ju j 2010 science

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Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010

SCIENCE MODULE FOR SPM 2010

Contents No Items pages

01 Format of an instrument for the evaluation of Science SPM 2 (Actual examination format)

02 Analysis of SPM science Paper 2005 -2009 4

03 Examination tips 5

04 Answering Strategy 7

05 Sets of questions 12

06 Scheme 227

07 Set of Practice Bestari Questions 256 - 290

08 Practise Bestari Scheme 291 - 307

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FORMAT OF INSTRUMENT FOR THE EVALUATION OF SCIENCE BEGINNING

SPM 2003

NO

ITEM

PAPER 1(1511/1)

PAPER 2 (1511/2)

01

Type of instrument

Objective test

Subjective test

02

Type of item

Objective item with Multiple Choice Multiple combination Each item has four option, A,B, C and D

Subjective item Section A: Structured item Section B: Response item Section C: Essay Open response item Limited response item

03

Number of Question

50 (answer all)

Section A 4 (answer all questions) 20 marks Section B 5 (answer all questions) 30 marks Section C Answer question 10 And Either question 11 or 12

04

Total marks

50

70

05

Method to responses

Mark on OMR sheet

Write in the spaces provided on question paper.

06

Duration of test

1 hour 15 minutes

2 hour and 30 minutes


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07

Construct requirement

Knowledge : 25 Understanding :15 Application :10

Knowledge :20 Understanding :14 Scientific skills :30 Application :6

08

Example of item base on construct

Refer LPM question

Refer LPM question

09

Marking Scheme

(1 or 0 mark)

Analytical

10

Coverage responses

Evaluate the constructs on all context

Evaluate the constructs on all context

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Level of difficulty Low :L Moderate :M High :H

L: M: H= 5:3:2

L:M:H= 5:3:2

Overall

L:M:H=5:3:2

12

Extra instrument

Calculator


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ANALYSIS OF THE SPM SCIENCE PAPER ( 2005 - 2009 )

QUESTION

CHAPTER 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009

O A B C O A B C O A B C O A B C O A B C

1 Scientific Investigation

2 Body Coordination 3 1 3 1 5 3 1 4 1

3 Heredity and Variation 4 1 5 3 1 3 4 1

4 Matter and Substance 4 1 4 1 1 3 4 1 1 4 1

5 Energy and Chemical Changes 3 1 3 1 4 1 4 3 1

6 Nuclear energy 2 1 3 1 2 1 2 1 4

7 Light, Colour and Sight 5 1 3 1 5 1 3 1 3 1

8 Chemicals in Industry 2 1 3 2 1 2 2 1

Number of Form 4 Questions 23 2 3 2 24 2 3 1 24 2 2 1 21 2 2 1 24 1 3 2

9 Microorganisms and Their 4 1 5 1 3 1 5 1 4 1

Effect on Living Things

10 Nutrition and Food Production 4 3 1 1 4 3 1 4

11 Preservation and Concervation 5 2 2 1 6 1 2 1 1

of the Environment

12 Carbon Compounds 4 1 4 1 5 1 3 1 3 1

13 Motion 4 1 5 1 5 1 5 1 5 1

14 Food Thecnology and Production 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 3

15 Synthetic Materials in industry 2 2 2 1 2 1 2

16 Electronics and Information and

2 1 2 1 3 1 3 3 1

Communication Technology

Number of Form 5 Questions 27 2 2 1 26 2 2 2 26 2 3 2 29 2 3 2 26 3 2 1

TOTAL 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3

O = Objective question T = Theory question

P = Practical Question E = Essay question


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EXAMINATION’S TIPS ERRORS IN LANGUAGE

1. Wrong spelling. 2. Repeat answer using different sentence structure. 3. Use of active voice when writing a report .

SUGGESTION TO CANDIDATES

1. Master the basic concepts and facts 2. For practical, ensure that you have mastered all the skills regarding the process in

science. 3. Use the right / accurate terminologies 4. Elaborate in sequence and avoid repetition of facts. 5. Do more exercises 6. Avoid mixing languages in the answer. 7. Ensure there is detailed observation on the stimulus given.

SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

1. Each step in a scientific investigation should be carried out to ensure a good grasp of skills pertaining to basic science processes.

2. Ensure all the students are well versed in all topics. 3. Ensure students master the skills of science processes. 4. Use a variety of teaching and learning method. 5. Prepare worksheets which include a lot of stimulus. 6. Expose student to the exam formatted questions from form 1. 7. Increase the number of exercises.

ANSWERING STRATEGIES FOR PAPER 1 STRATEGIES 1.Student must find/prepare / collect sets of topical objective question from revision book. 2.Do test and retest until get 85% correct for each topical sets. 3.Practise answering each objective question in 1 minutes 30 seconds. 4.Practise answering high level question using „Eliminate method‟ TEST AND RETEST METHOD 1.Get topical objective question from dependable source. 2.Do topical exercise. 3.If the mark gain less than 85% (set of 50 question – 43 must correct), Redo the


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exercise on the same topic until you get 85 % or more. 4.Preparation activities for redo exercise include ( reading textbook, notes, mind map, discussion and ask teacher) 5.If you are already achieve 85% , do the same for another topic. 6.If you are already done all 15 topics until November, it means you are 85% confidence to be in examination hall. ELIMINATE METHOD EXAMPLE 1 1.What is the similarity between meiosis and mitosis ? a. Number of daughter cells produced b. Duplication of the chromosomes c. Number of chromosomes in the daughter cell d. Both are important in the growth of an organism EXAMPLE 2 2.What happens to a person if his thyroid gland secretes excessive hormone into the blood? A The blood pressure increases B The glucose level in the blood decreases C The metabolic rate increases D The salt level in the blood decreases Notes: 1. To answer this question find the incorrect answer first. 2 . Reject that answer ( 3 distracters left) 3. Reject one more incorrect answer ( 2 distracters left) 4. Try to reject one more incorrect answer (One distracter only left) that is the answer. ANSWERING STRATEGIES FOR PAPER 2 SECTION A ( Alternative test to practical, 20 marks ) In this section the students must answer 4 questions which carry 20 marks. All the items in this section will deal with Science Process Skills. In order for the students to get the answers, they need to acquire the skills listed below. The students can get the answer from the question and the stimulus implicitly and explicitly. Science Process Skills (list and definition) Science Process Skills enable students to formulate their questions and find out the answer systematically.


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Descriptions of science process skills are as follows: Observing Using the sense of hearing, touch, smell, taste and sight to collect information about an object or a phenomenon. Classifying Using observation to group objects or events according to similarities or differences Measuring and Using Numbers Making quantitative observations using numbers and tools with standardised units. Measuring makes observation more accurate. Inferring Using past experiences or previously collected data to draw conclusions and make explanations of events. Predicting Stating the outcome of a future event based on prior knowledge gained through experiences of collecting data Communicating Using words or graphic symbols such as tables, graphs, figures or models to describe an action, object or event. Interpreting Data Giving rational explanations about an object, event or pattern derived from collected data. Defining Operationally Defining concepts by describing what must be done and what should be observed Controlling Variables Identifying the fixed variable, manipulated variable and responding variable in an investigation. The manipulated variable is changed to observe its relationship with the responding variable. At the same time, the fixed variable is kept constant Hypothesising Making a general statement about the relationship between a manipulated variable and a responding variable in order to explain an event or observation. This statement can be tested to determine its validity. Experimenting Planning and conducting activities to test a certain hypothesis. These activities include collecting, analysing and interpreting data and making conclusions.


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Guide to answering question in Section A 1. Each question in section A is an alternative question to the real practical exam 2. Hence data are usually given and the candidate is asked to make an inference or

conclusion, or experiment results are given and the candidate is required to give an answer about the process in conducting an investigation.

3. Among the matters raised in the question are : a) Making qualitative and quantitative observations from the diagrams or through the

measurements b) Drawing diagram, graphs, tables or charts according to data or information given. c) Making predictions, hypotheses, inferences and conclusions based on the candidate‟s

scientific knowledge d) Identifying a variable that is kept constant, that is manipulated and responds

4. Your answer should be brief but accurate based on information given or obtained from your framework

ANSWERING STRATEGIES FOR SCIENCE PROCESS SKILL QUESTIONS A) Controlled Variable Ways to find variables

1. From the sentence, find out the variables Examples: Steps:

a) Underline variables in the sentence b) The underlined variables refer to manipulated variable and responding variable c) Find out which variable that the change is fixed. This is the manipulated variable d) The other one is responding variable.

2. From the table Example 1: Time/minute 0 2 4 6 8 10 Temperature/C 28 48 68 88 102 102 Steps:

a) Manipulated and responding variable given from the title of table are time and temperature.

b) Time is manipulated variable because time are increase or changes. c) Temperature is responding variable because changes of temperature


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Section B(Structured questions 30 marks)

1. This section covers five structured questions which are compulsory . 2. Most of these questions test the candidate‟s command of knowledge and

understanding of facts, procedure of an experiment, concepts,principles, theories and laws

3. Sometimes answers can be obtained from symbols,diagrams,tables and graphps through interpretation and graphic extrapolation.

4. You must read the instruction at the beginning carefully so that you understand the matter tested and obtain ideas to answer the questions.

5. A small part of the question generally relates to a subsequent part. Guide to answering questions in section B 1.Usually, you need to use your knowledge of scientific facts ,principles and theories to answer the questions. 2.Your answers should be brief and accurate. Section C ( Essay questions, 20 marks)

1. This section contains three questions. Question 1 is compulsory and you may choose either question 2 or 3.

2. Question 1 test the candidate‟s command of scientific skills in experimenting as well as the ability to make reports.

3. This question begins with a general statement, e.g. “ Acidic substances have a sour test”. The candidate is required to give a hypothesis based on the statement. Then, the candidate is required to described the experiment based on the following to test the hypothesis. a)Aim of experiment b)Identification of variables c)List of apparatus and materials d)Procedure e)Tabulation of data f)Conclusion

4. Questions 2 and 3, are usually short but the candidate is required to use his or her knowledge and understanding of scientific concepts and theories to answer.

5. In this context, the candidate has to answer the question by drawing and writing a Short essay following the instruction of the question.

6. All answers must be written in the space provided below each question. Guide to answer the essay questions in section C

1. The format of question 1 is fixed and the candidate is required to answer it in the same way as writing a report after an experiment.

2. For question 2 and 3, choose one you are confident in and answer it properly to obtain maximum marks.

3. To answer this question, identify the key words which usually appear at the beginning of the question.

4. Key words and the type of answer required are listed below:


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No

Key words

Type of answer 1

State

Give facts without explanation

2

Define

The answer must be specific statements of a concepts or principle usually found in

3

Describe

Explain in detail and systematically procedures,events or natural phenomena

4

Explain

Give reasons to explain the occurrence of a concept or a principle.

5

Compare

List the similarities and differences between two different matters.

6

Discuss

Give analytical and critical explanation.

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Suggest

Give views and opinions based on knowledge, scientific concepts and theories.

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What

i)Give facts of information. ii)Give explanation.

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Why

Give explanation and reasons

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How

i)List or describe steps in a process or a procedure in carrying out an operation. ii)Explain an event or phenomenon according to scientific concepts and theories.

5.Apart from written answer, some questions require the candidate to draw and label diagrams. In this contex, the diagrams should be clear, clean and of suitable size. 6.Wherever necessary, the workout of the calculation must be clearly shown in the space


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provided. 7.For an essay question which requires a long answer, plan your answer step-by-step and write in short paragraphs 8.In an essay answer, each sentence should cover only one point in order to get one mark which is usually allotted.


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CHAPTER 1: SCIENTIFIC INVESTIGATION

1. The diagram below shows the statement that represents the steps that involved in the method of scientific investigation.

P Forming a hypothesis.

Q Planning the investigation. R Identifying the problem. S Carrying out the investigation. T Making conclusion. U Analysing and interpreting

data. V Identifying the variables.

2. Which of the following are correct steps

that involved in the method of scientific investigation?

A P, V, Q, S, U, T, R B R, V, P, Q, S, U, T C T, R, P, V, Q, S, U D R, P, V, Q, S, U, T

3 The following statement are the variables

that should be identified. Which of the following is not true?

A Fixed variable is the variable that is

kept constant or unchanged. B Manipulated variable is the variable

that is change to see its effect. C Responding variable is the variable that

changes in response to the fixed variable.

D Responding variable is the variable that changes in response to the manipulated variable.

4 Hypothesis is a simple statement of what one thinks will happen as a result of an experiment. It usually shows the relationship between

A the fixed variable and the responding

variable. B the fixed variable and the manipulated

variable. C the responding variable and the

manipulated variable. D the responding variable and the

independent variable.

5. Which of the following steps have been carried out before planning the investigation?

I Collecting data II Making observation III Forming a hypothesis IV Identifying the problem

A I, II and III only B I, II and IV only C I, III and IV only D II, III and IV only

6. Why the method of scientific investigation

important?

I Can be more observant and more analytical.

II Think creatively and critically. III Avoid misconceptions and

misinterpretations. IV Effective in gaining, organizing, and

applying new knowledge.

A I, II and III only B I, II and IV only C II, III and IV only D I, II, III and IV

7. A complete experiment report should

contain the following, except

A Operational definition. B Material and apparatus. C The aim of the experiment. D The size of the container influences the

rate of cooling.

8. Which of the following not the parts of the step analysing and interpreting data?

A Plot a graph. B Organizing the data. C Find the relationships between the

variables. D Check and confirm whether or not the

hypothesis is accepted.


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9. Which of the following should be done before forming a hypothesis?

I Collecting data II Making observation III Identifying the problem IV Planning the investigation

A II and III only B I, II and III only C II, III and IV only D I, II, III and IV only

10. Which of the following statements shows

an inference?

A The surface area exposed to air. B The size of the container influences the

rate of cooling. C To investigate how surface area affects

the rate of cooling. D The larger the surface area, the higher

the rate of cooling. 11. Which of the following variables that we

can find and record when doing an experiment?

A Fixed variable B Responding variable C Manipulated variable D Independent variable

12. An experiment is carried out to

A test the problem B test the hypothesis C making a hypothesis D prove the observation

13 Which of the following are the attitudes

and values that important to the learning of science?

I Emotional II Daring to try III Confident and independent IV Diligence and perseverance


14. A student takes three petri dishes of different sizes. Each petri dish is filled with 30 cm

3 boiling water. After some

time, he found that the volume of the boiling water left in each three petri dishes is different.

The inference of this experiment are

A the surface area expose to air. B the larger the surface, the higher the

rate of evaporation. C the surface area of the petri dish

influences the rate of evaporation. D the experiment shows that the rate of

evaporation is influenced by the surface area of the liquid exposed to the air.

15. Why need to practice scientific attitudes

and noble values in learning science?

A Become rational thinker. B Become responsibility and cooperative. C Become effective decision-makers and

problem-solvers. D Appreciating the contribution of

science and technology. 16 The diagram below shows the graph that

represents the relationship between the solubility of salt M with temperature.

What is the manipulated variable in this

experiment?

A Solubility B Temperature C Type of salt M D Volume of water


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17 The diagram below shows object P and Q are placed in a measuring cylinder that containing three different liquids.

Which of the following is the inference for this experiment?

A Chloroform will float on the oil. B Oil is less dense than chloroform. C Mercury will float on the chloroform. D Mercury is less dense than chloroform.

18 The diagram below shows the steps of the

method of scientific investigation.

Which of the following is the step P and Q?

P Q A Forming a

hypothesis Collecting data

B Making observation

Carrying out the investigation

C Forming a hypothesis

Carrying out the investigation

D Carrying out the investigation

Forming a hypothesis

19 "The shorter the pendulum, the more oscillations it makes in a given time." This statement is

A a conclusion B a hypothesis C an observation D aim of the investigation

20 The diagram below shows an experiment

that represents the relationship between the densities and the ability to float in the water.

What is the manipulated variable in this experiment?

A Type of liquid B Type of objects C Size of the objects D Temperature of water

21. Which of the following are considered as

science process skills?

I Drawing II Predicting III Controlling variable IV Identifying problem



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22. Which of the following is the most important when recording the data?

A Fair B Honest C Curiosity D Confident

23 The following are the positive attitudes

and values that required in the learning of science, except

A ego B systematic C flexible and open-minded D diligence and perseverance

24 The following are the steps of scientific

investigation, except

A Observing phenomenon B Controlling the variables C Planning the investigation D Carrying out the investigation

The table below shows the relationship

between the amount of salt and the temperature of boiling.

Temperature of

water boiling Amount of salt

added to water(grams)

1000 None 1020 10 1040 20 1060 30

25. What is the suitable hypothesis for this

experiment?

A The more salt is added, the lower the temperature for boiling.

B The more salt added, the higher the temperature for boiling.

C The type of the salt used will be affected the temperature of boiling.

D The amount of salt added to water will not be affected the temperature of boiling.

26. "It is the amount of organic fertilizer that a farmer used will affect the growth of the plant?" Identifying the variables for this problem.

X = The amount of organic fertilizer

Y = Plant growth Z = Amount of sunlight

Fixed Responding Manipulated A X Y Z B Z Y X C Y Z X D Z X Y

I Control the variables. II Determine the procedure. III Determine the apparatus and material. IV Determine the method of data

collection and data analysis. 27 All of the following above are the part of

the step of A Collecting data B Forming a hypothesis C Identifying the variable D Planning the investigation

28 If a student is a people that willing to accept other's critical and opinions, what kinds of the attitudes and values that this student have?

A Being objective B Being fair and just C Being flexible and open minded D Being responsible and cooperative


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CHAPTER 2: BODY COORDINATION

1. The body systems that control and regulate coordination consist of

A muscular system and nervous system. B central system and peripheral system. C nervous system and endocrine system. D endocrine system and circulatory

system.

2. Which of the following are the activities regulated and coordinated by the nervous system?

I Sense II Speech III Growth IV Memory and thinking


3. What are the two body systems that control

and regulate coordination?

I Nervous system II Endocrine system III Circulatory system IV Respiratory system

A I and II only B I and III only C I, II and III only D II, III and IV only

4 Which of the following are consists of the

central nervous system?

I Brain II Spinal cord III Spinal nerves IV Cranial nerves

A I and II only B I and III only C II and IV only D III and IV only

5. The diagram below shows the human nervous system.

What are the labels P and Q represented?

P Q A Central nervous

system Peripheral nervous

system B Peripheral nervous

system Central nervous

system C Voluntary nervous

system Involuntary

nervous system D Involuntary

nervous system Voluntary nervous

system

6. Which of the following are consists of the peripheral nervous system?

I Brain II Spinal cord III Spinal nerves IV Cranial nerves



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7. The diagram below shows a neurone.

Label X and Y are

X Y A Dendron Myelin sheath B Myelin sheath Dendron C Dendrite Myelin sheath D Myelin sheath Dendrite

8. Neurones can be classified into three main

groups. Which of the following are the main groups of neurones?

I Axon II Relay III Motor IV Sensory


9. What is the function of a nucleus which is

containing in cell body?

A A protected. B Receive nerve impulses and transmit

them. C Controls all the activities in the

neurone. D Speeds up the transmission of impulses

and provide nutrients to axon and dendron.

10 The diagram below shows the three main groups of neurones.

Which of the following represents P, Q and R?

P Q R A Relay

neurone Motor

neurone Sensory neurone

B Sensory neurone

Relay neurone

Motor neurone

C Sensory neurone

Motor neurone

Relay neurone

D Motor neurone

Sensory neurone

Relay neurone

11 The diagram below shows a neurone.

What is the function of this neurone? A Transmits impulses from the central

nervous system to effectors. B Transmits impulses from receptors to

the central nervous system. C Transmits impulses from effectors to

the central nervous system. D Processes impulses received from the

sensory neurones and transmits them to the motor neurones.


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12. The diagram below shows a neurone.

This neurone is called

A Axon B Relay C Motor D Sensory

13. Which of the following is the basic unit in

the nervous system?

A Neurone B Dendron C cell body D Myelin sheath

14. What is the similar of the sensory neurone,

motor neurone and relay neurone?

A The function B All are nerve cells C The length of axon D The length of dendron

15 The sensory cells found in our sensory

organs is called

A stimuli B effectors C receptors D responses

16 What is effector?

A Detect stimuli in the environment. B Rapid and automatic response to a

stimulus. C Processes the information and then

sends out impulses. D Respond to the instructions received

from the central nervous system.

17. The diagram below shows the pathway of impulses in the nervous coordination.

What are X and Y represented?

X Y A Receptors Effectors B Effectors Receptors C Sensory Motor D Motor Sensory

18. Which of the following are the examples of

reflex action?

I Knee-jerk reflex. II Narrowing of eye when the intensity

of light is too great. III Withdrawal of hand when touching a

hot object accidentally. IV Blinking of eyes when an object is

moving towards our eyes.


19. Which of the following are true about

reflex action?

I Help us to avoid injuries. II detect stimuli in the environment. III Knee-jerk is an example of reflex

action. IV Rapid and automatic response to a

stimulus.

A I, II and III only B I, III and IV only C II, III and IV only D I, II, III and IV

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20. Which of the following consists in a reflex?

I Receptors and effectors II Sensory neurones III Motor neurones IV Relay neurones

A I, II and IV only B I, III and IV only C II, III and IV only D I, II, III and IV

21 The diagram below shows the reflex arc in

a human knee-jerk.

How many neurones involves in this reflex

action?

A One B Two C Three D Four

22 The diagram below shows the main parts of

the human brain.

What are P, Q and R represent? P Q R A Cerebrum Cerebellum Medulla

oblongata B Cerebellu

m Cerebrum Medulla

oblongata C Cerebellu

m Medulla

oblongata Cerebrum

D Medulla oblongata

Cerebrum Cerebellum

23. The diagram below shows the reflex arc in a human knee-jerk.

Which of the following shows the path of the nerve impulse?

A Receptor spinal cord effector B Effector spinal cord receptor C Receptor spinal nerves effector D Effector spinal nerves receptor

24. The diagram below shows the human

endocrine system.

Which of the following labelled as A, B, C or D is the adrenal glands?

25. The following are true of the hormone,

except

A have a few target organs B produce in larger amount C produce by ductless gland D secrete directly into the bloodstream


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26. The following are true of the pituitary gland, except

A located at the base of the cerebrum. B often called the master gland of the

endocrine system. C produce growth hormone which

stimulates growth. D produce adrenaline to prepare the body

for action during emergency. 27. The diagram below shows a part the

human endocrine system.

What is the function of the label M?

A Controls the rate of metabolism. B Conversion of glucose into glycogen. C Develop of secondary sexual

characteristics. D Prepares the body for actions during

emergencies. 28. The diagram below shows the part of the

human endocrine system.

What is this endocrine system?

A Pancreas B Adrenal glands C Thyroid gland D Pituitary gland

29 Why the pituitary gland is called the master gland of the endocrine system?

A It produces growth hormone. B It located at the base of the cerebrum. C It controls the rate of growth of a

human. D It produces hormones which stimulate

other endocrine glands.

30 Which of the following are the health problem causes by drug abuse?

I Mental problem. II High blood problem. III Slow down nerve impulses. IV Weakened of immune system.

A I and II only B II and III only C I, II and III only D I, II and IV only


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CHAPTER 3:HEREDITY AND VARIATION

1. The characteristics of individuals that are controlled by genes include

I Color of hair II Color of eyes III Types of ear lobes IV Right handed or left handed


2. Which of the following are true about

genes?

I Units of inheritance. II Determine the characteristics. III Thousand of genes in a DNA

molecule. IV Consists of dominant genes and

recessive genes.


3. There are two type of cell division namely

A Gene and mutation. B Mitosis and meiosis. C Dominant and recessive. D Chromosome and autosome.

4. Which of the following controlled the

characteristics of individual?

A Gene B Mutation C Cell division D Chromosome

5. Mitosis is a process whereby a cell

division into how many daughter cells?

A One B Two C Three D Four

6 The diagram below shows the structure of

a chromosome.

What is the label P represented?

A DNA B Gene C Nucleus D Chromosome

7. Which of the following are the similarities

between mitosis and meiosis?

I Important for inheritance. II Each chromosome only double one. III Same number of times nucleus

divides. IV Parent cells divide to produce

daughter cells.



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8. Which of the following process will produce the gametes?

A Mitosis B Meiosis C Mutation D Cytoplasm

9. Which of the following are true of the

process mitosis?

I Genetic information varied. II Divide parents cells to two daughter

cells. III The number of times nucleus divides

is same with the number of times cytoplasm divides.

A I only B I and II only C II and III only D I, II and III

10. What is the probability that a couple can

get a girl baby?

