intense revision plan indian polity - civils...
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Intense Revision Plan Indian Polity Q1. Consider the following statement with reference to Parliamentary Accounts
Committee :
1. It was formed under the Government of India Act, 1935.
2. It is a joint committee consisting of 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from
Rajya Sabha who are elected according to principle of proportional
representation by means of the single transferable vote.
3. As per its chairman by ‘Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business’ is
selected from the Opposition parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
It has been in existence from 1921 and was formed under the Government of India
Act, 1919.
It is a joint committee consisting of 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya
Sabha who are elected according to principle of proportional representation by
means of the single transferable vote.
Since 1967, its chairman by convention is selected from the Opposition parties.
Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to Inter-State Council (ISC)
:
1. Article 263 provides the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect
coordination between the states and between Centre and states.
2. It is a permanent constitutional body.
3. The ISC is proposed to meet thrice a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 ,2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: d
Article 263 provides the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination
between the states and between Centre and states.
It is not a permanent constitutional body. It can be established 'at any time' if it
appears to the President that the public interests would be served by the
establishment of such a Council.
First time it was set up on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission and
established the ISC by a presidential ordinance on May 28, 1990.
The ISC is proposed to meet thrice a year, but in 26 years, it has met only 11 times.
Q3. With reference to special status of Jammu and Kashmir consider the
following statements:
1. The state's residents live under a separate set of laws.
2. Indian citizens from other states cannot purchase land or property in Jammu &
Kashmir.
3. The Union government cannot declare emergency on grounds of internal
disturbance or imminent danger unless it is made at the request or with the
concurrence of the state government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Special Status to J&K
Legislative powers: The state's residents live under a separate set of laws, including
those related to citizenship, ownership of property, and fundamental rights, as
compared to other Indians.
Territory: Indian Parliament cannot increase or reduce the borders of the state and
Indian citizens from other states cannot purchase land or property in Jammu &
Kashmir.
Emergency Provisions:
The Union government cannot declare emergency on grounds of internal disturbance
or imminent danger unless it is made at the request or with the concurrence of the
state government.
Centre can declare emergency in the state only in case of war or external aggression.
The Center has no power to declare financial emergency under Article 360 in the state.
Constitutional Amendment: a Constitutional amendment becomes applicable to J&K
only after the President issues an order.
Q4. . Which of the following are related to Right to Equality under the provisions
of Articles 14 - 18 of the Constitution of India ?
1. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or
place of birth
2. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
3. Educational and cultural rights to minorities
4. Abolition of untouchability
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 2,3 and 4 only
(b) 1,2,3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1,2 and 4 only
Answer: d
Educational and cultural rights to minorities –article 29 and 30
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental duties:
1. The Swaran Singh Committee recommended the incorporation of a list of
Fundamental Duties of the people of India.
2. The Article 51A was added by an amendment Act which enumerated 11
Fundamental Duties of the People of India at that time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
answer : A
Initially 10 FD were added and then 11th FD was added by 86th amendment, RTE Act
2002.
Q6. Consider the following statements:
1. National emergency can be declared only once was has started
2. National emergency is proclaimed for whole of the country
3. 44th constitutional amendment replaced the word “internal disturbance “ with
“armed rebellion” in article 352
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1,2only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 2 ,3 only
ans: a
1.president can declare national emergency even before the actual occurrence of the
war or external aggression .
2. 42nd CAA enabled president to limit the operation of a national emergency to
specified part of India
3. correct
Q7. Under article 54, the president is elected by the members if an electoral
college consisting of -
1. Members of both houses of parliament
2. members of the legislative assemblies of states , NCT of Delhi and Puducherry
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer :d
Only elected members of loksabha, rajyasabha and legislative assemblies can
participate in election, nominated members can’t.
Q8. Consider the following statements with reference ‘Eighth Schedule of
Constitution’ :
1. Eighth Schedule of the Constitution contains 18 languages.
2. Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added to ‘Eighth Schedule’ in 2004 .
3. Sitakant Mohapatra Committee was set up to evolve a set of objective criteria
for inclusion of more languages in the Eighth Schedule
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Eighth Schedule of the Constitution contains 22 languages. 14 languages were
initially in the Constitution.
Sindhi language was added in 1967. Konkani, Nepali and Manipuri were added in
1992.
Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.
At present, there is demand for at least 38 more languages in the Eighth Schedule.
