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25/3/2014 www.prelimsmodeltests.com/GS_Paper_II_1.html

Model Test Paper 1

General Study Paper II

The fact that superior service can generate a competitive advantage for a company does not mean that every

attempt at improving service will create such an advantage. Investments in service, like those in production and

distribution, must be balanced against other types of investments on the basis of direct, tangible benefits such as

cost reduction and increased revenues. If a company is already effectively on a par with its competitors becauseit provides service that avoids a damaging reputation and keeps customers from leaving at an unacceptable rate

then investment in higher service levels may be wasted, since service is a deciding factor for customers only in

extreme situations.

This truth was not apparent to managers of one regional bank, which failed to improve its competitive position

despite its investment in reducing the time a customer had to wait for a teller. The bank managers did not

recognize the level of customer inertia in the consumer banking industry that arises from the inconvenience of

switching banks. Nor did they analyze their service improvement to determine whether it would attract new

customers by producing a new standard of service that would excite customers or by proving difficult for

competitors to copy. The only merit of the improvement was that it could easily be described to customers.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(a) contrast possible outcomes of a type of business investment

(b) suggest more careful evaluation of a type of business investment

(c) illustrate various ways in which a type of business investment could fail to enhance revenues

(d) trace the general problems of a company to a certain type of business investment

2. According to the passage, investments in service are comparable to investments in production and distributio

in terms of the

(a) tangibility of the benefits that they tend to confer

(b) increased revenues that they ultimately produce

(c) basis on which they need to be weighed

(d) insufficient analysis that managers devote to them

3. The passage suggests which of the following about service provided by the regional bank prior to its

investment in enhancing that service?

(a) It enabled the bank to retain customers at an acceptable rate.

(b) It threatened to weaken the banks competitive position with respect to other regional banks.

(c) It had already been improved after having caused damage to the banks reputation in the past.

(d) It was slightly superior to that of the banks regional competitors.

4. The passage suggests that bank managers failed to consider whether or not the service improvement

(a) was too complicated to be easily described to prospective customers


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(c) could be sustained if the number of customers increased significantly

(d) was an innovation that competing banks could have imitated

5. The discussion of the regional bank serves which of the following functions within the passage as a whole?

(a) It describes an exceptional case in which investment in service actually failed to produce a competitive

advantage.(b) It illustrates the pitfalls of choosing to invest in service at a time when investment is needed more

urgently in another area.

(c) It demonstrates the kind of analysis that managers apply when they choose one kind of service

investment over another.

(d) It provides an example of the point about investment in service made in the first paragraph.

6. The author uses the word only in the last line most likely in order to

(a) highlight the oddity of the service improvement

(b) emphasize the relatively low value of the investment in service improvement

(c) distinguish the primary attribute of the service improvement from secondary attributes

(d) single out a certain merit of the service improvement from other merits

The antigen-antibody immunological reaction used to be regarded as typical of immunological responses.

Antibodies are proteins synthesized by specialized cells called plasma cells, which are formed by lymphocytes

(cells from the lymph system) when an antigen, a substance foreign to the organisms body, comes in contact

with lymphocytes. Two important manifestations of antigen-antibody immunity are lysis, the rapid physical

rupture of antigenic cells and the liberation of their contents into the surrounding medium, and phagocytosis, aprocess in which antigenic particles are engulfed by and very often digested by macrophages and polymorphs.

The process of lysis is executed by a complex and unstable blood constituent known as complement, which wil

not work unless it is activated by a specific antibody; the process of phagocytosis is greatly facilitated when the

particles to be engulfed are coated by a specific antibody directed against them.

The reluctance toabandon this hypothesis, however well it explains specific processes, impeded new

research, and for many years antigens and antibodies dominated the thoughts of immunologists so completely

that those immunologists overlooked certain difficulties. Perhaps the primary difficulty with the antigen-antibody

explanation is the informational problem of how an antigen is recognized and how a structure exactlycomplementary to it is then synthesized. When molecular biologists discovered, moreover, that such information

cannot flow from protein to protein, but only from nucleic acid to protein, the theory that an antigen itself

provided the mold that directed the synthesis of an antibody had to be seriously qualified. The attempts at

qualification and the information provided by research in molecular biology led scientists to realize that a second

immunological reaction is mediated through the lymphocytes that are hostile to and bring about the destruction

the antigen. This type of immunological response is called cell-mediated immunity.

Recent research in cell-mediated immunity has been concerned not only with the development of new and bette

vaccines, but also with the problem of transplanting tissues and organs from one organism to another, for

although circulating antibodies play a part in the rejection of transplanted tissues, the primary role is played bycell-mediated reactions. During cell-mediated responses, receptor sites on specific lymphocytes and surface


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cells, probably by secreting a variety of substances, some of which are toxic to the tissue cells and some of

which stimulate increased phagocytic activity by white blood cells of the macrophage type. Cell-mediated

immunity also accounts for the destruction of intracellular parasites.