A 0.25 B 0.30 C 0.40 D 0.50

11 The diagram below shows a phase in

process meiosis.

This process is known as

A mutation B fertilization C reproductive D crossing-over

12 Which of the following shows the importance of meiosis?

I Reproduce sexually. II Replacing dead cells. III To produce variation.

A II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

13 A cell in a plant contains 30 chromosomes.

How many chromosomes does each of its female gamete have?

A 5 B 10 C 15 D 20

14 The following are true about the dominant

gene, except

A determined dominant traits. B control the characteristic are present. C shows it character in the presence of

recessive gene. D shows it character in the absence of

recessive gene. 15. Which of the following is a recessive

traits?

A Curly hair B Black hair C Left handed D Free ear lobes

16 A person with two different genes is said

to be

A genotype B phenotype C homozygous D heterozygous


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17. A parents with alleles shown as Cc x cc are crossed.

Cc - Curly hair

cc - Straight hair

What are the phenotype ratios of the F 1 generation?

A 1 Cc : 3 cc B 2 Cc : 2 cc C 3 Cc : 1 cc D 4 Cc : 0 cc

18 The figure below shows a monohybrid

cross between two plants

TT tt T : Tall (dominant) t : Dwarf (recessive)

What is the genotype ratio of the F 2 generation?

A 1 tall : 3 dwarf B 2 tall : 2 dwarf C 3 tall : 1 dwarf D 4 tall : 0 dwarf

19 If the 22 + X sperm fertilizes an ovum. What is the sex of the baby?

A Boy B Girl C Identical twins D Non-identical twins

20 If two ova are fertilized by two sperms.

What is the sex of baby?

A Boy B Girl C Twins that have same sex. D Twins that have same or different sex.

21 The diagram below shows the chromosomes in a male and female.

What are labels X and Y represented?

X Y A 22 + X 22 + Y B 22 + Y 22 + X C 44 + X 44 + Y D 44 + Y 44 + X

22. Which of the following are true about the

identical twins?

I Sex is same. II One sperm is involved. III Two foetuses share the same placenta. IV Two foetuses develop in the mother's

uterus.


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Which of the following disorder is caused by gene mutation?

A Haemophilia B Down's syndrome C Turner's syndrome D Klinefelter's syndrome


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24 The down's syndrome disorder caused by the possession of

A less one chromosome. B extra one chromosome. C less one sex chromosome. D extra one sex chromosome.

25. Which of the following are the causes of

mutation?

I Toxic chemicals II Ultraviolet light III Radioactive gamma rays

A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II and III

26 The following are the example of

continuous variation, except

A Weight B Skin color C Intelligence D Blood group

27 Which of the following are the importances

of variation?

I Differentiate individuals. II Improve product quality. III Allows selective breeding to be

carried out. IV For survival when environment

conditions change.


28 If a female who has only one X chromosome, she is suffering from

A Albinism B Haemophilia C Turner's syndrome D Klinefelter's syndrome

29 Diabetic patients need to be treated by

using

A Insulin B Potatoes C Sheep's milk D Gene therapy

30 Which of the following is the dominant

traits?

A Blonde hair B Color blind C Straight hair D Free ear lobes


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CHAPTER 4:MATTER AND SUBSTANCES

1. Which of the following represents a process condensation?

2. Which of the following processes involved absorb of heat?

I Boiling II Melting III Freezing IV Condensation


3 Which of the following represents the

boiling?

A

B

C

D

4 Gas can easily be compressed because particles in gas

A are moving randomly. B have high kinetic energy. C have weak attractive forces. D are not arranged and far apart.

5 Which of the following process involved a

release of heat?

A boiling B melting C freezing D evaporation

6 Which of the following are true for pure

substances?

I Do not contain any impurities. II Has fixed melting and boiling point. III Not mixed with any other substance. IV Crystals is an example of pure

substance.


7 Which of the following is the property of

non metals?

A Shiny B High density C Dull and brittle D High tensile strength


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8 The process of separating substances in a mixture to obtain a pure substance is

A filtration B distillation C purification D crystallization

9 What is the boiling point of water if added

a bit of salt in the water?

A 90 0C B 99 0C C 100 0C D 105 0C

10 The table below shows some information

regarding an atom.

Nucleon number 28 Proton number 15

How many neutrons does this atom have?

A 13 B 15 C 28 D 43

11 Atom X has 15 neutrons and 11 protons.

The number of electrons in Atom X is

A 4 B 11 C 15 D 26

12 The table below shows information about

elements R, S, T and U. Which of the following elements are isotopes?

Element Proton number

Nucleon number

R 5 13 S 6 13 T 7 15 U 7 17

A R and S B R and U C S and T D T and U

13 The table below shows the information about elements W, X, Y and Z. Which of the following elements are negatively charged?

Element Number of

proton Number of

electron W 18 19 X 11 9 Y 13 10 Z 16 17

A W and X B W and Z C X and Y D Y and Z

14 Isotopes have the

A same chemical and physical properties. B different chemical and physical

properties. C same chemical properties but different

physical properties. D different chemical properties but same

physical properties.

15 The nucleus contains

A protons only B neutrons only C protons and neutrons D protons and electrons

16 In the distillation process, what is used to

condensation the stream into pure water?

A Impurities B Rubber stopper C Distillation flask D Liebig condenser

17 The method that use to remove ethanol

from a mixture of ethanol and water which have different boiling points is

A distillation B purification C crystallization D fractional distillation


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18 Which of the following require crystallization process?

A Mixture of salt and sand. B Mixture of ethanol and water. C To obtain pure water from a salt

solution. D To obtain petroleum fractions from

crude oil.

19 Which of the following elements are non-metals?

A Gold B Copper C Bromine D Magnesium

20 Substance P has the following

characteristic:

Corrosion resistant Have low densities Good heat conductor

Which of the following substance could be

P?

A Iron B Copper C Sodium D Aluminium

21 Which of the following is true?

Molecules of

elements Molecules of compounds

A

Same type of atoms

Two or more different types of

atoms B Two or more

different types of atoms

Same type of atoms

C Same type of molecules

Two or more different types of

molecules D Two or more

different types of molecules

Same type of molecules

22 The following are true of molecules, except

A have low melting and boiling point. B may appear in solid, liquid and gas

state. C insoluble in water but soluble in

organic solvents. D conduct electricity only when melted

or dissolved in water. 23 Why metals have high melting and boiling

points?

A Are good conductors of electricity. B Atoms are held strongly to each other. C Weak Van der Waals' forces holding

the atom together. D Oppositely charged are attracted to

each other by strong.

24 The proton number enables us to predict

I the number of protons an element has.

II the number of electrons an element has.

III the location of an element in the Periodic Table.

A I and II only B II and III only C I and III only D I, II and III

25 The diagram below shows the Periodic

Table

The element X is a

A Metal B Non-metal C Semiconductor D Transition element


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26 Which of the following is true about the Elements in Group 1?

A Are non-metals B Very unreactive C Have high melting points D Have a relatively low density

27 Which of the following is true about the

elements in Group 18?

A Gases B Very reactive C Called as halogens D Have high melting points

28 The diagram below shows the experiment

of electrical conductivity.

Which of the metals can be used as electrode T?

A Sulfur B Carbon C Copper D Magnesium

29 Which of the following elements are not from group 18?

A Neon B Xenon C Boron D Helium

30 The diagram below shows the location of

element P in the Periodic Table.

A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5


29


CHAPTER 5:ENERGY AND CHEMICAL CHANGES

1 Comparison between physical change and chemical change has shown at the table below. Which of the following is true?

Physical Change Chemical Change

A Reversible and

temporary Irreversible and

permanent

B No change in chemical property

Change in chemical property

C Require a lot of energy

Little or none energy is required

D No new substances produced

New substances produced

2 Which is a chemical change among the

following?

A Ice melting B Petrol burning C Heating iodine crystals D Sugar dissolve in water

3. Reaction X and Y that occurred have

shown is represented by the following information.

Reaction X : Iron + water + Oxygen

Rust Reaction Y : Ice Water Steam

Which is true that describes reaction X and

Y by the following information?

Reaction X Reaction Y A Temporary Permanent B Chemical content

remains Chemical content

change C Produce new

substances No new substances

formed D Require plenty of

heat Little heat required

4 An endothermic reaction

A heat change negative. B release heat into surrounding. C absorbs heat from surroundings. D increase surrounding temperature.

5 Diagram below shows the energy level for

a chemical reaction.

The following statement is true about the above reaction, except

A Reaction above release heat. B The value of heat energy is positive. C Temperature of surrounding increase. D Reaction above is exothermic reaction.

6 Releasing heat into surrounding occurred

when

I Burning magnesium ribbon in air. II Ammonium chloride solution

dissolves in water. III Calcium carbonate decomposes into

calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.



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7 The information below shows an equation. Hydrogen + Nitrogen Ammonia

Which of the following statement is true

regarding the equation?

I The reaction is endothermic. II The reaction is reversible. III Releasing heat. IV It is part of Haber Process.

A I only B I, II and III only C II, III and IV only D I, II, III and IV.

8. What ratio is require when producing

ammonia from the reaction between hydrogen gas and nitrogen gas in the Haber process?

A 1 : 3 B 2 : 1 C 2 : 3 D 3 : 1

9 The following statement is true about

Haber process, except

A Reaction is reversible. B The suitable temperature is 450 - 500

0C. C Releasing heat in the backward

reaction. D The optimum pressure is 200

atmospheres.

10 Which of the following differences between endothermic reaction and exothermic reaction is true?

Endothermic Exothermic

A Break bonds Form bonds

B NegativeH PositiveH C Increase

surrounding temperature

Decrease surrounding temperature

D Energy product lower than energy

reactant

Energy reactant lower than energy

product

11 The reaction of calcium carbonate represented by the equation below.

Calcium carbonate Calcium oxide +

Carbon dioxide

Which type of chemical reaction can

describe equation above?

A Dissolving B Combination C Displacement D Decomposition

12 The information below shows a statement

about sodium hydroxide and dilute hydrochloric acid solution.

Temperature increase when sodium

hydroxide and dilute hydrochloric acid solution undergo neutralization.

Based on this statement, what conclusion

can you make on it?

A The reaction is exothermic. B The reaction is endothermic. C Too much sodium neutralize. D All sodium hydroxide will make the

temperature fall.

13 The information below shows the characteristics about metal X.

Metal X does not produce hydrogen

gas when acid is added into.

Metal X is

A Zinc B Silver C Calcium D Aluminium


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14 The diagram below shows the reaction of three pellets of metal Y added to the water.

What observation can be derived from the diagram above if the metal Y is Sodium?

I Very fast with water. II A loud pop sound is release by gas

when tested with glowing splint. III Turns the red litmus paper into blue

color. IV Pellets burned with brick-red flame.

A I only B I, II and III only C II, III and IV only D I, II, III and IV

15 Information below shows the reactivity of

Metal X, Y and Z. X No reaction either hot or cold

water. Y No reaction with cold water but

with hot water. Z Reacts very fast with water.

Which of the following arrangement in ascending order for their reactivities is true?

A Z, Y, X B Y, Z, X C X, Y, Z D X, Z, Y

16 The diagram below shows a reaction of magnesium with dilute hydrochloric acid.

Bubbles formed and gas X is released from the experiment above. Gas X is

A Oxygen B Hydrogen C Carbon dioxide D Nitrogen dioxide

17 What is the function of potassium (VII)

manganate in the experiment for reactivity of metals with oxygen?

A For decoration. B Heated to release oxygen. C Heated to release nitrogen. D Stimulate the metal to heat until it

glows.

18 Carbon have the ability to displace oxygen from the oxides of the following metals except

A Iron oxide B Zinc oxide C Copper oxide D Magnesium oxide

19 Which of the following method is to

extracting the metal?

I Filtration and evaporation. II Using carbon to reduce the metal. III Electrolysis of molten ore of metals.



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20 Why is the magnesium not using the carbon reduction method to extract?

A Because the extraction process is low. B Because the magnesium obtained is

pure. C Because magnesium is more reactive

than carbon. D Because the extraction process requires

a very high temperature and pressure.

21 Metal in natural conditions exist in the Earth's crust as metal ore consist of

I Metal oxides II Metal chlorides III Metal sulphides IV Metal carbonates

A I only B I, II, and III only C II, III and IV only D I, II, III and IV

22 Diagram below shows the study of

electrolysis of copper (II) sulphate solution with two carbon electrodes.

The following result is true for the diagram above, except

A The anode becomes thinner. B Anode produce gas bubbles. C Anode deposite the copper metal. D Color of the solution gradually

becomes pale.

23 The diagram below shows the arrangement of apparatus set up study of the process of electrolysis. After a few minute, there is any result change to be made.

What kind of error can be derived from the diagram above that make no changes of it?

A Current are too little. B Terminals were reversed. C Using powdered lead iodide. D The carbon rods are not function.

24 Diagram below shows how an iron nails

can be electroplated.

Which of the following solution will enable the iron nails to be plated with copper?

A Silver nitrate B Copper nitrate C Copper sulphate D Aluminium nitrate


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25 Which is a primary cell among the following?

I Dry cell II Alkaline battery III Silver oxide battery IV Cadmium battery


26 An alkaline battery is made up by which of

the following parts?

I Metal rod II Zinc powder III Sodium hydroxide solution IV Mixture of manganese (IV) oxide and

carbon


27 A chemical reaction in green plants has

been represented at the equation below.

The M and N in the equation above is

M N A Hydrogen Acid Nitrate B Mineral salt Carbon dioxide C Glucose Carbon dioxide D Carbon dioxide Glucose

28 Which of the following is good habit when using and disposing equipment that use chemical reaction as energy sources?

I Take good care of the equipment. II Disposing the equipment by sending

back to recycling centre. III Follow the instruction of the

manufacturer of the equipment. IV Throwing them together with the

household waste.

A I only B I, II and III only C II, III and IV only D I, II, III and IV.

29 The following is the new sources of energy

for equipment, except

I Wind mill II Fuel cells III Bio-diesel fuel

A I only B I and II only C II and III only D I, II, and III

30 Among the following, which are the ways

to overcome the worst effect due to chemical reaction?

I Throwing batteries to river. II Using rechargeable batteries. III Sending relevant equipment to recycle

center. IV Discarding nickel cadmium batteries

to recycling bin.



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CHAPTER 6:NUCLEAR ENERGY

1 What is radioactive substance?

A A reactive substance that reacts with oxygen.

B An element that is stable and can be describe as inert.

C An element with the nucleus of atoms is stable and not active.

D An element where the nucleus of the atoms is not stable and decay spontaneously.

2 Which of the following are dangerous

radioactive radiations are emitted during nucleus decay?

I Delta radiation II Beta radiation III Alpha radiation IV Gamma radiation

A I only B I, II and III only C II,III and IV only D I, II, III and IV

3 All isotopes with a proton number bigger

than X are radioactive. Value X is

A 25 B 53 C 75 D 83

4 Uranium-235 is radioactive because

A it atom has a big nucleus. B it atom has many protons. C it atom has many electrons. D it atom has an unstable nucleus.

5 Why gamma radiation is the most dangerous in the three types of radioactive radiation?

A because it has the highest penetration

power. B because it has the highest electrical

charge. C because it has the highest magnetic

power. D because it has consists of

electromagnetic wave.

6 X emits radioactive radiation. Which of the following is X?

A Lead-210 B Cobalt-80 C Carbon-12 D Sodium-23

7 The diagram below shows three radiations

in an electric field.

Which of the following is X, Y and Z?

X Y Z A Alpha Beta Gamma B Alpha Gamma Beta C Beta Alpha Gamma D Gamma Alpha Beta

8 Among the following, which radioisotopes

used as a tracer to test the rate of fertilizer absorption for plants?

A Cobalt-60 B Iodine-131 C Carbon-14 D Phosphorus-32


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9 Which of the following radioisotope is injected into a patient's body to detect damage to the thyroid gland?

A Iodin-131 B Cobalt-60 C Sodium-24 D Plutonium-238

10 Which of the following radioactive

radiation is negatively charged?

A X-rays B Beta radiation C Alpha radiation D Gamma radiation

11 The table below shows a characteristic of

radiation X.

Neutral charged. Highest penetration of power. Velocity is same as speed of light. Very week ionization power.

Which of the following is radiation X?

A X- rays B Beta radiation C Alpha radiation D Gamma radiation

12 The table below shows the penetrating

power of radiation P, Q and R.

Element Penetration power Block of

lead Piece

of paper

Piece of aluminium

No Yes Yes No No No No No No

Which of the following represents P, Q and

R?

P Q R A Alpha Beta Gamma B Beta Alpha Gamma C Gamma Beta Alpha D Beta Gamma Alpha

13 The diagram below shows radioactive

radiation ,

and

penetrating through materials X, Y and Z.

Which of the following represents X, Y and Z?

X Y Z A Lead Paper Aluminium B Lead Aluminium Paper C Paper Aluminium Lead D Paper Lead Aluminium

14 Which of the following radioisotopes has dedicated its function in heart peacemakers to help stabilize the heartbeat of heart patients?

A Cobalt-60 B Carbon-14 C Uranium-238 D Plutonium-238

15 Which of the following radioisotopes

playing an important role in archaeology field?

A Cobalt-60 B Carbon-14 C Uranium-235 D Phosphorus-32


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16 Which of the following statement is the usage of radioactive substance?

I To preserve food. II Detect brain tumours. III To detect underground pipe leakages. IV Diagnose damage to the thyroid gland.


17 The information below shows about the

characteristics of X.

The function of X is used to sterilize surgical instruments in hospital. X will kill and destroy all the bacteria and fungus in surgical instruments.

Which of the following radioactive

substance can represents X?

A -radiation B

-radiation C

-radiation D Uranium-235

18 In a nuclear fission, a large amount of

energy is released to

I propel submarines. II generate electrical energy. III melt iron ores in the steel industry.


19 The diagram below shows the process of nuclear fission.

According to the diagram above, the process is producing

A electrons B neutrons C nuclear energy D a smaller uranium atom

20 Among the following below, which energy

source(s) is/are non-renewable?

I Fossil fuel II Sea waves III Solar energy


21 Natural fossil resources used to produce

energy are finish soon. However, people are still against the idea of producing nuclear energy. Why?

A Low cost in building a nuclear reactor. B Plenty of other alternative energy

resources. C Requires expertise and knowledge on

nuclear technology. D Possibility of an accident involving the

leakage of radioactive substance. http://edu.joshuatly.com/

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22 The radioactive substance used in nuclear reactors are

A Sodium rods B Radium rods C Uranium rods D Polonium rods

23 Which of the following is/are the

advantages of nuclear energy production?

I No air pollution occurs. II Produce a small amount of waste. III Require only a small amount of

radioactive substance. IV Cost of generating electricity is lower

compared to the cost of generating electrical energy from fossil fuels.

A I only B I, II, and III only C II, III and IV only D I, II, III and IV

24 How is the nuclear energy produced in

nuclear reactors changed into electrical energy?

A Nuclear energy is used to heat metals

which can produce electrical energy. B Nuclear energy is used to charge

batteries which can produce electrical energy.

C Nuclear energy is used to activate chemicals which can produce electrical energy.

D Nuclear energy is used to boil water to produce steam which then rotates the turbine and dynamo to produce electrical energy.

25 Among the following is the effect from

exposure to radioactive radiation, except

A Cancer growth. B Fever and cold. C Destruction of body cell. D Damage of foetus in a pregnant mother

body.

26 The diagram below shows the nuclear fission of Uranium-235.

Which of the following is represented X and Y?

X Y A Barium-141 Krypton-92 B Kryton-92 Barium-141 C Radium-226 Kryton-92 D Barium-141 Radium-226

27 The box to keep radioactive substances is

made from

A clay B lead C glass D plastic

28 Among the following, which symbol is

warns the public about the radioactive radiation?

A

B

C

D


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CHAPTER 7: LIGHT, COLOUR AND SIGHT

29 Among the following, which is used to detect a radioactive radiation?

I Cloud chamber II Geiger-Muller tube III Photographic paper


30 The following is a correct way to avoid the negative effect that caused by radioactive substance, except

A Eat and drink around area containing

radioactive substances. B Avoid from exposing ourselves to

radioactive substances. C Wear docimeter when handling

radioactive substances. D Stored radioactive substances in a

special containers made of thick lead or concrete.

1 The diagram below shows boy P and boy A standing in front of a plane mirror.

What is the distance between boy P and image of boy Y?

A 5 cm B 7 cm C 9 cm D 12 cm

2 Which of the following is the characteristic

of an image formed by a plane mirror?

I Virtual II Upright III Same size IV Laterally inverted


3 The diagram below shows an object placed at a distance less than F.

Among the following, which of the following are the characteristic for the image formed?

I Virtual II Upright III Diminished


4 Among the following, which will produce

a virtual image?

I Convex lens II Plane mirror III Concave lens



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5 The diagram below shows ray diagram for a convex lens.

Which of the following is the focal length?

A Between X and O B Between O and Y C Between O and Z D Between X and Y

6 The diagram below shows a ray diagram

for a convex lens.

Among the following instruments, which is applying the principle shown in the diagram above?

A Camera B Projector C Telescope D Photostat machine

7 The following is a characteristic of an

image.

Real Inverted Smaller than object

Which of the following produced image

that have characteristic above?

A Glass prism B Convex lens C Plane mirror D Concave lens

8 Which of the following ray diagram is correct?

A

B

C

D

9 The table below shows the characteristic of

an image formed by a concave lens.

Real Inverted Bigger than the object Positioned at a distance more than 2f in

front of the lens

Which of the following instruments

produce image that have characteristic above?

A Camera B Projector C Telescope D Photostat machine


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10 The diagram below shows an object placed in front of a pin-hole camera which consists of three holes.

Among the following, which is the correct image that will produce on the screen?

A

B

C

D

11 Which of the following is true about the camera?

I Diaphragm controls the size of the

aperture. II Image formed on the film is real,

inverted and smaller than the object. III Amount of light that enters the camera

is also controlled by the length of time the shutter is opened.


12 The diagram below shows a spectrum being produced when a ray of white light passed through a glass prism.

Why the spectrum is formed?

I White light is a mixture of seven colours.

II Coloured lights travel at different speeds in a glass prism.

III Coloured lights refract at different angles in a glass prism.


13 Among the following, which phenomenon

is/are caused by scattering of light?

I The blue sky. II The red sunset. III The secondary rainbow.


14 Which of the following will happens if the

atmosphere of earth is filled with haze particles, dust and gases from exhaust?

A The Sun looks red. B The sky looks blue. C The Sun looks dim. D The sky looks grey.


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18 Among the following, which is involving the subtraction of colours?

I Colour printing. II Formation of rainbows. III Formation of white light spectrums by

glass prisms.


19 The diagram below shows a observer the

colour of the white object after the filter of X and Y.

Which of the following colour represents X and Y that will cause the white object appear black?

I Red and blue respectively. II Red and green respectively. III Red and magenta respectively.


20 Why is black object seen black when other

coloured shine on them?

A Because the black object refracts all the colours of the lights shining on it.

B Because the black object scatters all the colours of the lights shining on it.

C Because the black object absorbs all the colours of the lights shining on it.

D Because the black object reflects all the colours of the light shining on it.

15 Which of the following is/are primary colours?

I Red II Blue III Green IV Yellow


16 The diagram below shows white light

passing through a cyan filter.

Which of the following colour will form on the screen?

A Blue B Green C Red and green D Cyan, green and blue

17 The diagram below shows three spotlight

of red, blue and green light.

Which of the following colour can represents K and L?

K L A Cyan White B White Cyan C Magenta White D White Magenta


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21 The diagram below shows the ray box of yellow and cyan shine on a white screen.

Which of the following can represents P, Q and R?

P Q R A Cyan Red Yellow B Red Cyan Yellow C Yellow Cyan Green D Yellow Green Cyan

22 Paper A appears red and Paper B appears

green when it is illuminated by yellow light. Which of the following colour is Paper A and Paper B when illuminated by red light?

Paper A Paper B

A Red Red

B Red Blue C Red Black D Black Red

23 Which of the following colour will

observed when pigment red mix with pigment yellow?

A Red B Green C Orange D Magenta

24 Alex is wearing a blue shirt enters a room that illuminated by yellow light. Which of the following colour will Alex's shirt appear in the room?

A Red B Blue C White D Black

25 Why colour plays an important rule to

animal?

I To give warning to enemy II To attract partners attention III To camouflage themselves


26 Which of the following is the importance

for colour to humans?

