home assignment – 6...(2) home assignment-6 mock test for neet - 2020 6. if the intensity of sound...

(1)

PHYSICS

Instructions :

(i) Use Blue/Black ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.

(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.

(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.

(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on

Answer sheet.

(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

Choose the correct answer :

1. A body is projected horizontally from a certain height

with some velocity. Then the angle between its

acceleration and velocity

(1) May be 90º (2) Cannot be 90º

(3) May be obtuse (4) Cannot be acute

2. A substance of mass m kilogram requires a power

input of P watt to remain in the molten state at its

melting point. When the power is turned off the

sample completely solidifies in time t second. What

is the latent heat of fusion of the substance?

(1)Pt

m(2)

Pm

t

(3)m

Pt(4)

t

Pm

3. Spheres of same material and same radius r are

touching each other. The gravitational force between

them is directly proportional to

(1) r1 (2) r2

(3) r3 (4) r4

4. For a particle executing SHM the displacement x is

given by x = Acost. Identify the graph which

represents the variation of potential energy (U) as a

function of time (t) and displacement (x)

I II

t

IV

III

x

U U

(1) II, III (2) I, IV

(3) I, III (4) II, IV

5. A bucket contains some transparent liquid and its

depth is 40 cm. On looking from above, the bottom

appears to be raised by 8 cm. The refractive index

of the liquid is

(1)5

4(2) 5

(3)4

5(4)

8

5

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Time : 3 Hrs.

Home Assignment – 6

30/06/2020

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Home Assignment-6 Mock Test for NEET - 2020

6. If the intensity of sound is doubled, then intensity

level changes from L1 to L

2 where

(1) L2 = 2L

1(2) L

2 – L

1 = 2 dB

(3) L2 – L

1 = 3 dB (4) L

2 = L

1

7. A cylinder is pulled without slipping by a string

wrapped around it. If the string is pulled with a

velocity v, then centre of the cylinder moves with a

velocity vc equal to

c

vc

v

(1) v (2) 2v

(3)2

v

(4) Zero

8. Three blocks are placed at rest on a smooth inclined

plane with force acting on m1 parallel to the inclined

plane. Find the contact force between m2 and m

3

m 1

m 3

m 2

F

(1)1 2 3

3

( )m m m F

m

(2) F – (m

1 + m

2)g

(3)3

1 2 3

m F

m m m (4) F – (m1 + m

2 + m

3)g

9. The velocity-time graph for a particle moving along

x-axis is shown in the figure. The corresponding

displacement time graph is correctly shown by

v

t

(1)

x

t

(2)

x

t

(3)

x

t

(4)

x

t

10. Four resistances of 15 , 12 , 4 and 10 respectively are connected in cyclic order to form

Wheatstone bridge as shown in figure. The resistance

x to be connected in parallel with the resistance of

10 to balance the network is

15

12

x

10

4

G

(1) 4 (2) 10

(3) 12 (4) 15

11. The speed of a particle moving in a circle of radius

r = 2 m varies with time t as v = t2, where t is in

second and v in m/s. Then the net acceleration at

t = 2 s is

(1) 280 m/s (2) 4 m/s2

(3) 8 m/s2 (4) 248 m/s

12. If a body dropped from a certain height h hits the

ground with a velocity 2

2

gh after second rebound,

then coefficient of restitution between the body and

ground is

(1)1

2(2)

1

2

(3)1

4(4)

1/4

1

2

13. A lift moving upwards with a velocity 10 m/s is

stopped by uniform retardation in 5 s. The apparent

weight of a man of mass 60 kg before stopping will

be (take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 72 kg wt (2) 60 kg wt

(3) 48 kg wt (4) 50 kg wt

14. White light is incident on the interface of glass and

air. If green light grazes with the surface after

refraction as shown in figure, then the emerging light

in air contains

GreenAir

Glass

White

(1) Yellow, Orange, Red

(2) Violet, Indigo, Blue

(3) All colours

(4) All colours except green

(3)

Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-6

15. In a resonance column experiment the first

resonance is obtained when the level of the water in

tube is 20 cm from the open end. Resonance will

also be obtained when the water level is at a

distance of (assume no end error)

(1) 40 cm from the open end




16. The figure shows an arrangement of four parallel,

conducting plate of area A each. All the plates are

equally separated by d. The plates A and D are

joined together and a battery of emf E volt is

attached between plates B and C. Effective

capacitance of the arrangement across the battery is

B

C

A

D

d

E–

+

(1)0

2

3

A

d

(2)

03

2

A

d

(3)0A

d

(4)

03 A

d

17. Earth’s magnetic field always has a horizontal

component except at

(1) Magnetic equator

(2) Magnetic pole

(3) Geographic North pole

(4) Everywhere

18. When the current i is flowing through a conductor,

the drift velocity is v. If current 2i is flowed through

the same metal but having double the area of

cross-section, then the drift velocity will be

(1)4

v(2)

2

v

(3) v (4) 4v

19. When a body is projected vertically up, its potential

energy is twice its kinetic energy at a height h

above the ground. At what height will its kinetic

energy be twice the potential energy?

(1) 2h (2)3

h

(3)2

h(4)

4

h

20. The square loop is moved away from the wire with a

constant velocity v. The induced current in the loop is

r

i

(Current in infinitely long wire) v

a

(1) Zero (2) Anticlockwise

(3) Clockwise (4) Increasing

21. 5 g of water at 30ºC and 5 g of ice at –20ºC are

mixed together in a calorimeter. The final weight of

ice in the mixture will be :

(Specific heat of water = 1 cal/gºC, Specific heat of

ice = 0.5 cal/gºC, Latent heat of ice = 80 cal/gºC)

(1) 3.75 g (2) 5 g

(3) 0 g (4) 2.5 g

22. In which of the states shown in figure is the potential

energy of the electric dipole maximum?

(1) –q +q

E

(2)

–q

+q

E

(3)

–q

+q

E (4) +q –q

E

23. Two tuning forks P and Q, when set vibrating, gives

4 beats/s. If a prong of the fork P is filed, the beats

are reduced to 2 per second. If frequency of Q is

250 Hz, then frequency of P is

(1) 246 Hz

(2) 254 Hz

(3) Any of (1) & (2)

(4) None of these

24. The electric field associated with an wave in air has

an amplitude of 20 V/m. Then the amplitude of

oscillations of magnetic field is

(1) 5 × 10–2 T

(2) 2.3 × 10–8 T

(3) 6.67 × 10–8 T

(4) 3.3 × 10–7 T

(4)


25. Which of the following graph correctly represents the

variation

dV

dP

V

with P for an ideal gas at

constant temperature?

(1)

P

(2)

P

(3)

P

(4)

P

26. The bob of a simple pendulum of length L is released

at time t = 0 from a position of small angular

displacement. Its linear displacement at time t is

given by

(1) sin 2L

x a tg

(2) cos 2

gx a t

L

(3) sing

x a tL

(4) cos

gx a t

L

27. Two small conducting spheres of equal radius have

charges +10 C and –20 C respectively and placed

at a distance R from each other. They experience

force F1. If they are brought in contact and separated

to the same distance, they experience force F2. The

ratio of F1 to F

2 is

(1) 1 : 8

(2) 8 : 1

(3) 1 : 2

(4) 2 : 1

28. A thermocouple made of dissimilar metals A and B

is connected with a sensitive galvanometer G as

shown. One junction is dipped in a hot bath

maintained at temperature t1 and other in a cold bath

at temperature t2. A deflection is seen in the

galvanometer because

G

AB A B

Hot Cold

t2

t1

(1) An emf is generated and the value of which will

depend upon the temperature of hot bath only

(2) An emf is generated with its direction and value

depending upon the metals A and B used and

temperature difference (t1 – t

2)

(3) An emf is generated and value of which will

depend upon the temperature t1 only

(4) An emf is generated with its direction and value

depending upon the temperature difference only

and not on the metals A and B used

29. A Carnot engine whose low temperature reservoir is

at 7ºC, has efficiency of 40%. It is desired to

increase the efficiency to 50%. By how many

degrees must the temperature of high temperature

reservoir be increased?

