LIC AAO 2013 Solved Paper

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Reasoning Ability Directions for Questions 1 to 2: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: There are six people - A, B, C, D, E and F - each of them having different ages. D is elder than A and B. F is elder than only E. A is elder than B. C is elder than D. If the age of F is 19 years, then the third eldest person is of 24 years.

1. What would possibly be the age of B? (1) 18 years (2) 26 years (3) 22 years (4) 16 years (5) 28 years

2. Which of the following statements may be true on the basis of information given above? (1) E may be 20 years old. (2) The age of C must be 26 years. (3) Only C, D and F are elder than E. (4) D is 23 years old (5) None is true

Directions for Questions 3 to 7: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below There are eight people G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N - each of them belongs to different states viz. Assam. Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Punjab. Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal, but not necessarily in the same order. They live in an eight story building, having floors numbered one to eight - each of them on different floor. (The Ground Floor is numbered Floor No. 1, the Floor above it Floor No. 2 and so on). G lives on even numbered floor. Three people live between J and the person from Assam. Three persons live between L and G. The person from Assam live immediately below G’s floor. N lives immediately above G's floor and immediately below K’s floor. G is from Tamil Nadu. There are five floors between the floors on which J and the person from Karnataka live. The person from West Bengal lives on the floor immediately below the floor on which the person from Assam lives. H lives on the even numbered floor. I does not belong to Assam. Three persons live between the persons from Bihar and West Bengal. Four persons live between the persons from Bihar and Maharashtra. L does not belong to Rajasthan.

3. On which of the following floors does the person from Bihar live? (1) Fourth (2) Sixth (3) Fifth (4) Eighth (5) None of these

4. Who lives on top most floor? (1) K (2) G (3) N (4) M (5) None of these

5. To which state does J belong? (1) West Bengal (2) Karnataka (3) Rajasthan (4) Assam (5) Punjab

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6. Who lives exactly between H and L?

(1) M (2) I (3) J (4) N (5) K

7. The person from the state of Assam lives on which floor? (1) Second (2) Third (3) Sixth (4) Fourth (5) Fifth

8. A tour and travel agency was sued by three customers as it had promised a discount on the

holiday package but when examined later, it was found that the agency had actually charged 12 percent more than what other agencies were offering. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the above paragraph? (1) Cheating may be a ground for filing a case. (2) It is not a grave crime to charge extra money for holiday package. (3) Different tour and travel agencies charge differently. (4) It is not essential to offer what has been promised earlier. (5) None of these

9. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark (?) in the given expression in order to make the expressions ‘J < M' as well as ‘H ≥ T’ definitely true? H ≥ M = K ? T > J (1) < (2) ≤ (3) ≥ (4) = (5) Either = or ≥

Directions for Questions 10 to 14: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: In a certain code language- “he needs some help” is written as "tu gi ja le”. “needs medicine and some" is written as “le da tu si". “some know now help" is written as "tu pa gi ki" “now and where go" is written as “jo ze ki si".

10. What does ‘da tu ja' mean in the given code language? (1) now help medicine (2) he some medicine (3) he now medicine (4) he needs medicine (5) cannot be determined

11. What does ‘le' mean in the given code language? (1) some (2) and (3) medicine (4) needs (5) either some or needs

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12. What is the code for ‘he know where’ in the given code language?

(1) ja pa jo (2) pa ze ja (3) da le ze (4) tu gl si (5) Cannot be determined

13. What is the code for ‘help' in the given code language? (1) tu (2) ja (3) gi (4) either ‘gi’ or ‘le’ (5) None of these

14. What may be the possible code for 'now medicine could help’? (1) gi da ki pi (2) ki da gi ze (3) tu ki gi da (4) da gi le ki (5) pa gi ki da

15. H is the father of J. J is the brother of L. N is the wife of L. K is the son of N. L and J are children of H. P is the wife of H. K and Z are grandchildren of P. Who is the uncle of K? (1) J (2) H (3) Z (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Directions for Questions 16 to 20: In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions:

16. Statements:

A < B < C < D = E ≤ F > G Conclusions: I. G < C II. F > B (1) If only conclusion I is true. (2) If only conclusion II is true. (3) If either conclusion I or II is true. (4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. (5) If both conclusions I and II are true.

17. Statements: A = B ≥ C = D ≥ E; G ≤ F = E; C > H Conclusions: I. A > H II. B ≥ F (1) If only conclusion I is true. (2) If only conclusion II is true. (3) If either conclusion I or II is true. (4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. (5) If both conclusions I and II are true.

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18. Statements:

P > Q > R > S < T > U > V Conclusions: I. Q < V II. P > S (1) If only conclusion I is true. (2) If only conclusion II is true. (3) If either conclusion I or II is true. (4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. (5) If both conclusions I and II are true.

19. Statements: J > K > L: N < L > M Conclusions: I. K > M II. J > N (1) If only conclusion I is true. (2) If only conclusion II is true. (3) If either conclusion I or II is true. (4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. (5) If both conclusions I and II are true.

20. Statements: A = B ≥ C = D ≥ E G ≤ F = E C > H Conclusions: I. G = A II. G < A (1) If only conclusion I is true. (2) If only conclusion II is true. (3) If either conclusion I or II is true. (4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. (5) If both conclusions I and II are true.

Directions for Questions 21 to 25: In each of the questions below are given two or more statements followed conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statement to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which given conclusions logically follows from the given statement disregarding commonly known facts.

21. Statements: No book is a page. All pages are markers. All markers arc articles. Conclusions: I. All markers can never be books. II. All books are definitely articles. (1) If only conclusion I follows. (2) If only conclusion II follows (3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. (4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. (5) If both conclusions I and II follow.

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22. Statements:

Some fruits are apples All apples are guavas. No guava is a banana. Conclusions: I. All guavas are fruits. II. Some guavas are fruits. (1) If only conclusion I follows. (2) If only conclusion II follows (3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. (4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. (5) If both conclusions I and II follow.

23. Statements: All locks are keys. Some keys are pockets. Conclusions: I. No pocket is lock. II. At least some pockets are keys. (1) If only conclusion I follows. (2) If only conclusion II follows (3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. (4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. (5) If both conclusions I and II follow.

24. Statements: No book is a page. All pages are markers. All markers are articles. Conclusions: I. All pages are articles. II. At least some articles are markers. (1) If only conclusion I follows. (2) If only conclusion II follows (3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. (4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. (5) If both conclusions I and II follow.

25. Statements: Some fruits are apples. All apples are guavas. No guava is a banana. Conclusions: I. All fruits are bananas. II. No apple is a banana. (1) If only conclusion I follows. (2) If only conclusion II follows (3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. (4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. (5) If both conclusions I and II follow.

