leader test series / joint package course · 2016. 3. 28. · paper code : 0000ct103115005 target :...

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Paper Code : 0000CT103115005 TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2016 Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 +91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in dlp.allen.ac.in, dsat.allen.ac.in LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE (Main) 2016 Form Number : DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME (Academic Session : 2015 - 2016) Important Instructions Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. 1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 3. The test is of 3 hours duration. 4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360. 5. There are three parts in the question paper A,B,C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response. 6. One Fourth mark will be deducted for indicated incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. 7. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/ marking responses on Side–1 and Side–2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electronic device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room. 9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. 10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. 1. 2. 3. 3 4. 90 360 5. A, B, C 30 4 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. Note : In case of any correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Paper Code & Your Form No. ( Correction Paper Code Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail ) Test Type : ALL INDIA OPEN TEST (MAJOR) Test Pattern : JEE-Main TEST # 07 TEST DATE : 27 - 03 - 2016

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  • Paper Code : 0000CT103115005

    TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2016

    Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

    +91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in

    dlp.allen.ac.in, dsat.allen.ac.in

    LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE

    Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE (Main) 2016

    Form Number :

    DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)

    Important Instructions

    Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

    1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet

    with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

    2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else

    (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

    3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

    4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks

    are 360.

    5. There are three parts in the question paper A,B,C consisting of

    Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in

    each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four)

    marks for correct response.

    6. One Fourth mark will be deducted for indicated incorrect response

    of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made

    if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.

    7. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/

    marking responses on Side–1 and Side–2 of the Answer Sheet.

    Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

    8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or

    written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electronic device etc,

    except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.

    9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose

    in the Test Booklet only.

    10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer

    Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the

    candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

    11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

    1.

    2.

    3. 3 4. 90360

    5. A, B, C 30 4

    6.

    7.

    8.

    9.

    10.

    11.

    Note : In case of any correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Paper Code & YourForm No. (Correction Paper Code Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail)

    Test Type : ALL INDIA OPEN TEST (MAJOR) Test Pattern : JEE-Main

    TEST # 07 TEST DATE : 27 - 03 - 2016

  • 1/310000CT103115005

    SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /

    ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/JEE (Main)/27-03-2016

    BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

    HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

    PART A - PHYSICS

    1. If the unmodulated level peak carrier amplitude

    is double of modulating signal in an AM signal,

    the amplitude modulation is ________ :-

    (1) 20% (2) 50%

    (3) 100% (4) 200%

    2. The dc output polarity from a half-wave

    rectifier can be reversed by reversing :-

    (1) the diode

    (2) transformer's primary coil

    (3) transformer's secondary coil

    (4) both (2) and (3)

    3. The acceleration time graph of a particle is

    shown in the figure. What is the velocity of

    particle at t = 8 s if its initial velocity is 3 m/s ?

    O 4 8 t–1

    4

    a

    (1) 4 m/s (2) 5 m/s (3) 6 m/s (4) 7 m/s

    1. AM

    ________ :-

    (1) 20% (2) 50%

    (3) 100% (4) 200%

    2. dc

    (1)

    (2)

    (3)

    (4) (2) (3)

    3.

    t = 8 s

    3 m/s ?

    O 4 8 t–1

    4

    a

    (1) 4 m/s (2) 5 m/s (3) 6 m/s (4) 7 m/s

  • 0000CT1031150052/31

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    ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/JEE (Main)/27-03-2016

    4. Two concentric rings each of radius R and massM are joined together such that their planes areperpendicular to each other as shown in figure.The moment of inertia of the system about theaxis AA' is :-

    (1) 2MR

    5

    (2) 23 MR

    2

    A

    M

    R

    A(3) 25 MR

    3

    (4) MR2

    5. A hollow sphere of radius R moves with initiallinear and angular velocities as shown in thefigure on a rough horizontal surface. Theangular velocity of the sphere when its linearvelocity becomes zero is :-

    V3VR

    (1) V

    R anticlockwise

    (2) V

    R clockwise

    (3) 3V

    2Rclockwise

    (4) 3V

    2R anticlockwise

    4. R M AA'

    (1) 2MR

    5

    (2) 23 MR

    2

    A

    M

    R

    A(3) 25 MR

    3

    (4) MR2

    5. R

    V3VR

    (1) V

    R

    (2) V

    R

    (3) 3V

    2R

    (4) 3V

    2R

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    6. A simple pendulum consisting of a mass M

    attached to a string of length L is released from

    rest at an angle . A pin is located at a distance

    below the pivot point. When the pendulum

    swings down, the string hits the pin as shown

    in the figure. The maximum angle which

    string makes with the vertical after hitting the

    pin is :-

    L

    (1) 1 L coscos

    L

    (2)

    1 L coscosL

    (3) cos–1L cos

    L

    (4)

    1 L coscosL

    7. In the figure a conducting wire of length a is

    moving in a uniform and constant magnetic

    field B with a constant velocity v parallel to its

    length. The potential difference between the

    ends P and Q is equal to :-

    × × × × × ×× × × × × ×

    × × × × × ×P QBxv

    a

    (1) 0 (2)Bav (3) 1

    Bav2

    (4) 3

    Bav2

    6. M, L

    L

    (1) 1 L coscos

    L

    (2)