(1) 273 K (2) 280 K

(3) 93.3 K (4) 66.7 K

30. Figure shows two identical disc each of mass M and

radius R joined together. The moment of inertia of

the system about the axis in their plane touching one

disc and perpendicular to the line joining their

centres is

(1)2

2

21MR

(2)2

2

1MR

(3) 3 MR2

(4)2

2

11MR

(5)


31. If one mole of a monatomic gas 5

3

is mixed

with one mole of a diatomic gas 7

5

, the value

of p

v

C

C

for the mixture is

(1) 1.4 (2) 1.5

(3) 1.53 (4) 3.07

32. The logic A(1 + B) is equivalent to

(1) A

(2) B

(3) 1

(4) 0

33. A transverse wave is described by the equation

0sin2

xy y nt

If the maximum particle velocity is four times the

wave velocity, then is equal to

(1) y0

(2)0

2

y

(3) y0

(4)0

2

y

34. In the figure an air lens of radii of curvature 10 cm

(R1 = R

2 = 10 cm) is cut in a cylinder of glass

3

2

. The focal length and the nature of the lens

is

Air Glass

(1) 15 cm, concave

(2) 15 cm, convex

(3) , neither concave nor convex

(4) 0 cm, concave

35. An inductor of 2 H and a resistance of 10 are

connected in series with a battery of 5 V. The initial

rate of change in current is

(1) 0.5 A/s (2) 2.0 A/s

(3) 2.5 A/s (4) 0.25 A/s

36. The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery

is

3

6 1.5

2

6 V

(1) 1 A (2) 2 A

(3) 4 A (4) 6 A

37. A particle moves in the x-y plane according to the

law x = kt, y = kt(1 – t), where k and are

positive constants and t is time. The trajectory of the

particle is

(1) y = kx (2)2x

y xk

(3)2x

yk

(4) y = x

38. The potential energy of a conservative system is

given by U = ax2 – bx (where a and b are positive

constants). Find the equilibrium position

(1) x = 0 (2)b

xa

(3)2

bx

a (4)

ax

b

39. The original activity of a radioactive substance is A0

and A is its activity after a time t. If its half life is T,

then which of the following relations holds good?

(1)

2

0

tA A

T

(2)0

1

2

t

T

A A

(3) A = A0(2)t/T (4)

0

1

2

T

t

A A

40. The logic gate shown in the figure represents

A Y

(1) AND gate (2) NOR gate

(3) NOT gate (4) NAND gate

41. On the basis of kinetic theory of gases, the mean

kinetic energy of 1 mole per degree of freedom is

(1)1

2kT (2)

1

2RT

(3)3

2kT (4)

3

2RT

(6)


46. Mass of iron which will be converted into its oxide

(Fe3O

4) by the action of 2 g molecule of steam on

it

(1) 42 g

(2) 4.7 g

(3) 84 g

(4) 56 g

47. A sealed tube which can withstand a pressure of

2 atmosphere is filled with air at 127°C and 760 mm

pressure. Temperature above which this tube will

burst

(1) 427°C (2) 627°C

(3) 527°C (4) 800°C

48. Caprolactam is monomer for the manufacture of

nylon-6 and is obtained by Backmann’s

rearrangement of

(1)

O

O

(2)

N – OH

(3)

OH

OH

(4)

O

O

49. Inert gas has been added to the following equilibrium

system at constant volume

2 2 3

1SO (g) O (g) SO (g)

2 ��⇀

↽��

To which direction equilibrium will shift?