I Photocopy II Traffic lights III Colour printing IV Electrical wiring


27 Since human eyes cannot see small microorganisms. What instrument is designed to help us overcome this problem?

A Periscope B Telescope C Magnifying glass D Electron microscope


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CHAPTER 8: CHEMICAL IN INDUSTRY

28 Which of the following is/are function of colours?

I Give warnings II Beautify surrounding areas III Present certain information


29 Which of the following instrument allow a person observe objects at the surface of the water in a submarine?

A Telescope B Periscope C Plane mirror D Magnifying lens

30 Which of the following instruments allow

human to observe object in outer space?

A Periscope B Electronic microscope C Astronomical telescope D Spectacles with convex lenses

1 Which of the following is correct in describing an alloy?

A A metallic compound. B A mixture of two elements. C A mixture of two or more non-metals. D A mixture of a metal and another

metal.

2 Which of the following is an alloy?

I Brass II Bronze III Pewter IV Copper nickel


3 Which of the following is not an alloy?

A Brass B Bronze C Copper D Pewter

4 Which of the following atomic structure is represents alloys?

A

B

C

D

5 Which of the following mixture is to produce a bronze?

A Tin and nickel B Tin and copper C Copper and iron D Copper and zinc


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6 Which of the following is not an alloy metal property?

A Durable B Stronger C Rust-proof D More easily shaped

7 The diagram below shows the arrangement

of different atoms found in a substance P.

Which of the following is substance P?

A Iron B Steel C Copper D Calcium

8 Which of the following is a special

property of an alloy which is suitable for making aircraft body?

A Hard and heavy B Light and strong C Shiny and strong D Low in density and shiny

9 The information below is describing an

alloy X.

Won't rust Durable and hard Contains 75 % copper and 25 % nickel

Which of the following is made by alloy

X?

A Cars B Coins C Bridges D Aeroplanes

10 Which substance is added to carbon steel to avoid corrosion?

A Tin B Iron C Chromium D Aluminium

11 Which of the following statement is true

for a superconductor?

A Substance which is a good conductor of heat.

B Substance which allows current to flow efficiently.

C Substance with zero resistance at a high temperature.

D Substance with an electrical resistance that is directly proportional to temperature.

12 Mary discovers that her gold necklace goes

out of shape too easily. How can she overcome this problem?

A Add more gold in it. B Hammer it repeatedly. C Melt the gold and add in other

elements. D Melt and remould the gold repeatedly

until she gets the shape that she wants.

13 Which of the following is true about the alloy making process?

I Chemical change occurs. II Physical change occurs. III New substance formed which is better

than the original substance.



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CHAPTER 9: MICROORGANISMS AND THEIR EFFECTS ON LIVING THINGS

5 The graph below illustrates the level of antibodies in the blood of a patient for immunity of a disease.

Which of the following statements refer to the type of immunity shown in this graph?

I It is permanent. II Antiserum is injected into the patient's

body. III White blood cells are not stimulated to

produce antibodies.

A I only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II, and III

6 Bacteria are used to produce items such

as...

I alcohol II cheese III yoghurt


1 The following diseases cannot be treated using antibiotics except...

A AIDS B Cholera C Hepatitis B D Dengue fever

2 What type of microorganisms cause

diseases?

A Vectors B Antigens C Pathogens D Antibodies

3 What acts as a host for the virus that

causes dengue fever?

A Rats B Humans C Houseflies D Mosquitoes

4 The graph below shows the level of

antibodies in blood.

State the level of immunity that is achieved as shown by this graph.

A Active natural immunity B Passive natural immunity C Active acquired immunity D Passive acquired immunity


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7 What do vaccines contain?

A Antigens B Antibodies C Active live pathogens D Dead or weakened pathogens

8 What type of microorganism causes

syphilis?

A Fungi B Viruses C Bacteria D Protozoa

9. Vaccination can be given to a person for

the prevention of the following infections except...

I malaria II cholera III hepatitis B


10 It is caused by protozoon.

It can cause anaemia. It causes fever.

The statements listed above describes the

disease called...

A tinea B cholera C malaria D hepatitis B

11 Algae are classified as autotrophs because

they...

A feed on dead organisms. B feed on other living organisms. C carry out anaerobic respiration. D can manufacture their own food.

12 The diagram below shows four penicillin discs of different concentrations placed in a petri dish containing nutrient agar and bacteria.

Which penicillin disc is most effective in preventing the growth of the bacteria culture?

A P B Q C R D S

13 The table below shows the different

conditions in test tubes Q, R, S, and T that are used to study the factors that affect bacterial activity.

Test

tube pH

value Nutrie

nts Temperature

Moisture

Q 5 Present C4 Present R 7 Present C37 Absent S 7 Present C37 Present T 7 Present C37 Present

After two days, which test tube showed

vigorous bacterial growth?

A Q B R C S D T

14 What is the most effective way to sterilize

petri dishes used in an experiment to culture bacteria?

A Washing it with soap. B Freezing it in a freezer. C Washing it with boiling water. D Steaming it under high pressure.


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15 The diagram below shows an experiment to study the factors that affect the growth of bacteria.

Which of the factors below is being studied?

A pH B Light C Nutrient D Temperature

16 The diagram below illustrates the correct

way to keep a petri dish in an experiment to culture bacteria.

The petri dish is inverted so that...

A bacteria can grow and multiply quickly.

B the growth of bacteria can be easily observed.

C bacteria from the surroundings cannot enter the petri dish.

D water droplets from condensation do not affect the experiment.

17 Name the process that occurs when yeast is

added to grape juice and left for one week.

A Oxidation B Distillation C Fermentation D Decomposition

18 Bacterial activity is affected by the following conditions:

I light intensity II the pH value of the medium III oxygen concentration

A I and II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II, and III

19 Mosquitoes are vectors for disease(s) such

as...

I dengue fever II malaria III cholera


20 The dough rises when yeast is added in.

Why does this happen?

A The carbon dioxide gas is released. B There is an increase in temperature. C There is an increase in the amount of

dough. D There is an increase in the number of

yeast cells.

21 The ideal temperature for bacterial activity is...

A C0 B C15 C C37 D C50

22 Cellulose found in plants can be digested

by herbivores due to the presence of certain bacteria that secrete...

A lipase B amylase C protease D cellulase


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23 Which of the statements below describe the characteristics of a virus?

I It has a nucleus. II It reproduces only in living cells. III It contains either DNA or RNA.


24 The diagram below shows the reproduction

of a microorganism.

Which combination below correctly

describes the method of reproduction?

Microorganism Methods of reproduction

A Fungi Budding B Algae Conjugation C Viruses Binary fission D Fungi Spore formation

25 In damp conditions at C37 , bacteria

reproduce easily through...

A budding. B conjugation. C binary fission. D spore formation.

26 Which of the statements below correctly

describes bacteriophage?

A It is a bacterium that kills viruses. B It is a type of virus that attacks

bacteria. C It is a bacterium that causes diseases in

plants. D It can multiply inside both living and

non-living cells.

27 Microorganisms are grouped based on their...

I colour II shape III size IV habitat

A I only B I and II only C II and III only D II, III and IV only

28 The diagram below shows three

microorganisms.

Microorganisms X, Y, and Z are...

X Y Z A Alga Bacterium Virus B Virus Protozoon Fungus C Fungus Alga Bacterium D Virus Fungus Protozoon

29 What is the smallest microorganism?

A Algae B Viruses C Bacteria D Protozoa

30 Biotechnology uses microorganisms for...

I the production of bioplastic. II the production of hormones. III gene therapy.

A II only B I and III only C II and III only D I, II, and III


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CHAPTER 10: NUTRITION

1 Which statements below can be examples of healthy eating habits?

I Eating junk food which is tasty. II Drinking 2 to 3 litres of water

everyday. III Eating sufficient quantities of fibres

from fruits and vegetables.


2 The purpose of eating a wide variety of

nutritious food is to...

A avoid indigestion. B prevent constipation. C enjoy life to the fullest. D meet the body's nutrient requirements.

3 Why is the nitrogen cycle important?

I It maintains the concentration of

nitrogen in the air. II It ensures a continuous source of

protein. III It increases water pollution.

A I only B I and II only C I and III only D II and III only

4 What classes of microorganisms have an

important role to play in the nitrogen cycle?

I Bacteria II Algae III Fungi


5 Excessive cholesterol in arteriosclerosis...

A thickens the walls of arteries. B narrows the lumen of arteries. C enlarges the lumen of arteries. D makes the walls of the arteries thin.

6 The diagram below illustrates part of a

nitrogen cycle.

State the process of denitrification.

A QP

B QR

C RQ

D SQ

7 A lack of chlorophyll causes chlorosis in plants. This is due to the insufficient level of...

A boron B manganese C magnesium D molybedenum

8 What type of bacteria acts on dead plants

and animals?

A Decaying bacteria B Nitrifying bacteria C Denitrifying bacteria D Nitrogen-fixing bacteria

9 What can be done to increase the

concentration of nitrates in the soil?

A Nitrification B Denitrification C Decomposition D Nitrogen fixation


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10 In what area(s) of a plant that the nitrogen-fixing bacteria can be found?

I The soil II Root nodules III Leaves


11 The diagram below shows the root system

of a plant.

Name the plant that has this root system.

A Maize plant B Balsam plant C Hibiscus plant D Groundnut plant

12 What micronutrient is required by plants?

A Calcium B Potassium C Manganese D Magnesium

3 What happens when a plant shows signs of

chlorosis?

A Its growth is stunted. B Its leaves are turning yellow. C Its leaves are dropping prematurely. D Its leaves have black and brown spots.

14 Plants require carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen for the synthesis of proteins. What macronutrients are needed for this process as well?

I Boron II Nitrogen III Calcium

A I only B III only C I and II only D II and III only

15 The leaves on a tree turned yellow. The

soil is lacking in...

I magnesium II nitrogen III ferum


16 Name the gases that combine when

lightning is formed.

I Oxygen II Hydrogen III Nitrogen


17 The function of a bomb caloriemeter is...

A to determine the nutrition found in

food. B to measure the quantity of mineral salts

present in food. C to measure the quantity of

carbohydrates present in food. D to measure the energy content present

in a sample of food.


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18 Which of the food below has the lowest calorific value per unit gram?

A Eggs B Bread C Tomatoes D Margarine

19 The table below shows the calorific values

for three classes of food.

Classes of food Calorific value

(kJg-1) Fats 37.6

Proteins 22.2 Carbohydrates 16.7

For a bun that weighs 300 grams which

contains 3.3g of fats, 30g proteins, and 150g carbohydrates; calculate its total energy.

A 3 295.08 kJ B 3 130.08 kJ C 3 2950.8 kJ D 4 0950.8 kJ

20 What are the factors that influence the

calorific value requirement of a person?

I Age II Sex III State of health


21 A major part of an Eskimo's diet consists

of meat and fatty food. Why is it so?

A His culture favours more meaty food. B The above food source is found

abundantly where he lives. C To enable him to obtain more energy to

conduct heavy activities. D To replace heat lost to the surroundings

so that body temperature can be

maintained at C37 .

22 What are the factors that determine the fact that men needs more energy than women?

I Men are bigger and heavier than

women. II The metabolic rate of men is higher

than that of women. III Men are braver than women.


23 Which of the people listed below requires

the least calories?

A A lactating mother. B A child who is already active. C A labourer who is chopping firewood. D A grandmother that spends most of her

time resting.

24 What health problems are caused by an excessive intake of salt?

I Stroke II Obesity III Hypertension

A I only B I and II only C I and III only D I, II and III

25 Which of the statements listed below is

related to aneroxia?

A It causes death. B It makes a person thinner. C It is a disease due only to malnutrition. D It causes female sufferers to experience

irregular menstruation.


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26 The calorific value of a particular food can be defined as...

A the energy value per calorie of the

food. B the total amount of water that is found

in one gram of food. C the total energy that is released when

one gram of food is burned completely. D the total energy that is absorbed when

one gram of food is burned completely.

27 A shortage of iodine in daily diet causes...

A goitre B scurvy C anaemia D beri-beri

28 What is cholesterol?

A Fat B Vitamin C Mineral salt D Carbohydrate

29 The information below are the results from

an experiment to study the importance of plant nutrients.

Spots of dead cells on leaves.

Stunted root growth. Leaves drop easily.

What nutrients are lacking in the plant

from the experiment that was carried out?

I Phosphorus II Sulphur III Potassium


30 The diagram below illustrates the apparatus used in the study of the importance of macronutrients for plant growth.

Why is the bottle wrapped in black paper?

I To keep the solution warm. II To prevent sunlight from reaching the

solution. III To prevent the growth of algae in the

solution.



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CHAPTER 11: PRESERVATION AND CONSERVATION OF THE ENVIRONMENT

1 Which of the statements listed below are correct measures of preserving and conserving the environment?

I Putting rubbish into recycling bins. II Refrain from buying ornaments made

from animal parts. III Burning fallen dried leaves and

branches of plants.


2 How is environmental pollution

controlled?

A By burning tree stumps openly. B By spraying insecticides and

pesticides. C By treating factory wastes before

disposing them. D By disposing hot water from power

stations into the sea.

3 Name the phenomenon that happens when heat is reflected from the Earth's surface and gets trapped in the atmosphere.

A Global warming B Ozone depletion C Thermal pollution D The greenhouse effect

4 What happens when there is leaching of

chemical fertilizers into rivers and ponds?

A There is air pollution. B There is a rapid growth of algae. C There is an increase in the number of

aquatic organisms. D There is an increase in the oxygen

concentration of the water.

5 Which of the statements listed below are true about conservation and preservation?

I Protecting the ecosystem from

destruction. II Preventing the depletion of natural

resources. III Maintaining the population of

endangered plant and animal species.


6 Which statements below refer to human

activities that may cause the extinction of species?

I Using animal parts as traditional

medicine. II Encouraging game hunting as a sport. III Using animal parts as decorative

ornaments.


7 Which statements below refer to human

activities that may cause the extinction of species?

I Using animal parts as traditional

medicine. II Encouraging game hunting as a sport. III Using animal parts as decorative

ornaments.



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8 What gas is derived from oil palm fruit stalks that are processed in a biogas digester?

A Butane B Methane C Nitrogen D Hydrogen

9 Identify the materials listed below that can

be recycled.

I Old newspapers II Aluminium tin cans III Plastic pails

A I only B I and II only C I and III only D I, II, and III

10 Why is deforestation carried out?

A To produce oil B To make furniture C To produce plastic D To produce methane gas

11 Mining activities are carried out by humans

to obtain...

I coal II petroleum III tin ore


12 Humus is the byproduct of compost from

the decomposition of...

A mineral salts B toxic wastes C domestic wastes D chemical substances

13 What do humans suffer as the effect of the thinning of the ozone layer in the stratosphere?

I Cataracts II Cancer III Diabetes


14 What happens when there is uncotrolled

deforestation?

I The destruction of habitats II Landslides III Flooding


15 The molecule of ozone consists of...

A three carbon atoms. B three oxygen atoms. C one carbon atom and two oxygen

atoms. D one oxygen atom and two hydrogen

atoms.

16 How can the pollution from burning fossil fuels be reduced?

I By using an incinerator. II By using renewable energy. III By fixing catalytic converters in

vehicles.



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17 The diagram below shows a food web.

Identify the statements below that are true.

I Eagles are tertiary consumers. II Eagles are secondary consumers. III Paddy is a producer.


18 Which of the cycles below help maintain

the balance in nature?

I The water cycle II The nitrogen cycle III Food webs


19 What is the gas that is aasociated with the

greenhouse effect?

A Oxygen B Carbon dioxide C Sulphur dioxide D Nitrogen dioxide

20 How would carbon particles and smoke

from factories affect plants?

A Increase the rate of respiration in plants.

B Decrease the rate of photosynthesis in plants.

C Decrease the rate of transpiration in plants.

D Increase the absorption of carbon dioxide by plants.

21 Which of the fuels listed below is fossil fuel?

I Tar II Coal III Petroleum


22 What system in the human body is affected

by too much exposure to the ultraviolet rays?

A Skeletal system B Immune system C Nervous system D Digestive system

23 The ozone layer is important due to the

fact that it...

A increases the temperature of the earth. B is used by living organisms for

respiration. C reflects the heat from the earth back

into the atmosphere. D reduces the amount of ultraviolet rays

reaching the earth.

24 Identify the the effects of global warming from the statements listed below.

I An increase in the sea level. II The melting of ice at mountain peaks. III A decrease in food production by

plants.



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CHAPTER 12:CARBON COMPOUNDS

1 The elements that are found present in the fats molecule are...

I hydrogen II magnesium III carbon


2 Palm oil can be used...

I as cooking oil II for manufacturing margarine III for making explosives


3 The diagram below shows the cross-

section of an oil palm fruit.

What part of the oil palm fruit that palm oil is derived from?

A X only B X and Y C X and Z D X, Y, and Z

4 Why oil palm fruits are exposed to very

hot steam during the extraction process?

A To heat the oil palm fruit. B To cook the oil palm fruit. C To sterilize the oil palm fruit. D To break down the oil palm fruit.

5 Excessive saturated fats in a diet needs to be avoided because...

A saturated fats are toxic. B saturated fats have a high calorific

value. C saturated fats are difficult to digest by

enzymes. D saturated fats lead to the deposition of

low density cholesterol.

6 What process is used to change unsaturated fats to saturated fats?

A Oxidation B Reduction C Nitrification D Hydrogenation

7 The harmful effects of low density

cholesterol are...

I they accumulate in the bile duct to form bile stones.

II they accumulate in the walls of blood vessels and slow down blood flow.

III they lower blood pressure.


8 The diagram below shows the structure of

vulcanized rubber.

Name the atom that is marked with the letter Q.

A Carbon B Sulphur C Nitrogen D Phosphorus


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9 Addiction to alcohol causes social problems such as...

I tension in the family II road accidents III conflicts between families


10 Vulcanized rubber in comparison to natural

rubber is...

I more heat resistant II softer III harder


11 What is the difference between saturated

fats and unsaturated fats?

Saturated fats Unsaturated fats

A Have longer hydrocarbons chains.

Have shorter hydrocarbon chains.

B Contain hydrogen. Do not contain hydrogen.

C Are more reactive. Are less reactive. D Have the

maximum number of hydrogen atoms in their molecules.

Have less hydrogen atoms in their molecules.

12 Identify from the list below products that

contain carbon.

I Plastic bags II Marble tiles III Spectacles


13 What are the characteristics of natural rubber?

I Soft and sticky when heated. II Elastic and bouncy. III Hard and brittle when cooled.


14 What is the function of concentrated

alkaline catalyst in the production of soap?

A To oxidize palm oil. B To hydrolyse palm oil. C To hydrogenise palm oil. D To fuse palm oil molecules.

15 A type of natural polymer is...

A silk B nylon C polythene D polystyrene

16 What is the term used for the reaction to combine a few small molecules to form a single big molecule chain?

A Splitting B Polymerization C Depolymerization D Fractional distillation

17 Which statements listed below is true

about soap?

A Soap is suitable to be used in hard water.

B Soap increases the surface tension of water.

C The tail molecule of soap is soluble in water.

D Soap is produced from vegetable oil and alkali.


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18 During a washing action, soap molecules act to...

I increase the surface tension of water. II attack dirt or grease with its tail. III remove dirt from clothes.


19 Which statements below describe alcohol?

I It forms an alkane through

hydrogenation. II It reacts with organic acid to form an

ester. III It dissolves in water.


20 The diagram below shows the preparation

of soap in the laboratory.

Why is common salt added to the mixture of palm oil and sodium hydroxide solution?

A To provide salty taste to soap. B To neutralise the alkali in the mixture. C To increase the washing ability of

soap. D To lower the solubility of soap in water

and precipitate it out.

21 Alcohol causes damage to...

A ears B bone C liver D lungs

22 Latex that is left in a beaker will coagulate

after a day because of...

A the latex reacting with oxygen in the air.

B the action of bacteria on the latex which produces acid.

C the alkali that is produced when the latex is exposed to air.

D the water content in the latex that has completely evaporated.

23 What is the effect of excessive drinking?

A Cirrhosis of the liver. B Nervous breakdowns. C Lower cholesterol level. D Contraction of the arteries.

24 Which substances listed below contain

carbon?

A Cotton B Ammonia C Common salt D Hydrochloric acid

25 Which substances listed below are non-

organic carbon compounds?

I calcium carbonate II carbon dioxide III hydrocarbons

A I and II only B I and III only C I and III only D I, II, and III


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26 The difference between organic carbon compounds and non-organic carbon compounds is...

A organic carbon compounds are more

reactive than non-organic carbon compounds.

B organic carbon compound molecules are very big compared to non-organic carbon compounds.

C organic carbon compounds originate from living things while non-organic carbon compounds originate from non-living things.

D the structure of organic carbon compounds are complex while the structure of non-organic carbon compounds are simple.

27 Which substances listed below are

hydrocarbons?

I Coal II Petroleum III Natural gas


28 Identify the hydrocarbons listed below that

can decolourize acidified potassium permanganate.

I Hexane II Heptene III Pentene


29 The diagram below shows the apparatus used in making ethanol using the fermentation process.

What is used in this fermentation process?

I Rice + yeast II Wheat + yeast III Common salt + yeast


30 Soap is unsuitable to be used in hard water

due to the fact that...

I hard water decomposes soap molecules.

II the magnesium and calcium ions in hard water form salt with soap ions.

III a large number of soap molecules is wasted due to its deposition as magnesium or calcium salt.



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CHAPTER 13: MOTION

1 The picture below shows a lorry overloaded with goods.

It is important for the government to enforce the law to compound overloaded vehicles because...

A goods might fall from the lorries. B overloaded lorries are more difficult to

stop. C overloaded lorries will damage the

roads. D overloaded lorries might overturn on a

bend as they are less stable.

2 What should be increased in order to obtain an increase of inertia of a moving car?

A Speed of the car. B Power of the engine. C Distance travelled by the car. D Number of passengers in the car.

3 An object will move in a straight line with

constant speed unless it is acted upon by external forces. What causes this phenomenon to happen?

A Energy B Inertia C Pressure D Momentum

4 The diagram below shows an operational stage in a four-stroke petrol engine.

What is the operational stage?

A Power stroke B Exhaust stroke C Induction stroke D Compression stroke

5 What safety features are used in vehicles to

reduce the negative effects of inertia?

I Safety seat belts II Automatic airbags III Absorber bumpers


6 The bumper of the car is made of a

material that is easily dented in an accident. Why this is done?

A To prolong the time of accident. B To reduce the velocity of the car. C To increase the momentum of the car. D To conserve the momentum of the car.


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7 The diagram below illustrates a piece of chalk placed vertically on a trolley.

The trolley is pushed so that it accelerates.

In which direction that the chalk would fall?

A W B X C Y D Z

8 The diagram below shows a coin placed on

a card.

When the card is flicked away, the coin drops neatly into the cup. The factors that cause this are...

I gravity II inertia of the coin III weight


9 The diagram below shows the internal combustion of engines X and Y.

What type of engine are X and Y?

X Y A Four stroke petrol

engine Four stroke diesel engine

B Four stroke diesel engine

Four stroke petrol engine

C Four stroke petrol engine

Two stroke petrol engine

D Four stroke diesel engine

Two stroke petrol engine

10 When is the momentum of an object

increased?

A When its mass and velocity are increased.

B When its mass and velocity are decreased.

C When its mass is increased but its velocity is decreased.

D When its mass is decreased but its velocity is increased.

11 In an experiment to investigate the

relationship between the momentum of an object and its mass, what is the fixed variable?

A The density of the object. B The weight of the object. C The volume of the object. D The velocity of the object.


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12 What is an example of motion that is based on the Principle of Conservation of Momentum?

A The upward motion of a rocket. B The upward motion of an airship. C The upward motion of a helicopter. D The upward motion of an aeroplane.

13 Inertia measures...

A mass B force C weight D momentum

14 The diagram below shows 4 identical tins

filled with different amounts of sand. The tins are hung from a rod with string. The length of the strings are equal.

The tins are oscillated simultaneously with equal force. Which tin takes the longest time to stop oscillating?

A W B X C Y D Z

15 The acceleration of a car is 5 ms-2. This

means that in every second,...

A the displacement of the car is 5 m. B the velocity of the car increases by 5

ms-1. C the velocity of the car decreases by 5

ms-1. D the momentum of the car increases by

5 kg ms-1.

16 The diagram below illustrates the arrangement of four cylinders in the engine of a car.

What does this arrangement do?

A Increase the power of the car. B Produce smoother output of power. C Reduce the usage of combustion fuel. D Complete the combustion of fuel

within the four stroke cycle.

17 What causes the combustion of fuel in a four stroke diesel engine?

A Sparks from the spark plug. B Expansion of the combustion fuel. C Compression of the combustion fuel. D Heat from the friction between the

pistons and the wall of the cylinder. 18 The description below occurs during stroke

X in a four stroke diesel engine.