    1 L coscosL

    (3) cos–1L cos

    L

    (4)

    1 L coscosL

    7. a

    B

    v P Q

    :-

    × × × × × ×× × × × × ×

    × × × × × ×P QBxv

    a

    (1) 0 (2)Bav (3) 1

    Bav2

    (4) 3

    Bav2

  • 0000CT1031150054/31

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    8. In a certain region of space there exists a

    constant and uniform magnetic field of

    induction B. The width of the magnetic field is

    a. A charged particle having charge q, is

    projected perpendicular to B

    and along the

    width of the field. If deflection produced by

    the field perpendicular to the width is d, then

    the magnitude of the momentum of the particle

    is :-

    ×××××××

    ×××××××

    ×××××××a

    d

    q

    (1)

    2 2d aqB

    2d

    (2) 2

    2

    aqB

    2d

    (3)

    24dqB

    a d (4) 2 2a d

    qB2d

    9. In a certain region of space electric field is given

    by ˆ ˆ ˆE 2i 3 j 4k

    . The change in potential

    observed by a man who moves from point (1,

    0, 5) to the point (4, 2, 6) is. (Electric field is in

    N/C and coordinates are in meter) :-

    (1) 4V (2) –4V (3) 1

    3 V (4)

    53V

    18

    8. B

    a q B

    d

    ×××××××

    ×××××××

    ×××××××a

    d

    q

    (1)

    2 2d aqB

    2d

    (2) 2

    2

    aqB

    2d

    (3)

    24dqB

    a d (4) 2 2a d

    qB2d

    9. ˆ ˆ ˆE 2i 3 j 4k

    (1, 0, 5) (4, 2, 6)

    (

    N/C ) :-

    (1) 4V (2) –4V (3) 1

    3 V (4)

    53V

    18

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    10. Every iron atom in a ferromagnetic domain in

    iron has a magnetic dipole moment equal to

    9.27 × 10–24 A–m2. A ferromagnetic domain in

    iron has the shape of a cube of side 1 µm. The

    maximum dipole moment occurs when all the

    dipoles are aligned. The molar mass of iron is

    56g, and its specific gravity is 8. The

    approximate magnetization of the domain

    is :-

    (1) 8.0 × 105 A/m (2) 8.0 × 108 A/m

    (3) 8.0 × 1011 A/m (4) 8.0 × 1014 A/m

    11. A particle is placed at the lowest point of a

    smooth wire frame in the shape of a parabola,

    lying in the vertical xy-plane having equation

    x2 = 5y (x, y are in meter). After slight

    displacement, the particle is set free. Find

    angular frequency of oscillation (in rad/sec)

    (take g = 10 m/s2) :-

    (1) 2 rad/s (2) 4 rad/s

    (3) 6 rad/s (4) 8 rad/s

    12. Two particles A and B have de-Broglie's

    wavelengths 30Å and 20Å, combined to form

    a particle C. Momentum is conserved in this

    process. The possible de-Broglie's wavelength

    of C is :-

    (1) 10Å (2) 20Å

    (3) 65Å (4) 80Å

    10.

    pqEcdh; f}/kzqo vk?kw.kZ 9.27 × 10–24 A–m2

    1 µm

    56g

    8

    (1) 8.0 × 105 A/m (2) 8.0 × 108 A/m

    (3) 8.0 × 1011 A/m (4) 8.0 × 1014 A/m

    11. xy- x2 = 5y

    (x, y )

    (rad/sec ) (g = 10 m/s2) :-

    (1) 2 rad/s (2) 4 rad/s

    (3) 6 rad/s (4) 8 rad/s

    12. A B

    30Å 20Å C

    C

    :-

    (1) 10Å (2) 20Å

    (3) 65Å (4) 80Å

  • 0000CT1031150056/31

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    13. In an experiment of photoelectric effect, the

    variation of photoelectric current is plotted

    against potential difference across emitter and

    collector plates for different intensities. On the

    basis of graph choose the incorrect option :-

    I1I2

    V

    Photoelectriccurrent

    (1) All emitted photoelectrons do not have same

    kinetic energy

    (2) If frequency of incident light is kept

    constant, the maximum kinetic energy of

    emitted photoelectron is independent of

    intensity.

    (3) Maximum value of photoelectric current is

    independent of intensity of radiation if its

    frequency is constant.

    (4) From the graph, we can conclude radiation

    intensity I1 > I

    2.

    14. A passenger in an aeroplane shall :-

    (1) Never see a rainbow.

    (2) May see a primary and a secondary rainbow

    as concentric circles.

    (3) Will see a primary and a secondary rainbow

    as concentric arcs.

    (4) Shall never see a secondary rainbow.

    13.

    I1I2

    V

    Photoelectriccurrent

    (1)

    (2)

    (3)

    (4) I

    1 > I

    2

    14. (1) (2)

    (3)

    (4)

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    15. Two identical spherical stars each having a massequal to that of the sun move in a commoncircular orbit of radius equal to the earth'sorbital radius, under their mutual gravitationalinteraction. Their time period of rotationequals:-

    (1) 2yr (2) 1

    2 yr (3) 2 2 yr (4) 2 yr

    16. An equimolar mixture of a monoatomic and adiatomic ideal gas is suddenly compressed to

    1

    8th of its original volume. The ratio of final

    temperature to the initial temperature :-

    (1) 80.53 (2) 80.5 (3) 81.53 (4) 82/3

    17. In an experiment to determine the inertial massof an object using Newton's second law,following graph is obtained between net forceon the object and the acceleration produced init. The mass of the object within error limitsis :-

    1 2 3F(N)

    1

    2

    3

    a(m/s )2

    (1) 1.0 kg (2) 1 kg

    (3) (1.0 ± 0.1) kg (4) (1.0 ± 0.15)kg

    15.