(1) Forward

(2) Backward

(3) No effect

(4) Unpredictable

50. If 1 mole of a gas are dissolved in 100 g of H2O

under a pressure of 1 atmosphere, 0.5 moles will be

dissolved under a pressure of 0.5 atmospheres, this

may be feasible as per

(1) Dalton’s law of partial pressure

(2) Graham’s law

(3) Raoult’s law

(4) Henry’s law

51. Lithopone is

(1) ZnS + BaSO4

(2) BaS + ZnSO4

(3) ZnS + CaSO4

(4) ZnSO4 + CaS

42. A particle carrying a charge equal to 100 times the

charge of an electron is rotating with one rotation per

second in a circular path of radius 0.8 m. The value

of the magnetic field produced at the centre in SI

units will be (0 = permeability of vacuum)

(1)

7

0

10

(2) 10–170

(3) 10–60

(4) 10–70

43. Six identical capacitors joined in parallel are charged

to a potential difference of 10 V and are separated.

They are now connected in series such that the

positive plate of one is connected to negative plate

of other. The potential difference between free plates

is

(1) 10 V

(2) 30 V

(3) 60 V

(4)10

V6

44. Three infinite straight wires A, B and C carrying

currents as shown. The net force on the wire B is

d d

1 A 2 A 3 A

A B C

(1) Directed towards A

(2) Directed towards C

(3) Directed normal to plane of paper

(4) Zero

45. Given that in a hydrogen atom. The energy of nth

orbit 2

13.6eV

nE

n

. The amount of energy

required to send electron from 1st orbit to 2nd orbit is

(1) 12.1 eV (2) 13.6 eV

(3) 3.4 eV (4) 10.2 eV

CHEMISTRY

(7)


52. Sulphanalic acid H N2

SO H3

has high

melting point. This is due to

(1) The molecule exists as Zwitter ion

(2) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding take place

(3) The compound is purely covalent in character

(4) Due to dimer formation

53. The oxidation potential of a hydrogen electrode at

pH = 10 and pH2 = 1 atm

(1) 0.059 V (2) +0.59 V

(3) 0.00 V (4) 0.51 V

54. Which of the following mixture will acts as buffer?

(1) 10 ml of 1 N CH3COOH + 10 ml of 1N KOH

(2) 10 ml of 1 N HC2H

3O

2 and 0.5 mol of NaOH

(3) 1 mole of CH3COOH in 1 L solution + 0.5 mole

of NaOH in 1 L solution

(4) 1 mole of NH4Cl + 1 mole of NaOH

55. The organic compounds A and B react with sodium

metal and release H2 gas. A and B reacts with each

other to give ethylacetate. The A and B are

(1) CH3COOH and HCOOH

(2) CH3 – COOH and CH

3OH

(3)2 5

||H C O H and C H OH

O

(4) 3 2 5||

CH C O H and C H OH

O

56. Lead containers are not suitable for storage of

drinking water, as

(1) A layer of lead dioxide is deposited over

container

(2) Lead does not reacts with air to form litharge

(3) Lead reacts with H2O containing air to form

Pb(OH)2

(4) Lead does not form basic lead carbonate

57. The rate of 1st order reaction is 0.6932 × 10–2 mol

L–1 min–1 when initial concentration of the reactant is

1 M. t1/2

is equal to

(1) 6.932 min

(2) 100 min

(3) 0.6932 × 10–3 min

(4) 0.6932 × 10–2 min

58. Identify the product Z in the series,

CH3CN

2 5 2

4

Na/C H OH HNO [O]

KMnOX Y Z

(1) CH3CH

2 – NH – OH (2) CH

3COOH

(3) CH3 – CH

2 – CONH

2(4) CH

3CHO

59. A hydrocarbon X adds on one mole of hydrogen to

give another hydrocarbon and decolorized bromine

water. X reacts with KMnO4 in presence of acid to

give two moles of the same carboxylic acid. The

structure of X is

(1) CH2 = CH – CH

2 – CH

2 – CH

3

(2) CH3 – CH

2 – CH

2 – CH = CH – CH

3

(3) CH3 – CH

2 – CH = CH – CH

2 – CH

3

(4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH

2 – CH

2 – CH

3

60. What volume of O2 measured at standard conditions

will be formed by the action of 100 ml of 0.5 N

KMnO4

on hydrogen peroxide in an acid solution?