Both the inlet valve and the exhaust valve are closed.

The piston is moving downward.

What is X?

A Power stroke B Exhaust stroke C Induction stroke D Compression stroke


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19 The diagram below shows a section of a ticker tape obtained from a moving object.

What is the average speed of the object if the ticker timer makes 50 dots per second?

A 10 cms-1 B 25 cms-1 C 41 cms-1 D 50 cms-1

20 A car starts from rest and moves at a

constant acceleration of 2 ms-2. What is the velocity of the car after 1 minute?

A 2 ms-1 B 12 ms-1 C 30 ms-1 D 120 ms-1

21 The diagram below shows the intermesh of

two gear wheels.

When is this position of gear used?

A When a vehicle is starting from rest. B When a vehicle is moving up a slope. C When a vehicle is going down a slope. D When a vehicle is travelling at high

speed on a flat road.

22 What is the shape of vehicles used in water?

A Aerofoil B Cylindrical C Rectangular D Streamlined

23 Below are the parts of a four stroke engine.

W - Power stroke X - Compression stroke Y - Induction stroke Z - Exhaust stroke

The sequence of the four stroke engine

cycle is...

A Y, X, Z, W B W, X, Z, Y C Y, X, W, Z D X, Y, W, Z

The diagram below shows a simple

hydraulic system.

24

The forces acting on pistons P and Q are F1 and F2 respectively.Identify the statements below that are true.

I The pressure that acts on piston P is

equal to pressure that acts on piston Q. II The liquid is compressed. III F2 is larger than F1.


25 What is the principle operation of a

hydraulic jack based on?

A Pascal's principle B Bernoulli's principle C Archimedes' principle D The Principle of Conservation of

Momentum


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26 A boy wearing a pair of sport shoes stands on a weighing machine. The reading on the weighing machine is 500 N and the size of his shoes is 0.025 m2. What is the pressure exerted on the weighing machine by the boy?

A 25 N m-2 B 12.5 N m-2 C 10 000 N m-2 D 20 000 N m-2

27 The diagram below shows a simple

hydraulic system.

The cross-sectional area of piston X and Y is 25 cm2 and 100 cm2 respectively. A force of 10 N acts on piston X. What is the load supported by piston Y?

A 2.5 N B 40.0 N C 2 500 N D 25 000 N

28 When is the Principle of Momentum

applied?

I When firing a shotgun. II When driving piles into the ground

using a pile driver. III When hammering a nail into wood.


29 The diagram below shows the hydraulic brake of a car.

What happens when the brake pedal is released?

I The brake fluid flows back to the

master cylinder. II The spring separates the brake shoe

from the drum brake in the rear wheel. III The bake pad is separated from the

brake disc in the front wheel.


30 A car is moving at a uniform velocity of 10

ms-1. Then it accelerates to a velocity of 40 ms-1 in 5 seconds. Calculate the acceleration of the car.

A 2 ms-2 B 6 ms-2 C 8 ms-2 D 10 ms-2


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CHAPTER 14 :FOOD TECNOLOGY AND PRODUCTION

1 A farmer bought a two week supply of meat. What method of preservation can be used to maintain the freshness of the meat?

A Drying B Cooling C Deep freezing D Vacuum packing

2 Food technology is used in food production

so that food...

I would be more attractive. II is ready to eat. III is easier to digest.


3 The imbalance between population

increase and technological development in food production can lead to...

I starvation II malnutrition III social disturbances


4 What information is contained in a food

label?

I Ingredients in the food. II The expiry date of the food. III The calorific value of the food.


5 The picture below shows the label on a drink container for grape juice.

Based on the Food Regulations 1985, the missing informtion on this food label is...

A the net weight. B the expiry date. C the main ingredients. D the name and address of the

manufacturer.

6 Consumer rights include...

I seeking compensation II getting information on food products III selecting products with reasonable

prices.


7 What individuals can do to practise their

consumer rights?

I Right to return goods bought. II Right to buy fresh food. III Right to report to the statutory

authority.



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8 What are the advantages of genetically modified food?

I It increases the quality and quantity of

food. II It helps to overcome the world

shortage of food and prevent famines. III Crops that produce insecticide

themselves do not need to be sprayed with insecticide.


9 Which of the methods listed below can

increase the quality and quantity of food production?

I Using modern technology. II Using quality breeds. III Educating the farmers.


10 The information below are ingredients for

making biscuits.

Wheat flour Sugar Margarine Ascorbic acid Baking powder Salt Vanilla essence

Which ingredient helps the biscuits to last

longer?

A Margarine B Ascorbic acid C Baking powder D Vanilla essence

11 The picture below shows a drink product.

What is the most suitable way to process and preserve this drink?

A Cooling B Dehydration C Deep freezing D Pasteurization

12 Ah Seng wants to export prawns to Japan.

What method of preservation should be used to maintain the freshness of the prawns?

A Canning B Deep freezing C Pasteurization D Vacuum packaging

13 What method of food preservation listed

below can help to maintain vitamin contents of food?

A Canning B Dehydration C Deep freezing D Vacuum packaging

14 Which of the chemicals listed below is a

preservative? I Sulphur Dioxide II Nitrite III Lechitin



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15 The process of dehydration is...

A adding water to food. B boiling food at C100 . C removing air from food. D removing water from food.

16 Which of the following chemicals is

matched correctly to its function?

Chemical Function

A Saccharin Emulsifier

B Monosodium glutamate

Flavouring

C Boric acid Sweetener D Gelatin Preservative

17 What is monosodium glutamate (MSG)?

A Colouring B Emulsifier C Flavouring D Preservative

18 Which food processing technology does

not kill bacteria spores?

A Cooling B Freezing C Pasteurization D Vacuum packaging

19 Salt is added to fish and dried in the sun.

What type of food processing is this called?

A Canning B Dehydration C Freeze drying D Pasteurization

20 The increase in food production through the use of quality breeds...

A do not require irrigation. B is to carry out photosynthesis at night. C can increase the lifespan of crops by 10

years. D can produce higher yields in a shorter

period of time.

21 What method of food processing uses gamma rays?

A Freezing B Canning C Irradiation D Vacuum packaging

22 Why is lecithin added to ice cream?

A To sweeten it. B To slow oxidation. C To remove unwanted colours. D To emulsify two substances that

generally do not mix.

23 What are the effects of consuming too much chemical found in food?

I Damaged kidneys. II Excessive hair loss. III An increased risk of diabetes.


24 The picture below shows a processed

drink.

The most suitable way to process this drink is by...

A cooling B freezing C freeze drying D pasteurization


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25 The government agency that is responsible for the research to increase the quantity and quality of palm oil is...

A MPOB B LKIM C MARDI D FELDA

26 What is the purpose of machinery in the

agriculture industry?

I To increase the quantity of crop yield. II To get the job done faster. III To reduce the dependency on human

and animal labour.


27 What measures can be taken to maintain

soil fertility?

I By adding fertilizers. II By cover rotation. III By planting quality breeds.


28 What can be done to reduce soil erosion?

I Terracing II Contour planting III Planting cover crops


29 What is the purpose of efficient land

management?

I To prevent starvation. II To prevent soil erosion. III To avoid the loss of soil nutrients.


30 Which of the methods listed below

describes pasteurization?

I Heating food at C63 for 30 minutes and cooling it quickly.

II Heating food in a pressure cooker at C120 for 15 minutes.

III Heating food at C72 and cooling it quickly.



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CHAPTER 15:SYNTHETHIC MATERIALS IN INDUSTRY

1 The uncontrolled disposal of synthetic polymers can pollute the environment. This is due to the fact that this substance is...

A cheaper and softer. B cheaper and stronger. C more expensive and softer. D more expensive and durable.

2 The burning of synthetic polymers such as

plastic is prohibited because they can cause pollution to the environment by releasing ...

A water vapour and haze. B smoke and toxic gases. C water vapour and smoke. D smoke and carbon dioxide.

3 What are the effects of the disposal of

synthetic polymers to the environment?

I The flow of water in drains is blocked. II They remain in the environment for a

long time. III The accumulation of rain water in

used containers become breeding places for mosquitoes.


4 What is the monomer of isoprene?

A Starch B Polythene C Polystyrene D Natural rubber

5 The figure below shows a chemical change.

The processes of X and Y are...

X Y A Polymerization Depolymerization B Polymerization Combustion C Depolymerization Polymerization D Depolymerization Combustion

6 To produce tyres that are harder and more

heat resistant, natural rubber should be...

A headed with sulphur. B added with iron wire. C added with ethanoic acid. D added with ammonia solution.

7 Which of the pairs listed below is NOT

correct about plastic and its uses?

Type of plastic Uses

A PVC Water pipe

B Polystyrene Food container C Perspex Aeroplane

window-pane D Bakelite Plastic bag


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8 Which of the substance listed below is an

example of synthetic rubber?

A Perspex B Melamine C Polyvinyl chloride D Styrene-butadiene rubber

9 Which of the substance listed below is a type of thermosetts plastic?

A Terylene B Polythene C Epoxyl glue D Polyvinyl chloride

10 Which of the gases listed below are released when plastic is burned?

I Carbon monoxide II Carbon dioxide III Nitrogen

A I only B II only C I and II only D I, II, and III

11 The diagram below shows the change in

the molecular structure of natural rubber when it is stretched and release.

The characteristic of natural rubber shown is...

A soft B sticky C elastic D easily snapped

12 What type of synthetic materials is used to make food packaging boxes?

A Perspex B Neoprene C Polystyrene D Polyvinyl chloride

13 What happens when perspex is heated?

I A liquid is formed. II The melting point of the monomer

becomes higher. III Long chained molecules become short

chains.


14 What example of products listed below are

made from neoprene?

A Tyres and shoe soles. B Petrol rubber tubes and tyres. C Shoe soles and electric wire casings. D Petrol rubber tubes and electric wire

casings.

15 What is the correct comparison between synthetic rubber and natural rubber?

Synthetic rubber Natural rubber

A More elastic Less elastic

B Does not react with acid

Reacts with acid

C Easily vulcanized Cannot be vulcanized

D Cannot withstand heat

Able to withstand heat


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16 Which of the listed pairs below represent the correct pairing of polymers and monomers?

Polymers Monomers

A Nylon Chloroethene

B Perspex Methyl metacrylate

C Polythene Chloroprene D Thiokol rubber Propene

17 Which substances listed below is a

synthetic polymer?

I Protein II Neoprene III Polythene


18 How do we avoid pollution from used

plastic bags?

A Use biodegradable plastic bags. B Bury the plastic bags in the soil. C Throw the plastic bags into the river. D Burn the plastic bags in a rubbish

dump.

19 Why thermosetts can only be melted and moulded once only?

I Because they can withstand heat. II Because they have long chains in their

polymer molecules. III Because they have cross linkages

between long polymer plastics to prevent sliding.


20 What are the differences between thermoplastic and thermosetts?

Thermoplastic Thermosetts I Soft Hard II Able to withstand

heat Cannot withstand heat

III No cross linkages Cross linkages present


21 What is true about thermoplastic?

A They can withstand heat. B They are not good insulators. C They can be easily moulded into any

shape many times. D They consist of long polymer chains

with cross linkages.

22 Synthetic rubber is...

I easily oxidize II able to withstand heat III good electric insulator


23 Products that are made of a combination of

synthetic rubber and natural rubber include...

I bus tryes II shoe soles III cushions



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CHAPTER 16:ELECTRONICS AND INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY

1 Fibre optics is a better choice of cable lines compared to traditional copper for telecommunication because...

I they are able to transmit more

information. II they can carry electrical signals more

effectively. III they face less interference during

transmission.


2 What instruments listed below functions

by using telephone cables?

A Radio B Television C Fax machine D Cellular phone

3 Why is telegram less popular nowadays?

I Because it does not send pictures. II Because it sends a large amount of

information. III Because it is slow in transmitting

information.


4. Fibre optics is a better choice for cable lines compared to traditional copper for telecommunications because...

I they are able to transmit more

information. II they can carry electrical signals more

effectively. III they face less interference during

transmission.


5 Wave frequency is the...

A highest point of the wave. B distance between two successive peaks. C number of complete oscillations in one

second. D distance between the rest position and

its peak.

6 A source produces a sound with a frequency of 200 Hz and a wave length of 1.5 m. The velocity of the wave is...

A 13.3 ms-1 B 30.0 ms-1 C 133.3 ms-1 D 300.0 ms-1

7 The electronic component that is used to

store charges and electrical energy is a(n)...

A diode B resistor C inductor D capacitor


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8 The diagram below shows a satellite communication system.

The communication is transmitted through X. X is...

A long waves B short waves C microwaves D medium waves

9 The diagram below shows a block diagram

for a radio transmission system.

Referring to the table below, what is true about X, Y, and Z?

X Y Z A Modulator Amplifier Oscillator B Modulator Oscillator Amplifier C Oscillator Modulator Amplifier D Oscillator Amplifier Modulator

10 Which of the statement below is true about

microwaves?

A They pass through the ionosphere. B They are used in AM broadcasting. C They cannot pass through a vacuum. D They are reflected by the ionosphere.

11 The information below is about component X of a radio wave.

Designated as short waves in radio

communication. Reflected by the ionosphere.

What is X?

A High frequency B Very high frequency C Ultra high frequency D Super high frequency

12 The table below shows the components of

an electromagnetic spectrum.

W Microwave X Visible light Y Infrared Z X-ray

Which of the waves listed is radio waves?

A W B X C Y D Z

13 The diagram below shows process P in a

radio transmission system.

P is...

A oscillator B demodulator C amplitude modulation D frequency modulation


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14 The diagram below shows the block diagram for a radio receiver system.

What is true about X, Y, and Z?

X Y Z A Amplifier Tuner circuit Detector B Detector Tuner circuit Amplifier C Tuner

circuit Detector Amplifier

D Tuner circuit

Amplifier Detector

15 The shortest wavelength has...

A low frequency waves B high frequency waves C very high frequency waves D ultra high frequency waves

16 A radio wave travels at a velocity of 3

108 ms-1. The frequency of the radio at the wavelength of 0.6 m is...

A 1.8 108 Hz B 2.0 108 Hz C 3.6 108 Hz D 5.0 108 Hz

17 What contains in the demodulator of a

radio receiver system?

A A diode and a fixed capacitor. B A diode and a variable capacitor. C An inductor and a fixed capacitor. D An inductor and a variable capacitor.

18 The diagram below shows an audio signal in an oscilloscope.

What is the frequency of the audio signal shown above?

A 1.0 Hz B 1.25 Hz C 2.5 Hz D 5.0 Hz

19 The diagram below shows an

electromagnetic wave on the screen of an oscilloscope.

What is the amplitude of the electromagnetic wave?

A 2 cm B 3 cm C 4 cm D 6 cm


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20 The diagram below shows sound waves produced from a source.

Which is the wavelength?

A JL B JM C KM D KN

21 The diagram below shows the energy

changes in devices X and Y.

Sound energy X

electrical energy

Electrical energy Y

sound energy

What is true about devices X and Y?

X Y A Microphone Microphone B Microphone Loudspeaker C Loudspeaker Microphone D Loudspeaker Loudspeaker

22 The uses of satellites include...

I forecasting the weather. II studying the structure of the earth's

surface. III locating the position of ships.


23 The advantages of using satellites for communication are...

I more information can be transmitted

compared to using cables. II live telecasts can be broadcasted

simultaneously around the world. III the communication is not affected by

weather.


24 The satellite communication provides

services such as...

I relaying telephone conversations II facsimile transmission III the Internet


25 Where does a communication satellite gets

its power supply from?

I Solar cells II Hydrogen cells III A nuclear reactor


26 The information below is about component

P of a radio transmitter.

Inductor and capacitor. Generates radio waves.

P is a (n)...

A amplifier B oscillator C modulator D microphone


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27 The diagram below shows part of a radio receiver system.

The function of the circuit shown is...

A to amplify sound signals. B to separate sound signals from radio

waves. C to superimpose sound signals with

radio waves. D to select a frequency that resonates

with the carrier frequency. 28 The information below is about component

P in a radio receiver system.

Decides the programmes to be received. Electrons oscillate inside it.

P is a(n)...

A oscillator B modulator C tuner circuit D demodulator

29 What contains in the demodulator of a radio receiver system?

A A diode and a fixed capacitor. B A diode and a variable capacitor. C An inductor and a fixed capacitor. D An inductor and a variable capacitor.

30 The diagram below shows the block

diagram for a radio receiver system.

The necessary component that enables sound to be heard on a radio receiver system is the....

A aerial B detector C amplifier D tuner circuit


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PAPER 2

CHAPTER 1 : SCIENTIFIC INVESTIGATION 1. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the impurities on the freezing

point of the pure water.

The table below shows the result of the experiment. Substances Freezing point /

C Pure water 0

Pure water + common salt

(a) What is the freezing point for the pure water that is added common salt?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Write down one observation based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) State the variables in this experiment.

(i) Manipulated variable:

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Responding variable:

[ 1 mark ]


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2. The diagram below shows an experiment to determine the mass, volume and the density of

the iron and the cork.

(a) Calculate the densities of the cork and the iron.

(i) Density of cork =_______ g cm3

(ii) Density of iron =_______ g cm3

[2 marks ]

(b) If the cork and the iron are placed in a liquid with a density of 0.56g cm3. What will

happen to the cork and iron?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State one hypothesis for this experiment based on the relationship between the density of

an object and its ability to float on a liquid.

[ 1 mark ]


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3. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the sprout of seeds.

(a) Write down one inference based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the variables in this experiment. (i) Fixed variable:

[ 1 mark ]


[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Manipulated variable:

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) Predict the seeds in test tube B.

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Give explanation for your answer in (c)(i).

[ 1 mark ]


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4. The table below shows the weight of students in class 5B is divided into 5 groups.

Weight (kg) Number of

students 40-44 2 45-49 6 50-54 12 55-59 9 60-64 3

(a) Draw a graph based on information the table that given. [ 2 marks ]

(b) There are how many students in class 5B?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the highest weight of the students in class 5B?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is the percentage of the students weighting 55 kg and above?

[ 1 mark ]

5. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the length of pendulum on the

time for 10 oscillations.


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(a) Based on the experiment above, complete the table below.

Length of pendulum (cm)

Time for 10 oscillations (s)

10 20 30

[ 1 mark ]


[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the variables in this experiment. (i) Fixed variable:

[ 1 mark ]


[ 1 mark ]

(iii) Manipulated variable:

[ 1 mark ]


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6. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of fixed amount of water heater

and the temperature of the water record in every 3 minutes.

(a) Write down one observation for this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the observation (a).

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the variable should be fixed in this experiment and explain how it is fixed.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) Predict the temperature if more water is used.

[ 1 mark ] 7. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the weight of the load on the

extension of a spring.


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The table below shows the different weight and the extension of spring.

Weight of load (F/N)

Extension of spring (x/cm)

1.5 3.0 2.0 6.0 2.5 9.0 3.0 12.0 3.5 15.0


[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the variables in this experiment. (i) Responding variable:

[ 1 mark ] (ii) Manipulated variable:

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) For this part of question, use the graph paper.

Based on the table above plot a graph of load of weight (F) versus extension of spring (x).

[ 1 mark ]


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(ii) State the relationship between F and x.

[ 1 mark ] 8. The diagram below shows an experiment to estimate the size of a water particle. 200 drops of

water are released from the burette to a container.

(a) Write down the initial reading and final reading of the burette. (i) The initial reading of burette

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) The final reading of burette

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Calculate the volume of one drop of water.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) If one drop of water can produce 100 droplets of water, what is the volume of one droplet of water?


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[ 2 marks ]

9. The diagram below shows a measuring cylinder that containing water.

(a) What is the volume of water in the cylinder?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) When a stone is placed into the water and the level of water become 58 cm3. What is the

volume of the stone?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) If the mass of the stone given that is 50 g, calculate the density of the stone.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) A cork with a density of 0.26 cm3 placed into the cylinder. If given the water with a

mass of 20 g. The cork will sink in the water or float on the water?

[ 2 marks ] 10. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the impurities on the boiling

point of pure water.


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The table below shows the result of the experiment. Substances Boiling point

C Pure water 100

Pure water + salt

(a) What is the boiling point for the pure water after added the salt.

[ 1 mark ]


[ 2 marks ]

(c) State the variables in this experiment. (i) Responding variable:

[1 mark ]

(ii) Manipulated variable:

[1 mark ] 11. The table below shows the gas pressure and the gas volume.

Pressure Volume

10 50 15 40 20 30 25 20


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(a) What is the relationship between the pressure and the volume of gas? Explain.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) State the variables in this experiment.

(i) Fixed variable

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Responding variable

[ 1 mark ] 12. A student doing an experiment to confirm his observation of the sugar will dissolve faster in

boiling water.


[ 1 mark ]


[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the variables in this experiment.

(i) Fixed variable

[ 1 mark ]


[ 1 mark ]

(iii) Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark ] 13. The diagram below shows the steps that involved in a method of scientific investigation.


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(a) Based on the diagram above, complete the blank of step (i) ,(ii) and (iii).

[ 3 marks ]

(b) State two the important of scientific investigation method.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State two attitudes and values are needed in a scientific investigation.

[ 2 marks ] 14. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the lead shots of the test tube.


89


(a) State the variables in this experiment. (i)Fixed variable

[ 1 mark ]

(ii)Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark ]

(iii)Responding variable

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the aim of experiment based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]


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15. The flow chart below shows the steps that involved in a method of scientific investigation.

Identifying the problemForming a hypothesis X

Carrying out the

investigation Collecting data Conclusion

(a) Based on the diagram above, name the step X and explain this step.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) List two the part that involves in the step of planning the investigation.

1. 2. [ 2 marks ]

(c) List two things that should contain in a complete experimental report.

1. 2. [ 2 marks ]

(a) What is inference? It is same with the conclusion?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is hypothesis?

[1 mark ]

(c) List the entire variable that important in a scientific investigation and explain it.

[3 marks ]

(d) State two of the forms of presenting data.

1. 2. [2 marks ]


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16 The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the temperature of different

size of container

(a) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the variables in this experiment. (i) Fixed variable

[ 1 mark]

(ii) Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark]

(iii) Responding variable

[ 1 mark]

(c) State two positive attitudes and values. 1.

2. [ 2 marks ]


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17. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the density on the ability of an

object float or sink in the water.

Substances Observation Ice Iron Cork

(a) Based on the above experiment, complete the table. [ 2 marks ]


[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the variables in this experiment.

(i) Fixed variable

[ 1 mark]

(ii) Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark]

(iii) Responding variable

[ 1 mark]


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18. The diagram below shows the density of a stone.

(a) What is the mass of the stone which shows in the diagram (a)?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the initial reading of the cylinder?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What the final reading of the cylinder is after placed the stone in the water?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is the density of the stone?

[2 marks ]


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CHAPTER 2 : BODY COORDINATION 1. The table below shows the reaction time for 10 students from class 5B by measuring the time

taken for each student to buttoning the shirts.

Student number Reaction time (ms) 1 30 2 90 3 110 4 60 5 120 6 40 7 160 8 130 9 50 10 100

(a) Complete the table below based on the reaction time of the students and placed into 4

groups. Reaction time

(ms) Number of students in

group

[2 marks ]

(b) Based on the table in (a) draw a bar chart. [1 mark ]

(c) What receptors are involved in this type of activity?

[1 mark ]

(d) Based on the receptors that found in (b), what is the function for the receptors?

[ 1 mark ]


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2. The diagram below shows the reflex arc in a human knee-jerk.

(a) How many neurone involves in this reflex action?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name the neuron that involved in this reflex action.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Write the summary of the path taken by an impulse.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) What is the outcome for this reflex action?

[ 1 mark ] 3. The diagram below shows a type of neurone.


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(a) Name the type of this neurone.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the function of this type of neurone.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What is the label P?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) State the function of label P.

[ 2 marks ]

4. The table below shows the reactions of sensory organs to various stimuli.

Stimuli Reaction Sensory organ involved

Ice cubes Feel cold Vinegar Sharp smell of sour

Sugar cane Sweet taste Television Movie is see

Radio Music is hear

(a) State the suitable sensory organ that involved in the various stimuli.

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Write the pathway of impulses in the nervous coordination

[ 2 marks ]

5. The diagram below shows the main parts of the human brain.


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(a) What is the function for cerebellum?

[ 1 mark ] (b) Which parts of the human brain are controlled the involuntary actions?

[1 mark ]

(c) Explain the voluntary actions and give an example.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) What is the effect of injuries to the cerebrum?