    (1) 2yr (2) 1

    2 yr (3) 2 2 yr (4) 2 yr

    16.

    1

    8(1) 80.53 (2) 80.5 (3) 81.53 (4) 82/3

    17.

    1 2 3F(N)

    1

    2

    3

    a(m/s )2

    (1) 1.0 kg (2) 1 kg

    (3) (1.0 ± 0.1) kg (4) (1.0 ± 0.15)kg

  • 0000CT1031150058/31

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    18. A point object O is placed at a distance of 20cm

    in front of a equi-convex lens (a

    g = 1.5) of

    focal length 10 cm . The lens is placed on a

    liquid of refractive index 2 as shown. Image

    will be formed at a distance h from lens. The

    value of h is :-

    20

    cmO

    =2

    (1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm

    (3) 20 cm (4) 40 cm

    19. The frequency of first overtone of a closed

    organ pipe of length L is f1. A hole is made at a

    distance L

    6 from the closed end so that it

    becomes an open pipe. Now the frequency of

    first overtone of open pipe is f2. Then

    1

    2

    f

    f is :-

    (1) 4

    5(2)

    5

    4(3)

    8

    5(4)

    5

    8

    18. O 10 cm

    (a

    g = 1.5) 20 cm

    2

    h h

    20

    cm

    O

    =2

    (1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm

    (3) 20 cm (4) 40 cm

    19. L

    f1

    L

    6

    f2

    1

    2

    f

    f

    :-

    (1) 4

    5(2)

    5

    4(3)

    8

    5(4)

    5

    8

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    20. A transverse wave is passing through a stringshown in figure. Mass density of the string is1 kg/m3 and cross section area of string is0.01m2. Equation of wave in string is y = 2sin(20t – 10x). The hanging mass is (in kg)['t' is in second and 'x' is in meter]:-

    m

    (1) 40 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.004 (4) 0.4

    21. There is a set of 4 tuning forks, one with lowest

    frequency vibrating at 552 Hz. By using anytwo forks at time, the beat frequencies heard

    are 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8. The possible frequencies ofother three forks are :-

    (1) 553, 554 and 560 Hz

    (2) 553, 555 and 560 Hz

    (3) 553, 556 and 558 Hz

    (4) 551, 554 and 560 Hz

    22. In an experiment to determine the radius of achalk by screw gauge, the diameter is measured

    and readings are d1 = 1.002 cm, d

    2 = 1.004 cm

    and d3 = 1.006 cm. Select the correct

    alternatives:-

    (1) Mean absolute error in radius is 0.0013 cm

    (2) Mean absolute error in diameter is 0.0013cm

    (3) Error is 0 cm

    (4) % age error in the measurement of diameteris 1.3%

    20. 1 kg/m3 0.01m2 y = 2sin (20t – 10x) (kg ) ['t' 'x' ]:-

    m

    (1) 40 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.004 (4) 0.4

    21. 4 552 Hz 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8 (1) 553, 554 560 Hz(2) 553, 555 560 Hz(3) 553, 556 558 Hz(4) 551, 554 560 Hz

    22. d

    1 = 1.002 cm, d

    2 = 1.004 cm

    d3 = 1.006 cm

    (1) 0.0013 cm

    (2) 0.0013 cm

    (3) 0 cm

    (4) % 1.3%

  • 0000CT10311500510/31

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    23. The ratio of average translational K.E. to

    rotational K.E. of a linear polyatomic molecule

    at temperature T is :-

    (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 3

    2(4)

    7

    5

    24. Two spheres of emissive power 0.6 and 0.8 and

    radii 2cm and 4 cm are heated to 27°C and

    127°C and placed in room of temperature 0K.

    The ratio of heat radiated per second is :-

    (1) 0.059 (2) 0.044 (3) 0.079 (4) 0.831

    25. Two short dipoles of dipole moment p are

    placed at two corners of a square as shown in

    the figure. What is the ratio of magnitudes of

    electric field at two points O & A :-

    O

    A p

    p

    (1) 2 (2) 2 2 (3) 1 (4) 2

    26. Rate of dissipation of joule heat in resistance

    per unit volume is (E is electric field,

    resistivity):-

    (1) E

    (2)

    2E

    (3) E2 (4) None of these

    23. T

    (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 3

    2(4)

    7

    5

    24. 0.6 0.8

    2cm 4 cm 0K

    27°C 127°C

    (1) 0.059 (2) 0.044 (3) 0.079 (4) 0.831

    25. p O A

    :-

    O

    A p

    p

    (1) 2 (2) 2 2 (3) 1 (4) 2

    26. (E , ):-

    (1) E

    (2)

    2E

    (3) E2 (4)

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    27. Three rings each having equal radius R, are

    placed mutually perpendicular to each other and

    each having its centre at the origin of coordinate

    system. If current I is flowing through each ring

    then the magnitude of the magnetic field at the

    common centre is :-

    x

    y

    (1) 3 I

    2R

    (2) 0

    3 I

    2R

    (3) 0 (4) 0I3 12R

    28. If the system is released from rest, then the

    reading of spring balance is :-

    1kg 2kg

    (1) 1

    kg3

    (2) 2

    kg3

    (3) 1kg (4) 4

    kg3

    27. R

    I

    x

    y

    (1) 3 I

    2R

    (2) 0

    3 I

    2R

    (3) 0 (4) 0I3 12R

    28.