26. In a certain code language 'in the college' is written as ‘471’, 'was in the' is written as ‘451’. ‘come to college’ is written as '730’ and 'college was fun' is written as ‘579’. What does ‘7’ stand for in that code language? (1) in (2) the (3) college (4) fun (5) Either college or fun

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Directions for Questions 27 to 29: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and

27. In which year did Avani start her business? I. According to Avani’s mother, Avani has started her business after 2006 but before 2009. II. According to Avani’s father, she started her business before 2010 but after 2007 and the year was a Leap Year. (1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (3) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (4) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the questions. (5) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

28. Who among Meera, Jyoti, Pinki and Sadhana is the tallest? I. Meera is not as tall as Pinki or Sadhana. II. Jyoti is taller than Sadhana. (1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (3) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (4) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the questions. (5) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

29. How is N related to M? I. O is the husband of N. II. Z who is the sister of brother of M is the daughter of N. (1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (3) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (4) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the questions. (5) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

30. Below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered (A). (B) and (C). A course or action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow - up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Statement: It was seen that due to the negligence of the care taker and hostel attendant there was huge shortage of drinking water in the hostel. Courses of action: (A) The authority should immediately make arrangement for drinking water in the hostel. (B) The authority should take proper action against caretaker and hostel attendant. (C) The authority should dismiss the caretaker and hostel attendant. (1) Only A and C (2) Only B and C (3) Only A and B (4) Only C (5) None of these

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Numerical Ability Directions for Questions 31 to 35: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

31.

?83

158

1728729

3

3=××

(1) 0.15 (2) 0.18 (3) 1.02 (4) 0.24 (5) None of these

32.

221

32

10?625

)12996(1000729 −×=

+

(1) 573 (2) 537 (3) 753 (4) 735 (5) None of these

33. 5/17 of 51% of 864 = √? + √73.96 (1) 16421 (2) 16441 (3) 14641 (4) 16441 (5) None of these

34. 64% of 272 + ? % of 1129 = (-24) 2 + 83.55 (1) 51 (2) 53 (3) 41 (4) 43 (5) None of these

35. (21.6)2 ÷ (-7.2)2 x ? = 15483.36 – 15276.09 (1) 23.03 (2) 23.3 (3) 32.03 (4) 32.3 (5) None of these

Directions for Questions 36 to 40: Find the wrong number in the following number series.

36. 1050 510 242 106 46 16 3 (1) 3 (2) 106 (3) 242 (4) 510 (5) None of these

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37. 550 546 537 521 494 460 411

(1) 494 (2) 546 (3) 521 (4) 460 (5) None of these

38. 8 21 47 86 140 203 281 (1) 47 (2) 86 (3) 140 (4) 203 (5) None of these

39. 4 24 161 965 4795 19176 57525 (1) 161 (2) 965 (3) 57525 (4) 19176 (5) None of these

40. 1 2 8 24 120 720 5040 (1) 120 (2) 24 (3) 8 (4) 720 (5) None of these

41. Simple interest on a certain sum at a certain annual rate of interest is 16% of the sum. If the numbers representing rate percent and time in years be equal, then the rate of interest is (1) 4% (2) 6% (3) 4.5% (4) 6.5% (5) None of these

42. The average weight of M, N and O is equal to 65 kg. The average weight of M and N is equal to 69.5 kg. The average weight of N and O is 66.5 kg. What is the weight of N? (1) 74 kg (2) 75 kg (3) 77 kg (4) 80 kg (5) None of these

43. An interview panel found that a candidate has given a wrong information about his height, while filling up his form he filled up 20% more than his actual height. His actual height is 5 feet 2 inches. By what approximate percent should he reduce his height to get actual height? (1) 15 (2) 14 (3) 18 (4) 17 (5) None of these

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44. The circumference of a park is 750 m. A and B start walking from the same point in the same

direction at 6.75 kmph and 4.75 kmph. Among the given times, when will they meet each other? (1) 3 hours (2) 2.5 hours (3) 3.5 hours (4) 4 hours (5) 2 hours

45. M and N can do a work in 10 days and 15 days respectively. If M starts on the work and both work alternately day after day, in how many days will the work be completed? (1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 9 (5) None of these

Directions for Questions 46 to 50: What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) In the following questions? (You are not required to find the exact value).

46.

?915316

725

=××

(1) 65 (2) 75 (3) 80 (4) 85 (5) 95

47.

?25241585671

94

=×−×

(1) 1200 (2) 1120 (3) 1100 (4) 1175 (5) None of these

48. 1568.6531 - 2431.3178 + 3134.675 = ? (1) 2272 (2) 2372 (3) 2172 (4) 2200 (5) None of these

49. 24.9% of 5679 + 44.9% of 4301 = ? (1) 3455 (2) 3355 (3) 3255 (4) 3555 (5) None of these

50. (6.99)2 + (8.01)2 - √85 =? (1) 95 (2) 115 (3) 110 (4) 104 (5) None of these

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51. In how many different ways the letters of the word RECTITUDE can be arranged so that no

two vowels come together? (1) 50400 (2) 72000 (3) 43200 (4) 12000 (5) 10800

Directions for Questions 52 to 56: In the following table data related to number of books on different subjects sold by six shopkeeper’s city are given. The pie-chart shows the percentage return of books. Read them carefully and answer the questions.

Books sold by six shopkeepers in April 2013 (in hundreds) SHOPKEEPERS

Subjects A B C D E F English 3 1 4 2 5 5 Hindi 6 2 6 9 1 3 Maths 7 9 9 8 9 8 History 1 2 5 7 8 6 Science 8 8 1 3 2 9

Geography 5 4 2 4 7 4

52. Which of the following shopkeepers sold maximum number of books in the month? (1) A (2) E (3) D (4) F (5) C

53. What is the ratio of the books sold by shopkeepers A and F respectively? (1) 7:6 (2) 6:7 (3) 3:5 (4) 5:3 (5) None of these

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54. What is the approximate average number of books sold by shopkeepers B, C and D together?

(1) 3867 (2) 2667 (3) 2867 (4) 2777 (5) None of these

55. If a total of 4000 books were returned what was A’s share in them? (1) 720 (2) 740 (3) 750 (4) 760 (5) None of these

56. What is the difference between the books sold by A and E? (1) 180 (2) 200 (3) 300 (4) 225 (5) None of these

57. A 222 metre long train crosses a pole in 6 seconds. The same train crosses a man running in the same direction in 10 seconds. What will be the approximate speed of man? (1) 15 m/sec (2) 17 m/sec (3) 18 m/sec (4) 14 m/sec (5) 22 m/sec

58. A container has 30 litres of water. If 3 litres of water is replaced by 3 litres of spirit and this operation is repeated twice, what will be the quantity of water in the new mixture? (1) 24 litres (2) 23 litres (3) 24.3 litres (4) 23.3 litres (5) None of these

59. The sum of the three consecutive odd numbers is 285. What is the ratio of the smallest and largest numbers respectively? (1) 97:95 (2) 93:95 (3) 95:93 (4) 93:97 (5) None of these

60. In a container there are 28 eggs out of which 8 eggs are rotten. If two eggs are chosen at random, what will be the probability that at least one egg is rotten?