7. The author is primarily concerned with

(a) proving that immunological reactions do not involve antibodies

(b) explaining two different kinds of immunological reactions(c) establishing that most immunological reactions involve antigens

(d) criticizing scientists who will not change their theories regarding immunology

8. The author argues that the antigen-antibody explanation of immunity had to seriously qualified because

(a) antibodies were found to activate unstable components in the blood

(b) antigens are not exactly complementary to antibodies

(c) lymphocytes have the ability to bind to the surface of antigens(d) antigens have no apparent mechanism to direct the formation of an antibody

9. The author most probably believes that the antigen-antibody theory of immunological reaction.

(a) is wrong

(b) was accepted without evidence

(c) is unverifiable

(d) is a partial explanation

10. The author mentions all of the following as being involved in antigen-antibody immunological reactions

EXCEPT the

(a) synthesis of a protein

(b) activation of complement in the bloodstream

(c) destruction of antibodies

(d) entrapment of antigens by macrophages

11. The passage contains information that would answer which of the following questions about cell-mediated

immunological reactions?

I. Do lymphocytes form antibodies during cell-mediated immunological reactions?

II. Why are lymphocytes more hostile to antigens during cell-mediated immunological reactions than are other

cell groups?

III. Are cell-mediated reactions more pronounced after transplants than they are after parasites have invaded th

organism?

(a) I only

(b) I and II only


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(d) II and III only

12. The passage suggests that scientists might not have developed the theory of cell-mediated immunological

reactions if

(a) proteins existed in specific group types

(b) proteins could have been shown to direct the synthesis of other proteins(c) antigens were always destroyed by proteins

(d) antibodies were composed only of protein

13. According to the passage, antibody-antigen and cell-mediated immunological reactions both involve which

of the following processes?

I. The destruction of antigens

II. The creation of antibodies

III. The destruction of intracellular parasites

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) III only

(d) I and II only

14. The author supports the theory of cell-mediated reactions primarily by

(a) pointing out a contradiction in the assumption leading to the antigen-antibody theory

(b) explaining how cell mediation accounts for phenomena that the antigen-antibody theory cannot account

for

(c) revealing new data that scientists arguing for the antigen-antibody theory have continued to ignore

(d) showing that the antigen-antibody theory fails to account for the breakup of antigens

About twice every century, one of the massive stars in our galaxy blows itself apart in a supernova explosion

that sends massive quantities of radiation and matter into space and generates shock waves that sweep through

the arms of the galaxy. The shock waves heat the interstellar gas, evaporate small clouds, and compress larger

ones to the point at which they collapse under their own gravity to form new stars. The general picture that hasbeen developed for the supernova explosion and its aftermath goes something like this. Throughout its evolution

a star is much like a leaky balloon. It keeps its equilibrium figure through a balance of internal pressure against

the tendency to collapse under its own weight. The pressure is generated by nuclear reactions in the core of the

star which must continually supply energy to balance the energy that leaks out in the form of radiation. Eventuall

the nuclear fuel is exhausted, and the pressure drops in the core. With nothing to hold it up, the matter in the

center of the star collapses inward, creating higher and higher densities and temperatures, until the nuclei and

electrons are fused into a super-dense lump of matter known as a neutron star.

As the overlying layers rain down on the surface of the neutron star, the temperature rises, until with a blinding

flash of radiation, the collapse is reversed. A thermonuclear shock wave runs through the now expanding stellar

envelope, fusing lighter elements into heavier ones and producing a brilliant visual outburst that can be as intense


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most of its energy at X-ray wavelengths, so it is not surprising that X-ray observatories have provided some of

the most useful insights into the nature of the supernova phenomenon. More than twenty supernova remnants

have now been detected in X-ray studies.

Recent discoveries of meteorites with anomalous concentrations of certain isotopes indicate that a supernova

might have precipitated the birth of our solar system more than four and a half billion years ago. Although the

cloud that collapsed to form the Sun and the planets was composed primarily of hydrogen and helium, it also

contained carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen, elements essential for life as we know it. Elements heavier than heliumare manufactured deep in the interior of stars and would, for the most part, remain there if it were not for the

cataclysmic supernova explosions that blow giant stars apart. Additionally, supernovas produce clouds of high-

energy particles called cosmic rays. These high-energy particles continually bombard the Earth and are

responsible for many of the genetic mutations that are the driving force of the evolution of species.

15. Which of the following titles best describes the content of the passage?

(a) The Origins and Effects of Supernovas

(b) The Life and Death of Stars

(c) The Origins and Evolution of Life on Earth

(d) The Aftermath of a Supernova

16. According to the passage, we can expect a supernova to occur in our galaxy

(a) about twice each year

(b) hundreds of times each century

(c) about once every fifty years

(d) about once every other century

17. According to the passage all of the following are true of supernovas EXCEPT that they

(a) are caused by the collision of large galaxies

(b) are extremely bright

(c) are an explosion of some sort

(d) emit large quantities of X-rays

18. The author employs which of the following to develop the first paragraph?

(a) Analogy

(b) Deduction

(c) Generalization

(d) Example

19. It can be inferred from the passage that the meteorites mentioned by the author

(a) contain dangerous concentrations of radioactive materials


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(c) include material not created in the normal development of our solar system

(d) are larger than the meteors normally found in a solar system like ours

20. The author implies that

(a) it is sometimes easier to detect supernovas by observation of the X-ray spectrum than by observation

of visible wavelengths of light

(b) life on Earth is endangered by its constant exposure to radiation forces that are released by a supernov

(c) recently discovered meteorites indicate that the Earth and other planets of our solar system survived the

explosion of a supernova several billion years ago

(d) lighter elements are formed from heavier elements during a supernova as the heavier elements are torn

apart

21. According to the passage what is the first event in the sequence that leads to the occurrence of a supernova

(a) An ordinary star begins to emit tremendous quantities of X-rays.(b) A neutron star is enveloped by a superheated cloud of gas.