    1kg 2kg

    (1) 1

    kg3

    (2) 2

    kg3

    (3) 1kg (4) 4

    kg3

  • 0000CT10311500512/31

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    29. An open U tube contains two immiscible liquids

    of densities 1 and

    2 (

    1 >

    2) as shown in

    figure. If PA, P

    B, P

    C and P

    D refer to the pressure

    at points A, B, C and D respectively then :-

    A B

    C D1

    2

    C

    (1) PA = P

    B > P

    C > P

    D

    (2) PA = P

    B > P

    D > P

    C

    (3) PA = P

    B > P

    C = P

    D

    (4) It is not possible to predict the correct

    relation between PA, P

    B, P

    C and P

    D with

    given information

    30. An irregular shaped body of mass m, density

    is falling with a terminal speed v in a viscous

    medium of density and viscosity . The

    viscous drag force acting on the body has a

    magnitude :-

    (1) mg (2) mg 1

    (3) 6v (4) mg 1

    29. U 1

    2 (

    1 >

    2)

    PA, P

    B, P

    C P

    D

    A, B, C D

    A B

    C D1

    2

    C

    (1) PA = P

    B > P

    C > P

    D

    (2) PA = P

    B > P

    D > P

    C

    (3) PA = P

    B > P

    C = P

    D

    (4) PA, P

    B, P

    C P

    D

    30. m

    v

    (1) mg (2) mg 1

    (3) 6v (4) mg 1

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    PART B - CHEMISTRY

    31. ( m ) -

    (1) Scm3 mol–1 (2) Scm mol–1

    (3) Sm mol–1 (4) Scm2 mol–1

    32. H-

    -

    hc = 1240 eV.nm

    (1) 1240

    nm10.2

    (2) 1240

    nm1.89

    (3) 1240

    2.55 nm (4)

    1240nm

    0.66

    33. -

    (1)

    (2) G > 0

    (3)

    (4) 1Å 1000Å

    31. Units of molar conductivity ( m ) is -

    (1) Scm3 mol–1 (2) Scm mol–1

    (3) Sm mol–1 (4) Scm2 mol–1

    32. Wavelength of photon emited when an electron in

    H-atom jumps from an orbital having 2 angular

    nodes with one spherical node to an orbital having

    total 1 node is -

    Given hc = 1240 eV.nm

    (1) 1240

    nm10.2

    (2) 1240

    nm1.89

    (3) 1240

    2.55 nm (4)

    1240nm

    0.66

    33. Correct statement is -

    (1) Chemical adsorption is irreversible in nature

    (2) G > 0 for adsorption of gas over liquid

    (3) Dispersed phase in colloidal solution of gold

    moves towards cathode during electrophoresis

    (4) Size of colloidal particle varies between 1Å to

    1000Å

  • 0000CT10311500514/31

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    34. 1 10 bar

    (5 , 300K) (10 , 200K)

    -(1) – 50 J (2) –300 cal

    (3) – 5000 J (4) – 500 cal

    35.

    aA bB + cC

    ( : a , b c )

    Time

    conc.[C]

    1

    2

    3

    4

    5

    6

    [B]

    [A]

    (1) 48 (2) 4 3

    (3) 64 (4) 36

    36. A2+(aq.)

    + 2e– A(s) ; E = 0.8 volt

    B3+(aq.)

    + 3e– B(s) ; E = 0.6 volt

    A2+(aq.) B3+(aq.) (1) A2+

    (aq.)(2) B3+

    (aq.)

    (3) H+(aq.)

    (4) OH(aq.)

    34. 1 mol of an ideal gas undergoes adiabatic

    expansion from (5 litre, 300K) to (10 litre, 200K)

    against constant external pressure of 10 bar. Work

    done equals to -

    (1) – 50 J (2) –300 cal

    (3) – 5000 J (4) – 500 cal

    35. Equilibrium constant for the given reaction

    will be

    aA bB + cC

    (Note : a , b & c are minimum integral

    stoichiometric coefficients )

    Time

    conc.[C]

    1

    2

    3

    4

    5

    6

    [B]

    [A]

    (1) 48 (2) 4 3 (3) 64 (4) 36

    36. A2+(aq.)

    + 2e– A(s) ; E = 0.8 volt

    B3+(aq.)

    + 3e– B(s) ; E = 0.6 volt

    Using above information find the ion which will bedeposited first at cathode if solution containingA2+(aq.) & B3+(aq.) is electrolysed.

    (1) A2+(aq.)

    (2) B3+(aq.)

    (3) H+(aq.)

    (4) OH(aq.)