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding question hour in parliament :
1. A starred question requires a written answer and supplementary questions can
not follow.
2. An unstarred question requires oral answer and supplementary questions can
follow.
3. A short notice question is answered orally followed by supplementary questions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer :d) 3 only
A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House
and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally,
supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
An Unstarred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on
which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a
written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by
the Minister to whom it is addressed. It is printed in the official report of the sitting of
the House for which it is put down.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance
and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an
ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by
supplementary questions.
Q10. Consider the following authorities:
1. Chairman of state public service commission
2. Governor of the state
3. State Election Commissioner
Which of the above can be removed only by the President?
(a) 1 , 2 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) 2 , 3 Only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer : d)1,2,3
Chairman of state public service commission and State election commissioner
:appointed by Governor but removed by The President
Q11. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court ruled that “judicial review” is
a “basic feature” of the Constitution and hence, it cannot be amended?
(a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(c) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union Of India
(d) Miss Bindiya Mukhija v. State Of Punjab
answer : C
Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union Of India
Q12. Which of the following Article of Constitution states“the Chief Justice of a
High Court for any State may at any time, with the previous consent of the
President, request any person who has held the office of a Judge of that Court or
of any other High Court to sit and act as a Judge of the High Court for that
State.”
(a) 224
(b) 224A
(c) 242
(d) 242A
Answer: B
Article 224-A of Constitution states “the Chief Justice of a High Court for any State
may at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request any person who
has held the office of a Judge of that Court or of any other High Court to sit and act as
a Judge of the High Court for that State.”
Q13. Consider the following statements with reference to pardoning power of
President and Governor:
1. The President’s powers to pardon in Article 72 are different from those granted
to the Governor in Article 161.
2. Governor does not have powers of suspension, commutation and remission of a
death sentence.
3. The President has the right to pardon punishments of sentences given under
Court Martial, whereas the governor does not have this power.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
The President’s powers to pardon in Article 72 are different from those granted to the
Governor in Article 161. The President enjoys extensive powers under Article 72 as
compared to what is available to the State Governor.
In case where the convict is sentenced to death penalty, only the President can
exercise the right to pardon him/her. The governor does not have the right to pardon
death sentences, he/she can only suspend, commute or provide remission in case of
death sentences.
The President has the right to pardon punishments of sentences given under Court
Martial, whereas the governor does not have this power.
Both the President and Governor have concurrent powers in cases of suspension,
commutation and remission of a death sentence.
Q14. Consider the following statements with reference to Attorney General Of
India :
1. Attorney General is the highest legal officer in the country.
2. He has the right to speak, to vote and to take part in the proceedings of both
Houses of Parliament and their joint sittings and any committee of Parliament
of which he may be a member.
3. Privileges and immunities of Attorney General are similar to Member of
Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: d
Article 76 mentions about AG as the highest legal officer in the country.
Article 88 mentions about rights of AG with respect to the Houses of Parliament and
its Committees, which includes:
He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of
Parliament and their joint sittings and any committee of Parliament of which he may
be a member. But he does not have the right to vote in the Parliament.
Article 105 defines that powers, privileges and immunities of AG are similar to Member
of Parliament.
Q15. Consider the following statements:
1. Under Article 143, the Supreme court can give opinion on disputes arising out
of pre-constitution treaties and agreements.
2. Every judge of a High court is appointed by the Governor in consultation with
the Chief Justice of India, Chief Justice of the High court of that state with the
prior consent of the President.
3. The maximum age up to which the judges of the Supreme court and High
Court can hold office is 65.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 ,2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer: a)
2. Judges of High Court : appointed by the President with consultation with Governor
of the concerned state
3. retirement age of High court judges is 62.
Q16. Consider the following statements regarding The State Legislature and
choose the correct option:
1. The Constitution provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two houses of the
State legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a Bill.
2. A Bill, originated in the Legislative Council and sent to the Legislative
Assembly, is rejected by the latter, the Bill ends and becomes dead.
3. A bill which has originated in the in the Legislative Council and sent to the
Legislative assembly, if it is rejected by the latter then the mechanism of
passing the Bill for the second time(by The Council) to resolve the deadlock,
applies.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
Legislative Council is not a second chamber, but a secondary chamber. So it does not
enjoy the powers of rejecting or amending any bill passed by legislative assembly.
Q17. To ensure the independence of the election commission, the Constitution
has specified which of the following?