[ 1 mark ]

6. The diagram below shows the main parts of the human brain.

(a) Label P, Q and R.

[ 3 marks ]


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(b) What is the function of R?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Name two activities controlled by the P.

[ 2 marks ] 7. The diagram below shows the cross section of the spinal cord and the nerves connected to it.

(a) Name the neurones that involved in this reflex action.

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Name the label P.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the function of P?

[ 1 mark ] 8. The diagram below shows the human endocrine system.


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(a) What are endocrine glands?

[ 1 mark ] (b) Name the P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State the function for P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]

9. The diagram below shows the human muscle.

(a) Label the structure X.


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[ 1 mark ]

(b) Explain the function of structure X.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Where can structure X be found?

[ 3 marks ] 10. The diagram below shows the human nervous system.

(a) Label the X and Y.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Explain the function of the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.

[2 marks ]

(c) What is the human nervous system?


101


[1 mark ] 11. The diagram below shows a neurone.

(a) Label the X and Y.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Name the neurone that shows in the diagram above.

[ 1 mark ] (c) Shows the direction of the impulse at the diagram. [ 2 marks ]

12. The diagram below shows a main part of human brain.

(a) Name the part of human brain that shows at the diagram above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Label P, Q, R and S.


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[ 4 marks ]

13. The flow chart below shows nervous coordination in human.

StimulusOrgan P

Sensory neuroneMotor neurone Central nervous system Motor neurone Effector Responds

(a) State two examples of organ P.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) What type of the action that shows in the flow chart?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) List two examples of such action.

[ 2 marks ]

14. The statement below shows the examples of voluntary action.

Eating

Reading Dancing Writing

(a) What is the voluntary action?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Give two examples of involuntary actions.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) List two differences between voluntary actions and involuntary actions.

[ 2 marks ]

15. The diagram below shows the human endocrine gland.


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(a) What is the hormone secretes by X?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the function of the hormone that secretes by X?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) List two effects of oversecretion of hormone that secretes by X.

[ 2 marks ] 16. The diagram below shows the reflex arc in the withdrawal of hand from a hot object.

(a) Label P, Q and R.

[ 3 marks ]


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(b) Write the path taken by an impulse in the withdrawal reflex.

[ 2 marks ] 17. The diagram below shows a motor neurone.

(a) Label X.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the function of X?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) List two differences between the sensory motor and relay motor.

[ 2 marks ] 18. The diagram below shows an impulse pathway when a student accidentally touches a hot pot.

(a) Label the X, Y and Z.

[ 3 marks ]


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(b) Why the reflex actions are important?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) If the motor neurone is damaged, what will happen?

[ 1 mark ] 19. The diagram below shows three people that have different height. The Individual P who has a

normal height.

(a) Name the disease that faced by individual Q and R.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Name the hormone that controls this disease.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the function of this hormone?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Name the endocrine gland involved in (b).

[ 1 mark ] 20. The diagram below shows a human endocrine gland which located at the base of cerebrum.


106


(a) What is the name of this endocrine gland?

[1 mark ]

(b) What is the function of this endocrine gland?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Name the hormone that secreted by this endocrine gland.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) List down the effect of under secretion and over secretion.

[ 2 marks ] 21. The diagram below shows a human endocrine gland which located in front of the trachea.

(a) Name this endocrine gland.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name the hormone produced by this gland.


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[ 1 mark ]


[ 1 mark ]

(d) List two effects of the under secretion of this hormone.

[ 2 marks ] 22. The diagram below shows a human endocrine gland which located on top of the kidneys.

(a) Label P.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name the hormone secreted by glands P.

[ 1 mark ]


[ 1 mark ]

(d) List two effects of over secretion of this hormone

[ 2 marks ] 23. The diagram below shows the ovaries in a female body.


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(a) Where the ovaries are located?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) List down the two hormones produced by ovaries.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) List down the function of both hormones.

[ 2 marks ] 24. The diagram below shows a pair of testes in male body.

(a) Label X.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the function of X?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the main hormone produced by testes?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is the function of this hormone?

25. The statement below shows three main groups of drugs.


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Stimulant Depressant Hallucinogens

(a) Define the drugs.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) List two drugs for group stimulant.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) List two effects of drug abuse on nervous system and body coordination for group

hallucinogens.

[ 2 marks ] CHAPTER 3 : HEREDITY AND VARIATION 1. The table below shows the height of the students in class 5B.

Height (cm) Number of students

146 and below 1 146 -150 5 151 - 155 13 156 - 160 12 161 - 165 6

165 and above 5


110


(a) Draw a histogram based on the table above. [ 2 marks ]

(b) What type of the variation that show in (b)?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Give two characteristic of this type of variation .

1. 2. [ 2 marks ]

2. The graph below shows the ability to roll the tongue of the students in class 5A.

(a) What type of variation that shows at the graph?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Give two examples of this type variation.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) List the factors that cause variation.

[ 2 marks ] 3. The diagram below shows the formation of twins.


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(a) What type of twins is formed?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name the process P.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) List the characteristics of this type of twins.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) What is the sex of the twins?

[ 1 mark ] 4. The diagram below shows phases that happens in a cell division.

(a) What process are involved this phases?


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[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name this phases.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Describe this phases.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Is the mitosis process occurrence of crossing over?

5. The diagram below shows how two types of twins are formed.

(a) Name the types of twins P and twins Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) State the similarity for the twins P and twins Q.

[1 mark ]


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(c) State the differences between the twins P and twins Q.

[ 3 marks ] 6. The diagram below shows the selective breeding of two different types of oil palm.

(a) Defines what selective breeding is.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) List two examples products produce by selective breeding.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) List two advantages of selective breeding.

[ 2 marks ] 7. The diagram below shows the chromosome map of a patient that suffers of genetic disease.


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(a) Name the disease that suffers by the patient down's syndrome.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What cause the patient suffers the disease?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Which chromosome pair causes the disease?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) List two possible distinctive physical characteristic of the patient that suffers this disease.

[ 2 marks ] 8. The diagram below shows the cell is undergoing cell division.


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(a) Name a type of cell division.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Where is this process take places in human body?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) List down the two characteristic of this type of cell division.

[ 2 marks ] 9. The diagram below shows the inheritance of tallness and dwarfness in plant.

(a) Write down each child's pair of genes in the boxes provides in the diagram.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Based on the diagram above, what type of plant is dominant.


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[ 1 mark ]

(c) Give two example of recessive trait.

[ 2 marks ] 10 The diagram below shows the sex determination in human being.

(a) Name process X and process Y.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) What is the sex of the zygote F?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Explain how to determine the sex of zygote G.

[ 2 marks ]


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11 The diagram below shows the monohybrid cross between plants. R is gene for red flowers

,and r is gene for white flowers.

(a) Complete the diagram above. [ 2 marks ]

(b)

What is the phenotype ratio of the red flowers to white flowers in the F 1 generation?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Which type of flower is dominant?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Define what homozygous is.

[ 1 mark ]


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12 The diagram below shows the chromosome mutations which involve changes in structure of

chromosomes.

(a) Label W, X, Y and Z.

[ 4 marks ]

(b) Define what chromosome mutation is.

[ 1 mark ] 13 The diagram below shows the relationship among gene, DNA and chromosome.

(a) What are X, Y and Z represent?

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Defines what genes are.

[ 1 mark ]


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(c) If the plant has 4 pairs of chromosomes. What is the number of chromosome in its epidermal cell?

[ 1 mark ] 14 The following passage describes a type of mutation.

Gene mutation occurs when part of the DNA on single chromosome is

changed. As a result, a defective protein may be produced or no protein may be produced at all. This can lead to a considerable change in certain characteristic.

(a) What type of mutation is show at the passage above?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Give two examples for this type of mutation.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Define what mutation is.

[ 2 marks ]

15 The diagram below shows the phase of cell division in an animal cell.


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(a) Name a type of cell division.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the two characteristic of this type of cell division.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Explain process at P.

[ 2 marks ] 16. The diagram below shows process meiosis.


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(a) What is the purpose of this process?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) List down the differences between mitosis and meiosis in term of occurrence of crossing over and number of times nucleus divides.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Why is the process crossing over and random distribution of chromosomes occurring during meiosis?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Explain the process crossing over.

[ 1 mark ] 17. The statement below shows the disease of mutation.

Down's syndrome

Colour blindness Haemophilia Klinefelter's syndrome

(a) Which of the disease of mutation that shows at the statement above are under gene

mutation?

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Give three advantages of mutation.


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[ 3 marks ]

18. The diagram below shows a disease cause by chromosome mutation.

(a) Name the disease.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the characteristics of this disease.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) What is the difference between this disease and Klinefelter's syndrome?

[ 1 mark ]

19. The diagram below shows the inheritance of the type of hair.

(c) Who will suffer from this disease?

[ 1 mark ]


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(a) Label P, Q, R and S.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Which type of hair is recessive?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the phenotype ratio of curly hair to straight hair in F 1 generation?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What type of variation is this?

[ 1 mark ] 20 The diagram below shows the two types of twins.


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(a) List two differences between these two types of twins.

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Define what Siamese twins are.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State two characteristics that are same for the identical twins.

[2 marks ] 21. The diagram below shows the chromosome map of Klinefelter's syndrome.

(a) This disease is cause by chromosome mutation or gene mutation?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Who will be affecting by this disease?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Define what Klinefelter's syndrome is.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Give two examples of mutagens.

[ 2 marks ]


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22. The diagram below shows the four groups of thumb prints for the students in class 5E.

(a) Construct a histogram of the number of students against the groups of thumb prints.


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[ 2 marks ]

(b) What type of variation that shows in (a)?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) List two differences between continuous variation and discontinuous variation.

[ 2 marks ] 23. The diagram below shows the inheritance of colour blindness.

(a) Complete the diagram above.

[ 4 marks ]

(b) What is the probability of the parents get a colour blindness son?

[ 1 marks ]


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24 The diagram below shows the variation among Vinson family member.

(a) What type of the diagram is used?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What type of variation is shows on the diagram?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Give a conclusion that get from the diagram.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) List two important of variation.

[ 2 marks ]


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CHAPTER 4 : MATTER AND SUBSTANCE 1. The table below shows the subatomic particles of some element.

Element P Q R

Proton number 6 7 8

Nucleon number 14

Number of electrons

Number of neutrons

7 10

(a) Complete the table above. [ 3 marks ]

(b) Which of the elements is an isotope?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Define what isotopes are?

[ 1 mark ]

2. The diagram below shows the arrangement and movement of the particles in the three states of

matter.

(a) Name the three states of matter that represented by X, Y and Z.


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[ 3 marks ]

(b) List two property of the matter X.

[ 2 marks ] 3. The diagram below shows the part of the Periodic Table.

(a) Name an element which is in (i) Group 17 (ii) Period 4

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Which element is a (i) metal

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) non-metal

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) semimetal

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Which two elements have similar chemical properties?


130


[ 1 mark ] 4. The table below shows the properties of subatomic particles.

Subatomic

particles X Y Z

Charge +1 Neutral -1 Relative atomic

mass 1 1 1/840

Location In the nucleus In the nucleus In the electron shells around the nucleus

(a) Name the X, Y and Z

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Why the nucleus of an atom is has a positive change.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Which of this subatomic particles move in circular orbits around the nucleus?

[ 1 mark ]

5. The diagram below shows interconversion of the three states of matter.

(a) Name the process A, B, C and D.


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[ 4 marks ]

(b) Name of the process involve absorption of heat?

[ 2 marks ]

6. The diagram below shows the interconversion of the states of matter.

(a) Name the process P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Describe the process P.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) The process P or Q involve releases of heat.

[ 1 mark ] 7. The diagram below shows an incomplete Periodic Table.


132


(a) What is the specific name of group 17?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the element B represented?

[ 3 marks ]

(c) Describe the element in group 1.

[ 1 mark ] 8. The diagram below shows a distillation process.

(a) Label the flow of water at the top and bottom of the condenser. [ 1 mark ]

(b) Define what distillation is.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What the purpose is of used the liebig condenser?

[ 1 mark ]

9. The table below shows the substances and their boiling point.


133


Substance Boiling point (

C)

Pure water 100 Pure water + common salt 105

(a) What is the inference for this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the variables for this experiment. (i) Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark ]


[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the operational definition of pure water?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is pure substance?

[ 2 marks ] 10. The flow chart below shows purifying salt from a saturated solution of common salt.

DissolvingProcess P

Process Q

FiltrationCrystals

(a) Name the process P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) What is the method is using for this purifying?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Defines what purification is.


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[ 1 mark ]

(d) Name the other purification method.

[ 1 mark ]

11. The diagram below shows a Periodic Table.

(a) What is the specific name for group 18?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name element P.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) List three characteristic of element Q.

[ 3 marks ] 12. The diagram below shows a Periodic Table.


135


(a) Name the elements P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Give two characteristic of element T.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Which element is a semimetal?

[ 1 marks ] 13. The table below shows a physical property of atom and ions.

Physical property Atomic substance Ionic substance

Physical state at room temperature

Solid( for all metals except mercury)

Gas(for all noble gases)

Solid

Electrical conductivity All metals are good conductors of electricity

Conduct electricity only when melted or dissolved in

water

(a) Physical properties of substances depend on what?

[ 3 marks ]

(b) What are the physical properties of atoms and ions in term of melting point and solubility?

[ 2 marks ]

14. The graph below shows a boiling curve of a pure substance.


136


(a) State the physical states at (i) RS

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) ST

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name the process where the substance changes state at (i) BC

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) DE

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the boiling point for the substance?

[ 1 mark ] 15. The diagram below shows an activity to studying the physical properties of metals.


137


(a) What are the physical properties of metal can observe from the activity?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Give another two physical properties of metal.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) List two examples of metals.

[ 2 marks ] 16. The statement below shows the elements of metals and non-metals.

Copper

Sulphur Sodium Iodine Chlorine

(a) Which of the above elements are

(i) metals?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) non-metals?


138


[ 1 mark ]

(b) Show three differences between metals and non-metals.

[ 3 marks ]

17. The table below shows the number of protons, electrons and neutron.

Element Number

of protons

Number of

neutrons

Number of

electrons P 4 4 4 Q 5 1 1 R 13 10 9 S 19 15 19

(a) Which element is a

(i) neutral?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) positively charged?

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) negatively charged?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the nucleon number and proton number of element Q?

[ 2 marks ] 18. The diagram below shows two different liquid.


139


(a) Which of the following liquid is not a pure substance? Explain your answer.

[2 marks ] (b) Predict the boiling point and freezing point for the liquid X if liquid X is pure water.

[ 2 marks ] (c) Name two methods use to purifying the impurities on the liquid Y.

[ 2 marks ] 19. The diagram below shows a difference of properties between metals and non-metals.

In term of Metals Non-metals

State Solids solids, liquids or

gases Luminosity Shiny

surface Dull surface

Hardness Strong Brittle and not strong

(a) Give an example for metals and non-metals.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) List another three differences between metals and non-metals in term of malleability,

ductility and density.

[ 3 marks ]


140


20. The diagram below shows atomic structure of an atom P.

(a) Name the subatomic particles contained in the nucleus of atom P.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Which group of the Periodic Table does P belong?

[1 mark ]

(c) State two used of this group.

[ 2 marks ] 21. The diagram below shows a Periodic Table.

(a) How are the elements arranged in the Periodic Table?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Using the letters P - S, name (i) noble gas


141


[ 1 mark]

(ii) an alkali metal

[ 1 mark]

(iii) an alkaline earth metal

[ 1 mark]

(iv) halogen

[ 1 mark] CHAPTER 5 : ENERGY AND CHEMICAL CHANGES 1. The diagram below shows an apparatus to study in electroplating an iron spoon.


142


(a) Name the parts for P and Q. P:

Q: [ 2 marks ]

(b) The experiment above is held for 30 minutes.

(i)What happens to the mass of the iron spoon?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii)What is K made of?

[ 1 mark ]

(iii)What observation can been make for substance K?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Write down the reason for why is the concentration of copper(II) sulphate solution is unchanged for the experiment.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) Give one condition that copper is able to electroplate nicely on the iron spoon.

[ 1 marks ]


143


2. The diagram below shows a study of the reactivity of three types of metal, X, Y, and Z reacting with oxygen.

The table below shows the result that derived from experiment above. Metal Result

X Burns very brightly. Y Glows brightly and vigorously. Z Glow with a little dim flame.

(a) State a hypothesis that can be derived from the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Determine the following variable for the experiment above.

(i) Fixed variable:

[ 1 mark ]


[ 1 mark ]

(iii) Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the word equation for reaction between metal and oxygen. (i) X

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Y


144


[ 1 mark ]

(iii) Z

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Based on the table above arrange the reactivity of metals in descending order.

[ 1 mark ]

(e) Copper, Magnesium, Aluminium

Use the substance above identify X, Y, and Z from the result of their reactivity as shown by the experiment above. X:

Y: Z: [ 3 marks ]

3 Diagram below shows a blast furnace used to produce a certain metal.

(a) Coke, substance X and substance Y are poured into the furnace. Name the Substance X and Y. Substance X:

Substance Y: [ 2 marks ]

(b) What gas is it that blasted into the lower part of furnace?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What are the products P and Q which are extracted from the base of the furnace?


145


Product P: Product Q: [ 2 marks ] (d) Write an equation that related to the diagram above.

[ 1 mark ]

4. The diagram below shows an experiment which is carried out in the laboratory.

(a) Name the process of the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Determine which electrode is the anode and cathode.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the function of copper wires at the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Predict the observation which occurs at the anode and cathode.

[ 2 marks ]

(e) What changes will occurs to the concentration of the copper(II) sulphate solution at the end

of the process?

[ 1 mark ]


146


5. The diagram below shows the extraction of tin in a blast furnace.

(a) What is the common name for tin ore?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the purpose for adding limestone into the blast furnace when extracting the tin from its ore?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Write an equation for the reduction reaction that produces molten tin.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Why aluminium cannot be extracted using carbon in the reduction process?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) Why is carbon usually be used when extraction of metals in the industrial?

[ 2 marks ]


147


6. The diagram below shows an arrangement of apparatus to purify a piece of metal. After 15

minutes it doesn't show any result.

(a) State the error that causes no any observation can be making by the diagram above. Draw the correct arrangement of apparatus that should be set up for experiment above in the space below.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Which of the substance act as (i) anode

(ii) cathode

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Write the observation at the (i) anode

(ii) cathode


148


[ 2 marks ]

(d) At the end of experiment, what changes will take place at silver nitrate solution?

[ 1 mark ] 7. The diagram below shows a graph of the volume of hydrogen gas produced against time for an

experiment to compare the reactivity of metals X and Y with dilute sulphuric acid.

(a) State one hypothesis for the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) According to the experiment above, identify the (i) manipulated variable

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) responding variable

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) fixed variable

[ 1 mark ]

(c) At 6th minute, which metal produces more hydrogen gas?

[ 1 mark ]


149


(d) Based on your opinion, what is the volume of hydrogen gas produced by the metal Y at the

20th minute?

[ 1 mark ] 8. Diagram (a) and (b) shows an experiment to compare the reactivity of metals P and Q with

dilute hydrochloric acid.

(a) Predict the observation for the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]


150


(b) Write down one inference that can be made from the observation above.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State one controlled variable in this experiment

[1 mark ]

The graph below shows the result of the experiment above.

(d) (i)State the relationship between the volume of gas and the reaction time in the first two minute.

(ii) Guess the volume of gas collected by the seventh minute of metal Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(e) What substance of metal Q might be?

[ 1 mark ]

9. Diagram below shows an arrangement of apparatus to study the production of electrical energy

by a simple cell.


151


(a) State which the plates act as the positive and negative terminals.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Determine the changes can be observed at the

(i) negative terminal

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) positive terminal

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Write the chemical reaction that occurs at the (i) negative terminal

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) positive terminal:

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Explain how the galvanometer and the bulb function.

[ 2 marks ]

10. The diagram below shows an arrangement of apparatus of an experiment to study the

production of electricity from chemicals.


152


Experiment is repeated by replacing the lead with other metal samples. Readings of the voltmeter are observe in the experiment above and shows in table below.

Pair of metals Voltmeter reading (V)

Zinc and nickel 0.2 Zinc and copper 1.4

(a) State the voltmeter reading for the lead and copper that shown in diagram above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the function for dilute hydrochloric acid in this experiment?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Determine the responding variable in this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Guess the readings of the voltmeter when a pair of copper metals is used in the experiment

above.

[ 1 mark ] 11. The diagram below shows the parts of a dry cell.


153


(a) Determine the part that acts as

(i) the positive terminal

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) the negative terminal

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name the parts of the following below according the diagram above. K:

L: M: N: [4 marks ]

(c) State two disadvantage of this cell.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) State two example of chemical cell that is same type of the cell above.

[ 2 marks ]

12. The diagram below shows the arrangement of apparatus of an experiment for the process of

electrolysis.


154


(a) Write down the observation that will occur at (i) anode

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) cathode

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Based on the answer of (a), explain how can this occur? (i) anode

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) cathode

[ 1 mark ]

(c) How can you identify the answer of (c) in this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is the intensity change for the color of the copper chloride solution while the experiment proceeds?

[ 1 mark ] 13. The diagram below shows a process which uses electric energy to split up lead bromide.


155


(a) What is the process shown in the diagram above?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) X and Y are two electrodes made of a certain material. (i) What is the material?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Which is the negative electrode?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) Why solid lead bromide cannot conduct electricity?

[ 1 mark]

(ii) What changes have to make on solid lead bromide in order to conduct electricity?

[ 1 mark]

(d) When the electricity is passed through, what are the ions that present in the molten lead bromide?

[ 2 marks ]

(e) (i) Electrode P will release a gas. What gas is that?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Determine the properties of the gas released.


156


[ 1 mark ]

(f) A product formed at electrode L is

[ 1 mark ]

14. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the reactivity of metals with oxygen.

(a) State the hypothesis about the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Based on the experiment, identify the (i) fixed variable:

[ 1 marks ]

(ii) responding variable:

[ 1 marks ]

(iii) manipulated variable:

[ 1 marks ]

(c) What is the function of potasium permanganate?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) (i) What is the observation if the metal P is Magnesium?


157


[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Explain the answer that you given in (d) (i).

[ 1 mark ]

(e) (i) What is the observation if the metal P is Copper?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Explain the answer that you given in (e)(i).

[ 1 mark ]

15. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of light on photographic paper.

(a) Draw the result of the photographic paper at the space below and labelled at the specific part.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Based on the experiment above, identify (i) fixed variable


158


[ 1 mark ]

(ii) responding variable

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) manipulating variable

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Explain the result that you observe in (a).

[ 2 marks ]

(d) Write an equation of the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

16 The diagram below shows a process that related with light and chemical reaction.

Based on the diagram above, answer the following question.


159


(a) What type of process can u describes based on the diagram above?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Based on the answer you given in (a), explain the meaning of process.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Name the two stages that will involve in the process above.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) Write an equation for the reaction above.

[ 1 mark ]

(e) Explain one of the stages based on your given answer in (c).

[ 2 marks ] CHAPTER 6 : NUCLEAR ENERGY 1. The diagram below shows two detectors, P and Q which are used to locate the position of

water leakage in an underground pipe by adding some radioactive substance R, to the water.


160


(a) Label parts P and Q in the diagram above. [2 marks]

(b) Name radioactive substance R.

[1 mark]

(c) Explain how can Q enable us to detect the position of the leakage in the underground

pipe?

[1 mark]

(d) Why radioactive substance emitting gamma radiation is not added to the water?

[1 mark] 2. The diagram below shows the deflection of the radiations when passed through an electric

field. Radioactive substance placed in container P emits radioactive radiation X, Y and Z.


161


(a) Name radioactive radiation X, Y and Z. (i) X:

(ii) Y: (iii) Z: [3 marks]

(b) (i) What will happen to radiation Y?

[1 mark]

(ii) Give one reason for your answer in (b)(i).

[1 mark]

(c) Radiation X is deflected more than radiation Z. Why?

[1 mark]

(d) Radioactive substance is kept inside container P.

(i) What is substance is used to made container P?

[1 mark]

(ii) Explain your answer in (d)(i).

[1 mark] 3. The equation below shows the process of nuclear reaction between hydrogen isotopes.


162


H2

1 + H3

1 n1

0 + X

(a) Name the process represented by the above equation.

[1 mark]

(b) What is X?

[1 mark]

(c) What is the production of the above process?

[1 mark]

(d) State a place where the above process is happening most of the time.

[1 mark]

4. The diagram below shows the decay of a nucleus.

(a) The above process shows the decay of the radioactive atom. Why?

[1 mark]

(b) List three types of radioactive radiations that are emitted during the process of radioactive decay. 1.