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    37. 'A'

    (truncated)

    'B'

    (1) AB (2) AB

    2

    (3) A2B

    3(4) A

    3B

    2

    38. -

    (1) , t1/2

    (2) 1st

    (3) 2nd , t1/2

    (4) 1st

    39. -I (S-I) = 0.2 M HCl (aq.)

    -II (S-II) = 0.2 M BOH (aq.) (Kb= 10–2M)

    -III (S-III) = 1 - I + 1

    - II

    (1) S-II < S-I < S- III

    (2) S-I < S-III < S- II

    (3) S-II < S-III < S- I

    (4) S-I < S-II < S -III

    37. Find the simplest formula of a molecule in which

    'A' atoms are present at each corner and 'B' atoms

    are present at each edge centre of a truncated

    octahedron

    (1) AB (2) AB2

    (3) A2B

    3(4) A

    3B

    2

    38. Select the correct statement -

    (1) For zero order reaction, t1/2

    depends on initial

    conc.

    (2) For 1st order reaction, rate remains constant

    as reaction proceed

    (3) For 2nd order reaction, t1/2

    increases with

    increase in initial conc.

    (4) A 1st order reaction must be elementry

    39. Solution-I (S-I) = 0.2 M HCl (aq.)

    Solution-II (S-II) = 0.2 M BOH (aq.) (Kb=10–2M)

    Solution-III (S-III) = 1 litre solution- I + 1 litre

    solution- II

    Considering solute to be non-volatile and solution

    to be ideal, select the correct statement

    (1) Order of osmostic pressure is S-II < S-I

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    40. FeO Fe0.8

    O 1

    70 ml, 0.3M KMnO4

    Fe3+ -

    (1) 126 (2) 75

    (3) 30 (4) 135

    41. :-(1) Hg (2) HgS

    (3) (Hg + HgS) (4)

    42. (1) Ag+ (2) Cu+2

    (3) Al+3 (4) Cd+2

    43. NH3

    (1) Ca (2) Eu

    (3) Yb (4)

    44. (1) CaH

    2(2) SrH

    2

    (3) NaH (4) KH

    45. 'X' CuSO

    4

    (1) (2) (3) (4)

    40. A 1 litre solution containing equal moles of FeO

    and Fe0.8

    O was titrated with 70 ml 0.3M KMnO4

    in acidic medium. Millimoles Fe3+ produced are

    (1) 126 (2) 75

    (3) 30 (4) 135

    41. Which of the following compound is soluble in

    aqua regia :-

    (1) Hg (2) HgS

    (3) (Hg + HgS) (4) All of these

    42. Which of the following cation gives coloured bead

    in borax bead test

    (1) Ag+ (2) Cu+2

    (3) Al+3 (4) Cd+2

    43. Which of the following elements dissolved in NH3

    solution and their solution act as reducing agent.

    (1) Ca (2) Eu

    (3) Yb (4) All of these

    44. Which of the following compound is known ashydrolith as well as salt like hydride.

    (1) CaH2

    (2) SrH2

    (3) NaH (4) KH

    45. 'X' gas has rotten fish smell, when react with CuSO4

    solution, then what is the colour of ppt.

    (1) Yellow (2) Brown

    (3) Red (4) Black

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    46.

    :-

    (1) sp3d2 (2) d2sp3

    (3) sp3d (4) sp3

    47. 3d–2p

    :-

    (1) O(SiH3)

    2(2) OCl

    2

    (3) N(SiH3)

    3(4)

    48.

    (1) Cr2O

    3(2) Mn

    3O

    4

    (3) ZnO (4) (1) (2)

    49.

    :-

    (1) (2)

    (3) (4) (1) (2)

    50.

    (1) XeF2

    (2) I3–

    (3) ICl4– (4) ClF

    3

    46. What is the hybridisation of central atom of sodium

    nitroprusside :-

    (1) sp3d2 (2) d2sp3

    (3) sp3d (4) sp3

    47. Which of the following specie has 3d–2p

    back

    bonding :-

    (1) O(SiH3)

    2(2) OCl

    2

    (3) N(SiH3)

    3(4) All of these

    48. Which of the following metal oxide are not reduced

    commercially by carbon reduction method.

    (1) Cr2O

    3(2) Mn

    3O

    4

    (3) ZnO (4) Both (1) and (2)

    49. Which of the following methods are used for

    removal of temporary hardness only :-

    (1) Boiling (2) Clark's

    (3) Zeolite (4) Both (1) and (2)

    50. Which of the following molecule/specie is planar

    as well as polar :-

    (1) XeF2

    (2) I3–

    (3) ICl4– (4) ClF

    3

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    51. (I) (II) SN1

    :

    (1) ,Br

    Br

    (2) , ClClO

    (3) , BrBr

    (4) ,I Br

    52. "3--6-" ?