1. Election Commissioners can be removed only after a resolution to that effect
has been passed in Parliament with a majority of two-third present and voting.
2. During the tenure, the service conditions of the Election Commissioners
cannot be varied to their disadvantage.
3. Election Commissioners are barred from accepting any government posts after
retirement.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Answer: b
special majority is required (2/3rd present and voting and absolute majority)
EC members are not barred by the Constitution. This is a major shortcoming and may
influence the decisions of Election Commissioners.
Q18. Consider the following statements with reference to National Human Rights
Commission (NHRC) :
1. It is a constitutional body established in 1993.
2. This apex body is responsible for protecting and promoting human rights
related to life, liberty, equality and dignity of individuals as guaranteed by the
constitution of India and international covenants.
3. It’s Chairman should be a retired Chief Justice of India.
Which the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
It is a statutory body established in 1993 under the provisions of Protection of Human
Rights Act 1993.
This apex body is responsible for protecting and promoting human rights related to
life, liberty, equality and dignity of individuals as guaranteed by the constitution of
India and international covenants.
It consists of a Chairman and 4 members.
Chairman should be a retired Chief Justice of India. Members should be either sitting
or retired judges of the Supreme Court or a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High
Court and 2 persons having practical knowledge in the field of human rights.
Ex officio members are the chairpersons of National Commission for Scheduled Caste,
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, National Commission for Minorities and
National Commission for Women.
Q19. Which of the following is/are the criteria for becoming national party in
India ?
1. Secures at least six percent (6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more
states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State
Legislative Assembly; and in addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of
the People from any State or States.
2. Wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People, and these
members are elected from at least three different States.
3. A party has got recognition as a state party in at least six states.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Criteria for becoming national party
A political party shall be eligible to be recognised as a National party if any of the given
three criteria is met.
It secures at least six percent (6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more states,
at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly;
and in addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or
States.
It wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the
existing House having 543 members), and these members are elected from at least
three different States.
A party has got recognition as a state party in at least four states.
Q20. Consider the following statements with reference to Central Bureau of
Investigation (CBI) :
1. It is the main investigation agency of the central government for cases relating
to corruption and major criminal probes.
2. CBI was set up by a resolution of Ministry of Home Affairs in 1963
3. CBI is not a statutory body
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Central Bureau of Investigation
It is the main investigation agency of the central government for cases relating to
corruption and major criminal probes.
It has its origin in Special Police Establishment set up in 1941 to probe bribery and
corruption during World War II.
CBI was set up by a resolution of Ministry of Home Affairs in 1963 after Santhanam
committee recommendation.
Superintendence of CBI rests with CVC in corruption cases and with Department of
personnel and training in other matters.
Presently it acts as an attached office under DOPT.
Although DSPE Act gives legal power to CBI, CBI is not a statutory body as:
● Word ‘CBI’ is not mentioned in DSPE act.
● Executive order of MHA did not mention CBI to be constituted under DSPE Act.
Functions of CBI include solving:
● Corruption Cases
● Economic Crimes like financial frauds, narcotics, antiques, smuggling etc.
Part 2 1. Consider the following statements regarding executive branch of government:
1. The executive is often involved in framing of policy decisions.
2. The permanent executive in India is directly responsible to people.
Which of the above statements are true ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Ans A
Explanation
● Government can be broadly divided into three branches-legislature, executive and
judiciary.
● Even though the function of law making comes primarily within the ambit of legislature,
executive also often plays a significant role in policy decisions especially in a
Parliamentary system of government.
● Executive can be divided into two branches--- political (consisting of elected
representatives) and permanent (consisting of bureaucracy who are not elected but
appointed). The latter is not directly responsible to people but only to the political
executive.
2. Executive based on principle of collective leadership is found in which among the following
system of government ?
1. Constitutional Monarchy.
2. Parliamentary Republic.
3. Semi Presidential system.
4. Presidential System.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 ,2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
Ans C
Explanation
3. Consider the following statements.
1. All the members of legislative assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry participate in the
election of President.
2. Members of a dissolved legislative assembly where fresh elections are not held are
eligible for voting in Presidential election.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans C
Explanation
● The nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament, the nominated members of
the state legislative assemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of the state
legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) and the nominated members of
the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election
of the President.
● Where an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in presidential
election, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the
presidential election.