2. 3. [1 mark]

(c) Which radiation will be deflected, if the above radioactive are radiated through an

electric field?

[1 mark]


163


(d) Which radiation can go through it, if the above radioactive radiations are blocked by

a sheet if aluminium?

[1 mark]

(e) Name two characteristics of atom X and Y compared to the original radioactive atom. 1.

2. [1 mark]

5. The diagram below shows one use of radioactive radiation.

(a) (i) What type of radioactive radiation used in the diagram above?

[1 mark]

(ii) Name the characteristics of the above radioactive radiation.

[1 mark]

(iii) State the use of the radioactive radiation as shown in the diagram above?

[1 mark]

(b) (i) What is equipment P?

[1 mark]


164


(ii) State the function of equipment P.

[1 mark]

(c) Name the radioactive substance is used for detecting the effectiveness of fertilizers in the

field of agriculture.

[ 1 mark] 6. The diagram below shows the use of radioactive substance to check the thickness of

aluminium produced in an aluminums factory.

(a) What radioactive radiation is emitted by the radioactive substance?

[1 mark]

(b) If the reading of the counter is within the range of 500 to 600, the thickness of the aluminums will be accepted. State the inference can you make if the reading of the counter (i) is less than 500?

[1 mark]

(ii) is more than 600?

[1 mark]

(c) The radioactive substance stored in a lead container. Give one reason.

[1 mark]


165


(d) (i) The worker handling the radioactive substance is required to wear badge X for safety precaution. What is X?

[1 mark]

(ii) How do identify whether that a worker been exposed to radioactive radiation?

[1 mark] 7. The diagram below shows the use of radioactive substance to check the thickness of

aluminium produced in an aluminium factory.

(a) What radioactive radiation is emitted by the radioactive substance?

[1 mark]

(b) If the reading of the counter is within the range of 500 to 600, the thickness of the aluminium will be accepted. State the inference can you make if the reading of the counter (i) is less than 500?

[1 mark]

(ii) is more than 600?

[1 mark]

(c) The radioactive substance stored in a lead container. Give one reason.

[1 mark]


166


(d) (i) The worker handling the radioactive substance is required to wear badge X for safety precaution. What is X?

[1 mark]

(ii) How do identify whether that a worker been exposed to radioactive radiation?

[1 mark]


167


CHAPTER 7 : LIGHT, COLOUR AND SIGHT 1. The diagram below shows an object placed in front of a convex lens.

(a) Complete the above diagram to show how an image is produced. [1 mark]

(b) What are the characteristics of the image produced?

[1 mark]

(c) Name an instrument that uses the above diagram principle.

[1 mark]

(d) Draw a complete ray diagram to show how the image is produced, if the convex lens is

replaced with a concave lens of the same focal length,

[2 marks ] 2. The diagram below shows a convex lens and F is its focus point. An object X is placed

between F and 2F of the lens.


168


(a) Describe the focus point of a convex lens.

[1 mark]

(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image.

[2 marks ]

(c) What is the measurement size of the image?

[1 mark]

(d) If object X is moved slightly further away from the lens, what will happen to the size of the image?

[1 mark] 3. The diagram below shows a ray of white light projected onto a coloured screen through a

coloured filter.


169


(a) Complete the table below to show the colours that appear on the screen.

Filter colours

Screen colours

The colour of light that

appears on the screen

Green Blue

Blue Magenta Red Yellow

[3 marks ]

(b) Write down one inference that can be made from the above observation.

[2 marks ] 4. The diagram below shows the overlapping of lights from torches K, L and M on a white

manila card. Torches K, L and M will produce red, blue and green light respectively when switched on.

(a) What colour of the light that appears on spot P?

[1 mark]

(b) Name the light that is formed on spot P when any two of the lights from torches K, L and M are switched on.

[1 mark]

(c) (i) Which torches that need to switch on if spot P appear cyan?

[1 mark]

(ii) What is the complementary colour for cyan?


170


[1 mark]

(d) (i) What colour will spot P appear if only torch L is switched on and the white manila

card is replaced by a yellow manila card?

[1 mark]

(ii) Give a reason for your answer to d(i).

[1 mark] 5. The diagram below shows the structure of the eye.

(a) Name the parts labelled as P, Q and R in the above diagram. [3 marks ]

(b) What is the function of the part labelled as P?

[1 mark]

(c) Steven leaves a cinema hall after watching a movie film and the iris adjusts to the

situation when Steven steps out of the hall into the open bright daylight. Explain.

[1 mark]

(d) Make a comparison on how the eye and the camera focus on an object to produce a sharp image.

[2 marks]


171


CHAPTER 8 : CHEMICALS IN INDUSTRY 1. The below diagram X and Y show the structures of an alloy and a pure metal.

(a) Which diagram shows the structure of (i) a pure metal?

[1 mark]

(ii) an alloy?

[1 mark]

(b) Alloys are harder and stronger than pure metals. Explain.

[1 mark]

(c) (i) Name an alloy that can be formed from copper, antimony and tin.


172


[1 mark]

(ii) What are the compositions of the alloy?

[1 mark]

(iii) State two uses of the alloy.

[1 mark]

2. The diagram below shows an experiment carried out to compare the formation of rust by pure

iron and an alloy of iron.

(a) Predict the observation of both types of iron nails after three days.

[ 1 mark]

(b) Write down one inference can be made based on your answer in (a)?

[1 mark]

(c) State the variables of the experiment. (i) Manipulated variable:

[1 mark]


[1 mark]


173


(iii) Constant variable:

[1 mark]

(d) What inference can be made from the experiment?

[1 mark]

3. The diagram below shows an experiment carried out to compare the hardness of an alloy with

a pure metal.

The table below shows the result of the experiment obtained. Depth of dent (cm)

Block 1 2 3 Average Copper 1.6 1.4 1.5

Bronze 1.1 1.2 1.0

(a) Complete the above table. [2 marks ]

(b) State the relationship between the depth of dent and the hardness of the material tested.


174


[1 mark]

(c) Based on the experiment results, which block is harder?

[1 mark]

(d) State the composition of bronze.

[1 mark]

(e) Draw pattern formed by the constituent atoms for copper and bronze.

Copper Bronze

[1 mark] 4. The diagram below shows the pollution of a certain area.


175


(a) Based on the above diagram, what is the main gas pollution?

[1 mark]

(b) State the effect if the gas is excess.

[1 mark]

(c) Describe the greenhouse effect.

[1 mark]

(d) Suggest one way to reduce the pollution of the area in the above diagram.

[1 mark]

CHAPTER 9 : MICROORGANISMS AND THEIR EFFECTS ON LIVING THINGS 1. The table shows results from the experiment to study the effects of pH level on bacterial

growth.

pH value Size of the bacteria colony after 24 hours

(mm) 2 3 4 5 7 8 10 14

0 1

1.5 4 15 12 4 0

(a) State one hypothesis based on the observation from the table above.

[ 1 mark ]


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(b) Draw a graph to illustrate the relationship between the size of the bacteria colony and the pH value based on the table above.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Based on the graph from part (b) state the optimum pH value for bacterial growth.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Predict the size of the bacteria colony at pH value 6.

[ 1 mark ]

2. The diagram below shows an experiment carried out to study the effect of penicillin on

bacterial growth.


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Three penicillin discs X1, X2, and X3, with different concentrations are placed on the

nutrient agar surface. The petri dish is incubated upside down at C37 . After two days, a clear area is formed around each disc. The diameter of the clear area is measured and recorded in the table below: Penicillin disc X1 X2 X3 Diameter of the clear area/cm

1.5 2.4 2.0

(a) Based on the table above, state the disc that has the highest concentration of penicillin.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the hypothesis of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the method to fix the controlled variable in this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Penicillin is an antibiotic. Based on this experiment, give the operational definition of antibiotic.

[ 1 mark ] 3. The table below shows the results of an experiment to study the effects of temperature on

bacterial growth.


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Temperature/C

Size of bacteria colony after 24 hours/mm

0 2 15 5 25 10 35 15 60 3

(a) What is the hypothesis that can be stated from the table above?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) (i) Illustrate a graph to show the relationship between the size of bacterial colony and

temperature for the table above.

(ii) What is the optimum temperature for bacterial growth?

(ii) What is the size of the bacterial colony that can be predicted at C80 ?

[ 4 marks ]

4. The graph below shows the change in the amount of antibodies in the body of a person

injected with a vaccine twice.


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(a) State the definition of vaccine.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State a disease that can be prevented through vaccination.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the process that happens in the body after vaccination.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) Why is it necessary for the person to be vaccinated twice?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) Name the type of immunity obtained from the graph above.

[ 1 mark ] 5. The table below shows an immunization programme of an infant.


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Age Immunization After birth BCG

Hepatitis B (first dose) 1 month Hepatitis B (second dose) 3 months Poliomyelitis (first dose)

Triple Antigen (first dose) 4 months Poliomyelitis (second dose)

Triple Antigen (second dose) 5 months Poliomyelitis (third dose)

Triple Antigen (third dose) Hepatitis B (third dose)

9 months Measles 18 months Triple Antigen (booster)

(a) What is immunization?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What type of immunity is obtained from the immunization programme shown in the

table above?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) How many times of injection the immunization for Hepatitis B is given?

(ii) Why is it necessary for the immunization in 2(c)(i) be given more than once?

[ 2 marks ]

(d) Which of the immunization in the table above is given to prevent the infection of TB?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) State the diseases that can be prevented through the Triple Antigen immunization.

[ 1 mark ]

(f) Why are there more than one immunization given to the infant?

[ 1 mark ]

6. The diagram below shows part of nitrogen cycle.


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(a) Complete the nitrogen cycle by stating the substances labelled P, Q, and R in the diagram.

[ 3 marks ]

(b) In what form the nitrate must take to be absorbed by the plants?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the processes W and X.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) What bacteria are involved in the processes labelled Y and Z?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) The microorganism that carries out process X is found in certain plants. State the part of the plant that contains this microorganism.

[ 1 mark ]

(f) What is an example of a chemical fertilizer that is used by farmers to increase the nitrate content of soil?

[ 1 mark ] 7. The diagram below shows four different microorganisms.


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(a) Name the category of the microorganisms by completing the table below. Microorganisms Categories

W X Y Z

[ 4 marks ]

(b) What microorganism can cause diseases? State the diseases.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What are the two differences between W and X?

[ 2 marks ]

(d) Name the microorganism that can produce its own food. Why?

[ 2 marks ]


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8. The diagram below shows the apparatus used in the study of the effect of antibiotics on bacterial growth.

Three penicillin discs P, Q, and R of different concentrations and a tetracycline disc S were placed on the surface of the nutrient agar containing bacteria culture. The petri dish was

kept at a temperature of C37 . After five days, a clear area was observed around each disc and the diameter of each area was measured and recorded as shown in the table below. Discs P Q R S Diameter of clear area (cm)

1.6 2.5 2.0 0.8

(a) Which disc has the highest concentration of penicillin?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Which antibiotic is more effective in preventing bacteria growth?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What microorganism is used to produce penicillin?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Name the fixed variable in this experiment and how to make it constant.

[ 2 marks ]

(e) State the effect of antibiotics on bacterial activity.

[ 1 mark ]

(f) What is the percaution that should be taken when carrying out this experiment?


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[ 1 mark ]

9. The diagram below shows the activity of decomposing bacteria at different temperatures in

food P.

(a) What is the range of temperature where bacteria grow and reproduce fast in food P.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State a range of temperature that is suitable to keep food P for long and in good condition.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) The temperature in most refrigerators is C4 .Why is meat unsuitable to be kept at this temperature for more than 5 days?

[1 mark ]

(d) In what way bacteria reproduce at a temperature of:

(i) C20

(ii) C35

[2 marks ]

(e) Calculate the number of bacteria produced from one bacterium after 5 hours, if the

bacterium reproduces every 30 minutes.

[2 marks ]


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10. The diagram below show the life cycle of a mosquito.

(a) In the life cycle of a mosquito, what is stage P?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name the place that a female mosquito lays her eggs.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Define the term vector.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) In what way mosquitoes can be controlled at (i) the adult stage and

(ii) at stage P? State one way for each stage.

[ 2 marks ]

(e) What is the microorganism carried by mosquitoes and the disease it causes?

[ 2 marks ]


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(f) Elaborate the way this disease is spread.

[ 2 marks ] CHAPTER 10 : NUTRITION AND FOOD PRODUCTION 1. The graph below shows the average consumption of calories by people from countries P and Q.

(a) Which country's population would have lower risk of suffering from arteriosclerosis? Why?

[ 2 marks ]

(b) State two classes of food that are supplied by cereals.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What is the consumption of sugar (g) by the population from country Q? (Calorific value of carbohydrates: 16.7 kJ)

[ 2 marks ]

(d) What are the reasons that the population from country Q is more likely to suffer from dental caries?

[ 2 marks ]


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2 The table below shows the energy content of five common types of daily food. The columns P.

Q, R, and S show the percentage of four classes of food in each type of food.

Foods

Energy

(kJ/100 g)

P (%)

Q (%)

R (%)

S (%)

Beef 1 400 23.0 55.0 - 20.0 Butte

r 3 200 0.6 17.0 - 83.0

Milk 290 3.1 90.0 4.7 3.5 Potatoes

370 2.0 82.0 16.0 -

Tuna 700 18.0 70.0 - 12.0

(a) What is the food that has

(i) the lowest energy content?

(ii) the highest energy content?

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Study the table above carefully and identify the letters that represents fats and carbohydrates. Provide a reason for each choice. Fats - Reason:

Carbohydrates -

Reason:

[ 4 marks ]

(c) State the two types of food that is suitable for an adult doing heavy work.

[ 2 marks ]


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3. The diagram below shows the instrument used to measure the energy content in food.

(a) State the name of this instrument.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Label the place where food is placed inside the instrument with the letter 'F'.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the gas that passes through tube P and its purpose?

[ 2 marks ]

(d) State the changes of the water inside the instrument.

[ 1 mark ]


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4. The diagram below shows apparatus used in the experiment to study the nutrients required for

plant growth.

(a) State the following: (i) Manipulated variables

(ii) Responding variables

(iii) Fixed variables

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Why do the boiling tubes need to be aerated every day?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State two observations that can be noted on boiling tube Y after 5 days.

[ 2 marks ]


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(d) Why is boiling tube Z prepared?

[ 1 mark ] 5. The diagram below shows a simple apparatus used in the laboratory to calculate the calorific

value of food.

(a) What is the definition of the term 'calorific value of food'?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What are the fixed and responding variables for the calorific values of different types of food using the same appartus?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Calculate the calorific value of groundnuts if the mass of groundnuts used is 10 g, mass

of water used is 10 g, and temperature at the beginning of the experiment is C30 at the

end of experiment is C85 .

[ 2 marks ]


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6. Table 1 below shows the types of food consumed by a student for breakfast. Table 2 that

follows shows the calorific values for three different types of food groups.

Table 1 Types of

food Quantity (g) Quantity of food groups (g)

1 glass of milk

100 g 29.0 g protein 41.2 g carbohydrates

29.8 g fat 2 pieces of

bread 200 g 200 g carbohydrates

1 tablespoon of jam

30 g 30 g carbohydrates

Table 2

Food group Calorific value (kcal) 1 gramme carbohydrates 4

1 gramme fat 9 1 gramme protein 4

(a) Based on the table above, calculate the total calorific value of the food consumed by the

student.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Is the food eaten for breakfast a balance diet? Give reasons for your answer.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What diseases are caused a diet lacked in (i) protein?

(ii) vitamin A?

[ 2 marks ]


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(d) What happens when an individual consumes an excessive amount of carbohydrates over a long period of time? Give reasons for your explanation.

[ 2 marks ] 7. The information below is a report from an agriculture officer after his investigation regarding

complaints from a group of dairy farmers.

There is an increase in the number of a certain type of insect which feeds on clover plants in the fields.

The decrease in clover plants resulted in a drop in milk production and subsequently loss of weight among cows.

Alternative methods using chemical substances can be carried out to increase the fertility of soil.

(a) State the cycle involved from the information above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the importance of the clover plants.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What is the compound that is present in the body of the cows?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Name the compound that is lacking in the fields.

[ 1 mark ]

(e) Name an example of the chemical substance suggested by the officer.

[ 1 mark ]

8. The table below shows the calorific values of a few types of food.


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Types of food Calorific value (kJ/100 g)

White bread 1 134 Tea with milk 50 Fried potatoes 2 390 Fried chicken 1 630 Butter cake 3 000

(a) Based on the table shown above, calculate the total calories consumed by a student according to the amount of food consumed by completing the table below.

Types of food

Quantity consumed (g)

Calculation of calorific values (kJ)

White bread

150

Tea with milk

100

Fried potatoes

75

Fried chicken

150

Butter cake 120 Total

[ 5 marks ]

(b) Name the type of food that gives the most amount of energy.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Identify if the student is consuming a balaced diet. Give explanation for your answer.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) A nutritionist suggested that the student should include vegetables and fruits in his diet. What are the two classes of food that is found in vegetables and fruits.

[ 2 marks ]

(e) If the student continues to consume this type of food for 15 years, what are the two types of diseases he is most likely to suffer from.


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[ 2 marks ]

CHAPTER 11 : PRESERVATION AND CONVERSION OF THE ENVIRONMENT 1. The diagram below shows a habitat in the ecosystem of a pond.

(a) Complete the diagram above using the words provided below: Producer Primary consumer Secondary consumer

[ 3 marks ]

(b) State the role played by the organisms labelled (ii).

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Illustrate a food chain found in the pond shown above.


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[ 2 marks ]

(d) Describe what happens when water rich in minerals flows into the pond.

[ 2 marks ]

2. The diagram below shows layer X in the stratosphere.

(a) What is layer X?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the distance of Z from the Earth's surface?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) Name the chemical substance that causes layer X to become thinner?

(ii) Identify one item that used daily by humans that contains this ubstance.


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[ 2 marks ]

(d) (i) Name the space that is marked Y.

(ii) Name the ray from the sun that can pass through layer X.

[ 2 marks ]

(e) List two effects on humans when layer X becomes thinner.

[ 2 marks ]

3. The diagrams below show three daily activities carried out by humans.

(a) What are the three activities shown in the diagrams above?

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Name the type of pollution that is caused by activities shown in (i) and (ii).

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Name two gases released by the activity done in (i) and state their effects on aquatic organisms.

[ 3 marks ]


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(d) State a reason for carrying out activity (iii).

[ 1 mark ] 4. The diagram below shows apparatus used to study the interaction between organisms.

(a) (i) Which airtight jar containing the grasshopper would die first?

(ii) Explain your answer in (a)(i).

[ 2 marks ]

(b) State one precaution that should be taken into consideration when conducting this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]


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(c) What is the role of the plant in airtight jar Q to maintain a balanced ecosystem?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) (i) Would the same results be obtained if this experiment is conducted in a dark room?

(ii) Explain your answer in part (d)(i).

[ 2 marks ]

5. The diagram below shows part of an industrial area.

(a) What are the five sources of pollution shown in the diagram above?

[ 5 marks ]


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(b) List the three pollutants that are released from the chemical factory.

[ 3 marks ]

(c) How are the pollutants harmful to humans and plants?

[ 2 marks ] 6. The diagram below shows that the balance in nature can be maintained by various natural

cycle.

(a) Name the cycle shown in the diagram above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What are the processes labeled P, Q, and R?

[ 3 marks ]


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(c) Why is this natural cycle important to living organisms?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is the simplest carbon compound that is released from the factory?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) State the effects on the environment when there is no control of process R.

[ 2 marks ]

7. The diagram below illustrates a nitrogen cycle.

(a) Name the substances labeled X and Y.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) What is process Q that changes plant protein to substance X?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) What type of bacteria is P?


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(ii) Explain the role of bacteria P.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) State two natural processes that can increase the level of nitrates in the soil.

[ 1 mark ]

(e) State one human activity that causes nitrogen levels in the soil to decrease.

[ 1 mark ]

(f) A farmer uses urea to fertilize his farm excessively. What is the effect of this activity on

the balance of nature?

[ 1 mark ] 8. The table below shows the number of patients suffering from three types of diseases in area P

in 1990 and 1993. During this period, the number of people living in this area doubled.

Types of disease

Number of patients (1990)

Number of patients (1993)

Bronchitis 30 100 Asthma 15 70 Cholera 10 40

(a) (i) What are two human activities that might cause the migration of people to this area?

(ii) Give a harmful effect for each of this activity.

(iii) State one method each to overcome the problems stated in part (a)(ii).

[ 6 marks ]

(b) What are the two pollutants found in the air in area P?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What is the type of pollution and its source that causes a rise in cholera cases in area P?


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[ 2 marks ] CHAPTER 12 : CARBON COMPOUNDS 1. The diagram below shows the interchangibility between polymers and monomers.

(a) What are two examples of natural polymers and identify the monomer that forms them?

[ 2 marks ]

(b) What are processes X and Y shown in the diagram above?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State a word equation for an example of process X.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Synthetic rubber is a useful synthetic polymer. (i) What is the property of synthetic rubber that makes it suitable for use as oil tank liners or oil hoses?

(ii) What synthetic rubber that is similar to natural rubber and can be vulcanized?

[ 2 marks ]


203


2. The diagram below shows the process involved in the production of vulcanized rubber and latex

paste.

(a) What is substance W that is added to latex to speed up the process of coagulation?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) If substance W is not added to latex, the latex still coagulates after one day. Explain your observation.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Name substance Y that is added to latex to prevent the coagulation process so that the latex can be concentrated into latex paste.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is substance X that is used in the production of vulcanized rubber?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) Name one product Z that is made from vulcanized rubber. What are two characteristics of vulcanized rubber that is suitable for producing product Z?

[ 2 marks ]


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3. The diagram below shows the apparatus used to prepare alcohol in the laboratory.

(a) Name substance P that is added to the glucose solution.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the enzyme that is produced by P? State its function in the fermentation process.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State the type of alcohol that is produced.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) In what way alcohol is separated from the fermentation mixture?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) What are the two characteristics that the flame produced if alcohol is burned?

[ 2 marks ]


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4. The diagram below shows the apparatus used in the laboratory during the preparation of soap.

(a) What vegetable oil and alkali that can be used in the preparation of soap?

[ 2 marks ]

(b) State the role of concentrated alkali in the process of producing soap.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What is the purpose of adding common salt to the mixture in this process?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) In what way can we test the filtrate collected is soap?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) Illustrate a structure of the soap molecule and identify the part that is soluble in: (i) water

(ii) grease

[ 2 marks ]


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5. The diagram below shows a laboratory process of extracting a type of oil.

(a) What is step P?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the function of step P.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) In the large scale preparation of the oil, identify the step after the filtration step.

[ 1 marks ]

(d) (i) What is filtrate L?

(ii) Name the vitamins that are found in L.

[ 3 marks ]

(e) The diagram below shows the structure of an oil palm fruit.

(i) Identify the three parts of the fruit in the diagram above.

[ 3 marks ] (ii) What part of the fruit produces a lot of liquid L?


207


[ 1 mark ]

CHAPTER 13 : MOTION 1. The diagram below shows a load, WN placed on the piston of syringe P. Load FN is placed on

the piston of syringe Q to balance the motion. The value of load F is recorded and the cross-sectional area of syringe Q is measured. The experiment is repeated by using syringe Q with different cross-sectional areas.

The table below shows the data obtained from the experiment. Cross-sectional area of syringe Q/m2

0.02 0.04 0.06 0.08 0.10

Load F/N 11 23 32 44 55

(a) State the characteristic of liquid X that enables it to be used in the experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the fixed variable in this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) Draw a graph of load F against the cross-sectional area of syringe Q based on the table

shown above.


208


(ii) Determine the pressure transmitted through the liquid from the graph in part (c)(i).

[ 3 marks ]

2. The diagram P below shows an experiment to study the effect of force produced by a wooden block when it is dropped from different heights where identical wooden blocks X, Y, and Z are dropped onto the rods placed on the surface of the plasticine. The diagram Q below shows the depth of the rods entering the plasticine caused by wooden blocks X, Y, and Z.

(a) State the fixed variable in this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) In what way force is measured in this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Based on the observation in the experiment, give one inference that can be derived from this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Identify the wooden block that will produce the largest momentum just before colliding with the plasticine.

[ 1 mark ]

(e) State a device that operates using this same principle.

[ 1 mark ]


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3. The diagram below shows a ticker tape that has been obtained from the movement of a trolley

on a tilted platform. The trolley took 6 seconds to go from the top of the platform to the bottom.

The table below shows data about the ticker tape above.