(c) An imbalance between light and heavy elements causes an ordinary star to collapse.

(d) An ordinary star exhausts its supply of nuclear fuel and begins to collapse.

22. According to the passage a neutron star is

(a) a gaseous cloud containing heavy elements

(b) an intermediate stage between an ordinary star and a supernova(c) the residue that is left by a supernova

(d) the core of an ordinary star that houses the thermonuclear reactions

23. The author is primarily concerned with

(a) speculating about the origins of our solar system

(b) presenting evidence proving the existence of supernovas

(c) discussing the nuclear reaction that occurs in the core of a star

(d) describing the sequence of scientific events

The 2008 A Level results show that 97.2% of students passed compared with 96.6% in 2007. 25.9% gained A

grades, a rise of 0.6%. The number of students sitting A Levels, 827 737, was also a record. This high success

rate is causing concerns in some quarters that the exams are getting easier. However, the government insists tha

the results reflect increased spending and improvements in teaching. Meanwhile the general secretary of the

Association of Teachers and Lecturers, Dr Mary Bousted, has berated teaching methods in schools as spoon-

feeding students to pass exams without developing the desire to continue learning and the skills necessary to

learn independently. In reply the general secretary of the University and College Union, Sally Hunt, suggested it

is unfair to downplay the students results and the hard work of their teachers.


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(a) True

(b) False

(c) Cannot say

(d)

25. A level exams are getting easier

(a) True

(b) False

(c) Cannot say

(d)

26. The general secretary of the University and College Union said that students are being spoon-fed to pass

examinations

(a) True

(b) False

(c) Cannot say

(d)

International Development Secretary, Douglas Alexander, has compared sanitary conditions in developing

countries today with the situation in London 150 years ago when Parliament had to be closed owing to sewage

running through the streets of the capital and a stench from the River Thames an event that has been called

The Great Stink. Today more than 1 billion people in developing countries have no toilets and 900 million hav

no access to clean water. Mr. Alexanders response has been an announcement that the Department ofInternational Development plans to build more than 50 million toilets and provide clean drinking water to more

than 25 million people in developing countries over the next five years. This plan is part of the departments

broader strategy to help poor countries in Africa and Asia to better manage their water resources and fight the

effects of climate change.

27. The Great Stink occurred in London

(a) True

(b) False(c) Cannot say

(d)

28. When the project to build toilets is completed, on average twenty people are going to have to share one

toilet

(a) True

(b) False

(c) Cannot say

(d)


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29. The Department of International Development intends to do more than just provide clean drinking water an

toilets to Africa and Asia

(a) True

(b) False

(c) Cannot say

(d)

30. What was the unit sales ratio of Austrian Quarter 4 : Portugal Quarter 1: Greek Quarter 4?

(a) 35:28:22

(b) 5:3:4

(c) 6:4:3

(d) 5:4:3

31. Which country met or exceeded its annual target for unit sales?

(a) Greece

(b) Portugal

(c) Austria

(d) Ireland

32. The previous years average number of Portuguese units sold per quarter was 20% higher than the yearshown. What was the previous years average number of Portuguese units sold per quarter?

(a) 104,200

(b) 31,260

(c) 26,050

(d) 21,260

33. If Austrias annual corporation tax was 22% on the first 200,000 of sales and 20% on sales exceeding

200,000, how much tax is due for the year (assuming each unit is sold at 3.5 Euros)?

(a) 34,000

(b) 34,060

(c) 37,060

(d) 78,060

34. Greek and Irish sales generated 2.5 Euros per unit sold, whilst the other countries sales generated 2.25

Euros per unit sold. Which country or countries exceeded their Annual Product Sales Target?

(a) Portugal and Austria


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(c) Croatia and Greece

(d) Croatia and Austria

35. Which competitor(s) has less than 100,000 customers per day (assume 30 days per month)?

(a) All competitors

(b) Competitor B

(c) Competitor E

(d) Competitors B and E

36. Which Competitor has the lowest average number of staff per country of operation?

(a) Competitor A

(b) Competitor B

(c) Competitor C

(d) Competitor E

37. If Competitors B to E make up 85% of the business sector in which they operate (based upon operating

profits), approximately what are the total operating profits of the other companies in the same business sector?

(a) 3 million

(b) 28 million

(c) 33 million(d) 35 million

38. Competitor B has an additional business that generates an additional 8% to the Retail Sales shown.

Competitors A and C have additional businesses that generate 7% and 4% additional revenue respectively.

Whats the total of these additional sales streams for Competitors A, B and C combined (to the nearest

million)?

(a) 9 million

(b) 10 million(c) 11 million

(d) 12 million

39. Which two Competitors average the same approximate number of customers per country of operation?

(a) Competitor A and Competitor D

(b) Competitor B and Competitor D

(c) Competitor A and Competitor C(d) Competitor B and Competitor E


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(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

41.