4. Consider the following statements regarding President election..
1. There is equality between states in the process of presidential election.
2. The vote of an MP has a greater value compared to that of an MLA.
3. Presidential election can be declared void by the supreme court.
Which of the above statements are true ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All the above
Ans D
Explanation
● The Constitution provides that there shall be uniformity in the scale of representation
of different states as well as parity between the states as a whole and the Union at the
election of the President.
● All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired into and
decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final. If the election of a person as
President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of
such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain in
force.
5. Which of the following cabinet committees is NOT headed by the Prime Minister?
(a) Political Affairs Committee
(b) Economic Affairs Committee
(c) Appointments Committee
(d) Parliamentary Affairs Committee
Ans D
Explanation
● The Political Affairs Committee deals with all policy matters pertaining to domestic and
foreign affairs.(Most powerful committee).
● The Economic Affairs Committee directs and coordinates the governmental activities in
the economic sphere.
● Appointments Committee decides all higher level appointments in the Central
Secretariat, Public Enterprises, Banks and Financial Institutions.
● Parliamentary Affairs Committee looks after the progress of government business in
the Parliament.
● The first three committees are chaired by the Prime Minister and the last one by the
Home Minister
6. Regarding the seat seat of the supreme court consider the following:
1. The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court.
2. No other places can be a seat of Supreme Court without amendment of constitution under
Article 368.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
Ans A
Explanation
● SEAT OF SUPREME COURT
○ The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court.
○ But, it also authorises the chief justice of India to appoint other place or places as
seat of the Supreme Court. He can take decision in this regard only with the
approval of the President.
○ This provision is only optional and not compulsory. This means that no court
can give any direction either to the President or to the Chief Justice to appoint any
other place as a seat of the Supreme Court.
7. Consider the following statements regarding delegated legislation:
1. Indian Constitution does not allow the practice of delegated legislation.
2. The concept of delegated legislation goes against the principles of separation of powers
and parliamentary democracy.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans B
Explanation
● Delegated legislation (sometimes referred as secondary legislation or subordinate
legislation or subsidiary legislation) is a process by which the executive authority is given
powers by primary legislation to make laws in order to implement and administer the
requirements of that primary legislation.
● Delegated legislation is permitted by the Indian Constitution. It exists in form of bye
rules, regulations, orders, bye laws etc.
● Since it provides the power to form laws to the executive, it goes against the principles of
separation of powers and parliamentary democracy.
8. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends to which among the following?
1. Disputes between different units of the Indian Federation.
2. A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement etc.
3. Inter-state water disputes.
4. Any suit brought before the Supreme Court by a private citizen against the Centre or a
state.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans A
Explanation
● Learn list of topics under original jurisdiction and its exemptions from laxmikant under
Chapter :Supreme court.
9. Consider the following statements.
1. The Speaker of Lok sabha advises the President regarding summoning and proroguing of
the sessions of Parliament.
2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha can arrange a secret sitting on the request of a minister.
3. The oath of Speaker is administered by the Protem speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans D
Explanation
● The Prime Minister is the leader of the Lower House.He advises the President with
regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament.
● Speaker can allow a ‘secret’ sitting of the House at the request of the Leader of the
House. When the House sits in secret, no stranger can be present in the chamber,lobby or
galleries except with the permission of the Speaker.
● The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, while assuming their offices, do not make and
subscribe any separate oath or affirmation.
10.Consider the following statements.
1. Union territories does not have representation in Rajya Sabha.
2. Only elected members are present in Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans C
Explanation
● The representatives of each union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected
by members of an electoral college specially constituted for the purpose. This
election is also held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by
means of the single transferable vote. Out of the seven union territories, only two (Delhi
and Puducherry) have representation in Rajya Sabha. The populations of other five union
territories are too small to have any representative in the Rajya Sabha.
● The president can nominate two members from the Anglo-Indian community if the
community is not adequately represented in the Lok Sabha
11. With reference to Central Administrative Tribunals (CAT) , which of the following
statements are true?
1. CAT has original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of all public
servants covered by it.
2. Members of defence forces are not covered under it, however, civilian employees of defence
forces comes under jurisdiction of CAT.
3. CAT is bound to function by the procedure laid down by CRPC and Indian Evidence Act.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 , 2 and 3
Ans B
Explanation
● 42nd amendment added two articles 323 A and B which enables creation of tribunals for
settlement of various issues.