(1) 18994

(2) 18795

(3) 18993

(4) 18997

(5) None of these

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General Knowledge & Current Affairs

61. To which category of customers do the banks in India offer a Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account' with minimum common facilities? (1) Businessmen (2) BPL families (3) Beneficiaries of Antyodaya Anna Yojana (4) NRIs & PIOs (5) All customers

62. Which of the following is correct regarding the Reverse Repo Rate used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)? (1) It is used to control liquidity in the system (2) It’s the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks (3) An increase in reverse repo rate can prompt banks to park more funds with the RBI (4) It is a tool which can be used by the RBI to drain excess money out of the banking system (5) All of the above

63. In which of the following categories is the prestigious Kali-das Samman not given? (1) Classical Music (2) Classical Literature (3) Classical Dance (4) Theatre (5) Plastic Arts

64. In India, the capital market is regulated by the Capital Markets Division of (1) Reserve Bank of India (2) Department of Economic Affairs. Ministry of Finance (3) Securities and Exchange Board of India (4) Confederation of Indian Industry (5) None of the above

65. Which country would be visited by Bangladesh External Affairs Minister Ms. Dipu Moni in May 2013 to co-chair the first Joint Consultative Commission meeting between the two countries? (1) India (2) Saudi Arabia (3) Austria (4) Myanmar (5) China

66. What does NMCEX stand for? (1) National Multi-Commodity Exchange (2) National Mineral Corporation Export Council (3) National Mint for Currency Exchange (4) National Multi-Currency Exchange (5) National Multipurpose Council for Export

67. SHG is the abbreviated of (1) Shimla Housing group (2) Standard Himalayan Goat (3) Self Help Group (4) Swedish High Grapevine (5) Standard Morse Genome

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68. Which of the following situations is described by "too much money chasing too few goods"?

(1) Built-in Inflation (2) Recession (3) Cost-pull Inflation (4) Stagnation (5) Demand-pull Inflation

69. Which of the following bodies/ Institutes/ministries provides insurance to bank deposits in India? (1) Department of Economic Affairs. Ministry of Finance (2) Department of Currency Management. Reserve Bank of India (3) Insurance Regulatory Development Authority (4) Securities and Exchange Board of India (5) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation

70. What does EMI denote in the context of housing loans? (1) Easy Money in India (2) Equated Monthly Instalment (3) Easy Monthly Instalment (4) Equity at Monthly Invar (5) Equivalent Mortgage Institution

71. The Information and communication Technologies (ICT) are being increasingly used by the government to deliver its services at location convenient to the citizens. All possibly information services for the rural citizens are packaged as a (single point access through PC based (1) Outlets (2) Kiosks (3) Internet Cafes (4) Offices (5) ISPs

72. Which of the following is a category of Scheduled Commercial Banks in India? (1) Nationalized Banks (2) Foreign Banks (3) Regional Rural Banks (4) State Bank of India and its associates (5) All of the above

73. Where is the Secretariat of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS), which provides a forum for regular cooperation on banking supervisory matters, located? (1) Denmark (2) South Africa (3) Switzerland (4) Canada (5) Spain

74. Financial Holding Company (FHCs) in India are regulated by (1) Reserve Bank of India (2) Securities Exchange Board of India (3) NABARD (4) Union Ministry of Finance (5) Federation of Indian Industries

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75. Which of the following public sector insurance companies of India is headquartered in

Mumbai? a. National Insurance Company Limited. b. Life Insurance Corporation of India. c. New India Assurance Co. Ltd. d. United India Insurance Company Limited. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (1) Only a and b (2) Only c and d (3) Only b and c (4) Only a. c and d (5) All of the above

76. Who among the following is the signatory to a Rs. 10 note In India with the promise. “I promise to pay the bearer the sum of ten rupees"? (1) President of India (2) Union Minister of Finance (3) Governor, Reserve Bank of India (4) Prime Minister of India (5) Secretary to the Union Ministry of Finance

77. Which country recently passed legislation regarding provisions that allow the constitution to be adopted via referendum? (1) Moldova (2) Italy (3) Greece (4) Ukraine (5) Mexico

78. Regional Rural Banks in India are classified as (1) Scheduled Commercial Banks (2) Cooperative Banks (3) Non-Scheduled Commercial Banks (4) Non-Banking Financial Companies (5) Finance Holding Companies

79. Francois Hollande paid a two-visit to India in February 2013. He is the President of (1) Venezuela (2) France (3) Brazil (4) South Africa (5) Canada

80. Jacob Juma who was In recent news is the President of (1) Democratic Republic of Congo (2) Algeria (3) South Africa (4) Rwanda (5) Morocco

81. The most popular India Rupee exchange rate is the INR to the rate of (1) Euro (2) Yen (3) U.S. Dollar (4) Pound Sterling (5) Yen

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82. Which country recently announced to sell its first indigenously developed 1000 MW nuclear

reactor to Pakistan? (1) Russia (2) United States of America (3) China (4) Britain (5) France

83. Which of the following is/are not the objectives of the International Monetary Fund? (1) To promote international monetary cooperation (2) To facilitate the expansion of international trade (3) To assist in the reconstruction and development of territories of member by facilitating the investment of capital for productive purpose (4) To ensure stability to foreign exchange rates (5) To promote capital investment in backward and underdevelopment countries

84. What does FDI stand for? (1) Foreign Development Investment (2) Foreign Direct Investment (3) French Development Institution (4) Foreign Development Investment (5) For Deep Insight

85. In the field of business and finance. AML is the abbreviated form of (1) Association for Mormon Letters (2) Algebraic Modelling Language (3) Anti-Money Laundering (4) Acton Main Line (5) Association of Muslim Lawyers

86. Which of the following tools is used by the Reserve Bank of India to reduce liquidity in the banking system? (1) Cash Reserve Ratio (2) Open market operations (3) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (4) Current Base Rate (5) Repo Rate

87. Which of the following is on domestic production? (1) Corporation Tax (2) Wealth Tax (3) Income Tax (4) Excise Tax (5) Customs Duty

88. Which of the following bodies/organization decides on the volume and value of bank notes to be printed in India? (1) Securities Exchange Board (2) India Government Mint. Kolkata (3) Reserve Bank of India (4) Union Ministry of Finance (5) International Monetary Fund

89. Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument as per the Negotiable Instruments Act. 1881? (1) Promissory note (2) Bill of Exchange (3) Cheque (4) Mundi (5) All of the above

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90. Which of the following does not come under insurance sector in India?

