1

IOM

2068 Kartik 1. Immature proglotids of Taenia solium have: a) Testes but no ovaries b) Ovaries buit not testes c) Vitelline follicles and shellgland but not glands d) Uterus but neither ovaries nor testes 2. Which one of the following insects lays eggs in water: a) Butter fly b) Dragon fly c) Sand fly d) House fly 3. First indication of physiological division of labour in frog appears at: a) Egg stage b) Blastula stage c) Gastrula stage d) External gill stage of tadpole 4. What is the female counter part of prostate gland in the male: a) Bartholin's gland b) Uterus c) Clitoris d) Graffian follicles 5. What is common in earthworm and man? a) Ammonotelic b) Urotelic c) Uricotelic d) Nephrotelic 6. Merkel's discs and Meissner's corpuslces are found in the: a) Skin of frog b) Skin of mammals c) Skin of toad d) Skin of rabbit 7. Blood fluke is: a) Schistosoma b) Paragonimus c) Dracunculus d) Wucheretia 8. In Paramecium the oral groove leads ventrally and posteriorly as a tubular structure and is called: a) Blepharoblast b) Water tube c) Vestibule d) Radial canal 9. The vasa efferentia in frog open into: a) Cloaca b) Bidder's canal c) Glomerulus d) Collecting duct 10. Peyer's patches found in small intestine are: a) Glandular tissues b) Lymphatic tissues c) Nervous tissue d) Epithelial tissues 11. Resemblances between different organisms with different genotypes due to common adaptation

indicates: a) Convergent evolution b) Divergent evolution c) Retrogressive evolution d) Micro-evolution 12. The number of vertebrae in human body is: a) 28 b) 30 c) 33 d) 37 13. In mammals, mammary glands are modified form of: a) Sweat glands b) Sebaceous gland c) Thymus glands d) Meibomian glands 14. Gemmule formation is the means of reproduction in: a) Porifera b) Coelenterata c) Arthropoda d) Annelida 15. All enzymes are ingredient of: a) Vitamins b) Fats c) Proteins d) Sugar 16. Vermiform appendix is a part of: a) Nervous system b) Digestive system c) vascular system d) Reproductive system 17. Movement of earthworm against the soil surface is: a) Positive geotaxis b) Negative geotaxis

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c) Menotaxis d) Mnemotaxis 18. Golden age of Dinosaurs was during: a) Paleozoic b) Mesozoic c) Cenozoic d) Archeozoic 19. Transitional epithelium is found in: a) Larynx b) Vein c) Kidney d) Ureter 20. How many daughter Paramecia are formed in a process of conjugation at a time? a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16 21. The type of dentition in frog is: a) Heterodont b) Homodont c) Pleurodont d) Thecodont 22. Pseudocoelom is found in: a) Arthropoda b) Annelid c) Aschelminthes d) Mollusca 23. The endocrine part of the pancreas is known as: a) Crypts of Leiberkuhn b) Islets of Langerhans c) Peyer's patches d) Acini 24. A structure which persists as a useless relic of an ancestral condition is called as: a) Atavistic b) Vestigial c) Ontogenetic d) Essential 25. Polymorphism is a characteristic of the phylum: a) Annelida b) Coelenterata c) Porifera d) Protozoa 26. In internal ear sensory patches are situated in: a) Membranous labyrinth b) Cochlea c) Stapedial plate d) Fenestra ovalis 27. Maximum absorption of nutrients takes place inside: a) Ileum b) Stomach c) Colon d) Rectum 28. In rabbit fertilization of ova takes place inside: a) Uterus b) Vagina c) Oviducts d) Fallopian tubes 29. Both the alternation of generation and alternation of hosts are present in: a) Filarial worm b) Tapeworm c) Round worm d) Liver fluke 30. Zymogen cells of gastric glands secrets: a) Pepsinogen b) Chymotrypsin c) Pepsin d) Trypsin 31. Numerous ovules are present in the ovary of the plants belonging to the family: a) Solanaceae b) Leguminosae c) Cruciferae d) Compositae 32. Cytochromes are found in: a) Matrix of mitochondria b) Cristae of mitochondria c) Lysosomes d) Outer wall of mitochondria 33. The neck canal cell in the archegonium of fern is: a) Uninucleated two celled b) Binucteated two celled c) Uninucleated one celled d) Binucleated one celled 34. The process of photophosphorylation was discovered by: a) Priestly b) Warburg c) Armon d) Calvin 35. Ovules develop within: a) Calyx b) Corolla c) Anther d) Ovary 36. Which of the following is parasitic form of algae? a) Spirogyra b) Cephaleuros c) Oedogonium d) Oscillatoria 37. The salt loving bacteria are known as: a) Methanogens b) Halophiles c) Thermoacidophils d) Saltophiles 38. The transfer of genes from one chromosome to another during synapsis is termed as: a) Linkage b) Crossing over c) Independent assortment d) Dominance