● CAT exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public
servants covered by it. Its jurisdiction extends to the all-India services, the Central civil
services, civil posts under the Centre and civilian employees of defence services. However,
the members of the defence forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court and the
secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by it.
● CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908. It is
guided by the principles of natural justice. These principles keep the CAT flexible in
approach.
12. Consider the following statements regarding Union Territories:
1. Delhi and Puducherry are the only UTs with a legislative assembly.
2. The Parliament can make laws on any subject of three lists for all UTs except Puducherry
and Delhi.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans B
Explanation
● The Union Territories of Puducherry (in 1963) and Delhi (in 1992) are provided with a
legislative assembly and a council of ministers headed by a chief minister. The remaining
five union territories do not have such popular political institutions.
● But, the establishment of such institutions in the union territories does not diminish the
supreme control of the President and Parliament over them
13. Consider the statements regarding 73rd Amendment Act of 1992:
1. It provided statutory status to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
2. Uniformity in structure to Panchayati Raj Institutions were brought about by the amendment.
3. Act provides for a Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj System.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans B
Explanation
● 73rd Amendment Act provided Constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj System not
Statutory. Dear student please understand the difference between constitutional and statutory
status.
● The act provides for a Gram Sabha as the foundation of the panchayati raj system. It is
a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village comprised within the
area of Panchayat at the village level.
● The act provides for a three-tier system of panchayati raj in every state, that is,
panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels3. Thus, the act brings about
uniformity in the structure of panchayati raj throughout the country. Exemption to this was
given to state with less than 20 lakh population.
14. Consider the following statements:
1. A candidate to Rajya Sabha has to be an elector in the state from where he is to be elected.
2. The Prime Minister of the country has to be invariably a member of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans D
Explanation
● Rajya sabha members need not be elected from the states from which they were registered as
voter.
● PM can be member of Rajya sabha or lok sabha (eg: manmohan Singh was elected from
Rajya Sabha). He can even be a non member of both houses for a period of max 6 months
before which he needs to get elected to either of the houses.
15. Which of the following Urban Local Bodies do not have any elected members in it?
1. Notified Area Committee
2. Town Area Committee
3. Cantonment Board
4. Township
5. Port Trust
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,3 and 5
(b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) All of the above.
Ans C
Explanation
● Please go through the features of each urban local government systems. Refer Laxmikant for
the same
16. Which of the following statements are true regarding reservation of seats in Panchayati
Raj System in India:
1. Act provided for 33 percent reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
2. One-third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the Panchayats at each level is
reserved for women by the act.
3. Act authorises the legislature of a state to make reservation of seats in favour of backward
classes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans B
Explanation
● The act provides for the reservation of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in
every panchayat (i.e., at all the three levels) in proportion of their population to the total
population in the panchayat area.
● Not less than one-third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the panchayats
at each level shall be reserved for women.
● The act also authorises the legislature of a state to make any provision for reservation of
seats in any panchayat or offices of chairperson in the panchayat at any level in favour of
backward classes.
17. Consider the following statements regarding election procedure:
1. Seeking votes of overseas electors by going abroad by the candidates or their agents or party
leaders is prohibited under the law
2. Any inducement to overseas electors by offering to bear the travel expenses to come to India
for the purpose of voting, would amount to the electoral offence of ‘bribery’
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
Ans B
Explanation
● It is likely that as part of election campaign party leaders and candidates may travel to
overseas countries for the purposes of canvassing in their favour to seek votes of the overseas
electors residing in those countries. In this context, the Commission clarifies that though
seeking votes of overseas electors by going abroad by the candidates or their agents or
party leaders is not prohibited under the law, all expenditure incurred by those candidates,
their agents or party leaders on their travel, boarding, lodging, etc., in those countries would
be deemed to be the expenditure incurred or authorized by the candidates concerned in
connection with their election.”
● “The Commission further clarifies that any inducement to overseas electors by way of Air
tickets or any other allurements to them, in cash or kind, to come to India for the
purpose of voting at the aforesaid elections would amount to the electoral offence of
‘bribery’
● http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=142602
18. Which of the following are not covered under Right To Information Act (RTI) ?
1. Local Self Governments
2. Judiciary
3. Political parties
4. Intelligence Bureau
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 , 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans C
Explanation
19. Consider the following statements regarding to Fundamental rights enshrined in the
constitution:
1. They are automatically enforceable and do not require any separate legislation for their
implementation.