    (1) (2)

    (3) (4)

    53. ?CH –NH3 2 (CH ) NH3 2 (CH ) N3 3

    (a) (b) (c)

    (1) a, b, c (c) (2) a, b, c (b) (3) (4) (a)

    51. Among the following pairs, in which pair (II) ismore reactive than (I) for SN1 reaction :

    (1) ,Br

    Br

    (2) , ClClO

    (3) , BrBr

    (4) ,I Br

    52. Which of the following compound on ozonolysiswill produce "3-methyl-6-oxoheptanal" ?

    (1) (2)

    (3) (4)

    53. For the following compounds, choose the incorrect

    option ?CH –NH3 2 (CH ) NH3 2 (CH ) N3 3

    (a) (b) (c)

    (1) (c) is most basic among a, b, c in gas phase(2) (b) is most basic among a, b, c in aq. phase(3) All are member of same homologous series(4) Only (a) can be obtained by gabriel

    phthalimide synthesis

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    54. C9H

    10O 2,4-DNP

    1,3- :

    (1)

    CHO

    CH –CH2 3

    (2)

    CH3

    CH –CHO2

    (3)CH –CH2 3

    CHO

    (4) CH3

    C–CH3

    O

    55. C H NO6 5 2Fe/HCl (P)

    HNO2 (Q)273 K

    HO2

    (R)

    bo il

    (R) :

    (1) (2)

    OH

    (3)

    NH2

    (4)

    N Cl2+ –

    54. An organic compound with molecular formula

    C9H

    10O forms 2,4-DNP derivative, reduces

    tollen's reagent & undergo cannizzaro reaction. On

    vigrous oxidation it gives 1,3-dicarboxylic acid,

    then compound is :

    (1)

    CHO

    CH –CH2 3

    (2)

    CH3

    CH –CHO2

    (3)CH –CH2 3

    CHO

    (4) CH3

    C–CH3

    O

    55. C H NO6 5 2Fe/HCl (P)

    HNO2 (Q)273 K

    HO2

    (R)

    boil

    Product (R) is :

    (1) (2)

    OH

    (3)

    NH2

    (4)

    N Cl2+ –

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    56.OsO4 (P)

    CrO3Acetone

    (Q)

    (P) (Q) :

    (1)

    OH

    OH

    CH3O

    OH

    (2)

    OH

    OH

    CH3

    O

    (3)

    CH3

    OH

    OHO

    OH

    (4) CH3

    OH

    OH

    OH

    O

    56.OsO4 (P)

    CrO3Acetone

    (Q)

    Product (P) & (Q) respectively is :

    (1)

    OH

    OH

    CH3O

    OH

    (2)

    OH

    OH

    CH3

    O

    (3)

    CH3

    OH

    OHO

    OH

    (4) CH3

    OH

    OH

    OH

    O

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    57.

    ?

    (1)

    COOH

    CH3

    H CH3N H , H3

    +

    (2)

    COOH

    NH3

    (3)COOH

    NH2

    (4) NH2

    OBr2

    KOH

    58. ?

    NH2

    NaNO2HCl

    (P) Cu/HBr (Q)

    (1) (Q),

    (2) (Q)

    (3) (P),

    (4)

    57. Which of the following reaction organic product

    does not contain nitrogen atom ?

    (1)

    COOH

    CH3

    H CH3N H , H3

    +

    (2)

    COOH

    NH3

    (3)COOH

    NH2

    (4) NH2

    OBr2

    KOH

    58. Choose the incorrect option ?

    NH2

    NaNO2HCl

    (P) Cu/HBr (Q)

    (1) Product (Q) is bromobenzene

    (2) Formation of (Q) is known as sandmayer

    reaction

    (3) Product (P) is benzene diazonium chloride

    (4) None of these

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    59.

    izdkf'kd leko;ork iznf'kZr djsxk ?

    (1) 3- -1-

    (2) 3- -3-

    (3) 4- -2-

    (4) 4- -2-

    60. ?

    (1)

    (2)

    (3) (antacid)

    (4)

    59. Which of the following compound will show

    geometrical as well as optical isomerism ?

    (1) 3-methyl pent-1-ene

    (2) 3-methyl hex-3-ene

    (3) 4-methyl hex-2-ene

    (4) 4-methyl pent-2-ene

    60. Choose the correct option ?

    (1) Polythene is a chain growth polymer

    (2) Bithional is added to soaps to impart

    antiseptic properties

    (3) Cimetidine is used as antacid

    (4) All of these

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    PART C - MATHEMATICS

    61. If ƒ(x) and g(x) are functions such that ƒ(x)approaches to infinity as x and

    xlim ƒ x 5g x 10

    , then x

    ƒ x 5g xlim

    10g x 5ƒ x

    is

    equal to-

    (1) 10 (2) 1

    10(3) –1 (4)

    2

    3

    62. The dimensions of a rectangle are continuouslychanging. The width increases at rate of3 inch/sec. while the length decreases at rate of2 inch/sec. At one instant if the each side of rectangleis 20 inch, then the rate of change of area after 3seconds is-

    (1) 16 inch2/sec (2) –16 inch2/sec

    (3) 32 inch2/sec (4) –32 inch2/sec

    63. Let 2 3x x x

    ƒ x 1 ...2 4 8

    (where x [–1,1]), then the value of

    1

    0

    ƒ x dx

    e

    is

    equal to-

    (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

    64. Let ƒ(x) = min(4x + 1, x + 2, –2x + 4), x R,then the maximum value of ƒ(x) is -

    (1) 1

    3(2)

    1

    2(3)

    2

    3(4)

    8

    3

    61. ƒ(x) g(x) x ƒ(x),

    xlim ƒ x 5g x 10

    x

    ƒ x 5g xlim

    10g x 5ƒ x

    (1) 10 (2) 1

    10(3) –1 (4)