(1) Life Insurance (2) General Insurance (3) Health Insurance (4) Property Insurance (5) Mental Disability Insurance

Computer Knowledge

91. What is not true about computer file? (1) File is a collection of data or information (2) Program file stores programs whereas text file store text (3) All information stored in a computer must be a file (4) Computer file can be stored on different types of media cases (5) A file size can be negative whole number of bytes upto a system limit

92. The octal equivalent of the binary number 11010101110011112 is (1) 152181 (2) 152781 (3) 153182 (4) 152717 (5) None of these

93. Which of the following is about computer hardware? (1) Monitor (2) Mouse (3) Speakers (4) ALU (5) All of these

94. Which of the following are numeric data types? (1) Array (2) Floating point (3) Fixed point (4) Only 2 and 3 (5) None of these

95. Printed version of document is known as............ (1) Hard Copy (2) Soft copy (3) Electronic copy (4) Only 1 and 2 (5) All of these

96. Which of the following is not a software? (1) ALU (2) Microsoft word (3) JSP (4) JPHP (5) ASP.NET

97. If you are stuck on a page of website on Internet explorer and you want to get the update frequently, what will you do? (1) Refresh button (2) Rewind button (3) Back button (4) Forward button (5) None of these

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98. Which or the following is not an output device?

(1) Monitors (2) Printers (3) Headphones (4) Projectors (5) Keyboard

99. Main circuit of computer is known as............... (1) Central processing unit (2) Intel (3) Motherboard (4) RAM (5) ROM

100. OLAP stands for (1) Overlap analytical-processing (2) Online analytical processing (3) Online logical analytical processing (4) One time analytical processing (5) None of these

101. CD stands for (1) Compact Disk (2) Combo Disk (3) Comparative Disk (4) Computing Disk (5) None of these

102. Which of the following is associated with Internet? (1) Home page (2) Mouse (3) Digitizer (4) Dumb terminals (5) All of these

103. The information of credit and debit card are stored on (1) Magnetic strip card (2) Mega strip card (3) Magnetic information card (4) Magnetic data card (5) None of these

104. RAM stands for (1) Read Available Memory (2) Read Access Memory (3) Random Access Memory (4) Read Antivirus Memory (5) All of these

105. IT stands for (1) Information Television (2) Inter Telecommunication (3) Integrating Technology (4) Information Theory (5) Information Technology

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106. ................. is an electronic device or a software that performs the composition, reading,

formatting. (1) Word processor (2) Word comprehension (3) Word vocabulary (4) Comprehensive knowledge (5) None of these

107. .............. is a method of exchanging digital message from an author to one or more recipients. (1) Electronic document (2) Electronic mail (3) Electronic message (4) Electronic letter (5) None of these

108. The part of computer architecture which is related to programming including data types, instruction, registers, addressing modes in known as........... (1) Super computer (2) CPU (3) Mother board (4) Instruction set (5) All of these

109. The process of carrying command in the machine is known as.......... (1) Executing (2) Scheduling (3) Processing (4) Only 1 (5) Only 4 and 3

110. The brain of any computer system is known as....... (1) ALU (2) Memory (3) CPU (4) Control Unit (5) None of these

111. The time taken by a device to locate data and instructions and make them available to the CPU is known as............ (1) A processing cycle (2) Clock speed (3) CPU speed (4) Access time (5) All of these

112. A Plastic card similar to a credit card but having some memory and a microprocessor embedded in it is (1) Punched paper tape (2) Chip card (3) Card Punch (4) Magnetic card (5) None of these

113. Memory that cannot be processed directly by CPU is (1) Internal memory (2) Secondary memory (3) Cache memory (4) System memory (5) None of these

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114. Which statement is valid about interpreter?

(1) It translates one instruction at a time (2) Object code is saved for future use (3) Repeated instruction is not necessary (4) Only 1 and 2 (5) All of these

115. What type of program controls the various computer parts and allows the user to interact with the computer'? (1) Utility software (2) Operating system (3) Database program (4) Word processing software (5) All of these

116. You organize files by storing them in (1) Archives (2) Folders (3) Indexes (4) Lists (5) None of these

117. What does editing document consists of? (1) Correcting the errors (2) Printing it (3) Saving it (4) Deleting It (5) None of these

118. A............is a large scale electronic repository of data that is time-variant. (1) data warehouse (2) data mine (3) knowledge based system (4) decision support system (5) None of these

119. A............... is a collection of computers and device connected together (1) Protocol (2) Memory card (3) Network (4) CPU (5) None of these

120. A search engine is a program to search (1) for information (2) web pages (3) web pages - for specified index terms (4) web pages for information using specified search terms (5) None of these

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English Language Directions for Questions 121 to 130: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Giving loans to impoverished women to make ceramics or to farmers to buy milk cows were not seen as great business. Microfinance was an industry championed by anti-poverty activists. Today it is on the verge of a revolution, with billions of dollars from big banks, private -equity shops and pension funds pouring in, driving growth of 30% to 40% this year alone. In 1998, a non-profit microfinance organisation in Peru, converted into a bank (called Mibanco). This demonstrated that the poor are good risks who repay loans on time and getting them together, not only chips away at poverty but also turns a profit. The success of Mibanco has piqued the interest of commercial banks, which had previously shunned the country's poor. Now big banks are going after Mibanco’s clients with low-rate loans and realising it takes special know - how to work with the unbanked and are hiring away Mibanco’s staff. But with the emergence of players who are only out for profit, micro finance schemes could end up milking the poor. This could happen in countries where lenders don’t have to disclose interest rates. When a Mexican micro financier went public, revealing loans had rates of about 86% annually, the Consultative Group to Assist the Poor (CGAP) criticised it for putting shareholders ahead of clients. The pressure to turn a profit also forces micro financiers to change their business models in ways that depart from the industry's core mission: to help poor people lead better lives. Such shifts have caused the average loan size to triple. More over smaller loans being costlier to service, a lower percentage of loans go to women because they tend to take out smaller sums. According to CGAP, with the flood of new large entities there is the risk that a large percentage of cross-border funds go to Latin America and eastern Europe, the world's most developed microfinance markets. “The poorest of the world’s poor, who are predominantly in Asia and Africa get left out," says the CEO of the non-profit Grameen Foundation, which helps develop microfinance institutions. Segmenting the industry, might be worthwhile if it allows more of the poor to get access to credit. Multinational corporations could take the top microfinance institutions to the next level, and the remainder could be the responsibility of development groups and regional banks. Yet making loans to poor people is hardly a poverty cure. Property rights and the rule of law matter too. One cannot over idealize what microfinance alone can do. Most non-profits started with lending simply because local laws prohibited nonbanks from offering deposit accounts. With an increase in competition and marketing efforts, poverty alleviation experts are concerned that people will be talked into loans they wouldn’t otherwise want. For example, organisations like Mibanco are providing consumer loans. There is nothing wrong with buying TVs and microwaves on credit, but certain markets, like Mexico have been flooded with loans that have nothing to do with providing capital to aspiring entrepreneurs- just increasing household debt.