Section of the ticker tape

1 2 3 4

Length of section/cm

2.0

_____

4.0

5.0

(a) Determine the length of Section 2 of the ticker tape and record it in the table above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Draw a bar chart based on the table above.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Based on the graph in part (b), identify the type of movement made by the trolley.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Section 5 of the ticker tape follows section 4 also represents a 1 second interval. State


210


your prediction for the length of Section 5 in cm, based on the diagram above.

[ 1 marks ] 4. The diagram below shows the arrangement of an apparatus to study the motion of a trolley

down a runway.

The ticker timer is connected to a 50 Hz alternating current power pack. The diagram below

shows the ticker tape obtained from the experiment.

(a) A student observed the dots made on the ticker tape. He made a conclusion that the trolley moved at uniform velocity. State a reason for his conclusion.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) The ticker tape shows 5 ticks when the trolley moved from X to Y. (i) State the definition of 'tick'.

(ii) What is the uniform velocity of the trolley?

[ 3 marks ]

(c) The trolley moves down the runway with uniform acceleration. Mark the dots shown on

the ticker tape in the diagram below.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) The tape chart below shows the motion of a trolley down a runway. What is the motion of

the trolley?


211


[ 1 mark ]

5. The diagram below shows a ship floating in water that sails without sinking.

(a) (i) What is the upward force that acts on the ship?

(ii) What is the principle that describes the action of the upward force?

[ 2 marks ]

The diagram below shows the level of the ship in fresh water.

(b) (i) On the diagram above, indicate the level of the ship if it sails in sea water. (ii) State your reason for your answer in part (b)(i).

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State why a ship can float in the sea.

[ 1 mark ]


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(d) The body of a ship is marked with horizontal lines to indicate the maximum permissible load in a ship when it sails in different regions and seasons. Give the name of this horizontal line.

[ 1 mark ] 6. The diagram below shows an object placed on top of a car that travels at uniform velocity.

(a) The driver pressed the break pedal when a man was crossing the road. (i) What is the effect on the object on top of the car?

(ii) State a reason for the answer given in part (a)(i).

[ 2 marks ]

(b) What are the two safety features that can be used in a car to reduce the negative effects of

inertia during an accident?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) The shape of a car is designed to reduce air resistance. In what way a car is shaped?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) A car does not use spark plugs. State the type of engine used in this car.

[ 1 mark ]

7. The diagram below shows a steady flow of water through a tube.


213


(a) Indicate the level of water in tubes P, Q, and R in the diagram above.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Make a comparison of the pressure of water on points X and Z.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) State the reason for the water to rise in tubes A, B, and C.

[ 1 mark ] (ii) Indicate the level of water in tubes A, B, and C.

[ 2 marks ]

8. The diagram below shows a stroke of a four stroke diesel engine.


214


(a) (i) State the stroke in the diagram above.

(ii) How the air is affected inside the cylinder?

[ 2 marks ]

(b) (i) State P.

(ii) The structure of a four stroke petrol engine is similar to that of a four stroke diesel

engine expect that it contains Q instead of P. Name Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State the number of revolutions that is made by the crankshaft in a complete stroke cycle.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Why does the car engine normally consists of four cylinders?

[ 1 mark ]


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CHAPTER 14 : FOOD TECHNOLOGY AND PRODUCTION 1. The table below shows three types of processed food.

Types of food Chicken meat Groundnuts Potatoes

Name of food X Y Z

Method of food processing

(a) What is the method of food processing for foods X, Y, and Z?

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Describe the method of processing food X.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the difference between the methods used in processing foods Y and Z.

2. Complete the table below:

Chemical used in food processing

Examples Used in Functions

Boric acid Prevents food from spoiling Flavouring Soups

and sauces

Palm sugar Cakes Emulsifier Ice

cream

Tocopherol (vitamin E)

Butter and

biscuits

[ 5 marks ]


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3. The diagram below shows the food label for Tijace tomato sauce.

(a) State the two information that should be on this food label to fulfil all the conditions of the Food Regulations 1985.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) State the action that can be taken by consumers if the information on a food label is not

complete.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What are the chemicals present in Tijace tomato sauce?

[ 2 marks ]

(d) State the functions of the chemicals listed in part (c).

[ 2 marks ] 4. The table below shows types of food that is processed using a particular method of food

processing.

Types of food Method of food processing

Beef W Cabbage X

Anchovies Y Fresh cow's milk Z


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(a) What is the purpose of food processing?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What method of food processing is used for W, X, Y, and Z?

[ 4 marks ]

(c) State the method of food processing used in W.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Name one benefit of the method of food processing used in X.

[ 1 mark ]

(e) (i) How is the method of food processing done in Z?

[ 1 mark ] (ii) What is the benefit of method Z?

[ 1 mark ]

5. The diagram below shows four ways of increasing the quality and quantity of food

production.

(a) Modern technology such as genetic engineering increases the quality of food produce. In


218


what way is genetic engineering carried out?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) List three characteristics of quality breeds.

[ 3 marks ]

(c) (i) What are two government agencies that are involved in agricultural research?

(ii) Give an example of crops produced by these agencies.

[ 4 marks ]

(d) What type of education and guidance can the Ministry of Agriculture provide for

farmers?

[ 1 mark ] 6. The diagram below shows a bread wrapper with incomplete information

(a) Based on the Food Act 1983 and Food Regulations 1985, list all of the missing information from the food label shown above.

[ 3 marks ]

(b) (i) What is the most important data needed in part (a) when buying this bread?


219


[ 1 mark ] (ii) Give one reason for your answer in part (b)(i).

[ 1 mark ]

(c) If this bread is consumed in excess for 2 years, state the effect of it on consumer's health.

[ 1 mark ]


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CHAPTER 15 : SYNTHETIC MATERIALS IN INDUSTRY 1. Complete the table below:

Names of

plastic Types of plastic

Monomers One use of plastic

Perspex Methyl metacrylate

Thermosetts Making glue and electric insulator Polypropene Thermoplastic

Styrene Making food packaging containers

[ 8 marks ]

2. The diagram below shows a flow chart for synthetic polymers.

(a) What are synthetic polymers P, Q, and R?

[ 3 marks ]

(b) What is the monomer for polymers P, Q, and R?

[ 3 marks ]

(c) Give one use for polymers P, Q, and R.

[ 3 marks ]


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CHAPTER 16 : ELECTRONICS AND INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOHY (ICT) 1. The diagram below shows part of the set-up of an experiment to study the relationship

between the wavelength and frequency of radio waves. Radio waves produced by an oscillator circuit is connected to an oscilloscope.

The diagram below illustrates the wavelength of the radio wave on the screen of the oscilloscope when its frequency is 1.5 x 108 Hz.

(a) In what way are the radio waves produced by the circuit shown in diagram P?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the length of the radio wave shown in diagram Q.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) The experiment is repeated by varying the variable capacitor. The table below shows the results of this experiment.


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Frequency / x 107 Hz

30.0 10.0 7.5 6.0 5.0

Wavelength / m

1 3 4 5 6

(i) What is the responding variable in this experiment?

[ 1 mark ] (ii) Illustrate the graph of the wave length against frequency based on the table above.

[ 2 marks ]

2. The diagram below shows the block diagram for a radio transmission system.

(a) (i) What is P?

(ii) What is the wave that is produced by P?

[ 2 marks ]

(b) The radio transmits amplitude modulated frequency waves. Illustrate the wave that is

transmitted by the aerial.


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[ 2 marks ]

(c) The modulated frequency wave is amplified by an amplifier. What is an essential electronic component in the amplifier?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is the difference between the waves transmitted through the aerial in comparison to the waves that enter the microphone?

[ 1 mark ] 3. The diagram below shows a simple radio receiver circuit used to receive frequency modulated

radio broadcasting.

(a) Illustrate the waves received by the aerial.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) (i) State the function of diode.


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[ 1 mark ] (ii) In what way the waves changes when passed through the capacitor?

[ 1 mark ] (iii) Illustrate the waves that pass through X.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) An electronic component is connected to box Y. [ 1 mark ] (i) Illustrate the symbol for the electronic component in box Y.

[ 1 mark ] (ii) What is the function of the electronic component in box Y?

[ 1 mark ]

4. The diagram below shows two earth satellite stations and a communication satellite.

(a) State the function of the communication satellite.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) (i) What type of electromagnetic wave that is transmitted from the earth satellite station?


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[ 1 mark ] (ii) State a reason for your answer in part (b)(i).

[ 1 mark ]

(c) The communication satellite is called a geostationary satellite.

(i) What is the reason that a communication satellite is called geostationary satellite?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) What is the minimum number of satellites to enable communication around the world?

[ 1 mark ] (iii) Illustrate the arrangement of satellites that allows communication around the world.

[ 1 mark ] 5. The diagram below show the location of X in an electromagnetic spectrum.

X Infrared ray Visible ray Ultraviolet ray

X-ray Gamma ray

(a) What component of the electromagnetic spectrum has the longest wavelength?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) (i) What is X?

(ii) Calculate the wavelength when the frequency of X is 1.5 x 109 Hz. (The velocity of

the electromagnetic wave is 3 x 108 ms-1)

[ 3 marks ]

(c) X is used in a radio transmission system. (i) State the name of X in the radio transmission system.


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(ii) Audio signals are combined with X and Y before they are transmitted. Name Y.

[ 2 marks ]


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SCHEME CHAPTER 1 1 B 2 C 3 C 4 A 5 D 6 D 7 D 8 D 9 A 10 B 11 B 12 B 13 C 14 C 15 C 16 B 17 B 18 C 19 B 20 B 21 D 22 B 23 A 24 B 25 B 26 B 27 D 28 C 29 30 CHAPTER 2 1 C 2 B 3 A 4 D 5 A 6 A 7 C 8 D 9 C 10 C 11 B 12 C 13 A 14 B 15 C 16 D 17 A 18 D 19 B 20 D 21 B 22 A 23 A 24 D 25 B 26 D 27 B 28 B 29 D 30 D CHAPTER 3 1 D 2 D 3 B 4 A 5 B 6 D 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 D 11 D 12 B 13 C 14 D 15 C 16 D 17 B 18 C 19 B 20 A 21 D 22 D 23 A 24 B 25 D 26 D 27 D 28 C 29 A 30 D CHAPTER 4 1 A 2 A 3 A 4 D 5 C 6 D 7 C 8 C 9 D 10 A 11 B 12 D 13 B 14 C 15 C 16 D 17 D 18 A 19 C 20 D 21 A 22 C 23 B 24 C 25 B 26 D 27 A 28 C 29 D 30 C CHAPTER 5 1 C 2 B 3 C 4 C 5 B 6 A 7 C 8 D 9 C 10 A 11 D 12 A 13 B 14 B 15 C 16 B 17 B 18 D 19 C 20 C 21 D 22 A 23 C 24 C 25 B 26 D 27 D 28 B 29 A 30 C CHAPTER 6 1 C 2 C 3 D 4 D 5 A 6 A 7 B 8 D 9 A 10 B 11 D 12 A 13 C 14 D 15 B 16 D 17 C 18 B 19 C 20 B 21 D 22 C 23 D 24 D 25 B 26 A 27 B 28 D 29 B 30 CHAPTER 7 1 B 2 D 3 B 4 C 5 B 6 A 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 C 11 D 12 D 13 B 14 A 15 B 16 D 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 C 21 D 22 C 23 C 24 D 25 D 26 C 27 D 28 D 29 B 30 C CHAPTER 8 1 D 2 D 3 C 4 B 5 B 6 D 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 C 11 B 12 C 13 C 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

CHAPTER 9 1 B 2 C 3 B 4 C 5 C 6 C 7 D 8 C 9 A 10 C


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11 D 12 C 13 C 14 D 15 C 16 D 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 A 21 C 22 D 23 C 24 D 25 C 26 B 27 D 28 D 29 B 30 D CHAPTER 10 1 C 2 D 3 B 4 B 5 A 6 D 7 C 8 A 9 B 10 B 11 D 12 C 13 B 14 B 15 D 16 B 17 D 18 C 19 A 20 D 21 D 22 B 23 D 24 C 25 D 26 C 27 A 28 A 29 D 30 C CHAPTER 11 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 B 5 D 6 D 7 C 8 B 9 D 10 B 11 D 12 C 13 B 14 D 15 B 16 C 17 B 18 D 19 B 20 C 21 C 22 B 23 D 24 D 25 26 27 28 29 30 CHAPTER 12 1 B 2 A 3 C 4 C 5 D 6 D 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 C 11 D 12 B 13 D 14 B 15 A 16 B 17 D 18 C 19 C 20 D 21 C 22 B 23 A 24 A 25 A 26 C 27 D 28 C 29 B 30 C CHAPTER 13 1 B 2 D 3 B 4 D 5 A 6 A 7 A 8 D 9 C 10 A 11 D 12 A 13 A 14 D 15 B 16 B 17 C 18 A 19 C 20 D 21 D 22 D 23 C 24 B 25 A 26 D 27 B 28 D 29 D 30 B CHAPTER 14 1 C 2 D 3 B 4 B 5 B 6 D 7 C 8 D 9 B 10 B 11 D 12 B 13 C 14 B 15 D 16 B 17 C 18 C 19 B 20 D 21 C 22 D 23 D 24 D 25 A 26 D 27 D 28 D 29 C 30 C CHAPTER 15 1 B 2 B 3 D 4 D 5 A 6 A 7 D 8 D 9 C 10 C 11 C 12 C 13 C 14 D 15 B 16 B 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 C 21 C 22 C 23 B 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 CHAPTER 16 1 B 2 C 3 B 4 B 5 C 6 D 7 D 8 C 9 C 10 C 11 A 12 A 13 D 14 C 15 D 16 D 17 A 18 C 19 A 20 D 21 B 22 D 23 D 24 D 25 B 26 B 27 B 28 C 29 A 30 B

SCHEME PAPER 2


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CHAPTER 1 : SCIENTIFIC INVESTIGATION 1.

a) -3C b) The added of the salt will affect the freezing point of the pure water c) The freezing point of water that added salt is -3C d) (i) Quantity of the salt added

(ii) Freezing point of the pure water 2.

a) (i) 25.0 = 0.25 gcm-3

(ii)36 = 2.0 g cm-3

b) The cork float on the liquid / the iron sink in the liquid c) An object which is less denser than a liquid will float on the surface liquid

3.

a) The seeds will sprout if have oxygen, water and the suitable temperature b) (i) type and size of the seeds used

(ii) Sprout of the seeds (iii) Different factor given (presence or absence water oxygen and temperature.

c) (i) the seeds in test tube B will not sprout (ii) Because the layer of oil isolation the seeds with the oxygen

4.

a) Build a histogram b) 32 c) 50-54

d) %5.371003212

x

5.

a) 9.90s, 15.65s, 19.50s b) The shorter the length of pendulum, the more time used for 10 oscillation c) (i) The angle of the oscillation

(ii)The time used for 10 oscillations (iii)The length of pendulum

6. a) The temperature increase based on the increase in the time b) The temperature increase if the amount of heater supply increase c) The mass or volume of water. d) The temperature of every 3 minutes will decrease


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7. a) The extension of the weight load increase will cause the extension of the spring

increase b) (i) Extension of spring

(ii)weight of load c) (i) a graph weight vs extension

(ii) There are positive or direct relationship between the weight of load and the extension of spring

8.

a) (i) 3.8 cm3 (ii) 4.8 cm3

b) 200 drops = 1cm3 1 drop = 0.005cm3

c) 5 x 10-5 or 0.00005 9.

a) 50 cm3 b) 8cm3 c) 6.25gcm-3 d) The cork will float on the water because the water with a density of 4.0

10.

a) 102C b) The added of the salt will affect the boiling point of the pure water c) (i) Boiling point of the pure water

(ii) Quantity of salt added 11.

a) There are a negative relationship between the pressure of gas and the volume of gas. The higher the pressure of gas the lower the volume of gas

b) (i) Amount of gas (ii)volume of gas (iii)pressure of gas

12.

a) Time used to dissolves the sugar depend on the temperature of the water b) The higher temperature of water, the less time is used to dissolves the sugar c) (i) volume of water and amount of sugar

(ii)temperature of water (iii)time is used to dissolves

13.

a) (i) identifying the variables (ii) planning the investigation (iii) collecting data

b) Avoid misconception and misinterpretations, think critically and creatively c) Being fair and just, being objective


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14.

a) (i) volume of water, the size of the test tube (ii)number of lead shots (iii)the depth of test tube sink in water

b) To study how the depth of water in which the test tubes sink in the water is depends on the number of lead shots

c) The more of number of lead shots the depther the test tube will sink in the water. 15.

a) Planning this investigation – is a scientific process used to examine the effect of changing one variable on another variables

b) Control variables, determine the procedure c) The aim of the experiment, operational definition.

CHAPTER 2 : BODY COORDINATION 1.

a) Reaction time number of student in group 10 - 49 2 50 - 99 3 100 - 149 4 150 - 199 1

b) Histogram number of student vs reaction time c) Proprioceptors d) Coordinate the movement and maintain balance

2.

a) Two neurons b) Motor neuron, sensory neuron c) Receptor - sensory neuron - motor neuron - effector d) The leg is straighted automatically

3.

a) motor neuron b) transmits impulses from the central nervous system to effectors c) myelin sheath d) speeds up the transmission of impulses, and a fatty structure which protects axon.

4.

a) Reaction sensory organ involved Feel cold skin Sharp smell of sour nose Sweet taste tongue Movie is see eyes


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Music is hear ears

b) Stimuli – receptors – central nervous system – effectors – responses 5.

a) Plays role in controlling movement, maintaining balance and keeping posture. b) Cerebellum c) Voluntary action is an action which is controlled under conscious control. Example of

voluntary action is writing d) Injuries to cerebrum can cause a loss os memory and senses.

6.

a) P : medulla oblongata Q : cerebellum R : cerebrum b) Controls voluntary actions, reasoning, learning, memory and intelligence c) Heartbeat, peristalsis

7.

a) Motor neuron, relay neuron, sensory neuron b) Synapse c) To allow the impulse to flow in one direction only

8.

a) Endocrine glands are ductless glands which secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream

b) Thyroid gland and pancreas c) P : stimulate many other endocrine glands and stimulates growth

Q : conversion of glucose into glycogen 9.

a) Proprioceptor b) Coordinates the movement and maintain balance c) Muscles, tendons, ligaments

10.

a) X : spinal cord Y : spinal nerves b) Central nervous system : control of the nervous system

Peripheral nervous system : consist of nerves that enter and leave the brain and spinal cord

c) Coordinates the body activities by sending message in the form of impulse in response to stimuli

11.

a) X : dendrite Y : spinal nerves b) Name the neuron that shows at the diagram c) Diagram of impulse from left to right

12.

a) Cerebrum b) P : thought and reasoning Q : movement of limbs


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R : sight S : hearing 13.

a) Ears, skin b) Voluntary action c) Reading and writing

14.

a) Voluntary action is an action which is under conscious control b) Breathing, sneezing c) Voluntary action involuntary action

Controlled by cerebrum controlled by medulla oblongata Action under conscious control action not under conscious control

15.

a) Pancreas b) Insulin c) Conversion of glucose into glycogen in the liver d) Low blood glucose level and weakness

16.

a) P : Effector Q : motor neuron R : sensory neuron b) Receptor --- sensory neuron --- relay neuron --- motor neuron --- effector

17.

a) X : cell body b) The nucleus controls all the activities in the neuron c) Relay neuron sensory neuron

The length of dendron long The length of axon short

18.

a) X : Relay neuron Y : effector Z : receptor b) Help us to avoid serious injuries c) The people will not be able withdrawal he fingers immediately

19.

a) Q : Gigantism R : dwarfism b) Growth hormone c) Stimulates growth d) Pituitary gland

20.

a) Pituitary gland b) Produces hormones which stimulate many other endocrine gland c) Growth hormone d) Under secretion : dwarfism : over secretion


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21. a) Thyroxin gland b) Thyroxin c) Control the rate of metabolism d) Sensitivity to cold, simple goiter

22.

a) Adrenal glands b) Adrenaline c) Prepares the body for actions during emergencies d) Chromic fatigue, cushing‟s syndrome

23.

a) Located at each side of the uterus b) Estrogen, progesterone c) Estrogen : development of female secondary sexual

Progesterone : regulate the menstrual cycle and play an important role in preparing the body for pregnancy

24.

a) Scrotums b) Protect the testes c) Testosterone d) Development of male secondary sexual charactreristics e) Underdevelopment of secondary sexual aharacteristics.

25.

a) Drugs are chemical substances which can affect our nervous system b) Nicotine, cocaine c) Impair muscular coordination, distort perceptions.

CHAPTER 3 : HEREDITY AND VARIATION 1.

a) Draw a histogram b) Continuous variation c) There is a complete range of measurements from one extreme to another

Has a normal distribution 2.

a) Discontinuous variation b) Type of hair and blood group c) Genetic and environmental

3.

a) Identical twins


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b) Fertilization c) Contain exactly the same genetic information / have the identical sex and other similar

characteristics d) Identical sex, boy or girl

4.

a) Meiosis b) Crossing over c) Crossing over is a process occurring during meiosis in which a pair of homologous

chromosomes exchange genetic material d) No e) Two

5.

a) Twins P : identical twins Twins Q : non-identical twins b) Two fetuses develop in mother‟s uterus at the same time c) In terms of identical twins non-identical twins

Number of ovum involved one two Sex of twin same might be same or fifty Genetic information same different

6.

a) Selective breeding is the crossing of two parents each with some good traits so as produce offspring that process the good traits of both parents

b) Paddy or papaya c) Improve the nutritional values / lower import and higher will help to boost the

economy of the country 7.

a) Down‟s syndrome b) Chromosome mutation c) 21 d) Short necks / flat cheeks

8.

a) Meiosis b) Ovaries and testes c) Divides into four daughter cells, only half the chromosome number of parents cell.

9.

a) Bb , Bb, Bb, Bb b) Tallness c) Left-handed, straight hair

10.

a) Process X is meiosis Process Y is fertilisation

b) Boy


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c) The 22 + X sperm fertilizes an 22 + X ovum, the zygote formes will be 44 + XX and the zygote G will be a girl

11.

a) RR, Rr, Rr, rr b) 3 : 1 c) Red flowers d) A person who has two identical genes for a characteristics

12.

a) W : deletion X : duplication Y : inversion Z : attachment to a different chromosome

b) Chromosome mutations refer to changes in the structure or number of chromosomes and the such changes occur as a result of errors in cell division.

13.

a) X : gene Y : DNA Z : chromosome b) Genes are units of inheritance that determine the characteristics of an individual. c) 8

14.

a) Gene mutations b) Colour-blindness / albinism c) Mutation is a change which occurs spontaneously on genes or chromosomes. There

are two types of mutations, namely chromosome mutation and gene mutation 15.

a) Mitosis b) Divides into two identical cells exactly the same number and kind of chromosomes as

parent cell c) Centromere splits, each chromatid is now a chromosome. The chromosome are pulled

to the apposite poles at the cell. This is called polarization. 16.

a) Parent cell divide to produce daughter cells Important for inheritance Each chromosome only double once

b) In term of mitosis meiosis Number of chromosome same as the parent cell half of the number

chromosomes in the parent cell

number of time one two cytoplasm divides 17.

a) Color blindness and hemophilia b) Produce an individual with characteristics that are different form the rest


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Enable more resistant to disease Able to adopt better to changes in the environment Ensure the survival of a species

18.

a) Turner‟s syndrome b) Fails to develop normal secondary sexual characteristic and sterile c) Female d) Tuners syndrome has only one sex chromosome and klinefelter‟s syndrome have three

sex chromosome 19.

a) P : Cc Q : Cc R : Cc S : Cc b) Straight hair c) 4 : 0 d) Discontinuous variation

20.

a) Identical twins non-identical twins Number of zygote formed one two Genetic information same different

b) Siamese twins are joined of some parts of their bodies Siamese twins contain exactly the same genetic information

c) Iris color / blood group 21.

a) Chromosome mutation b) Males c) Klineefelter‟s syndrome is caused by the presence of three sex chromosomes d) Radioactive gamma lays and toxic chemicals

22.

a) Histogram for number of students vs group of thumb prints b) Discontinuous variation c) Continuous variation discontinuous variation

Quantitative characters qualitative characters Influenced by genetic factors influenced by genetic factors Environmental factors

23. a) Gametes : X baby : XY phenotype : boy

With normal color vision, color blindness boy b) 25 %

24.

a) Family tree b) Discontinuous variation c) Certain characteristics can be passed down from one generation to another


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d) Enables us to different individuals of the same species allow selective breeding to be carried out

CHAPTER 4 : MATTER AND SUBSTANCE CHAPTER 5 ENERGY AND CHEMICAL CHANGES

1. a) P : Anode

Q : Cathode b) (i) Increase

(ii) Copper (iii) Become thinner

c) This is because the copper at the anode dissolves to form copper ions, but copper ions are also deposited at the anode.

d) Rotating the spoon at the uniform rate 2.

a) Metals with different reactivity‟s show different reactivity‟s show different reaction with oxygen.

b) (i) Oxygen gas (ii) Activity of the reaction (iii) type of metal

c) (i) X + oxygen ------ oxide of X (ii) Y + oxygen ------- oxide of Y (iii) Z + oxygen ------ oxide of Z

d) Y, X , Z e) X : Aluminium Y : Magnesium Z : Copper

3.

a) X : Tin ore / cassiterite Y : Limestone

b) Hot air c) Product P : Molten slag

Product Q : Molten tin d) Calcium carbonate ------- calcium oxide + carbon dioxide

4.

a) Electroplating b) The copper piece is the anode and the iron nails is the cathode c) To transfer electric current from copper piece to the iron nail. d) At the anode, copper piece dissolve in the copper sulphate solution and become copper

ions.


