mc0087

1. _______ was the first protocol, used by ARPANET hosts in the year 1970.

Transmission Control Protocol

Telnet protocol

Internet Protocol

Network Control Protocol

2. _______ body looks after the protocol identifiers used over Internet.

Internet Assigned Number Authority

Internet Research Task Force

Internet Engineering Task Force

Internet Architecture Board

3. Which protocol at the application layer, transfers files that form pages on World Wide Web?

File Transfer Protocol

Hypertext Transfer Protocol

Address Resolution Protocol

User Datagram Protocol

4. Which of the following versions will replace IPv4 Internet layer?

IPv4.1

IPv5.1

IPv6

IPv5.2

5. _________ is any device that implements IP.

Bridge

Host

Router

Node

6. Which of the following protocols were designed for terminal emulation to connect dissimilar systems?

Domain Name System

FTP

Telnet

Control Message Protocol

1. _______ acts as an Internet draft and is developed by a team of ________ .

File Transfer Protocol, Internet Society

Requests for Comments, Internet Engineering Task Force

Standards, Internet Research Task Force

DARPA model, Any government agency

2. _________ is an encapsulation unit used at Inernet layer of the TCP/IP model and it has ________.

Frame, code

Segment, payload

Packet, header and payload

Bits, control bits

3. In ________ year, Internet Service Providers began to offer Internet access to __________.

1978, Research Institutions

1979, Businesses

1990, Only Individuals

1995, Businesses and individuals.

4. TCP/IP protocol can be mapped to _________ layer conceptual model known as _________ model.

Three, OSI

Four, DARPA

Six, ARPANET

None of the above.

1.

1. TCP/IP is dependent on factors like network access method, frame format, and medium.

2. TCP/IP is used for communication over only similar network types and which make use of LAN technologies.

3. The layer called Network Interface layer sends TCP/IP packets through the network medium.

4. TCP/IP can easily adapt latest technologies.

State true or false.

Only statement 1 is true

Statements 1 and 2 are false

Statements 2 and 3 are true

Only statements 4 is false

2. 1. The Internet layer of DARPA does not support sequencing.

2. Sequencing and acknowledgment services are taken care by Transport layer or the Application layer.

3. The Internet layer of DARPA does not provide acknowledgment services.

4. Sequencing and acknowledgment services are provided by Physical layer of OSI model.


Statement 1 is false



Only statement 4 is false

3. 1. User Datagram Protocol is used when upper-layer protocols give reliable delivery

2. User Datagram Protocol is used when there is less data to be transferred.

3. Transmission Control Protocol does the functions like:Connection establishment and Recovering of packets.

4. TCP and UDP operate over Internet layers: IPv4 and IPv6.





Only statements 4 is false.

1. Which of the following specifies the operations on dual MAC stations?

RFC 1188

RFC 1390

RFC 2467

RFC 1329

2. Which of the following fields holds the packets of several protocols?

NLPID field

Pad field

I (0x03) field

Q.922 field

3. What is the capacity of Bearer channels in ISDN?

16 kbps

64 kbps

32 kbps

128 kbps

4. In a X.25 protocol, the ________________ are sent as X.25 complete packet sequences.

Call User Data (CUD)

Network-Layer Protocol Identifier (NLPID)

Data Link Connection Identifier (DLCI)

rotocol Data Units (PDUs)

5. Which of the following is used for testing the data-link connection in a PPP network?

Link Control Protocol (LCP)

Method

Network Control Protocols (NCPs)

Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

6. What should be the frame size for a frame relay?

562 octet

462 octet

262 octet

362 octet

1. All of the following are the components of a PPP protocol, except:

Method to encapsulate datagrams over serial links.

Link Control Protocol (LCP)

Network Control Protocols (NCPs)

Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)

2. All of the following are the features of the ISDN D-channel, except:

It is a 16 kbps D-channel for control information.

It is also used for sending PPP packets when suitably framed.

t is used for voice or data or just for data in a combined way.

The D-channel interface requires NRZ encoding.

3. Which of the following defines the transmission of IPv6 over ATM?

RFC 1390

RFC 1188

RFC 2225

RFC 2492

4. Which of the following is currently a de facto standard, commonly used for point-to-point serial connections running TCP/IP?

Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI)

Serial Line IP (SLIP)

Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) otocol (PPP)

IEEE 802.3

1. Which of the following statements regarding the Frame formats for Ethernet is true?

1. The type field in Ethernet is used to distinguish between different protocols running on the coaxial cable.

2. The maximum length of an Ethernet frame is 1526 bytes.

3. The Ethernet physical layer and the IEEE 802.3/802.2 physical layers are incompatible.

4. The header field of the Ethernet Frame format contains protocol-type number.

Only statements 1 and 2 are true


Statements 1, 2 and 4 are true

Only statements 1 and 3 are true

2. Given below are some statements related to IEEE 802.2 and IEEE 802.3. Identify which two statements are true.

1. 802.2 LLC layer follows the concept called Link Service Access Point (LSAP).

2. The extended form of IEEE 802.2 protocol LLC layer follows the concept called Sub network Access Protocol (SNAP).

3. 802.2 LLC layer follows the concept called Link Control Protocol (LCP).

4. 802.3 LLC layer follows the concept called Network Control Protocols (NCPs).





1. Which of the following methods allows host (sender) to provide explicit routing information?

Strict source routing

Internet time stamp

Record Route

Loose source routing

2. IP Addresses are expressed in __________ form.

Dotted decimal form

Digital

ASCII

Octal decimal

3. In which type of routing, 10000011 byte specifies option type?



Record route

Internet time stamp

4. Which of the following component in ICMP is based on the message type?

Data

Checksum

Type

Code

5. Which of the following protocol is described in RFC 903?

Address Resolution protocol (ARP)

Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP)

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)

6. Which of the following mechanism in DHCP assigns a permanent IP address to the host?

Manual Allocation

Dynamic Allocation

Automatic Allocation

Unusual Allocation

1. Which of the following type of protocol was designed to be employed for hardware broadcast networks?

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

Address Resolution protocol (ARP)



2. Which of the following address supports 254 hosts on each of 2 million networks?

Class D addresses

Class A addresses

Class C addresses

Class B addresses

3. Which of the following method is used for debugging in IP datagram routing?



Record Route

Internet time stamp

4. Which of the following help the client workstation to initialize with minimal IP stack?

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

Bootstrap protocol



1. The range of different class-based addressing are given below.

1. Class A addressing ranges from 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255.

2. Class B addressing ranges from 192.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.254.

3. Class E addressing ranges from 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255

4. Class C addressing ranges from 224.0.0.0 to 223.255.254.254.


Statement 1 & 4 are true

Statement 1 & 3 are true

Statements 2 & 3 are true


2. Identify the true statements from the following:

1. Protocol address space is same as the EtherType field in the IEEE 802 header.

2. Hardware address length specifies the length of the protocol addresses in this packet.

3. Hardware address space specifies the length of the hardware addresses in this packet.

4. Protocol address space specifies the type of protocol. State true or false.



Only Statement 3 is true


3. Which of the following statements are true with regard to protocol address?

1. Protocol address length specifies the length of the protocol addresses in this packet.

2. Protocol address length specifies the length of the acknowlegement packet.

3. The source/target protocol contains the physical network hardware addresses.

4. The source/target protocol address contains the protocol addresses.






1. How many table entries are supported by global routing table in CIDR?

90,000

80,000

70,000

60,000

2. Which of the following is a group of private IP addresses used in an organization?

Intranet

Internet

Ethernet

Extranet

3. What is the maximum number of hosts that can be allocated in Class B network?

65,000

65,334

65,350

65,230

4. In 1996, 36.44% of _________ addresses were brought in use.

Class A

Class D

Class B

Class C

5. Which type of broadcast addresses use 255.255.255.255 address.

All - Subnets - Directed Broadcast Address

Subnet-Directed Broadcast Address

Network-Directed Broadcast Address

Limited Broadcast Address

6. Which of the following network providers cannot employ any default inter domain routing?

Type 2

Type 4

Type 1

Type 3

1. Which of the following addresses has one-to-one relation between source and destination?

Multicast

Unicast

Broadcast

Any cast

2. What is the range of Class B networks supported by Intranets?

192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.0

10.0.0.0

172.16.0.0 through 172.31.0.0

182.16.0.0 through 182.31.0.0

3. ________ is extended so as to include IP address and transport identifier ?