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

42.

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

43.

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

44.

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

45. FAG GAF HAI IAH ____

(a) JAK

(b) HAL

(c) HAK

(d) JAI

46. BCB DED FGF HIH ___


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(b) HJH

(c) IJI

(d) JHJ

47. ZA5Y4B XC6W3D _____

(a) E7V(b) V2E

(c) VE5

(d) VE7

48. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

(a) leopard

(b) cougar

(c) elephant

(d) lion


(a) couch

(b) rug

(c) table(d) chair


(a) tape

(b) twine

(c) cord

(d) yarn

51. SPY : CLANDESTINE

(a) accountant : meticulous

(b) furrier : rambunctious

(c) lawyer : ironic

(d) shepherd : garrulous

52. DOMINANCE : HEGEMONY


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(c) independence : autonomy

(d) tolerance : philanthropy

53. AERIE : EAGLE

(a) capital : government

(b) bridge : architect(c) unit : apartment

(d) house : person

54. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

granamelke means big tree

pinimelke means little tree

melkehoon means tree house

Which word could mean big house?

(a) granahoon

(b) pinishur

(c) pinihoon

(d) melkegrana

55. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

lelibroon means yellow hat

plekafroti means flower garden

frotimix means garden salad

Which word could mean yellow flower?

(a) lelifroti

(b) lelipleka

(c) plekabroon

(d) frotibroon

56. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.moolokarn means blue sky

wilkospadi means bicycle race

moolowilko means blue bicycle

Which word could mean racecar?

(a) wilkozwet

(b) spadiwilko

(c) moolobreil

(d) spadivolo


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the answer that provides the best example of the given definition. Answer each question solely on the basis of

the definition given.

57. Violating an Apartment Lease occurs when a tenant does something prohibited by the legally binding

document that he or she has signed with a landlord. Which situation below is the best example of Violating an

Apartment Lease?

(a) Tim has decided to move to another city, so he calls his landlord to tell him that he is not interested inrenewing his lease when it expires next month.

(b) Valerie recently lost her job and, for the last three months, has neglected to pay her landlord the

monthly rent they agreed upon in writing when she moved into her apartment eight months ago.

(c) Mark writes a letter to his landlord that lists numerous complaints about the apartment he has agreed to

rent for two years.

(d) Leslie thinks that her landlord is neglecting the building in which she rents an apartment. She calls her

attorney to ask for advice.

58. It is appropriate to compensate someone if you have damaged his or her property in some way. This is

called Restitution.Which situation below is the best example of Restitution?

(a) Jake borrows Leslies camera and the lens shatters when it falls on the ground because he fails to

zipper the case.When Jake returns the camera, he tells Leslie that he will pay for the repair.

(b) Rebecca borrows her neighbors car, and when she returns it, the gas tank is practically empty. She

apologizes profusely and tells her neighbor she will be more considerate the next time.

(c) Aaron asks Tom to check in on his apartment while he is out of town.When Tom arrives, he discovers

that a pipe has burst and there is a considerable amount of water damage. He calls a plumber to repair the

pipe.

(d) Lisa suspects that the pothole in her companys parking lot caused her flat tire. She tells her boss that

she thinks the company should pay for the repair.

59. People speculate when they consider a situation and assume something to be true based on inconclusive

evidence. Which situation below is the best example of Speculation?

(a) Francine decides that it would be appropriate to wear jeans to her new office on Friday after reading

about Casual Fridays in her employee handbook.

(b) Mary spends thirty minutes sitting in traffic and wishes that she took the train instead of driving.

(c) After consulting several guidebooks and her travel agent, Jennifer feels confident that the hotel she has

chosen is first-rate.

(d) When Emily opens the door in tears, Theo guesses that shes had a death in her family.

60. A Guarantee is a promise or assurance that attests to the quality of a product that is either (1) given in

writing by the manufacturer or (2) given verbally by the person selling the product. Which situation below is the

best example of a Guarantee?

(a) Melissa purchases a DVD player with the highest consumer ratings in its category.


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(d) Lori buys a used digital camera from her coworker who says that she will refund Loris money if the

cameras performance is not of the highest quality.

61. Reentry occurs when a person leaves his or her social system for a period of time and then returns. Which

situation below best describes Reentry?

(a) When he is offered a better paying position, Jacob leaves the restaurant he manages to manage a new

restaurant on the other side of town.

(b) Catherine is spending her junior year of college studying abroad in France.

(c) Malcolm is readjusting to civilian life after two years of overseas military service.

(d) After several miserable months, Sharon decides that she can no longer share an apartment with her

roommate Hilary.

62. Embellishing the Truth occurs when a person adds fictitious details or exaggerates facts or true stories.

Which situation below is the best example of Embellishing the Truth?

(a) Isabel goes to the theater, and the next day, she tells her coworkers she thought the play was excellent

(b) The realtor describes the house, which is eleven blocks away from the ocean, as prime waterfront

property.

(c) During the job interview, Fred, who has been teaching elementary school for ten years, describes

himself as a very experienced teacher

(d) The basketball coach says it is likely that only the most talented players will get a college scholarship.

Answer questions 63 through 65 on the basis of the information below.