    2

    3

    62. 3 inch/sec 2 inch/sec 20 inch 3 -(1) 16 inch2/sec (2) –16 inch2/sec

    (3) 32 inch2/sec (4) –32 inch2/sec

    63. 2 3x x x

    ƒ x 1 ...2 4 8

    (x [–1,1])

    1

    0

    ƒ x dx

    e

    (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

    64. ƒ(x) = (4x + 1, x + 2, –2x + 4),

    x R ƒ(x)

    (1) 1

    3(2)

    1

    2(3)

    2

    3(4)

    8

    3

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    65. Let A = [aij] be a 3 × 3 invertible matrix. If

    determinant value of matrix A is 3, then the valueof det((adjAT)T) + det.((adj A–1)–1) (where det(B)denotes determinant value of matrix B)-

    (1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 18

    66. Area of triangle whose vertices are (a,a2), (b,b2),

    (c,c2) is 1

    2 and area of another triangle whose

    vertices are (p,p2), (q,q2) and (r,r2) is 4, then the

    value of

    2 2 2

    2 2 2

    2 2 2

    1 ap 1 bp 1 cp

    1 aq 1 bq 1 cq

    1 ar 1 br 1 cr

    is-

    (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 16

    67. Let

    2

    2

    4 sec 1 0

    A 0 3tan 1

    0 1 2

    and

    2

    2

    cot 2 0

    B 1 3cosec 1

    1 1 2

    , then minimum

    value of tr.(AB) is (where tr(A) denotes trace ofsquare matrix A)-

    (1) 12 (2) 20

    (3) 32 (4) 64

    65. A = [aij], 3 × 3

    A 3 det((adjAT)T) + det.((adj A–1)–1) (det(B), B)-(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 18

    66. (a,a2), (b,b2), (c,c2) 1

    2

    (p,p2), (q,q2) (r,r2)

    4

    2 2 2

    2 2 2

    2 2 2

    1 ap 1 bp 1 cp

    1 aq 1 bq 1 cq

    1 ar 1 br 1 cr

    (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 16

    67.

    2

    2

    4 sec 1 0

    A 0 3tan 1

    0 1 2

    2

    2

    cot 2 0

    B 1 3cosec 1

    1 1 2

    tr.(AB)

    (tr(A),A )-(1) 12 (2) 20

    (3) 32 (4) 64

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    68. Let a be a positive real number and

    a a a

    a a an

    n 1 n 2 .... n nlim 15

    1 2 ... n

    ,

    then the value of a is-

    (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

    69. Let x > 0 and y > 0, then the maximum value of

    2

    2 2

    5x 12y

    x y

    is-

    (1) 25 (2) 144 (3) 169 (4) 256

    70. Consider the polynomials

    2P x x 2 x 2x 2

    2Q x x 2 x 2x 2

    2 8R x x 2 x 16 ,then the coefficient of x4 in P(x). Q(x). R(x) is-

    (1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 2 (4) 4

    71. A biased coin has 2

    3 probability of landing heads.

    If the coin is flipped 50 times, then the probabilitythat the number of heads is zero or even is-

    (1) 50 50

    50

    3 2

    2.3

    (2)

    50

    50

    3 1

    2.3

    (3) 50

    50

    3 1

    2.3

    (4)

    50 50

    50

    3 2

    2.3

    68. a

    a a a

    a a an

    n 1 n 2 .... n nlim 15

    1 2 ... n

    a (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

    69. x > 0 y > 0

    2

    2 2

    5x 12y

    x y

    (1) 25 (2) 144 (3) 169 (4) 256

    70.

    2P x x 2 x 2x 2

    2Q x x 2 x 2x 2

    2 8R x x 2 x 16 P(x). Q(x). R(x) x4

    (1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 2 (4) 4

    71. 2

    3

    50

    (1) 50 50

    50

    3 2

    2.3

    (2)

    50

    50

    3 1

    2.3

    (3) 50

    50

    3 1

    2.3

    (4)

    50 50

    50

    3 2

    2.3

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    72. Consider the system of equations

    2 3 4 51 2 3 4 5x x x x x 5 and

    x1 + 2x

    2 + 3x

    3 + 4x

    4 + 5x

    5 = 15

    where x1,x

    2,x

    3,x

    4,x

    5 are positive real numbers, then

    the number of (x1,x

    2,x

    3,x

    4,x

    5) is-

    (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

    73. The differential equation of family of lines whichpasses through (1,2) is-

    (1) dy

    y x 1 2dx

    (2) dy

    y x 1 2dx

    (3) dy

    y x 1 2dx

    (4) dy

    y x 1 2dx

    74. Perimeter of the locus represented by

    z iarg

    z i 4

    (where i 1 ) is equal to-

    (1) 3

    2

    (2)

    3

    2

    (3) 2

    (4) None of these

    72.