Basic NAT

Traditional Network Address Translation (NAT)

Both a and b

Network Address Port Translation (NAPT)

4. What is Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)?

Error recovery method

Advanced Internet addressing scheme

Flow control mechanism

Data reliability method

1. CIDR is:

1. Not designed to assign more IP addresses.

2. Based only on the higher order bits, called IP prefix.

3. Designed to assign more IP addresses in a significant manner.

4. Based mainly on the higher order bits called IP suffix.




Only Statement 3 is false


2. Identify the true statements from the following concepts of direct and indirect routes.

1. Direct routes describes the locally attached networks.

2. Direct route contains route, which is used when destination IP network is not found in the mappings of the previous types of type 1 and 2.

3. Default routes describes networks reachable through one or more gateways.

4. Indirect routes describes networks reachable through one or more gateways.






3. 1. Proxy-ARP is used when one or more hosts do not support subnetting.

2. Limited Broadcast Address is used in ARP requests on un-subnetted networks.

3. Network-Directed Broadcast Address is used in ARP requests on un-subnetted networks.

4. Proxy-ARP is used when atleast one host support supernetting.


Statements 1 and 3 are true.

Statements 3 and 4 are false.



1.

Which of the following synchronizes the sequence numbers in TCP segment format?

SYN

FIN

RST

PSH

2. UDP datagram has a header, which is of ________ .

16 bytes

8-bytes

32 bytes

64 bytes

3.

What is the format for association used in sockets ?

< local-address, local-port, foreign-address, foreign-port>

4. Ephemeral have port number ranging from _________ and _______.

1023 to 65535.

1024 to 65555.

1024 to 65545.

1024 to 65535.

5. What is the address identified when socket is available at each end of TCP?

.

.

.

.

6.

In TCP segment format _______indicates start of data.

RST

ACK

URG

Data Offset

1. _________ is used for transferring smaller data units by every TCP/IP implementation.

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)


User Datagram Protocol (UDP)


2. Which of the following specifies the communication path between processes?

Association

Conversation

Socket

Both a and c.

3. _________ is used for transferring smaller data units by every TCP/IP implementation.

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)


User Datagram Protocol (UDP)


4. What is the length of datagram accepted by IP implementations in UDP datagram format?

765 bytes

575 bytes

675 bytes

516 bytes

1. 1. UDP is basically an application interface to Internet Protocol.

2. ICMP follows window principle, which deals with data transmission.

3. TCP follows window principle, which deals with data transmission and receiving of acknowledgement.

4. ARP follows window principle, which deals with receiving of acknowledgement.






2. Given below are the statement related to sockets and half-association.

1. The half-association is also called a socket or a transport address.

2. Socket does not provides a communication path to the port.

3. The half-association is also called a port.

4. Socket provides a communication path to the port.






3. Here are a few algorithms of which,

1.Fast recovery is an advanced algorithm that allows high throughput under moderate congestion.

2. Congestion avoidance and slow start are dependent algorithms with different objectives.

3.Congestion avoidance and slow start are independent algorithms with different objectives.

4. Fast recovery is the oldest algorithm that allows low throughput under moderate congestion.






1. Which of the following in Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol uses multiple paths and makes effective use of network resources?

Faster convergence time

Support for authentication

Logical partitioning of the network

Equal cost load balancing

2. Which of the following provides metrics for locating the network paths?

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

Static Routing protocol

3. ____________ supports supernetting (CIDR) and variable length subnet masks (VLSM).





4. ____________ are used to monitor neighbor reachability and solicit update responses.





5. RFC 1322 describes about the ___________ routing.

Distance Vector

Link State

Hybrid

Path Vector

6. __________ works well with small networks with limited redundancy.