At a small company, parking spaces are reserved for the top executives: CEO, president, vice president,

secretary, and treasurerwith the spaces lined up in that order. The parking lot guard can tell at a glance if the

cars are parked correctly by looking at the color of the cars. The cars are yellow, green, purple, red, and blue,

and the executives names are Alice, Bert, Cheryl, David, and Enid.

The car in the first space is red.

A blue car is parked between the red car and the green car.

The car in the last space is purple.

The secretary drives a yellow car.

Alices car is parked next to Davids.Enid drives a green car.

Berts car is parked between Cheryls and Enids.

Davids car is parked in the last space.

63. What color is the vice presidents car?

(a) green

(b) yellow

(c) blue(d) purple


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(a) Alice

(b) Bert

(c) Cheryl

(d) David

65. Who is the secretary?

(a) Enid

(b) David

(c) Cheryl

(d) Alice

66. What percent of the total area of the circular disk is colored red?

(a) 66.3%

(b) 66.5%

(c) 66.7%

(d) 67%

67.

Amy has to visit towns B and C in any order. The roads connecting these towns with her home are shown on

the diagram. How many different routes can she take starting from A and returning to A, going through both B

and C (but not more than once through each) and not travelling any road twice on the same trip?

(a) 10

(b) 8

(c) 6

(d) 4

68.

In the figure above AD = 4, AB = 3 and CD = 9. What is the area of triangle AEC ?

(a) 18

(b) 13.5

(c) 9

(d) 4.5

69.


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(a) 10

(b) 20

(c) 40

(d) 50

70.

The graphs above show United States Census Bureau population figures for the year 2000 for various age

groups, together with projections for the year 2050. Of the following age groups, for which is the projected

percent increase in population from 2000 to 2050 greatest?

(a) 30-39

(b) 40-49

(c) 50-59

(d) 60-69

71. If line l is the perpendicular bisector of the line segment with endpoints (2,0) and (0,-2), what is the slope o

line l?

(a) 2

(b) 1

(c) 0

(d) -1

72. The front, side, and bottom faces of a rectangular solid have areas of 24 square centimeters, 8 square

centimeters, and 3 square centimeters, respectively. What is the volume of the solid, in cubic centimeters?

(a) 24

(b) 96

(c) 192

(d) 288

73.

Rectangle ABCD is inscribed in the circle shown above. If the length of side AB is 5 and the length of side BC

is 12, what is the area of the shaded region?

(a) 40.28

(b) 53.1

(c) 72.7(d) 78.5


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(a) 1/6

(b) 1/3

(c) 1/2

(d) 5/6

75. Let's say you and your friend play a game that involves several coin flips. You flip three coins at the same

time. If all three coins come up the same (all heads or all tails), your friend wins. Otherwise, you win. What is thprobability that you win?

(a) 3/4

(b) 1/2

(c) 3/8

(d) 1/4

76. A spinner is divided into five equal sections, with each section having a different number from 1-5 written o

it. When you spin the spinner once, the arrow lands on 1. What is the probability that the spinner lands on 1

when you spin it again?

(a) 2/5

(b) 1/25

(c) 1/5

(d) 0

77. You play a game in which you flip a coin until you get tails. Each time your coin comes up heads, you win$200. If you play the game only once, what is the probability that you make exactly $1000?

(a) 1/2

(b) 1/32

(c) 1/64

(d) 1/16

78. A spinner is divided into twelve equal sections and each section is then labeled with a different number from

one to twelve. What is the probability of spinning a composite number if you spin the spinner once?

(a) 5/12

(b) 1/2

(c) 7/12

(d) 1/3

79. In the figure below, each side of square ABCD is divided into three equal parts. If a point is chosen at

random inside the square, what is the probability it will be in the shaded region?


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(b) 1/8

(c) 1/6

(d) 1/4

80. In the figure below, the circle with center O is inscribed in square ABCD. Line segment AO intersects the

circle at P. What is the length of AP ?

(a) 1

(b)

(c)

(d)

SUBMIT RESET TOTAL


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Detailed Solution Model Test IGeneral Study Paper II

1. (b) suggest more careful evaluation of a type of business investment (Because

investment in service might not lead to any advanage as suggested by theexample of the bank)

2. (c) basis on which they need to be weighed (Because "Investments in service,like those in production and distribution, must be balanced against other types ofinvestments")

3. (a) It enabled the bank to retain customers at an acceptable rate (Because theregional bank invested " in reducing the time a customer had to wait for a teller"and as such the bank was providing service reasonably which was acceptable tothe customers)

4. (d) was an innovation that competing banks could have imitated (Because thelast para tells that the bank did not analyze "their service improvement todetermine whether it would attract new customers by producing a new standardof service that would excite customers or by proving difficult for competitors tocopy")

5. (d) It provides an example of the point about investment in service made in thefirst paragraph (Because the first para tells that the investment in service mightnot be advantageous and in the second para he gives the example of oneregional bank)6. (b) emphasize the relatively low value of the investment in serviceimprovement (Because the investment in service improvement did not prove tobe advantageous to banks by way of acquiring new customers so the onlyadvantage is that they can explain their service improvement to their existingcustomers)