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39. The study of plants related to chemistry is: a) Pteridology b) Sericulture c) Biochemistry d) Phytochemistry 40. Budding in hydra is: a) Binary fission b) Parthenogenesis c) Sexual reproduction d) Asexual reproduction 41. The biofertilizers are: a) Anabaena and Azolla b) Fertilizers produced by biotechnology c) Cow dung, manure and foreyared waste d) Quick growing crops ploughed under soil 42. Mendel's dihyrid cross ratio is: a) 1:2:1 b) 9:3:3:1 c) 15:1 d) 12:4:3 43. Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) genes are: a) Double standard RNA b) Single standard RNA c) Polyribonucleotides d) Double standard DNA 44. Sexual reproduction is totally absent in: a) Chlorophyceae b) Phaeophyceae c) Rhodophyceae d) Myxophyceae 45. Which of the is an example of "living fossil"? a) Gnetum b) Ginkgo c) Pinus d) Cryptomeria 46. Oxygen liberated during photosynthesis comes from: a) Carbon dioxide b) Water c) Phosphoglyceric acid d) Chlorophyll 47. Which is the main causative factor of desertification? a) Rural development b) Tourism c) Overgazing d) Agriculture 48. Which of the following plants has di-morphic chloroplast? a) Potato b) Sugarcane c) banyan d) Tomato 49. The hormone present in the liquid endosperm of coconut is: a) Ethylene b) Cytokinin c) Gibberellins d) Aurcin 50. Nucleic acid is polymer of: a) Nucleoproteins b) Globulins c) Nucleosides d) Nucleotides 51. [Cu (NH3)4]SO4 is called: a) Schweitzer reagent b) Etard's reagent c) Barfoed's regent d) Milon's regent 52. Carbogen is: a) Pure form of carbon b) COCl2 c) Mixture of CO and CO2 d) Mixture of O2 and CO2 53. Conjugate base of hydrazoic acid is: a) NH3

- b) N2

-

c) N3- d) N

-3

54. In which one of the following, 1 Faraday of electricity will liberate ½ gram atom of the metal: a) AlCl3 b) FeCl3 c) CuSO4 d) NaCl 55. In Darzen's process for preparation of alkyl halide from alcohol, the reagent used is: a) HCl gas+ anhydrous ZnCl2 b) HBr(48%) + concentrated H2SO4 c) PX5 d) SOCl2/Pyridine 56. Which of the following is a component of Ruby: a) CaCO3 b) MgCO3 c) Al2O3 d) Al(OH)3 57. If 4g of sodium hydroxide is added to 500ml semi-normal hydrochloric acid, the pH of solution will be: a) 0.52 b) 0.72 c) 2.50 d) 9.50 58. In the ideal gas equation PV=nRT, the value of gas constant depend only on: a) The pressure of the gas b) The volume of the gas c) The nature of the gas d) the units of measurement 59. What is the normality of NH4OH solution having density of 0.6g/ml containing 34% by weight of

NH4OH? a) 0.1N b) 0.4N c) 4.2N d) 5.8N

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60. In the electrolysis of CuSO4 solution between Pt-electrodes: a) O2 is liberated at anode b) H2 is liberated at cathode c) SO2 is liberated at anode d) Cu

++ is discharged at anode

61. When Cl2 gas is passed through hot and conc. NaOH, we get: a) NaCl only b) NaClO + NaCl c) NaClO3 + NaCl d) NaClO4 + NaCl 62. How many isomers are possible for a compound having molecular formula of C3H4Cl3? a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8 63. The reaction between phenol and CO2 is called: a) Gattermann's reaction b) Kolbe's synthesis c) Reamer Tiemann reaction d) Schotten Bauman reaction 64. If 4g of NaOH is dissolved in water and volume is made up to 250cc, concentration in g/I will be: a) 10 b) 12 c) 14 d) 16 65. It is impossible to determine the position as well as momentum of an electron in an atom. This

principal is known as: a) de Broglie's principle b) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle c) Pauli exclusion principle d) Aufbau principle 66. Chile saltpeter is an ore of: a) Iodine b) Bromine c) Magnesium d) Sodium 67. Which of the following is a reducing agent: a) Sucrose b) Glucose c) Fructose d) Glycogen

68. C6H6 + CH3Cl 3ClnhydrousAlC6H5CH3 + HCl. The above reaction is:

a) Fittig reaction b) Friedel craft's reaction c) Coupling reaction d) Diazotization reaction 69. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s

2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

5 4s

1. This represents:

a) Excited state b) Cat-ionic form c) An-ionic form d) Ground state 70. Which of the following aromatic compounds is capable of hydrogen-bonding? a) Toluene b) Phenol c) Chlorobenzene d) Nitrobenzene 71. The molecule having one unpaired electron is: a) NO b) CO c) CN d) O2

72. The initial volume is 400ml at 100C then, find the volume at 0C: a) 263ml b) 293ml c) 307ml d) 363ml 73. Which of the compound is most reactive towards electrophile: a) Toulene b) Phenol c) Nitrobenze d) Benzene 74. In hemolytic fission of Hydrocarbon which is formed: a) free radicals b) carboanion c) carbocation d) carbine