Hybrid routing

Link State routing

Distance Vector routing

Path Vector routing

1. Which of the following protocol decreases the costs of link state updates and distance vector advertisements?

Link State routing

Hybrid routing

Distance Vector routing

Path Vector routing

2. Which feature in RIP does not allow the routing table to get corrupted?

RIP-1

CIDR and VLSM

Authentication

Multicasting

3. ____________ was developed to support aggregation and summarization of routing information.



Routing Information Protocol (RIP)


4. __________ maintains a table called neighbor table, which helps in keeping a track of each adjacent neighbor.





1. Given below are the statements related to IP router and routing protocols:

1. The ability to form connections between different physical networks is called an IP router.

2. A robust routing protocol does not provides the ability to dynamically build and manage the information.

3. The ability to form connections between different artificial networks is called an IP router.

4. A robust routing protocol provides the ability to dynamically build and manage the information .






2. Following are the statements based on Routing Information Protocol and its versions. Identify which of them are true.

1.RIPng uses the same algorithms, timers, and logic used in RIP-6.

2.RIP-1 was designed to be used by routers within an IPv6-based network.

3. RIPng uses the different algorithms, timers, and logic used in RIP-2.

4. RIPng was designed to be used by routers within an IPv6-based network.State true or false.

tatements 1 and 2 are false




3. Which of the following statements related to Autonomous System are true?

1. Autonomous System (AS) is integral to understanding the function and scope of a routing protocol.

2.Interior Gateway Protocols allow the exchange of summary information between autonomous systems.

3.Autonomous System (AS) is integral to understanding only scope of a routing protocol.

4. Exterior Gateway Protocols allow the exchange of summary information between autonomous systems.






1. In IGMP message format, which of the following specify an IGMPv2 membership report packet?

0x12

0x17

0x11

0x16

2. Using which protocol, multiple PIM-SM domains can logically be connected?


Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP)


Multicast OSPF (MOSPF)

3. What is the range of multicast addressing?

223.0.0.0 through 240.255.255.255

244.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.266

224.1.1.1 through 239.555.255.255

224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255

4. BGMP builds shared domain trees and is________ routing protocol.

Any cast

Broadcast

Unicast

Multicast

5. Which of the following addresss is reserved for all IGMPv3-capable multicast routers?

224.0.0.0

224.0.0.22

224.0.0.1

224.0.0.2

6. ________is a multicast extension to OSPF Version 2.


Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Multicast OSPF (MOSPF)

Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)

1. __________ protocol is used when multicast data has to be sent to majority of host over the network.

PIM-SM protocol

PIM-DM protocol



2. Which of the following application of multicast, provides audio/audio-video communication facility to many-to-many connection?

Data distribution

Gaming and simulation

Multimedia conferencing

Real-time data multicast

3. The count of source addresses contained in an IGMPv3 message is indicated by _______ field.

Number of Sources (N)

S Flag

ueriers Query Interval Code

ueriers Robustness Variable

4. Which of the following protocols has the capability to significantly reduce the congestion over the network?

PIM-SM protocol

PIM-DM protocol



1. Given below are the statements related to transient and permanent groups?

1. In Transient group, host can leave or join this group as when needed.

2. Permanent group follows a dynamic way of addressing and is not permanent.

3. Permanent group exists even with zero members.

4. Transient group does not exist, if the members in the group are zero.






2. In membership query messages:

1.General Query is used for detemining, which groups have members of an attached network.

2. Specific Query is used for detemining, which groups have members of an attached network.

3. Group Query is used for detemining if a particular group has any members on an attached network.

4. Group-Specific Query is used for detemining if a particular group has any members on an attached network.State true or false.





3. Identify which of the given statements are true with regard to unicast and mulitcast algorithms.

1. Unicast algorithms must maintain loop-free routes.

2. Multicast algorithms must optimize the path from source to destinations.

3. Multicast algorithms must route data only to group members.

4. Unicast algorithms must optimize the path from source to destinations.






1. Which of the following specification information is used in packet classifier?

Service specification

Service Request Specification (Rspec)

Traffic Specification (Tspec)

Filter specification

2. ___________ defines traffic and QoS characteristics for a particular flow of data packets.