7. (b) explaining two different kinds of immunological reactions (Because the firstreaction is the typical "antigen-antibody immunological reaction") and the secondreaction as suggested by para 2 is "cell-mediated immunity")

8. (d) antigens have no apparent mechanism to direct the formation of anantibody (Because "When molecular biologists discovered, moreover, that suchinformation cannot flow from protein to protein, but only from nucleic acid toprotein, the theory that an antigen itself provided the mold that directed thesynthesis of an antibody had to be seriously qualified")

9. (d) is a partial explanation (Because the author does not discard this theorybut goes on to discuss the second king of immunological reaction i.e., cellmediated immunity)


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10. (c) destruction of antibodies (Because the second para tells that "the primarydifficulty with the antigen-antibody explanation is the informational problem ofhow an antigen is recognized and how a structure exactly complementary to it isthen synthesized" and the third para suggests that "Such lymphocytes do not

give rise to antibody-producing plasma cells but themselves bring about thedeath of the foreign-tissue cells")

11. (a) I only (Because the third para tells that "Such lymphocytes do not giverise to antibody-producing plasma cells")

12. (b) proteins could have been shown to direct the synthesis of other proteins(Because "When molecular biologists discovered, moreover, that suchinformation cannot flow from protein to protein, but only from nucleic acid toprotein, the theory that an antigen itself provided the mold that directed thesynthesis of an antibody had to be seriously qualified.")

13. (a) I only (Because the first para tells that "antigenic particles are engulfed byand very often digested by macrophages and polymorphs." and the third paratells that "Such lymphocytes do not give rise to antibody-producing plasma cellsbut themselves bring about the death of the foreign-tissue cells")

14. (b) explaining how cell mediation accounts for phenomena that the antigen-antibody theory cannot account for (Because the second para tells that "thetheory that an antigen itself provided the mold that directed the synthesis of anantibody had to be seriously qualified" and then "realize that a secondimmunological reaction is mediated through the lymphocytes that are hostile toand bring about the destruction of the antigen")

15. (a) The Origins and Effects of Supernovas (Because the author starts withthe origin of Supernova and then proceeds explaining the effects of Supernovas)

16. (c) about once every fifty years (Because "About twice every century" meansonce in 50 years)

17. (a) are caused by the collision of large galaxies (Because "one of themassive stars in our galaxy blows itself apart in a supernova explosion" collisionof galaxy is not the reason for Supernova)

18. (a) Analogy (Because "The general picture that has been developed for thesupernova explosion and its aftermath goes something like this" shows the use ofanalogy with some other phenomenon)

19. (c) include material not created in the normal development of our solarsystem (Because the use of anomalous in "Recent discoveries of meteorites withanomalous concentrations of certain isotopes")


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20. (a) it is sometimes easier to detect supernovas by observation of the X-rayspectrum than by observation of visible wavelengths of light (Because "This gaswill emit most of its energy at X-ray wavelengths, so it is not surprising that X-rayobservatories have provided some of the most useful insights into the nature of

the supernova phenomenon")21. (d) An ordinary star exhausts its supply of nuclear fuel and begins to collapse(Because the first para tells that "Eventually the nuclear fuel is exhausted, andthe pressure drops in the core. With nothing to hold it up, the matter in the centerof the star collapses inward")

22. (b) an intermediate stage between an ordinary star and a supernova(Because the first para tells about the formation of neutron star from the ordinarystar and the second para tells about the consequent formation of the supernova)

23. (d) describing the sequence of scientific events (Because the author has

focused on the sequence of the formation of the supernova from the ordinarystar)

24. Cannot sayThe improvement is given in the passage as a percentage, and it is true to saythatthe numbers of test-takers has increased (indeed, to record levels). However thepassage does not tell us explicitly why the results have improved.

25. Cannot saySome people have expressed concerns that the exams are getting easier, but noevidence of this notion is given in the passage.

26. Cannot sayThis suggestion was made by the general secretary of the Association ofTeachersand Lecturers. Although the secretary of the University and College Union (SallyHunt) defended the results, the passage does not explicitly tell us that Sally Huntdidor did not state students are being spoon-fed to pass examinations (it might beimplied she did not say this but it is not stated). For example she could have saidthisat another time but we do not know for sure given just the information in thepassage.

27. The Great Stink occurred in London.True

28. Cannot sayFirst of all the project referred to in the passage relates to developing countries,


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whereas the statement is broad, about all people in general. So immediately wecannot say. But also we are told about developing countries that there are 1billionpeople who have no toilet and that more than 50 million toilets will be built that is a

ratio of above 20 to 1.

29. TrueThe last sentence in the passage states that This plan is part of thedepartmentsbroader strategy to help poor countries in Africa and Asia....So if they have astrategy for a broader action, we can infer they intend to do more.