    2 3 4 51 2 3 4 5x x x x x 5

    x1 + 2x

    2 + 3x

    3 + 4x

    4 + 5x

    5 = 15

    x1,x

    2,x

    3,x

    4,x

    5

    (x1,x

    2,x

    3,x

    4,x

    5)

    (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

    73. (1,2) -

    (1) dy

    y x 1 2dx

    (2) dy

    y x 1 2dx

    (3) dy

    y x 1 2dx

    (4) dy

    y x 1 2dx

    74.z i

    argz i 4

    ( i 1 ) -

    (1) 3

    2

    (2)

    3

    2

    (3) 2

    (4)

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    75. If 0 < <

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    79. The variable plane (2 + 1)x + (3 – )y + z = 4,( R) always contains the line :

    (1) x y z 4

    0 0 1

    (2)

    x y z

    1 2 3

    (3) x y z 4

    1 2 7

    (4) None of these

    80. Let ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆˆ ˆa ti 3 j 2tk, b i 2 j 2k

    and

    ˆ ˆ ˆc 3i tj k

    , then the value of the integral

    2

    1

    a. b c dt

    equals-

    (1) 0 (2) 6 (3) –2 (4) 4

    81. Let ƒ(x) be a continuous function such that

    3

    3

    ƒ x dx 0

    and 3

    0

    ƒ x dx 3 , then the area

    bounded by y = ƒ(x), x-axis, x = –3 and x = 3 isequal to -

    (1) 1 (2) 3

    (3) 6 (4) cannot be evaluated

    82. In a set of 2n observations, half of them are equalto '' and the remaining half are equal to '-'.If the standard deviation of all the observations is2, then || is equal to-

    (1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 2 2 (4) 4

    79. (2 + 1)x + (3 – )y + z = 4, ( R)

    (1) x y z 4

    0 0 1

    (2)

    x y z

    1 2 3

    (3) x y z 4

    1 2 7

    (4)

    80. ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆˆ ˆa ti 3 j 2tk, b i 2 j 2k

    ˆ ˆ ˆc 3i tj k

    2

    1

    a. b c dt

    -

    (1) 0 (2) 6 (3) –2 (4) 4

    81. ƒ(x)

    3

    3

    ƒ x dx 0

    3

    0

    ƒ x dx 3 y = ƒ(x),

    x-x = –3 x = 3 -

    (1) 1 (2) 3

    (3) 6 (4)

    82. 2n ''

    '-'

    2 ||

    (1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 2 2 (4) 4

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    83. Let A(z1), B(z

    2), C(z

    3) are three points on Argand

    plane such that |z1| = |z

    2| = |z

    3| = 4. The image of

    2 3

    1

    z zP

    z

    about the line BC is-

    (1) z1 + z

    2 + z

    3(2) z

    1 – z

    2 – z

    3

    (3) 2z1 + z

    3(4) None of these

    84. AB is a vertical pole resting at the end A on the

    level ground. P is a point on the level ground such

    that AP = 3AB. If C is the mid point of AB and

    CB subtends an angle at P, then the value of

    tan is-

    (1) 18

    19(2)

    3

    19(3)

    1

    6(4)

    1

    3

    85. Consider at three dimensional figure represented

    by xyz2 = 2, then its minimum distance from origin

    is-

    (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8

    86. x

    2e sec2x 1 4 tan 2x dx is equals-

    (1) 4ex/2 sec2x + C (2) 2ex/2 sec2x + C

    (3) ex/2 sec 2x + C (4) x / 21 e sec2x C

    2

    (where C is constant of integration)

    83. A(z1), B(z

    2), C(z

    3)

    |z1| = |z

    2| = |z

    3| = 4

    2 3

    1

    z zP

    z

    BC

    (1) z1 + z

    2 + z

    3(2) z

    1 – z

    2 – z

    3

    (3) 2z1 + z

    3(4)

    84. AB A

    P

    AP = 3AB C, AB

    P, CB

    tan

    (1) 18

    19(2)

    3

    19(3)

    1

    6(4)

    1

    3

    85. xyz2 = 2

    -

    (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8

    86. x

    2e sec 2x 1 4 tan 2x dx

    (1) 4ex/2 sec2x + C (2) 2ex/2 sec2x + C

    (3) ex/2 sec 2x + C (4) x / 21 e sec2x C

    2

    (C )

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    87. A relation R1 is defined on the set R of real numbers

    as follows : (x,y) R1 x3 = x2y , then relation

    R1is-

    (1) only symmetric relation

    (2) only transitive relation

    (3) only reflexive relation

    (4) reflexive and transitive relation

    88. 1 11 5 1 5

    tan cos cot cos4 2 7 4 2 7

    is equal to-

    (1) 5

    7(2)

    10

    7(3)

    14

    5(4)

    7

    5

    89. The sum of the solutions in x (0,4) of the

    equation x x 2 x

    7sin sin sin 13 3 3

    is-

    (1) 6 (2) 4

    (3) 2 (4) None of these

    90. The contrapositive of ' If Kapil is rich then he ishonest' is-

    (1) If Kapil is not rich then he is dishonest

    (2) If Kapil is dishonest then he is not rich

    (3) Kapil is not rich or he is dishonest

    (4) Kapil is dishonest and not rich

    87. R1 R

    (x,y) R1 x3 = x2y

    R1 -

    (1)

    (2)

    (3)

    (4)

    88. 1 11 5 1 5

    tan cos cot cos4 2 7 4 2 7

    (1) 5

    7(2)

    10

    7(3)

    14

    5(4)

    7

    5

    89. x (0,4)

    x x 2 x7sin sin sin 1

    3 3 3

    (1) 6 (2) 4

    (3) 2 (4)

    90. (contrapositive) -

    (1)

    (2)

    (3)

    (4)

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