NOTA

54. Most commonly found in fried rice and only in amounts of 106g/g stool it is considered as an infection. A. B. cereus B. B. aureus

C. B. subtilis D. B. anthacis

55. Lancet-shape diplococci A. Strep. pneumoniae B. Strep. viridans

C. Staph. aureus D. Staph. epidermidis

56. A group B beta-hemolytic streptococcus and is a member of the normal vaginal flora A. Strep. viridans B. Strep. pyogenes

C. Strep. aggalactiae D. Strep. pneumoniae


57. All are differentiating characteristic of Bacillus sp. from Clostridium sp., except; A. Bacillus are anaerobic B. Bacillus are non-motile

C. Bacillus may have central spore D. Bacillus may have terminal spore

58. Characterized by yellow crusted lesions and is caused by Strep. pyogenes infection. A. Endocarditis B. Impetigo

C. Scarlet fever D. Strep throat

59. Which agar is useful in differentiating the different groups of Streptococcus? A. BAP B. CAP

C. McConkey D. SSA

60. All are adsorptive indicators, except; A. DCF B. TEE

C. Eosin Y D. Pp

61. The following standard solutions are used in what type of assay method? BONUS

A. Gravimetric method B. Precipitimetric method

C. Volumetric method D. Iodometry

62. EDTA is A. Ethionaminediaminotetraacetic acid B. Ethyldinitrotetraacetic acid

C. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid D. Ethylenediaminotetraacetoacetic acid

63. Which of the following toxin is present in Streptococcus sp.? A. Streptolysin G B. Streptolysin A

C. Streptolysin O D. Streptolysin B

64. False about Endotoxins, except; A. Released by lysis B. May be present in g(+) or g (-) organism

C. Examples of which are botulism and tetanus D. Susceptible to heat

65. True about Exotoxins, except; A. Released by lysis B. May be present in g(+) or g (-) organism

C.Examples of which are botulism and tetanus D.Susceptible to heat

66. Tetraphenolphtalein ethylestes is A. TEE indicator B. TPE indicator

C. TPP indicator D. TPEE indicator

67. Iodine is, except; BONUSA. Halogen B. Oxidizing agent C. Reducing agent

D. B only E. B & C

68. When a oxidizing agent is made to liberate an equivalent amount of Iodine w/c is titrated w/ Sodium thiosulfate solution A. Iodimetry B. Iodometry

C. Either D. Neither

69. Official method of water content determination in USP A. Titrimetric method B. Azeotropic method

C. Dew point method D. Gravimetric method

70. Components of Karl-Fischer reagent, except; A. Iodine B. Sulfur dioxide

C. Ethanol D. Pyridine

71. Components of spore stain, except; A. Carbolfuschin B. Malachite green

C. Methylene blue D. Acid-alcohol


72. Special stains for spirochetes includes the following except; A. Silver stain B. Giemsa stain

C. Gold stain D. Wright stain

73. Gram (+) rods, except; A. Nocardia B. Bacillus

C. Listeria D. Mycobacterium

74. Gram (-) cocci, except; A. Strepcoccus B. Veilonella

C. Moraxella D. Neisseria

75. All are thin-walled organisms, except; A. Borelia B. Leptospira

C. Mycoplasma D. Treponema

76. Method of water determination that is official in the NF A. Toluene Method B. Titrimetric Method

C. Gravimetric Method D. Dew Point Method

For numbers 77-78, A sample of Digitalis was assay using the Azeotropic method; it was found out that a 75g sample contains 3.5ml of water.

77. Compute for the %Water in the sample A. 4.66% B. 4.68%

C. 4.70% D. 5.00%

78. Disposition for the %Water of the sample A. Passed B. Failed

C. Re-assay D. Cant be determined

79. All are example of non-volatile ether soluble extractives, except; A. Resins B. Fixed oil

C. Coloring matter D. Crude fiber

80. Which of the following has an iodine value of >120? A. Linseed B. Cottonseed

C. Almond D. Sesame

81. Animal fats would have an Iodine value of what? A. >120 B.


A. Paramyxovirus B. Myxovirus

C. Morbilivirus D. Hantavirus

88. All are positive sense virus, except;

A. Picornavirus B. Coronavirus

C. Retrovirus D. Rhabdovirus

89. All are naked RNA virus, except; A. Reovirus B. Paramyxovirus

C. Calicivirus D. Picornavirus

90. Treatment for PCP in HIV infected patients. A. Metronidazole B. TMP-SMX

C. Clotrimoxazole D. Caspofungin

91. Causative agent of South American blastomycosis A. Paracoccidiodes brasilensis B. Blastomyces dermatiditis

C. Histoplasma capsulatum D. Cryptococcus neoformans

92. Capsulated fungi A. Paracoccidiodes brasilensis B. Blastomyces dermatiditis

C. Histoplasma capsulatum D. Cryptococcus neoformans

93. Ringworm infection of the groin A. Tinea pedis B. Tinea cruris

C. Tinea manum D. Tinea capitis

94. LAL is taken from A. Horseking Crab B. Sawhorse Crab

C. Horseshoe Crab D. Pacific King Crab

95. DOC for pseudomembranous colitis A. Clindamycin B. Vancomycin

C. Metronidazole D. Dalfopristin

96. DOC for asymptomatic amoebiasis A. Paramomycin B. Iodoquinol

C. Diloxanide furoate D. Metronidazole

97. 3TC is a NRTI drug used for HIV treatment. 3TC is which of the following? A. Lamivudine B. Stavudine

C. Zalcitabine D. Tenofovir

98. Remedy treatment for the emergence of VRSA and VRSE A. Clindamycin B. Sulfonamides

C. Streptogramins D. Carbepenems

99. Aztreonam is a A. Tetracycline B. Macrolide

C. Monobactam D. Carbepenems

100. Regarded as the safest of all aminoglycosides A. Neomycin B. Tobramycin

C. Amikacin D. Netilmicin

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