30. Step 1 - Put the 3 countries into a ratioAustria (Quarter 4) : Portugal (Quarter 1): Greek (Quarter 4)= 35,000: 28,000: 21,000

Step 2 simplify the ratio (recognize that 7 is a common denominator)5:4:3Thus the correct answer is (D), 5:4:3

31. Tip: Notice that all the available answers have just one country, so we knowthat as soon as we have found one country that exceeded its target, we have thecorrect answer and we can move on.Step 1 Calculate the total unit sales for each countryGreece = 108,300Portugal = 104,200Austria = 105,800Ireland = 102,400Crotia = 105,200

Step 2 Compare each total to the Yearly Target (Unit sales)Targets are either 105,000 or 110,000.Only Austria has exceeded its 105,000 target.Thus the correct answer is (C), Austria

32. Step 1 calculate this years average number of Portuguese units sold perquarter(28,000 + 33,200 + 22,600 + 20,400) / 4 = 104,200 /4 = 26,050Step 2 calculate a 20% increase to get last years average number ofPortuguese unitssold per quarter26,050 x 1.2 = 31,260Thus the correct answer is (B), 31,260

33. Step 1 Calculate the Total value of Austrian unit salesTotal Austrian unit sales = 105,800


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Total value of Austrian unit sales = 105,800 x 3.5 = 370,300Step 2 - Calculate the corporation tax for the first 200,000 of Austrian unit sales200,000 x 22% = 44,000Step 3 - Calculate the tax for sales exceeding 200,000370,300 - 200,000 = 170,300

170,300 x 20% = 34,060Step 4 calculate the total tax44,000 + 34,060Thus the correct answer is (D), 78,060

34. Step 1 Calculate the Total value of Austrian unit salesTotal Austrian unit sales = 105,800Total value of Austrian unit sales = 105,800 x 3.5 = 370,300Step 2 - Calculate the corporation tax for the first 200,000 of Austrian unit sales200,000 x 22% = 44,000Step 3 - Calculate the tax for sales exceeding 200,000

370,300 - 200,000 = 170,300170,300 x 20% = 34,060Step 4 calculate the total tax44,000 + 34,060Thus the correct answer is (D), 78,060

35. The information that you need is shown in the table.Step 1 Calculate the number of daily customers for each competitor, as shownbelow:Per

month

4.2 2.2 4.5 3.1 2.4

Per day(millions)

/30 = 0.14 /30 = 0.073 /30 = 0.073 /30 = 0.103 /30 = 0.08

These figures are in millions.Thus the correct answer is (D), Competitors B and E

36. The information that you need is shown in the table.Calculate the average number of staff per country of operation for eachCompetitor, asshown below

A B C D EStaff /Countries ofoperation

325,000/38 180,000/30 295,000/22 204,000/28 154,000/32

= 8,553 = 6,000 = 13,409 = 7,286 = 4,813


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Thus the correct answer is (D), Competitor E

37. The information that you need is shown in the graph.Step 1 Calculate the total operating profits for Competitors B to E

45.4 + 56.5 + 42.9 + 42.7 = 187.5 millionStep 2 Calculate operating profits for the entire sector187.5 0.85 = 220.6 million.Step 3 Calculate other companies operating profits220.6 x 15% = 33.09 million = 33 million approx.Thus the correct answer is (C), 33 million

38. The information that you need is shown in the graph.Step 1 Calculate the additional sales for Competitor B52.5 x 8% = 4.20Step 2 Calculate the additional sales for Competitor A

57.4 x 7% = 4.02Step 3 Calculate the additional sales for Competitor C68.2 x 4% = 2.73Step 4 Calculate the total sales4.20 + 4.02 + 2.73 = 10.95Step 5 to the nearest million10.95 = 11 millionThus the correct answer is (C), 11 million

39. The information that you need is shown in the table.Calculate the average number of customers per country of operation for eachCompetitorCompetitor A = 4.2/38 = 0.111Competitor B = 2.2/30 = 0.073Competitor C = 4.5/22 = 0.205Competitor D = 3.1/28 = 0.111Competitor E = 2.4/32 = 0.080Thus the correct answer is (A), Competitor A and Competitor D

40.


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Solution: DExplanation:In this question there is a die with six faces containing 1,2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 dots respectively.

The die is rotated by 90 anticlockwise about each of the two axes of symmetry

shown in the diagram. These rotations are performed alternately - first a rotationaboutAxis 1, then a rotation about Axis 2, then back to Axis 1, etc. Following theserules, the next rotation should be about Axis 1 and the correct answer is D. (Notethat it can be deduced from the previous diagrams which faces of the die areopposite each other. This follows the simple rule that the numbers on oppositefaces always add to 7.)

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Solution: BExplanation:In this question there are two different designs of flag depending on which waythe diagonal isdrawn. There are two rules to follow alternately.

The first rule is that the design of flag changes and at the same time the colourschange -black/grey changes to white/black, changes to grey/white, then back toblack/grey etc.

The second rule is that the flag is reflected in the vertical axis. In this case thecolours do notchange.For the next diagram of the sequence, therefore, the first rule must be applied.We change to theother design of flag and the colours change to black/grey. The correct answer,therefore, is B.

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Solution: CExplanation:In this question there is a five pointed star inside a regular pentagon. There isalso an asteriskand a dot. The dot moves around the inside points of the five-pointed star,rotating by 72 clockwise each time.The asterisk moves around the five triangles between the star and the regularpentagon androtates by 144 anticlockwise each time.

When both of these rules are applied simultaneously, the missing diagram of thesequence mustbe C.