121. What does the transformation of Peru's non-profit organisation into bank illustrate? A. To compete with commercial banks, microfinance institutions should convert into banks and offer a wide variety of services. B. Micro finance institutions turn higher profits as banks since interest rates on loans, are at their discretion. C. The poor prefer to go to large banks rather than NGOs to obtain loans. (1) None (2) Both (A) and (B) (3) All (A) (B) and (C) (4) Only A (5) None of these

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122. Why did most microfinance institutions initially provide only credit services?

(1) They were unable to compete with the interest rates offered on deposits by commercial banks. (2) They have to operate purely on a non-profit basis. (3) Government restrictions prevented them from offering additional services. (4) To ensure the poor have access to modem necessities like microwaves. (5) None of these

123. What was the Impact of the non-disclosure of their interest rates by lending institutions? (1) The government issued sanctions against such firms. (2) Shareholder s interests were not protected (3) More microfinance institutions were motivated to go public. (4) The poor were exploited (5) None of these

124. What Is CGAP’s fear with respect to new entities providing microfinance? (1) NGO will be unable to survive In an environment of cut throat competition (2) The poor will hesitate to take advantage of credit facilities because of the formalities involved. (3) The poor In the developed world will be overlooked (4) The interests of the most deserving among the poor will be neglected. (5) Shareholders interest will be ignored

125. What is the author’s opinion about the competition for customers among micro financiers? (1) It benefits the poor by providing them with loans would have otherwise not had access to. (2) It is futile since the poor have to pay high rates of interest on property loans. (3) It is not beneficial since firms waste their profits on marketing rather than helping the poor. (4) It is a disadvantage since micro financiers use any means possible to recover loans. (5) None of these

Directions for Questions 126 to 128: Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

126. Depart (1) absent (2) retirement (3) divide (4) expire (5) vary

127. Piqued (1) provoked (2) irritated (3) disturb (4) offended (5) fascinated

128. Verge (1) tend (2) crossroad (3) ascent (4) slope (5) threshold

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Directions for Questions 129 to 130: Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

129. Aspiring (1) uninterested (2) ungrateful (3) anxious (4) miserable (5) fraudulent

130. Core (1) clear (2) unnecessary (3) crust (4) beside (5) uncoordinated

Directions for Questions 131 to 140: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningfully complete.

131. To avoid ________, there is a need for ________ planning of the project. (1) cancellation, broad (2) problem, deliberate (3) pitfalls, systematic (4) Inconvenience, convenient (5) losses, temporary

132. A good management will decide not only the ________ for equipment but also its ________ for deciding priorities. (1) need, urgency (2) usefulness, utility (3) cost, value (4) requirement, necessities (5) technology, methodology

133. ________ appears to be a small error in the beginning may turn out to be a ________ in the long run. (1) It, disaster (2) What, blunder (3) That, debacle (4) It, slip (5) What, incident

134. Being very ________ in nature he always uses his ________ skills. (1) adamant, soft (2) polite, waste (3) humble. experimental (4) pushy, persuasive (5) mild, aggressive

135. Demand and supply do not ________ the same relationship as the one that ________ between height and weight. (1) posses, has (2) incur, is (3) defend, volunteers (4) bear, borne (5) have, exists

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136. If the system ________ to yield the desired result, try to ________ the whole procedure in

the given sequence. (1) entitles, dump (2) ignores, reproduce (3) fails, re-operate (4) imitates, generate (5) equips, encompass

137. He is so ________ in his approach that not a single point ever ________ his attention. (1) meticulous, escapes (2) casual, erodes (3) fanatic, brings (4) deliberate, attracts (5) nasty, coincides

138. Generally, ________ students ________ those who are mediocre. (1) humble, surmount (2) meritorious, surpass (3) bright, overestimate (4) intelligent, surrender (5) studious, respect

139. ________ and ________ should not be tolerated in our country which boasts of ‘Ahimsa’ as its way of life. (1) Politicking, elections (2) Dishonour, efficiency (3) Lethargy, procrastination (4) Nepotism, selfishness (5) Hatred, violence

140. He ________ a wrong act because it was ________ for him to do so due to circumstantial forces. (1) compelled, necessary (2) refused, dangerous (3) did, avoidable (4) committed, inevitable (5) simplified, harmful

Directions for Questions 141 to 150: Read each sentence to find out whether there Is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). i.e. 'No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

141. (1) These companies have been asked (2) to furnish their financial details (3) and information (4) to its board members (5) No error

142. (1) The scheme which will be launched (2) during the next two years (3) require an additional investment (4) of one hundred crores (5) No error

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143.

(1) Road developers unable (2) to complete their projects (3) on time will not be (4) awarded new ones (5) No error Answer key: 5 Solution: There is no error in the sentence.

144. (1) We have taken up (2) the responsibility of (3) arranging the required training (4) and supervise the new staff (5) No error

145. (1) The government has signed (2) a memorandum of understanding with (3) the company to set up (4) a plant in the state (5) No error

146. (1) Owing the new policy (2) we feel that the targets (3) set for this year (4) may not be achieved (5) No error

147. (1) Since the lack of (2) manpower we cannot (3) conduct the survey (4) in rural areas (5) No error

148. (1) Palm oil is very beneficial (2) and is use to (3) make products ranging (4) from soap to biodiesel (5) No error

149. (1) There are only (2) a few company (3) which can handle (4) projects of this magnitude. (5) No error

150. (1) The data shows that (2) the unemployment rate has (3) raised to 6.1 per cent, (4) the highest in five years (5) No error

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Directions for Questions 151 to 155: Rearrange the following six sentences (A). (B). (C). (D), (E) and (F) In the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph: then answer the questions given below them. (A) Assuming that all these reasons are true, the fact remains that there is an urgent need to check the accelerated costs and initiate suitable measures. (B) Some people attribute it to the increasing greediness among the medicos. (C) The impact of these measures will be visible only after a considerable pas sage of time. (D) Health care costs have been skyrocketing in our country. (E) The measures include yoga classes with emphasis on physical and mental exercises and also changes in food habits. (F) Certain others feel that it is because drastic changes in peoples lifestyle and eating habits.