2. They are positive instructions to state to establish a just and equitable society.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans A
Explanation
● Fundamental rights are automatically enforceable means an aggrieved person can
approach court for its violation even when the said rights is not protected by a separate
legislation.
● Fundamental rights are negative in nature means the put restriction on exercise of state
power from being excessive and arbitrary.
● The positive instructions to government are given in the form of DPSP to increase the
responsibility of government and to create a welfare state.
20. Suppose an important constitutional amendment passed by Lok sabha has been turned
down by Rajya Sabha. What are the options available to government to get the amendment
passed ?
(a) Call for a joint sitting of both houses presided by Lok sabha speaker.
(b) Refer the matter to President who uses his discretionary powers to decide whether to give
assent or not.
(c) Override Rajya sabha’s decision by getting consent from more than half of the state
legislatures.
(d) There are no constitutional avenues to clear such a deadlock.
Ans D
Explanation
● Constitution has not provided any options in case a deadlock arrives with regards to a
constitutional amendment. Not even joint sitting is allowed in the case of amendments.
● Please learn those features of a constitutional amendment which makes it different from a
normal bill.
Part 3
Consider the statements regarding Public Accounts Committee:
1. It has been in existence from 1921 and was formed under the Government of India Act,
1919.
2. It is constituted by the Parliament each year for parliamentary oversight over finances
3. It is not empowered to call witness and provide statements
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer A
Explanation
PUBLIC ACCOUNTS COMMITTEE
○ It has been in existence from 1921 and was formed under the Government of
India Act, 1919.
○ It is constituted by the Parliament each year for parliamentary oversight over
finances
○ 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha
○ proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote
○ All the deliberations of the committee are confidential
○ empowered to call witnesses
○ All the deliberations of the committee are confidential
○ The government submits an Action Taken Report on the recommendations of the
PAC which is then laid before the parliament.
3. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding National Human Rights
Commission?
1. The commission is not empowered to inquire into any matter after the expiry of one year
of incident.
2. NHRC is an accredited member of Global Alliance for National Human Rights
Institutions (GANHRI),
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
Answer A
Explanation
● First statement is correct
● Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI),
○ affiliated to the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights, has deferred National
Human Rights Commission (NHRC) re-accreditation until November 2017
○ Accreditation confers international recognition and protection of the National
Human Rights Institution besides its compliance with the Paris Principles
○ Paris Principles
○ UN Paris Principles provide the international benchmarks against which NHRIs
can be accredited
4. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Electoral Bonds?
1. Political party will be provided with the identity of bond donor.
2. Electoral Bonds could only be bought using cheques or digital payments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
Answer B
Explanation
● Electoral bonds The bonds will only be issued by a notified bank. It could only be
bought using cheques or digital payments. The bonds purchased by donor will be given
to a political party for a fixed period of time. A political party using their notified bank
account can convert these bonds into money. All political parties are required to notify
their bank account to the Election Commission. This bond will be like a bearer cheque
which will facilitate donor's anonymity
5. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding criteria for National Party
Status?
1. A party’s performance over previous Lok Sabha or assembly elections is considered for
granting recognition as a national party.
2. A party has got recognition as a state party in at least four states is eligible for National
Party Status
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
Answer B
Explanation
● Under the revised rules of EC, a party’s performance over two consecutive Lok Sabha or
assembly elections is considered, as opposed to one previously, for granting recognition
as a national party.
● The Election Commission amended rules that, from now onwards, it will review the
national and state party status of political parties every 10 years instead of the present
five years. o Amendment has been brought regarding this in Election Symbols
(Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 o The criterion of recognizing them as national
or state party remains the same
6. Which of the following comes under the purview of Article 13 of the Indian
Constitution?
1. Bye Laws
2. Ordinances
3. Constitutional Amendment
4. Laws enacted by state assemblies
5. Custom or usage having the force of law.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2,4 and 5
(d) All the above
Answer C
Explanation
● Constitutional Amendment is not covered under Article 13
●
7. . Which of the following are related to Right to Equality under the provisions of Articles
14 - 18 of the Constitution of India ?
1. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
2. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
3. Educational and cultural rights to minorities
4. Abolition of untouchability
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1,2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Answer B
Explanation
● Educational and cultural rights to minorities –article 29 and 30
8. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as
enshrined in the Constitution of India:
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organizing village Panchayats.