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Solution: DExplanation:In this question there is a grid of squares with a black L shape, a light grey Hshape and a darkgrey I shape. Each time, the L shape moves right one place and down one place.Each time, the H shape moves to the left one place. Where the L intersects withthe H, the blackcolour of the L obscures the light grey of the H. Where the I intersects with the H,the dark grey ofthe I obscures the light grey of the H. The I shape does not appear in the first

diagram, but then moves one place right and one place up each time. When anyof the shapes reach an edge of the grid, the parts that move off from the griddisappear.Following these rules, the next diagram of the sequence must be D.

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Solution: AExplanation:In this question there are eight matchsticks of two different colours.Each time, the middle two matchsticks are turned upside down and then thematchstick on the farright is moved to the left.When these two rules are applied simultaneously, the correct answer is A.

45. a. The middle letters are static, so concentrate on the first and third letters.The series involves an alphabetical order with a reversal of the letters. The first

letters are in alphabetical order: F, G, H, I, J. The second and fourth segmentsare reversals of the first and third segments. The missing segment begins with anew letter.

46. a. This series consists of a simple alphabeticalorder with the first two letters of all segments:B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K. The thirdletter of each segment is a repetition of thefirst letter.

47. d. There are three series to look for here. The first letters are alphabetical in

reverse: Z, Y, X, W, V. The second letters are in alphabetical order, beginningwith A. The number series is as follows: 5, 4, 6, 3, 7.

48. c. A leopard, cougar, and lion all belong to the cat family; an elephant doesnot.

49. b. The couch, table, and chair are pieces of furniture; the rug is not.


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50. a. The yarn, twine, and cord are all used for tying. The tape is not used in thesame way.

51. c. A skein is a quantity of yarn; a ream is a quantity of paper.

52. b. To tailor a suit is to alter it; to edit a manuscript is to alter it.

53. d. A conductor leads an orchestra; a skipper leads a crew.

54. a. Jaundice is an indication of a liver problem; rash is an indication of a skinproblem.

55. b. A cobbler makes and repairs shoes; a contractor builds and repairsbuildings.

56. e. To be phobic is to be extremely fearful; to be asinine is to be extremely

silly.

57. b. Valerie signed a legally binding document that requires her to pay amonthly rent for her apartment and she has failed to do this for the last threemonths. Therefore, she has violated her apartment lease.

58. a. Jake damaged Leslies camera while it was in his possession and he hasagreed to compensate Leslie for the cost of the repair.

59.d. This is the only situation in which someone makes an assumption that isnot based on conclusive evidence. Choices a and c reflect situations in whichassumptions are made based on evidence. In choice b, Mary is not assuminganything to be true. She is simply wishing that shed made a different decision.

60.d. Choices a, b, and c do not describe situations in which a product isguaranteed. Only choice d reflects a situation in which a seller attests to thequality of a product by giving the buyer a promise or assurance about its quality.

61. c. Malcolm is the only person returning to a social system that he has beenaway from for an extended period of time.

62.b. The realtor is using a clear exaggeration when she states that a housewhich is eleven blocks away from the ocean is prime waterfront property.

63. a. The vice presidents car cannot be red, because that is the CEOs car,which is in the first space. Nor can it be purple, because that is the treasurerscar, which is in the last space, or yellow, because that is the secretarys. Thepresidents car must be blue, because it is parked between a red car (in the firstspace) and a green car, which must be the vice presidents.


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74. c: The correct answer is 1/2.There are six numbers on a die: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. There are three evennumbers on the die: 2, 4, and 6. 3 out of six numbers are even. 3/6 reduces to1/2.

75. a: The correct answer is 3/4.A quick way of going about this problem is determining the probability that one ofyour friend's outcomes will appear. The probability of multiple events happeningis equal to the product of the probability of each single event. The probability offlipping heads is 1/2, so the probability of flipping three heads in a row would be(1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2), or 1/8. The same thing occurs in the tails. (1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2) isequal to 1/8. The probability of your friend winning is 2/8, or 1/4. Subtract 1/4from 1 to get 3/4, the probability of you winning

76. c: The correct answer was 1/5.

Even though the spinner just landed on 1, it doesn't change the outcome of thenext spin. There is only one way to spin a 1, and there are five spots for thespinner to land on. The probability is 1/5

77. c: The correct answer was 1/64.You have to flip heads five times in a row to win $1000. The probability of flippingheads once is 1/2, so the probability of flipping heads five times would be (1/2 *1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2), or 1/32. However, the game is not over yet. In order to endthe game, you must now flip tails. The probability of that is 1/2. 1/2 * 1/32 = 1/64.

78. b: The correct answer was 1/2.

A composite number is a number with more than two factors. We see that 4, 6, 8,9, 10, and 12 are composite when we look at their factors. 6 out of the 12numbers are composite. 6/12 simplifies to 1/2.

79. Since the answer doesnt depend on the value of x (the probability will be thesame no matter what x is), let x = 1. Then the area of the whole square is 32 = 9.The area of each shaded triangle or of all the white sections can be calculated,but theres an easier way: notice that, if you slide the four shaded triangles


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together, they form a square of side 1. Therefore, the total shaded area is 1, andso the shaded area is 1/9 of the total area and the probability that the chosenpoint is in the shaded area is 1/9 (A).The idea of subtracting a part from the whole works with line segments as well asareas.

80.

ias pre csat

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