Flow descriptor

Flow control

Traffic control

Policy control

3. What is the range of the parameter b in token bucket system?

1 byte to 240 gigabytes




4. Which parameter specifies maximum packet size in bytes that conforms to the Tspec?

Parameter r

Parameter b

Parameter m

Parameter M

5. When traffic is passed through token bucket filter, the overall time period, T should not exceed ________.

rT-b

2rT+5b

rT+b

rT-2b

6. Which of the following is a simplex protocol?


User datagram protocol(UDP)

Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)

Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)

1. _________ recommends that an RSVP implementation should use the object order defined in RFC.

RFC 2200

RFC 2205

RFC 2204

RFC 2203

2. Which of the following field contains IP address of the node in RSVP object header?

Style

NULL

RSVP_HOP

Session

3. Which of the following has maximum length of 65528 bytes in Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)?

Object contents

C-Type

Class-Number

Integrity

4. Which of the following is based on flow-state and flow-processing?

Integrated services (IS)

Differentiated services (DS)

Linear

Non linear

1. Which of the following statements based on Differentiated Service field are true?

1. The DS field uses the space of the former TOS octet in the IPv4 IP header.

2. DS field is not used to mark the packets that receive a particular forwarding treatment at each network node.

3. The DS field uses the space of the former TOS octet in the IPv5 IP header.

4. DS field is used to mark the packets that receive a particular forwarding treatment at each network node.






2. Identify the true statement from the following:

1. Resources within the Diffserv network or region include RSVP-aware devices that participate in RSVP signaling.

2. Resources within the Intserv region include no RSVP signaling.

3. Resources within the Intserv network or region include RSVP-aware devices that participate in RSVP signaling.

4. Resources within the Diffserv region include no RSVP signaling.State true or false.





3. Given below are a few services. Identify which statements are true.

1. Integrated Service offers predictable performance for a given load at a given time.

2. Controlled Load Service is intended to support the class of applications that are highly sensitive to overloaded conditions in the Internet.

3. The Guaranteed Service model provides functions that assure that datagram will arrive within a guaranteed delivery time.

4. Guaranteed Service is intended to support the class of applications that are highly sensitive to overloaded conditions in the Internet.






1. Which of the following do not provide an absolute protection for a network?

Source level gateway

Circuit-level gateway

Application-level gateway

Packet-filtering

2. Which of the following firewall consists of a packet-filtering router and an application-level gateway?

Screened host firewall

Dual-homed gateway firewall

Packet-filtering firewall

Screened subnet firewall

3. Currently security association management mechanisms are defined only for ________ addresses.

Any cast

Broadcast

Multicast

Unicast

4. ________ provides a private channel between communicating applications.

SOCKS server

Secure Sockets Layer

Secure Shell

Firewalls

5. _________ is an extension of an enterprise's private intranet.

Local area network

Virtual path network

Virtual private network (VPN)

Public network

6. Which of the following, was earlier referred to as ISAKMP/Oakley?

ncapsulating Security Payload (ESP)

Internet Key Exchange (IKE) protocol

Screened subnet firewall

Security Parameter Index

1. A financial institution that issues the card to the purchaser is ________.

Merchant

Issuer

Acquirer payment gateway

Cardholder

2. In case of Secure Electronic Transaction, ______request from merchant asks acquirer to transfer previously authorized amount into its account.

Purchase order

Authorization

Capture

Inquiry

3. Which of the following common attacks render network resources non-functional?

Denial-of-service

Replay of messages

Password cracking

Guessing of keys

4. Which of the following solutions protect against improper alteration of messages?

Authentication by digital signatures and certificates

Integrity checking and message authentication codes

Non-repudiation

Encryption

1. Which of the following statements related to database is true?

1. The Security Policy Database specifies what security services are to be offered to the IP traffic.

2. The Security Policy Database contains parameter information.

3. The Security Association Database specifies what security services are to be offered to the IP traffic.

4. The Security Association Database contains parameter information.State true or false.





2. Identify the true statement related to Tunneling technique.

1. Tunneling or encapsulation is a common technique in packet-switched networks.

2. Tunneling is used to carry traffic of one protocol over a network that supports that protocol directly.

3. Tunneling or encapsulation is a rare technique used in packet-switched networks.

4. Tunneling is used to carry traffic of one protocol over a network that does not support that protocol directly.State true or false.





3. Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP):

1. Offers connectionless services like Integrity check, authentication, and encryption

2. Advantage is that authentication and integrity check are used together.

3. Provides optional replay protection.

4. Services are selected at the time of termination of Security Association.






1. The early Internet configurations required the use of only ______________.

Numbers

Names

Hexa decimal numbers

Numeric IP addresses

2. Which of the following center maintained the host names to address mappings?

Network Information Center (NIC)

Network center

IP address center

Host information center

3. _________ is a type of domain name queries.

Linear

Iterative

Grouped

Parallel

4. The top-level domain names are called as __________.

Static Top-Level Domains

State Top-Level Domains

Country Top-Level Domains

Generic Top-Level Domains.

5. Which of the following domain name corresponds to employment related sites?

biz

jobs

info

mobi

6. Which among the following domains are maintained by Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN)?

Specific domains

State domains

Generic domains

Country domains

1. Which of the following server, loads zone's information from disk and has authority over the zone?

Secondary

Primary

Caching-Only

Caching

2. _________ field in the DNS General Resource Record identifies the protocol family.

Name

Type

Class

TTL

3. _________ of the zone, is identified by Start of Authority (SOA) record.

Domain name

Host name

IP address

Server name

4. Which response is displayed when message is not processed because of the server?

Name error

erver failure

Not implemented

Format error

1. Which of the following statements based on Domain Name System are true?

1. The Domain Name System distributed database is composed of Resource Records (RRs).

2. All messages in the Domain Name System protocol use a different format.

3. The Domain Name System distributed database is composed of Start of Authority (SOA) records.

4. All messages in the Domain Name System protocol use a single format.State true or false.





2. Identify the true statement among the following:

1. Domain Name System (DNS) is a way to resolve meaningful and easy-to-remember names to IP addresses.

2. Maintaining one central list of the name to- IP-address relationships across the Internet is unrealistic.

3. Domain Name System (DNS) is a linear naming system for services, resources, etc., linked to the Internet.

4. Maintaining one central list of the name to- IP-address relationships across the Internet is realistic. State true or false.





3. Identify the true statement with regard to domain name. 1. A domain name that ends with a comma is called a fully qualified domain name.

2. If a domain name ends with a dot, it is said to be complete.

3. A domain name that ends with a dot is called a semi- qualified domain name.

4. If a domain name ends with a comma it is said to be complete. State true or false.





1. Most Telnet operations do not provide ________ capabilities.

Mobile communication

Audios

Videos

Graphics

2. Which of the following principle is used by Telnet protocol?

Negotiation of terminal options

Symmetric view "

Network Virtual Terminal (NVT)

Virtual Terminal

3. Both the host and client can propose additional options, as Telnet uses the________ model.

Asymmetric

Symmetric

Static

Waterfall

4. The Network Virtual Terminal has printer and __________.

Central processing unit

Monitor

Mouse

Keyboard

5. In Network Virtual Terminal, the data is represented by _________.

8-bit ASCII

7-bit ASCII

9-bit ASCII

10-bit ASCII

6. In Network Virtual Terminal, the data is transmitted in ___________.

6-bit bytes

7-bit bytes

8-bit bytes

9-bit bytes

1. What is the code used for Interpret As Command (IAC)?

253

255

240 .

241

2. The command NOP refers to _________.

NVT character BRK

End of sub negotiation parameters

No operation

GA signal

3. What is the code used for "End of sub negotiation parameters"?

240

255

253

241

4. Telnet protocol uses ___________ representation for the function Synchronize.

SYC

SYNCH

SNZ

SY

1. "Identify the true statements with regard to RSH and REXEC.

1. Remote Execution Command Protocol (REXEC) handles commands issued by foreign hosts.

2. Remote Shell Protocol (RSH) transfers orders to subordinate virtual machines for job execution.

3. Remote Shell Protocol (RSH) handles commands issued by foreign hosts.

4. Remote Execution Command Protocol (REXEC) transfers orders to subordinate virtual machines for job execution."State true or false.





2. "1. Remote Execution Command Protocol (REXEC) performs automatic login and user authentication when a user ID and password are entered.