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive
Principles of State Policy?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1,2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
Answer A
Explanation
● To organise village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to
enable them to function as units of self-government (Article 40).
● To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas
(Article 43).
● To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and
professional management of co-operative societies (Article 43B).
● To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker
sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article
46).
● To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to
health (Article 47).
● To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to
improvevtheir breeds (Article 48)
9. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. National emergency can be declared only once war has started.
2. National emergency is proclaimed for whole of the country.
3. 44th constitutional amendment replaced word ‘internal disturbance’ with ‘armed
rebellion’ in article 352.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer A
Explanation
● President can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of the war
or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent
danger. 42nd constitutional amendment enabled the president to limit the operation
of a national emergency to a specified part of India. In 1978, Morarji Desai
government brought 44th constitutional amendment to replace word ‘internal
disturbance’ with ‘armed rebellion’ in article 352.
10. The constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the
Panchayati raj Institutions in the Country, provides for which of the following ?
1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishments of State Finance Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer D
11.Consider the following statements:
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in
the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution,
the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer D
Explanation
● Constitutional amendment can be introduced in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
● Only half of the state legislature needs to be ratify if the federal character of the
constitution is changed.
12. Consider the following statements about privileges and immunities of The President of
India
1. The President is not answerable to any court of law for the exercise of his functions.
2. The President can neither be arrested nor any civil proceedings be instituted against him
in any court of law during his tenure.
3. The President cannot be asked to be present in any court of law during his tenure.
4. President have parliamentary Privileges similar to Member of Parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2 and 3 only
c) 1,3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer
Explanation
● The President of India enjoys certain privileges and immunities which include the
following:
● The President is not answerable to any court of law for the exercise of his functions.
● The President can neither be arrested nor any criminal proceedings be instituted against
him in any court of law during his tenure.
● The President cannot be asked to be present in any court of law during his tenure.
● A prior notice of two months time is to be served before instituting a civil case against
him.
● Removal of the President
● The President can only be removed from office through a process called impeachment.
The Constitution lays down a detailed procedure for the impeachment of the President.
He can only be impeached ‘for violation of the Constitution’.
● The following procedure is intentionally kept very difficult so that no President should be
removed on flimsy ground.
● The resolution to impeach the President can be moved in either House of Parliament.
Such a resolution can be moved only after a notice has been given by at least one- fourth
of the total number of members of the House.
● Such a resolution charging the President for violation of the Constitution must be passed
by a majority of not less than two-third of the total membership of that House before it
goes to the other House for investigation. The charges levelled against the President are
investigated by the second House. President has the right to be heard or defended when
the charges against him are being investigated. The President may defend himself in
person or through his counsel. If the charges are accepted by a two-third majority of the
total membership of the second House, the impeachment succeeds. The President thus
stands removed from the office from the date on which the resolution is passed. This
procedure of impeachment is even more difficult than the one adopted in America where
only simple majority is required in the House of Representatives to initiate the
proceedings.
● President do not require any other privileges as he already have more privileges than a
MP
13. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. President can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses are not in session.
2. Once an ordinance is promulgated, president has no power to withdraw it.
3. An ordinance can take away any of the fundamental rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
Answer D
Explanation
● Article 123 of the constitution gives the president power to promulgate the ordinances. If
at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, the President is
satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate
action, he may promulgate such Ordinances as the circumstances appear to him to
require. It means he/she can promulgate ordinances even if one House is not in session as
bill is required to be pass by both the Houses.
● Under article 123(2) (b), Ordinance may be withdrawn at any time by the President.
Under article 123(2), An Ordinance promulgated under this article shall have the same
force and effect as an Act of Parliament. Article 13 of the constitution says that laws
inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights shall be void. Here ‘law’
includes ordinance also.
14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below
the lists
List I (Functionaries) List II (Oaths or affirmations)
I. President of India (A) Secrecy of Information
II. Judges of the Supreme Court (B) Faithful Discharge of Duties
III. Members of Parliament (C) Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution
of India
IV. Ministers for the Union (D) Upholding the Constitution and the Law
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
b) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
c) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
d) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
Answer C
Part 4 1.Which of the following electoral systems have been adopted for various elections in India
?