75. For spontaneous reaction the value of G a) Negative b) Positive c) Zero d) both a & b 76. Ortho and para hydrogen are distinguish by: a) spin of electron b) spin of proton c) Atomic number d) spin of nucleus 77. pH is 2 then find [H

+]

a) 102 mole/l b) 10

-2 mole/l

c) 1 mole/l d) 10 mole/l 78. Propyne and propene can be distinguish by: a) CuSO4 b) Br2/CCl4 c) KMnO4 d) AgNO3/Ammonia 79. If the steel is heated well below red hot and the cooled slowly, the process is called: a) Tempering b) Hardening c) Annealing d) Nitriding 80. If the power of bulb is 100w and distance 5m above the table. Find the intensity at the centre of table?

a) 6 b) 4

5

c) 1

d)

1

4

81. The Hybridization of S & P orbital in: a) to be perpendicular each other

b) To be 180 c) to be plane d) None 82. In a charged capacitor the energy resides: a) On the positive plate b) On both positive and negative plates c) In the field between the plates d) Around the edge of capacitor plates 83. "Water proofing" agent changes the angle of contact: a) From obtuse to acute value b) From acute to obtuse value

c) From obtuse to /2 d) From acute to /2 84. The state that has greatest potential energy is: a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) Powder 85. When a charged particle enters in strong magnetic field, its kinetic energy: a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains constant d) First increases and becomes constant 86. piece of ice floats in water. What will happen to level of water when the ice melts? a) remains unchanged b) Increases c) Decreases d) My increases or decrease 87. The percentage of mass which changes into energy fission is in the order of: a) 10% b) 1% c) 0.4% d) 0.1% 88. When the absolute temperature of a gas is increased three times, the root mean square velocity of

gas molecules will be: a) 3 times b) 9 times

c) 1/3 times d) 3 times 89. Two thin lenses of focal length f1 and f2 are placed at a distance 'd' between them. For the power of

combination to be zero the separation 'd' is: a) f1 – f2 b) f1 + f2

c) f1/f2 d) (f1/f2) 90. There are four articles having colors blue, red, black and white. When they are heated together and

allowed to cool, which article will cool at the earliest? a) Blue b) Red c) Black d) White 91. In Young's double slit experiment, 12 fringes are obtained in a certain fragment of the screen when

light of wavelength 600 nm is used. If the wave length of light is changed to 400nm, number of fringes obtained in the same segment of the screen will be:

a) 12 b) 24 c) 18 d) 30 92. When the diameter of a nichrome wire is reduced to half, the resistance changed by: a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16 93. The pendulum stops due to: a) Gravity b) Lack of energy c) Air friction d) its mass 94. 'n' number of identical cells in series grouping all in same order have a total emf of 15V. When any

one cell is reversed the emf becomes 12V. the number 'n' will be: a) 15 b) 12 c) 10 d) 8 95. The angular momentum of the electron in the second orbit of the 'H; atom is:

a) h/2m b) h/2

c) 2h/ d) h/ 96. Two masses 'm' and '4m' are moving with equal kinetic energies, the ratio of magnitudes of their

momentum is: a) 4:1 b) 1:2

c) 2 :1 d) 6 :1 97. Which of the following unit of Young's modulus is in MKS system: a) N/m b) N/m

2

c) N × m d) N × m2

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98. Water rises in a capillary tube to a height of 3cm. If the tube is inclined to the liquid surface at 30 angle, the liquid will rise into the tube up to:

a) 6cm b) 3cm c) 1.5cm d) 0.5cm

99. If n object cools from 80C to 70C in one minute in the room at 30C, the time it will take to cool from

50C to 40C is: a) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 4 minutes d) 5 minutes 100. In an electronic transition, atom cannot emit: a) UV radiation b) IR radiation c) Visible light d) Gamma rays Ans: 1a, 2b, 3c, 4a, 5b, 6b, 7a, 8c, 9b, 10b, 11a, 12c, 13a, 14a, 15c, 16b, 17a, 18b, 19d, 20c, 21b, 22c,

23b, 24b, 25b, 26a, 27a, 28c, 29d, 30a, 31a, 32b, 33d, 34c, 35d, 36b, 37b, 38b, 39d, 40d, 41a, 42b, 43b, 44d, 45b, 46b, 47c, 48b, 49b, 50d, 51a, 52d, 53c, 54c, 55d, 56c, 57a, 58d, 59d, 60a, 61c, 62b, 63b, 64d, 65b, 66d, 67b, 68b, 69d, 70b, 71a, 72b, 73b, 74a, 75a, 76d, 77b, 78d, 79c, 80c, 81b, 82c, 83b, 84c, 85c, 86a, 87d, 88d, 89b, 90c, 91b, 92d, 93c, 94c, 95b, 96b, 97b, 98a, 99b, 100d