2. Remote Shell Protocol (RSH) command is used to define the user ID, password, host address and the process to be started on the remote host.

3. Remote Shell Protocol (RSH) performs automatic login and user authentication when a user ID and password are entered.

4. Remote Execution Command Protocol(REXEC) command is used to define the user ID, password, host address, and the process to be started on the remote host."State true or false.





3. "1.Remote Shell Protocol (RSH) is a server that allows the execution of jobs submitted from a remote host over the TCP/IP network.

2. The primary goal of the Telnet protocol is the provision of a standard interface for hosts over a network.

3. Remote Execution Command Daemon (REXECD) is a server that allows the execution of jobs submitted from a remote host over the TCP/IP network.

4. The primary goal of the File transfer protocol(FTP) is the provision of a standard interface for hosts over a network."State true or false.





1. Which of the following is defined in RFC 4366?

Secure File Trasfer Protocol (SFTP)

Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

2. Which protocol supports disk-to-disk data transfer?

Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

Secure File Trasfer Protocol (SFTP)


Secure Copy (SCP)

3. Which protocol is used by FTP to provide reliable end-to-end connections?

User Datagram Protocol

Transmission Control Protocol

Internet Protocol

None of the above.

4. Which of the following command of Trivial File Transfer Protocol specifies destination host ID?

Put []

Get []

Mode

Connect

5. ________ packet of TFTP has the opcode 2.

Read request

Write request

Data

Error

6. TFTP servers do not allow, which of the following access to public directories?

Read Access

Trasfer Access

Write Access

Control Access

1. While navigating the directory structure, the subcommand that changes the directory on remote host is ___________.

Lcd

cd

Ls

Dir

2. ________ and __________ type of packets are supported by TFTP.

Read Request, Option Acknowledgement

Write Option, Save

Load, Acknowledgement

Secure Copy, Error

3. Which command copies a file from the remote host to the local host?

Get

Mget

Put

MPut

4. Which of the following Transport Layer Security (TLS) command specifies the data channel protection level?

ADAT

PROT

PBSZ

AUTH

1. "Which of the following statements based on Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) and File Transfer Protocol (FTP) are true.

1. TFTP use diskless devices to download firmware at boot time.

2. FTP uses any automated process for which the assignment of a user ID or password is not feasible.

3. FTP use diskless devices to download firmware at boot time.

4. TFTP uses any automated process for which the assignment of a user ID or password is not feasible."






2. "Identify the true statements among the following.

1. The commands used by Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) implementations are not architected by an RFC.

2. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is limited to only reading a file from a server or writing a file to a server.

3. The commands used by File Transfer Protocol (FTP) implementations are not architected by an RFC.

4. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is limited to only reading a file from a server or writing a file to a server."






3. "Which of the following statements related to data transfer modes in TFTP are true?

1. The hexa mode, octet mode and NetASCII are the data trasfer modes in TFTP.

2. Octet mode is of 8-bit bytes and is also known as decimal.

3. NetASCII mode is a modified form of ASCII and is of 8-bits.

4. The use of octet mode is specified in the TFTP header for the Request for Read/Write packets."


Only statemtent 1 is true




4. "Which of the following statements related to data transfer modes in TFTP are true?

1. The hexa mode, octet mode and NetASCII are the data trasfer modes in TFTP.

2. Octet mode is of 8-bit bytes and is also known as decimal.

3. NetASCII mode is a modified form of ASCII and is of 8-bits.

4. The use of octet mode is specified in the TFTP header for the Request for Read/Write packets."


Only statemtent 1 is true




1. Which of the following always keeps messages on the server and replicates copies to the clients?

Post Office Protocol (POP)

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol


Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP4)

2. While using which of these should a client be always connected to the server for the changes to be made?

Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP4)

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)


Post Office Protocol (POP)

3. Which of the following tells about primary recipients of the message?

cc

To

From

Reply-to

4. Which of the following flags denotes that the message has been marked for special attention?

\Draft

\Answered

\Deleted

\Flagged

5. Which of the following desination address contains explicit routing information in SMTP Destination Address?

user@host

@host-a, host-b:user@host-c

user% remote-host@gateway-host

user remote-host@gateway-host

6. If a receiver-SMTP supports service extensions, it responds with a __________________?

HELO command

500 Syntax Error message

250 OK message

QUIT message

1. Which of the following command contains the reverse-path that can be used to report errors?

HELO command

MAIL command

RCPT command

DATA command

2. Which of the following states suggests that the connection has been ended either at the request of the client or for any other reason?