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At the cathode, copper ion in the copper sulphate solution are discharge and become copper atoms which are attached on the iron nail

e) The concentration of the blue copper sulphate solution will remains unchanged. 5.

a) Cassiterite b) Limestone is used to absorb and removes the impurities in the ore c) Tin oxide + carbon ------ tin + carbon dioxide d) Because aluminium is more reactive than carbon e) Carbon is cheap and able to get it easily.

6. a) Ampere b) (i) Impure silver

(ii) pure silver c) (i) Silver piece will become thinner

(ii) Silver piece will become thicker d) No changes

7.

a) Metal X reacts faster with dilute sulphuric acid than metal Y. b) (i) Type of metal

(ii) Reactivity (iii) Concentration and volume of dilute sulphuric acid

c) Metal X d) 25 cm3.

8.

a) Displacement reaction b) Aluminium sulphate and hydrogen gas c) Aluminium + Dilute sulphuric acid ----- Aluminium sulphate + Hydrogen d) Can test by a glowing splint. The hydrogen gas that release from the test tube will

make a “ pop” sound. 9.

a) Positive terminal : Copper plate Negative terminal : zinc plate

b) The zinc plate become thinner Produce gas bubble at positive terminal

c) Terminal negative : Zinc atoms - electron ---- zinc ions Positive terminal : Hydrogen ions + electrons ---- hydrogen atoms

d) The flow of electron through the outside circuit from the cathode to the anode produces electric current.

10.

a) 1.2 V b) Used as an electrolyte c) Voltmeter reading d) 0 V


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11. a) ( i ) K

(ii) N

b) K : Carbon rod L : mixture of manganese (IV) oxide and carbon M : Ammonium chloride paste N : Zinc container

c) None rechargeable Corrosion of the zinc casing results in leaked of the electrolyte

d) Nickel-cadmium cell Lead- acid accumulator

12.

a) (i) Gas bubbles are produced (ii) A reddish brown metal is deposited at the cathode

b) (i) Chlorine gas is produced (ii) The brown metal deposit is copper

c) Tested with litmus paper, it bleaches litmus paper d) The density changes for color of the solution gradually decrease.

13.

a) Electrolysis b) (i) Carbon

(ii) P c) (i) this because the ions in the solid lead bromide are strongly attracted to each other

by their electrostatic charges. (ii) Heat the solid so that it melts into liquid

d) Lead ions and bromide ions e) (i) Bromine

(ii)Brown pungent gas f) Lead

CHAPTER 6 : NUCLEAR ENERGY 1.

a) P - The Geiger Muller tube Q - The scaler / rate meter / loud speaker

b) Substance R = Na-24 c) It will show a higher reading. It will be louder than normal d) Gamma radiation will penetrate through the pipe

2.

a) (i) X : Beta particle (ii) Y : Gamma radiation (iii) Z : Alpha particle

b) (i) Radiation Y is not depleted


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(ii) It is neutral c) X is lighter than Z d) (i) Lead

(ii) Radioactive radiation cannot penetrate the lead container 3.

a) Nuclear fusion b) Nuclear energy c) Hydrogen bomb d) The sun

4.

a) Radioactive atoms contain unstable nuclei b) Alpha radiation, beta radiation, and gamma radiation c) Alpha and beta radiation d) Gamma radiation e) Smaller and more stable

5.

a) (i) Gamma radiation (ii) the radioactive radiation has high penetrating power (iii) the radioactive radiation is used to detect to content level in the bottle

b) (i) it is the Geiger Muller counter (ii) To record the rate of radioactive

c) Phosphorus-32 6.

a) Beta b) (i) The aluminium is thicker than the acceptable thickness c) To prevent radioactive radiation from being radiated in all directions d) (i) a docimeter

(ii) The photographic film on the docimeter turns black CHAPTER 7 : LIGHT, COLOUR AND SIGHT 1.

a) Draw a light ray with image are real, inverted and diminished b) Real, inverted and diminished c) Camera d) Draw a light ray with image are virtual, not inverted and diminished

2.

a) The point on the principle axis where parallel rays of light will converge after passing through the lens

b) Image are real, inverted and more than object ( draw a light ray ) c) 1.6 cm d) Decrease


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3.

a) Filter color screen color the color of light on the screen Green blue black Blue magenta blue Red yellow red

b) The color that appears on the screen is the result of the subtraction of light by the coloured filter and coloured screen.

4.

a) White b) Secondary color c) (i) K and L

(ii) Red d) (i) Black

(ii) Blue light is absorbed by the yellow card 5.

a) P : Cornea Q : Irish R : Retina b) P : Help to focus light onto the retina by refracting light rays that pass through it. c) Irish muscle will contract to reduce the size of the pupil so that the amount of light

entering the eye is reduced d) The eyes focuses by changing the thickness of the lens while the camera focuses by

moving the lens nearer or further from the film.

CHAPTER 8 : CHEMICALS IN INDUSTRY 1.

a) (i) Diagram Y (ii) Diagram X

b) The atom of the second metal prevents the layers of sliding atoms in the first metal from sliding over each other easily

c) (i) Pewter (ii) 96% tin, 3% copper and 1% antimony (iii) For making drinking mugs and vases, to make ornaments.

2.

a) The iron nails become brown in color while there was no change to the steel nail. b) The iron nail turned rusty whole the steel nail did not c) (i) Type of nail

(ii) Condition of the nails after the three days (iii) Sodium chloride solution/test tube

d) Alloys can prevent corrosion or rusting 3.

a) Copper : 1.5 cm Bronze : 1.1 cm


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b) The softer the tested material, the deeper the dent is c) Bronze d) Copper and tin

4.

a) Carbon dioxide b) Global warning / green house effect c) When carbon dioxide increase with atmosphere, carbon dioxide gas absorbs heat from

the radiation of sunlight and heat is reflected back to earth. The trapping of this heat causes the increase of the earth temperature.

d) Fixing a catalytic converter in the exhaust pipes of vehicles / using lead free petrol.

CHAPTER 9 : MICROORGANISMA AND THEIR EFFECTS ON LIVING THINGS 1.

a) The most bacteria colony is observed at the pH value = 7

b)

c) pH = 7 d) pH = 6 : 8

2.

a) X2


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b) Penicillin kills bacteria. The higher the concentration of the penicillin, more bacteria are killed

c) The size of penicillin disc / number of days d) Antibiotic is a chemical that consists of fungi or bacteria that kills specific

microorganisms 3.

a) There is bigger and more bacterial colony when the temperature is increased after 24 hours.

b) (i) the graph size of bacteria colony vs temperature

(ii) 35C (iii) 3

4. a) A suspension containing weakened or dead pathogens of a particular disease b) Cholera / hepatitis / TB c) The white blood cells (lymphocytes) are stimulated to produce antibodies d) To increase the number of antibodies to exceed the immunity level e) Active acquired immunity

5.

a) Immunization is a process where a person is given vaccination to help him acquire immunity from a particular disease

b) Acquired immunity c) (i) 3 times

(ii) The first dose is given to stimulate the body to produce antibodies immediately but the level of antibodies produced is insufficient. By giving the second, third and booster dose, the level of antibodies would increase to exceed the minimum level of immunity required to fight diseases.

d) BCG e) Tetanus f) Each vaccination is given to prevent specific types of disease only

6.

a) P : Plant protein Q : Ammonium compound R : Nitrate b) Ions c) W : Denitrification X : Nitrogen fixation d) Nitrifying bacteria e) Root nodules f) Ammonium nitrate

7.

a) W : Viruses X : Bacteria Y : Protozoa Z : Algae b) W : Influenza X : Cholera Y : Malaria c) W has no nucleus X has a nucleus

W contain either DNA or RNA where X contain both W is smaller in sized compare to X.

d) Bacteria because it contains chlorophyll which enables it to carry out photosynthesis


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8.

a) Q b) Penicillin Q c) Fungus d) Temperature : incubate at 37 C. e) Kills the bacteria / prevents the growth of the bacteria f) Wash hands before and after the experiment / sterilize the apparatus inside an

autoclave. 9.

a) 20C - 40C b) -20C - 0C / more than 100C c) More bacteria are produced making the meat not suitable to be eaten d) (i) Spore formation

(ii) Binary fission e) In 1 hour, 22 = 4 bacteria are produced

In 1 hour, 210 = 1024 bacteria are produced 10.

a) Larva b) In stagnant water c) An animal that carries pathogens from one organism to another d) (i) Clear the surrounding areas around and inside the house to prevent mosquitoes

from hiding / spraying insecticide to kill mosquitoes (ii) Rearing fish in ponds to feed on P / spreading a layer of oil on the surface of water to prevent P from breathing

e) Protozoa, malaria / virus, dengue fever f) When a mosquito bites an infected person and then bites a healthy person.

CHAPTER 10 : NUTRITION AND FOOD PRODUCTION 1.

a) P because their diet contains less amount of meat, fats and oil b) Fibres and proteins c) 17.6 kJ of energy is released by 1 g of carbohydrate

2200 kJ of energy is released by 2200 ÷ 17.6 = 125 g of sugar

d) Because their diet contains more sugar and less vegetables. 2.

a) (i) Milk (ii) Butter

b) Column S - fats Reason : highest percentage for butter


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Column R - Carbohydrates Reason : it is found in milk and potatoes but not in beef, tuna and butter

c) Butter and beef 3.

a) Bomb calorimeter b) Refer diagram of bomb calorimeter c) Oxygen, to help in the oxidation of the food d) The temperature of the water increase

4.

a) (i) the nutrient contents of Knop‟s culture solution (ii) the growth rate of maize seedling such as the length of roots and stem, the

size of the leaves. (iii) The original size of the maize seedling

b) To provide oxygen to the roots so that they would not rot c) Stunted growth and the size of the leaves is small and the color of the leaves is yellow d) To be used as a comparison in the results of the experiment

5.

a) The amount of energy released when 1 gram of food is completely burned b) Fixed variables : volume of water / mass of food

Responding variables : increase in temperature, amount of energy released

c) 123.02.4)101000()3585(10

kJg

6.

a) 1469 kilocalories b) No, because it does not contain fruits and vegetables that provides vitamins c) (i) kwasyiorkor

(ii)Night blinders d) Obesity becomes a problems because excessive carbohydrates would be changed into

fat to be stored in the body 7.

a) The nitrogen cycle b) The root nodules of clover plants contain nitrogen nitrogen fixing bacteria that convert

nitrogen gas into nitrates c) Proteins d) Nitrates e) Ammonium sulphate/ ammonium nitrate

8.

a) Type of food quantity (g) Calorific value White bread 150 1701.0 Tea with milk 100 50.0 Fried potatoes 75 1792.5 Fried chicken 150 2445.0


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Butter cake 120 3600.0 Total = 9588.5 kJ

b) Butter cake c) No, because there is lack of fruits and vegetabled d) Vitamins / minerals / fibres e) Heart disease / high blood pressure / arteriosclerosis

CHAPTER 11 : PRESERVATION AND CONSERVATION OF THE ENVIRONMENT 1.

a) (i) secondary consumer (ii) Producer (iii) Primary consumer

b) Produces food and oxygen c) Water plants ----- prawn ----- small fishes d) It causes eutrophication. Algae that blooms rapidly on water surface prevents sunlight

from reaching the base of the pond. This results in the death of water plants and finally the death of other aquatic organisms.

2.

a) The ozone layer b) 15 – 39 km c) (i) Chlorofluorocarbon

(ii) Coolants in air conditioners and refrigerators / aerosol d) (i) ozone hole

(ii)ultraviolet rays e) Skin cancer, cataracts

3.

a) (i) Burning of fossil fuels (ii) Open burning of rubbish (iii) Throwing rubbish into recyling bins

b) Air pollution c) Sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen d) To conserve and preserve environment

4.

a) (i) Jar P (ii) The grasshopper in jar Q gets the oxygen from plant that produces it through photosynthesis

b) To make sure that both jars P and Q are airtight c) The plant absorbs carbon dioxide released by the grasshopper to enable it to perform

photosynthesis to supply oxygen to the grasshopper d) (i) No

(ii) The grasshopper in jar Q would die first because the plant is competing with it to use the oxygen supply.


249


5.

a) Disposal of industrial waste Disposal of sewage Spraying of pesticides and herbicides Exhaust smoke from aero planes Smoke and heat from chemical factories

b) Ashes, soot and sulphur dioxide c) Pollutants can damage body tissues and affect vision

6. (a) Carbon cycle b) P - photosynthesis Q - respiration R – combustion c) Maintains the level of carbon dioxide in the environment d) Carbon dioxide / carbon monoxide e) Depletion of natural resources and air pollution 7.

a) X : Ammonium compound Y : Nitrates b) Decomposition c) (i) Nitrogen fixing bacteria

(ii) Bacteria P changes nitrogen in the atmosphere to nitrates. Nitrates are directly used by plants to produced proteins.

d) Nitrification and nitrogen fixation e) Farming f) Water pollution causes the death of aquatic organisms.

8.

a) (i) opening up of forest lands for development // industrialisation (ii)loss of habitat // air pollution (ii) replanting the same type of trees // using alternative energy sources

b) Carbon dioxide / carbon monoxide / sulphur dioxide / oxides of nitrogen c) Water pollution through the improper disposal of sewage

9.

a) Driving a car that emits excessive exhaust fumes Washing with detergents that pollute water sources Throwing rubbish such as empty cans and boxes indiscriminately Smoking cigarettes

b) Exhaust fumes contain gases such as carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, and carbon particles that pollute the air. These gases add to the greenhouse effect and indirectly cause global warming. They also play a part in the formation of acid rain.

Oil and detergent flow into the river and pollute the water. These result in the death of aquatic organism Rubbish pollutes the surroundings and give off foul smells. They become breeding grounds for vectors.


250


Cigarette smoke pollute the air.

CHAPTER 12 : CARBON COMPOUND 1.

a) Starch is the polymer formed from glucose monomers / proteins is the polymer from amino acid monomers

b) X : polymerization Y : depolymerization c) n (glucose) starch when n = big number

d) (i) synthetic rubber is resistant to oil and solvents

(ii) SBR rubber can be vulcanized 2.

a) W is formic acid b) The action of bacteria on latex produces and acid can coagulate latex c) Y is ammonia solution d) X is sulphur e) Vulcanized rubber is used to make tyres because it is strong and can withstand heat.

3.

a) P is yeast b) Zymase enzyme is produced by yeast to change glucose to ethanol. c) Ethanol d) Distillation e) Alcohol burms with a blue flame and does not produce any ash

4.

a) Palm oil and sodium hydroxide b) Alkali acts as a catalyst to speed up the hydrolysis of oil molecules and then fuses with

fatty acids to form soap c) Common salt lowers the solubility of soap in water and precipitates the soap out d) The filtrate produces bubbles in water and is smooth

e) (i) the head is soluble in water (ii) the tail is soluble in grease

5.

a) Sterilization


251


b) To destroy microorganisms in oil palm fruit. c) Purification d) (i) Raw palm oil

(ii) Vitamin E and A e) (i) X : mesocarp Y : endocarp Z : kernel

(ii) Mesocarp and kernel CHAPTER 13 : MOTION 1.

e) Starch is the polymer formed from glucose monomers / proteins is the polymer from amino acid monomers

f) X : polymerization Y : depolymerization g) n (glucose) starch when n = big number

h) (i) synthetic rubber is resistant to oil and solvents

(ii) SBR rubber can be vulcanized 2.

f) W is formic acid g) The action of bacteria on latex produces and acid can coagulate latex h) Y is ammonia solution i) X is sulphur j) Vulcanized rubber is used to make tyres because it is strong and can withstand heat.

3.

f) P is yeast g) Zymase enzyme is produced by yeast to change glucose to ethanol. h) Ethanol i) Distillation j) Alcohol burms with a blue flame and does not produce any ash

4.

f) Palm oil and sodium hydroxide g) Alkali acts as a catalyst to speed up the hydrolysis of oil molecules and then fuses with

fatty acids to form soap h) Common salt lowers the solubility of soap in water and precipitates the soap out i) The filtrate produces bubbles in water and is smooth


252


j) (i) the head is soluble in water (ii) the tail is soluble in grease

5.

f) Sterilization g) To destroy microorganisms in oil palm fruit. h) Purification i) (i) Raw palm oil

(ii) Vitamin E and A j) (i) X : mesocarp Y : endocarp Z : kernel

(ii) Mesocarp and kernel CHAPTER 14 : FOOD TECHNOLOGY AND PRODUCTION 1.

a) X : Freeze drying Y : vacuum packaging Z : Irradiation

b) Food is kept in the freezing compartment of the refrigerator at -18C c) Food Processing method Y Food processing method Z

Air is sucked out from the plastic food is radiated with gamma rays Aerobic microorganism die microorganism are killed by gamma rays

2. a)

3.

a) Net weight, name and address of manufacturer b) Report to the District Health Office or consumer association c) Starch and benzoic acid d) Function of starch : Prevents the separation of fluid parts of food

Function of benzoic acid : Prevents food from spoiling by impeding the growth and reproduction of microorganism

4.

Chemical used in food processing

Examples Used in Functions

Preservative Boric acid Fish ball Prevents food from spoiling Flavoring Monosodium

glutamate

Soups and

sauces

Makes food tastier

Sweetener Palm sugar Cakes Sweetens food

Emulsifier Lecithin Ice cream

emulsifies two substances that

cannot be mixed

Antioxidant Tocopherol (vitamin E)

Butter and

biscuits

Prevents the oxidation of food


253


a) To kill microorganisms and parasite, to enables easy food digestion and to enable food to last longer

b) W : Freezing X : Refrigeration Y : Dehydrationj Z : Pasteurization

c) At low temperature, the interaction between enzyme and microorganism is not active d) To maintain freshness and nutrients in the food e) (i) Heating at 63 C for 30 minutes or at 72 C for 15 second and is immerdiatly

cooled (ii) To main tain taste and nutrients in the food, especially vitamins

5.

a) The removal of a gene or section of a DNA molecule with the desired characteristics from the cell of an organism and transferring it into a completely different organism can produce the desired characteristics

b) Good resistance to diseases or pests, fast ripening of fruits and abundant harvest c) (i) MARDI, MPOB

(ii) MARDI - Jalomas sweet potatoes MPOB - Tenera oil palm species

6.

a) Berat bersih, alamat pengeluar, tarikh luput b) (i) the expiry date

(ii) if the expiry date is over, the bread is then not safe for consumption and cause diseases

c) Obesity CHAPTER 15 : SYNTHETIC MATERIALS IN INDUSTRY 1.

Names of plastic

Types of plastic

Monomers One use of plastic

Perspex Thermoplastic Methyl metacrylate

Making transparent roof

Epoxyl glue Thermosetts Amide Making glue and electric insulator Polypropene Thermoplastic polystyrene Thermoplastic Styrene Making food packaging containers

2.

a) P : Nylon Q : Neoprene rubber R : Butyl rubber

b) P : Diamine and dicarboxylic acid Q : Chloroprene R : Isobutylene and isoprene


254


c) P : Making synthetic textile and string Q : making water pipes and hand gloves R : making tyres, shoe soles and hoses.

CHAPTER 16 : ELECTRONICS AND INFORMATION COMMUNICATION ` TECHNOLOGY ( ICT ) 1.

a) Oscillating electric charges between the variable capacitor and the inductor b) 1.5 cm c) (i) wavelength of the radio wave

(ii) graph wavelength vs frequency 2.

a) (i) Oscillator (ii) Radio waves

b) c) Transistor d) Frequency of the wave transmitted is higher

3.

a)

b) (i) Seperates audio signals from radio waves (ii) Earthed (iii)

c) (i) transistor diagram (ii) amplifiers audio signals

4.

a) To receive. Amplify and transmit information b) (i) Microwave

(ii) It has the highest frequency that enables it to travel far and is not scrattered by the particles in the atmosphere

c) (i) It appears stationary in the same spot in the sky


255


(ii) 3 satellites (iii)

5.

a) X / Radio wave b) (i) Radio wave

(ii) 0.2 m c) (i) carrier wave

(ii) Modulator


256


BESTARI PRACTISE QUESTION

PROJEK JAWAB UNTUK JAYA (JUJ) NEGERI PAHANG

TAHUN 2010

SCIENCE

KERTAS 1

Satu jam lima belas minit

JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

1. Kertas soalan ini adalah dalam dwibahasa. 2. Soalan dalam bahasa Inggeris mendahului soalan yang sepadan dalam

bahasa Melayu. 3. Calon dikehendaki membaca maklumat di halaman belakang kertas soalan ini.


257


BESTARI PRACTISE QUESTION

PROJEK JAWAB UNTUK JAYA (JUJ) NEGERI PAHANG

TAHUN 2010

SCIENCE

KERTAS 2

Dua jam tiga puluh minit

JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

Bahagian Soalan

Markah Penuh

Markah Diperolehi

A

1 5

2 5

3 5

4 5

B

5 6

6 6

7 6

8 6

9 6

C

10 10

11 10

12 10

Jumlah

1. Kertas soalan ini adalah dalam

dwibahasa 2. Soalan dalam bahasa Inggeris

mendahului soalan yang sepadan dalam bahasa Melayu

3. Calon dibenarkan menjawab

keseluruhan atau sebahagian soalan sama ada dalam bahasa Inggeris atau bahasa Melayu

4. Calon dikehendaki membaca

maklumat di halaman 2


258


INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES MAKLUMAT UNTUK CALON

1. This question paper consists of three sections. Section A, Section B and Section C

Kertas soalan ini mengandungi tiga bahagian: Bahagian A, Bahagian B dan Bahagian C

2. Answer all questions in Section A and Section B. Write your answers for Section A and Section B in the spaces provided on the question paper Jawab semua soalan dalam Bahagian A dan Bahagian B Tulis jawapan bagi Bahagian A dan Bahagian B dalam ruang yang disediakan pada kertas soalan

3. For Section C, answer Question 10 and either Question 11 or Question 12. Write your answers for Section C on the other examination sheets You may use equations, diagrams, tables, graphs and other suitable methods to explain your answers Bagi Bahagian C, jawab Soalan 10 dan mana-mana satu soalan daripada Soalan 11 atau Soalan 12 Tulis jawapan bagi Bahagian C pada helaian jawapan lain Anda boleh menggunakan persamaan, rajah, jadual, graf dan cara lain yang sesuai untuk menjelaskan jawapan anda

4. The diagrams in the questions provided are not drawn to scale unless stated Rajah yang mengiring soalan tidak dilukis mengikut skala kecuali dinyatakan

The marks allocated for each sub-part of a question are shown in bracket Markah yang diperuntukkan bagi setiap ceraian soalan ditunjukkan dalam kurungan

5. If you wish to change your answer, neatly cross out the answer that you have done.

Then write down the new answer Sekiranya anda hendak menukar jawapan, batalkan dengan kemas jawapan yang telah dibuat. Kemudian tulis jawapan yang baru

6. You may use a non-programmable scientific calculator

Anda dibenarkan menggunakan kalkulator saintifik yang tidak boleh diprogramkan

7. The time suggested to answer Section A is 60 minutes, Section B is 50 minutes and

Section C is 40 minutes


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Masa yang dicadangkan untuk menjawab Bahagian A ialah 60 minit, Bahagian B ialah 50 minit dan Bahagian C ialah 40 minit

8. Hand in this question paper at the end of the examination

Serahkan kertas soalan ini di akhir peperiksaan

Section A Bahagian A

[ 20 marks/markah ]

Answer all questions. Jawab semua soalan


ju j 2010 science

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