151. Which of the following would be the FIRST statement after rearrangement? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

152. Which of the following would be the SECOND statement after rearrangement? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

153. Which of the following would be the FOURTH statement alter rearrangement? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

154. Which of the following would be the FIFTH statement after rearrangement? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

155. Which of the following would be the SIXTH (LAST) statement after rearrangement? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

Directions for Questions 156 to 160: In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each. Five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriate. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Recently the World Bank and the Asian Development Bank (ADB) released separate reports on poverty. The World Bank Report (A) its benchmark of extreme poverty by 25 cents from $1 per person per day to $1.25 per person a day. The ADB announced an even higher benchmark of $1.35 per person a day. These new benchmarks are (B) on surveys in the world’s poorest Countries. Experts often like to (C) that poverty has declined because of economic growth in India and China. This Is wrong and misleading. In the past twenty-five years the poverty rate in India has (D) by less than one percentage point a year. Whether we use a poverty line of $1 per person per day or $1.25 per person per day makes little (E). The number of poor in India is large. The purpose of

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these statistics Is not to dispute them but to study whether the benefits of economic growth are being shared with the poor.

156. A (1) heightened (2) announced (3) raised (4) maintained (5) notified

157. B (1) based (2) collected (3) Inferred (4) derived (5) gathered

158. C (1) realise (2) claim (3) discover (4) recommend (5) criticise

159. D (1) deplete (2) plunge (3) declined (4) weaken (5) fell

160. E (1) difference (2) effect (3) contrast (4) question (5) option

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Answer keys:

1) 3 2) 2 3) 4 4) 1 5) 3 6) 2 7) 5 8) 1 9) 5 10) 2

11) 4 12) 5 13) 3 14) 1 15) 1 16) 2 17) 5 18) 2 19) 5 20) 3

21) 1 22) 2 23) 2 24) 5 25) 2 26) 3 27) 2 28) 4 29) 5 30) 3

31) 1 32) 2 33) 3 34) 4 35) 1 36) 2 37) 1 38) 3 39) 2 40) 3

41) 1 42) 3 43) 4 44) 1 45) 2 46) 5 47) 4 48) 1 49) 2 50) 4

51) 5 52) 4 53) 2 54) 3 55) 1 56) 2 57) 1 58) 3 59) 4 60) 1

61) 5 62) 5 63) 2 64) 2 65) 1 66) 1 67) 3 68) 5 69) 5 70) 2

71) 2 72) 5 73) 3 74) 1 75) 3 76) 3 77) 4 78) 1 79) 2 80) 3

81) 3 82) 3 83) 3 84) 2 85) 3 86) 3 87) 4 88) 3 89) 4 90) 5

91) 5 92) 4 93) 5 94) 4 95) 1 96) 1 97) 1 98) 5 99) 3 100) 2

101) 1 102) 1 103) 1 104) 3 105) 5 106) 1 107) 2 108) 4 109) 1 110) 3

111) 4 112) 2 113) 2 114) 1 115) 2 116) 2 117) 1 118) 1 119) 3 120) 4

121) 5 122) 3 123) 4 124) 4 125) 5 126) 5 127) 1 128) 5 129) 1 130) 2

131) 3 132) 1 133) 2 134) 4 135) 5 136) 3 137) 1 138) 2 139) 5 140) 4

141) 4 142) 3 143) 5 144) 4 145) 5 146) 1 147) 1 148) 2 149) 2 150) 3

151) 4 152) 2 153) 1 154) 5 155) 3 156) 3 157) 1 158) 2 159) 3 160) 1

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Solutions:

Solutions for Questions 1 to 2: From the given statements, we have: C>D>A>B and F>E. Since F is elder than only E, the order is C>D>A>B>F>E. The age of third eldest person, i.e. A is 24 and F’s age is 19.

1. 3

Since B is younger than A and elder than F, his age must be between 19 and 24. Among the options 22 is the only possible value.

2. 2

Since each one of them has a distinct age and A is 24, D must be at least 25 and C at least 26 years old.

Solutions for Questions 3 to 7: The person from Assam live immediately below G’s floor. N lives immediately above G's floor and immediately below K’s floor. G is from Tamil Nadu. The person from West Bengal lives on the floor immediately below the floor on which the person from Assam lives. Therefore we have:

K N G Tamil Nadu Assam West Bengal

G lives on even numbered floor. Three persons live between L and G. Thus, L must also live on an even numbered floor. It is given that, H lives on the even numbered floor. So the person from West Bengal must be H. Three persons live between the persons from Bihar and West Bengal. Since a maximum of three persons can live below the person from West Bengal, K must be from Bihar. Four persons live between the persons from Bihar and Maharashtra. Hence the person below the person from West Bengal is the person from Maharashtra. There are five floors between the floors on which J and the person from Karnataka live. Since J cannot live on an even numbered floor, the only possible floors on which J and the person from Karnataka lives are 1 and 7. If J lives on floor 7. In this case, K must be on floor 6. But from the above table, the person on floor 1 turns out to be from Maharashtra, which contradicts the given condition. Hence this case is not possible. So J lives on floor 1. Thus, N is from Karnataka. Also L lives on floor 2. Since I is not from Assam, he must be from Maharashtra and the person from Assam is M. L does not belong to Rajasthan, so he’s from Punjab and J is from Rajasthan. The final table is:

Floor Person State 8 K Bihar 7 N Karnataka 6 G Tamil Nadu 5 M Assam 4 H West Bengal 3 I Maharashtra 2 L Punjab 1 J Rajasthan

3. 4

The person from Bihar lives on the eighth floor.

4. 1 K lives on the top most floor.

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5. 3

J belongs to Rajasthan.

6. 2 I lives exactly between H and L.

7. 5

The person from Assam lives on fifth floor.

8. 1 The travel agency was sued as it cheated its customer by not keeping its promise of giving discount. In fact they charged more than they were supposed to. From this we can infer that cheating may be a ground for filing a case.

9. 5

For M<J, the symbol should be =, ≥ or >. For H≥T, the symbol should be = or ≥. For both the conditions to be true, the symbol should be = or ≥. Solutions for Questions 10 to 14: he needs some help = tu gi ja le. (1) needs medicine and some = le da tu si. (2) some know now help = tu pa gi ki (3) now and where go = jo ze ki si. (4) In (1), (2) and (3), the common word is ‘some’ and the common code is ‘tu’. Hence some=tu. In (1) and (2), the common words are ‘needs some’ and common codes are ‘tu le’. As we know some is coded as tu, needs=le. Similarly from (1) and (3), help=gi Now in (1) the remaining word ‘he’ must be coded as ‘ja’. From (2) and (4), and=si. So the remaining word in (2), medicine=da. Similarly from (3) and (4), now=ki and know=pa. Final table: Word he needs some help medicine and know now where Go

Code ja le tu gi da si pa ki jo/ze jo/ze

10. 2 da=medicine, tu=some, ja=he

11. 4

‘le’ means needs.