Selected state

Authenticated state

Logout state

Non-authenticated state

3. _________ shows the current status of a message in IMAP4 Messages.

Flags message attribute

Unique identifier (UID) message attribute

Message sequence number message attribute

Sequence number message attribute

4. Which of the following flags cannot be changed by the client in IMAP4 Messages?

\Draft

\Recent

\Deleted

\Flagged

1. "Which of the following statements are true?

1. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to refer to the combined set of protocols.

2. TFTP only guarantees delivery to the mail-gateway host, not to the real destination host.

3. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is used to refer to the combined set of protocols.

4. SMTP only guarantees delivery to the mail-gateway host, not to the real destination host."






2. "Which of the following statements are true?

1. The sender SMTP will generate commands that are replied to by the receiver SMTP in mail exchange.

2. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) design is based on the model of communication.

3. The SMTP design is based on the model of communication.

4. The sender FTP will generate commands that are replied to by the receiver SMTP in mail exchange."






3. "1. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) allows clients to make changes both when connected and when disconnected models.

2. IMAP4 model provides more functionality to users than the POP model.

3. IMAP4 allows clients to make changes both when connected and when disconnected models.

4. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) model provides more functionality to users than the POP model."






1. Which of the following function in SIP technologies is used for feature negotiation?

Session setup

User location and name translation

User availability

Users capabilities

2. Which of the following network server provides application layer routing of SIP requests and responses?

Proxy server

Registrar server

Application server

Media server

3. Which of the following SIP request terminates a call?

ACK

BYE

INVITE

CANCEL

4. Which of the following SIP responses denotes global failure response?

SIP 1xx

SIP 2xx

SIP 5xx

SIP 6xx

5. __________________ is a protocol that is defined in RFC 2327.

Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP)

Session Description Protocol (SDP)

Session Announcement Protocol (SAP)

Real-time Control Protocol (RTCP)

6. Which of the following was designed for bit rates up to 1.5 Mbps in Moving Pictures Expert Group (MPEG) standards?

MPEG-2

MPEG-3

MPEG-1

MPEG-4

1. Which of the following source description provides the geographic location of the application user?

EMAIL

TOOL

LOC

NOTE

2. Which of the following application uses 1.5 Mbps bandwidth?

High speed internet browsing

Recording for later viewing

Two(2)other TV'S

One(1)high definition TV(HDTV)

3. ________________ packet is used by an RTP sender to provide local capability information in control information.

Source description

Sender report

Receiver report

APP

4. ___________ is the primary profile for broadcast and disc storage applications.

Extended Profile (XP) Intended

High Profile (HiP)

High 10 Profile (Hi10P)

High 4:2:2 Profile (Hi422P)

1. "1. User availability determines whether the called party is willing to engage in communication.

2. Session management is used for establishing the communication session parameters at both ends.

3. Users capabilities determines whether the called party is willing to engage in communication.

4. Session setup is used for establishing the communication session parameters at both ends."






2. "1. Analog Terminal Adapters (ATA) controls connections between the circuit and packet networks in segments.

2. Call Agent can use a TCP/IP link to manage multiple Media Gateways.

3. Coder-decoder (CODEC) can use a TCP/IP link to manage multiple Media Gateways.

4. Soft switch controls connections between the circuit and packet networks in segments."






3. "1. G.728 is a speech CODEC standard covering the transmission of voice at rates of 16, 24, 32, and 40 kbps.

2. G.711 (64 kbps) standard encodes non-compressed speech streams running at 64 Kbps.

3. G.726 is a speech CODEC standard covering the transmission of voice at rates of 16, 24, 32, and 40 kbps.

4. G.723.1, encodes non-compressed speech streams running at 64 Kbps."






mc0087

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