1. System of direct elections on the basis of adult suffrage.
2. System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
3. List system of proportional representation.
4. Cumulative system of indirect elections.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
Answer A
Explanation
● Direct elections on the basis of adult suffrage is used in Loksabha,assemble and
Panchayat elections
● System of proportional representation with STV is used in President Election and in
elections to Rajya sabha
● Other two are not used in India
2. Consider the following statements :
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that
House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right
in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice
President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer B
Explanation
● Dy. Chairman is the member of Rajya Sabha
● In this context, two things should be noted: (a) the nominated members of either House of
Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not
participate in his election; (b) the elected members of the legislative assemblies of states
and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the impeachment
of the President though they participate in his election.
3. Which one of the following statements is correct ? The Prime Minister of India
a) is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are members of either House
of the Parliament
b) can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the President of India in this
regard
c) has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet
d) has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the
discretionary power vested with the President of India
Answer C
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article
108 of the Constitution
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961
3. Joint sitting can be called for constitutional amendments bills also
Which of these statements are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 only
Answer C
Explanation
● As per Article 108 of Constitution, a Joint session of Parliament can be summoned in the
following situations.
● If after a Bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House— (a) the
Bill is rejected by the other House; or (b) the Houses have finally disagreed as to the
amendments to be made in the Bill; or (c) more than six months elapse from the date of
the reception of the Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it, the
President may, unless the Bill has elapsed by reason of a dissolution of the House of the
People, notify to the Houses by message if they are sitting or by public notification if
they are not sitting, his intention to summon them to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose
of deliberating and voting on the Bill
● However, in calculating period of six months, those days are not considered when house
is prorogued or adjourned for more than 4 consecutive days. If the above conditions are
satisfied, the President of India may summon joint sitting of both the houses of
parliament. Not all bills can be refereed to a joint sitting of Parliament. There are two
exception. 1. Money Bill Under the Constitution of India, money bills require approval of
the Lok Sabha only. Rajya Sabha can make recommendations to Lok Sabha, which it is
not required to accept.
● Even if Rajya Sabha doesn't pass a money bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been
passed by both the Houses of Parliament after expiry of the above period.
● Therefore, a requirement to summon a joint session can never arise in the case of money
bill. 2. Constitution Amendment Bill Article 368 of Indian constitution require that
constitution of India can be amended by both houses of parliament by 2/3 majority. In
case of disagreement between both houses, there is no provision to summon joint session
of parliament.
● Joint session of Indian parliament has been called for only three bills Dowry Prohibition
Act (1961) The Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill (1978) The Prevention of
Terrorist Activities Act (2002)
5. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a
term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following
can be deduced from this ?
1. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term.
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer D
Explanation
● A governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon
his office. However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President.
Further, he can resign at any time by addressing a resignation letter to the President.
● The President may transfer a Governor appointed to one state to another state for the rest
of the term. Further, a Governor whose term has expired may be reappointed in the same
state or any other state. A governor can hold office beyond his term of five years until his
successor assumes charge. The underlying idea is that there must be a governor in the
state and there cannot be an interregnum
6. Which of the following Statements is not correct?
(a) The President has the power to instruct the Governor of a State to promulgate an
Ordinance applicable to the concerned state.
(b) The President can issue directions for the formation of Tribal Councils even in States not
having Scheduled Areas.
(c) Only President has the legislative power to make regulations relating to Puducherry.
(d) Article 365 paves the way for the President to assume to himself any of the
Governmental powers of the State.
Answer C
Explanation
● Pondicherry has Legislative Asembly
7. Which of the following are correct with respect to division of power between union and
states?
1. On a subject in concurrent list, union law always prevails over state law
2. Union can never make a law on the subject in state list with the two exceptions of
emergency provisions in operation at the time; or a request by the state/s or Rajya Sabha
for the same.
3. The subjects not listed in any list are considered to be part of union list, provision also
known as residuary power
4. Rajya Sabha has the sole authority for the initiation of All India Judicial Services under
article 312.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer C
Explanation
● State Law can prevail in case of permission by President. For international agreements,
Parliament can make laws on state list
8. Consider the following statements regarding The Chief Minister of State and choose the
correct option:
1. The Chief Minister has the privilege to appoint and remove any minister.
2. The advice of the Chief Minister to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly is binding
upon the Governor when the Chief Minister still has the majority support.
3. The State Council of Minister is collectively responsible before the Governor of the State.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer C
Explanation
● Governor appoints and remove any minister.
● CoM is responsible before state legislature