12. 5 He=ja, know=pa, where=jo/ze Hence cannot be uniquely determined.

13. 3

The code for help is ‘gi’

14. 1 Now=ki, medicine=da, help=gi. Could is a new word and must have some new code. One possible code is ‘pi’

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15. 1

H is the father of J. J is the brother of L. N is the wife of L. it means J and L are sons of H. P is the wife of H. K is the son of L and N. K and Z are grandchildren of P. So J must be the uncle of K.

16. 2 Since we have opposite symbols between the terms lying between C and G, we can’t determine the relation between C and G. F is greater than equal to E which is equal to D which is greater than C and C is greater than B. hence F is greater than B. Thus only conclusion II is true.

17. 5 A equals B and greater than equal to C. since C is greater than H, A is also greater than H. B is greater than equal to C which is equal to D. D is greater than equal to E which is equal to F. thus B is greater than equal to F. So both conclusions I and II are true.

18. 2 Since we have opposite symbols between the terms lying between Q and V, we can’t determine the relation between Q and V. P is greater than Q, Q is greater than R, R is greater than S. Thus P is greater than S. Hence only conclusion II is true.

19. 5 K is greater than L, L is greater than M. Thus K is greater than M. J is greater than K, K is greater than L, L is greater than N. Thus J is greater than N. Hence both conclusions I and II are true.

20. 3 A=B, C=D, E=F. Now A is greater than equal to C, C is greater than equal to E and E is greater than equal to G. Hence A is greater than equal to G. The given conclusions are G=A and G<A. Either of them has to be true.

21. 1 If all markers are books then some pages will be books which is not possible. Hence all markers can never be books.

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22. 2

Some guavas are fruits.

23. 2 A possible representation is:

At least some pockets are keys.

24. 5 All pages are articles and some articles are markers.

25. 2 If some apples were bananas, some guavas would be bananas, which is not possible. Hence, no apple is a banana.

26. 3 'in the college' = ‘471’, ‘come to college’ = '730’ The common code is 7 and the common word is college.

27. 2 From I, Avani started her business in 2007 or 2008. From II, Avani started her business in 2008. Thus statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

28. 4 From I, Meera<Pinki, Sadhana From II, Jyoti>Sadhna From I and II both we cannot determine who is is taller among Jyoti and Pinki.

29. 5 From I, O is the husband of N. From II, Z and M are children of N. So N cold be the father or mother of M. Thus combining both the statements, we have: N is the mother of M.

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30. 3

The problem is the scarcity of drinking water, which must be resolved at the earliest. Since the problem aroused due to the negligence of the care taker and hostel attendant, the authority should take proper action against them. That does not mean that the care taker and hostel attendant be dismissed from their job. Hence only the course of actions A and B follow.

31. 1 ? = 9/12 x 8/15 x 3/8 = 3/4 x 1/5 = 3/20 = 0.15

32. 2 ? x 10-2 = 81/100 + 114/25 ⇒ ? x 10-2 = 0.81 + 4.56 = 5.37 ⇒ ? = 537

33. 3 5/17 x 0.51 x 864 =√? + 8.6 ⇒ 0.15 x 864 =√? + 8.6 = 129.6 ⇒ √? = 121 ⇒ ? = 14641

34. 4 0.64 x 272 + ?% of 1129 = 576 + 83.55 ⇒ ?% of 1129 = 576 + 83.55 – 174.08 = 485.47 ⇒ ? = 48547/1129 = 43

35. 1 21.6÷7.2 = 3 ⇒ 9 x ? = 207.27 ⇒ ? = 23.03

36. 2 The pattern is 1050÷2-15=510, 510÷2-13=242, 242÷2-11=110, 110÷2-9=46, 46÷2-7=16, 16÷2-5=3 Hence the wrong term is 106.

37. 1 The pattern is 550-22=546, 546-32=537, 537-42=521, 521-52=496, 496-62=460, 460-72=411 Hence the wrong term is 494

38. 3 The pattern is 8+13x1=21, 21+13x2=47, 47+13x3=86, 86+13x4=138, 138+13x5=203, 203+13x6=281 Hence the wrong term is 140

39. 2 The pattern is 4x8-8=24, 24x7-7=161, 161x6-6=960, 960x5-5=4795, 4795x4-4=19176, 19176x3-3=57525 Hence the wrong term is 965

40. 3 The nth term of the series is n! i.e. 1x2x3…n The wrong term in the series is 8 because 1x2x3=6

41. 1 SI = PRT/100 Given that SI = 0.16 P and R=T 0.16P = PR2/100 ⇒ R2 = 16 or R=4%

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42. 3

M+N+O = 65x3 = 195 kg M+N = 139, N+O=133 (2) + (3) – (1) ⇒ N = 139+133-195 = 77 kg

43. 4 Let his actual height be h. Reported height = 1.2h Percent reduction = 0.2/1.2 x 100 = 16.67% ≈ 17%

44. 1 Since they are moving in the same direction, their relative speed = 6.75-4.75 = 2 km/h Time between their consecutive meetings = 0.75/2 x 60 = 22.5 minutes. Hence they meet after every 22.5 minutes. Among the given options, only 180 is the multiple of 22.5. Hence they’ll meet after 3 hours.

45. 2 Work done in 2 days = 1/10 + 1/15 = 1/6 Hence the work will be completed in 2x6 = 12 days.

46. 5 ? = 25 x 16 x 13/53 ≈ 25 x 16 x ¼ = 100 Closest value is 95

47. 4 ? ≈ 4/9 x 5670 – 8/15 x 2520 = 4 x 630 – 8 x 168 = 2520 – 1344 = 1176 ≈ 1175

48. 1 ? ≈ 1569 – 2431 + 3135 = 2273

49. 2 ? ≈ 25% of 5680 + 45% of 4300 = 1420 + 1935 = 3355

50. 4 ? ≈ 49 + 64 – 9.2 = 103.8 ≈ 104

51. 5 There are four vowels (E,I,U and E) and five consonants(R,C,T,T and D) For no two vowels to be together, the arrangement is: _ R _ C _ T _ T _ D _ 4 vowels can be inserted in 6 positions in 6C4 ways. Ways of arranging the consonants = 5!/2! Ways of arranging the vowels = 4!/2! Total no. of ways = 6C4 x 5!/2! x 4!/2! = 15 x 60 x 12 = 10800 Solution for Questions 52 to 56:

SHOPKEEPERS Total Subjects A B C D E F

English 3 1 4 2 5 5 20 Hindi 6 2 6 9 1 3 27 Maths 7 9 9 8 9 8 50 History 1 2 5 7 8 6 29 Science 8 8 1 3 2 9 31

Geography 5 4 2 4 7 4 26 Total 30 26 27 33 32 35 183

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52. 4

Shopkeeper F sold the maximum number of books

53. 2 Required ratio = 30:35 = 6:7

54. 3 Total books sold by shopkeepers B, C and D together = (26+27+33) x 100 = 8600 Hence average = 8600/3 = 2867

55. 1 Required share = 18% of 4000 = 720

56. 2 Required difference = 3200-3000 = 200

57. 1 Speed of the train = length/time taken to cross a pole = 222/6 = 37m/s Speed of the train relative to the man = 222/10 = 22.2 m/s Hence speed of the man = 37-22.2 = 14.8m/s = 15 m/s(approx.)

58. 3 Water left after each operation = (30-3)/30 x 100 = 90% Water left after 1st operation = 30x0.9 = 27L Water left after 2nd operation = 27x0.9 = 24.3L

59. 4 Let the numbers be n-2, n and n+2. Sum = 3n = 285 ⇒ n = 95 Required ratio = 93:97

60. 1 P(no egg is rotten) = 20C2/28C2 = 20x19/(28x27) = 95/189 P(at least one egg is rotten) = 1 - P(no egg is rotten) = 1 – 95/189 = 94/189

121. 5 According to the paragraph, the transformation of Peru's non-profit organisation into bank demonstrated that “the poor are good risks who repay loans on time and getting them together, not only chips away at poverty but also turns a profit”. None of the options state this fact. Hence, 5 is the correct answer

122. 3

According to the paragraph, “Most non-profits started with lending simply because local laws prohibited nonbanks from offering deposit accounts” Hence it is clear that the laws by the local government didn’t allow the non profit institutions (microfinance) to offer additional services (such as offering deposit accounts)

123. 4

According to the passage, “But with the emergence of players who are only out for profit, micro finance schemes could end up milking the poor. This could happen in countries where lenders don’t have to disclose interest rates”. It means that the poor people were milked (exploited) due to non-disclosure of interest rates.

124. 4

According to the passage “According to CGAP, with the flood of new large entities there is the risk that a large percentage of cross-border funds go to Latin America and eastern Europe, the world's most developed microfinance markets. “The poorest of the world’s poor, who are predominantly in Asia and Africa get left out,". Hence, CGAP fears that the poor people who deserve help the most will be left out. Hence, 4 is the correct option.

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125. 5

According to the passage, “With an increase in competition and marketing efforts, poverty alleviation experts are concerned that people will be talked into loans they wouldn’t otherwise want.” None of the options mention this point. Hence, 5 is correct.

126. 5

Depart means “deviate from (an accepted, prescribed, or usual course of action)”. Hence, “Vary” is the most similar in meaning

127. 1

To pique means to arouse interest or curiosity. Hence, “Provoked” is most similar in meaning.

128. 5 Verge means on the edge or border. Hence, “Threshold” is the most similar in meaning.

129. 1

Aspiring means “directing one's hopes or ambitions towards becoming a specified type of person”. Hence, “Uninterested” means showing no interest is the most opposite in meaning.

130. 2

”Core” according to the context means main or the most important. Hence, “Unnecessary” is the most opposite in meaning.

131. 3

‘Temporary’ and ‘Deliberate’ have negative connotations and hence won’t fit in the 2nd blank. ‘Convenient planning’ doesn’t make any sense. There is not enough information as to how ‘Broad planning’ can help to avoid ‘cancellations’. Hence, Only 3 suffices. Pitfalls (Failures) can be avoided if the plan is systematic and not random.

132. 1

Since the management is responsible for deciding priorities, in the sentence, ‘its’ refers to the management. Management cannot decide the technology, so 5 is ruled out. Usefulness and Cost go with the preposition ‘of’ and not ‘for’, so 2 and 3 are ruled out as well. Only 1 has the correct combination of words.

133. 2

Blunder means a stupid or careless mistake. Since earlier it was a ‘Small error’, it must be a “blunder’’ in the long run. Also, the sentence must start with ‘What’ to make it idiomatically correct.

134. 4

1st blank should be filled with a character which matches with the action in the 2nd blank. Only 4 has a correct combination. “Pushy” means excessively or unpleasantly self-assertive or ambitious. Hence, someone who is pushy will also be persuasive (compelling and convincing)

135. 5

Incur and Defend are out of context. The 1st blank can be filled with only Posses/Bear/Have. For the 2nd blank ‘Has’ and ‘Borne’ are grammatically incorrect. Hence, only 5 has the correct combination of words.

136. 3

Only ‘Fails’ will go with the preposition ‘to’. Hence, 3 is the correct option.

137. 1 Meticulous means “showing great attention to detail; very careful and precise”. Hence, for a meticulous person, no point will ‘escape’ his attention.

138. 2

“Meritorious” means deserving reward or praise. Hence, they can surpass (will be better than) the mediocre students.

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139. 5

‘Ahimsa’ means ‘Non Violence’. So, in a country which boasts of “Ahimsa’, hatred and violence should not be tolerated.

140. 4

Inevitable means something which cannot be avoided. Someone will be involved in a wrong act (or ‘commit’ a wrong act) when it cannot be avoided due to circumstances.

141. 4

‘Companies’ is plural. So, we should use ‘their’ (plural verb) in the place of ‘its’ (singular verb)

142. 3 The subject in this sentence is ‘Scheme’, which is singular, so we must use a singular verb (requires) instead of ‘require’

143. 5

There is no error in the sentence.

144. 4 The two verbs ‘Arranging’ and ‘Supervise’ are not parallel. The correct form is ‘Supervising’

145. 5

There is no error in the sentence.

146. 1 The correct idiomatic usage is ‘Owing to’

147. 1

The usage of ‘Since’ is wrong. The correct usage is ‘Due to’

148. 2 The correct usage is ‘is used to’

149. 2

‘A few’ is used for more than one entity. So, ‘companies’ is the correct word

150. 3 ‘Raised’ should be replaced with ‘Increased’

Solutions for Questions 151 to 155: The sentence starts with D, which introduces the topic of the passage (skyrocketing healthcare costs). Then B and F mention the reasons which are perceived by the people to be behind this fact. A then mentions that the costs need to be checked urgently. E mentions the measures that need to be taken to check the rising costs. C finally mentions about the impact of those measures. Hence, the correct sequence is- DBFAEC

156. 3 Only ‘raised’ will go with the preposition ‘by’. Hence, 3 is correct.

157. 1

Only ‘based’ will go with the preposition ‘on’. Other options won’t make any sense in the sentence.

158. 2

Only ‘claim’ as there is no context for other options.

159. 3 Since ‘has’ is present, we need to use the present perfect verb. Only ‘declined’ is correct as the present perfect form. Other options have wrong tense.

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160. 1

“To make little difference” means to not be important, or to not have any effect.

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