(1) 1.12 litre (2) 0.56 litre

(3) 0.28 litre (4) 0.12 litre

61. The work function for photoelectric effect is

(1) Different for different metals

(2) Depends on the frequency of incident light

(3) Same for all metals

(4) Depends on intensity of incident light

62. When a gas (A) is passed through dry KOH at low

temperature, a orange coloured solid compound (B)

and a gas (C) are obtained. The gas (A) on reaction

with 2-methyl-2-butene followed by hydrolysis yields

acetone and acetic acid. A, B and C are

(1) Br2, KOH, KBr (2) O

3, KOH, KO

2

(3) O3, KO

3, O

2(4) Cl

2, NaOH, H

2

63. 5 g of a mixture of hexane and ethanol are reacted

with Na to give 100 ml of hydrogen at 27°C and

760 mm pressure, percentage of ethanol in

mixture is

(1) 7.5 (2) 75

(3) 37 (4) 3.7

64. Which of the following is tranquillizer?

(1) Equanil (2) Streptomycin

(3) Phenol (4) All of these

65. A 20 g of iron (C = 0.45 J/g°C) at 100°C is dropped

into 50 g of H2O (C = 4.2 J/g°C) at 27°C. Find the

temperature of iron and water system at

thermal equilibrium

(1) 55°C (2) 50°C

(3) 30°C (4) 303°C

(8)


66. In the cyclic process shown in P-V diagram, the

magnitude of the work done is

V

V2

V1

P1 P

2

P

(1)

2

2 1P P

2

(2)

2

2 1V V

2

(3) 2 1 2 1(P P ) (V V )

4

(4) (V2 – V

1)2

67. The pressure on a sample of water at its triple point

is reduced while the temperature is held constant.

Which phases changes are favoured?

I. Melting of ice

II. Sublimation of ice

III. Vaporisation of liquid water

(1) I only (2) III only

(3) II only (4) Both II and III

68. The order of solubility of different sparingly soluble

salts if Ksp

is given as

Salt type Ksp

I. AB — 4 × 10–20

II. A2B — 3.2 × 10–11

III. AB3

— 2.7 × 10–31

(1) I < III < II (2) II < I < III

(3) I < II < III (4) III < I < II

69. 108 g fairly concentrate solution of AgNO3 is

electrolyzed using 0.1 F of electricity. The weight of

resulting solution is

(1) 94 g (2) 11.6 g

(3) 96.4 g (4) 108 g

70. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids has a boiling

point higher than either of them, it shows

(1) Positive deviation from Raoult’s law

(2) Negative deviation from Raoult’s law

(3) Ideal behaviour

(4) Saturated solution

71. The position of tetrahedral and octahedral voids

respectively in cpp structure is

(1) Body diagonal and edge centre

(2) Face diagonal and body centre

(3) Body centre and face centre

(4) Face centre and body centre

72. If the ratio of co-ordination number of x and y is

4 : 8, then the ratio of number of atoms of x and y

in unit cells is

(1) 4 : 8 (2) 8 : 4

(3) (8)2 : 4 (4) 4 : 82

73. Amongst 3– 2– 2–

3 3 3 3 3NO , AsO , CO , ClO , SO

and

3–

3BO , the non-planar species are

(1) 2 2 3

3 3 3CO , SO ,BO

(2) 3 2

3 3 3AsO , ClO , SO

(3) 2 3

3 3 3NO , CO ,BO

(4) 2 3

3 3 3SO ,NO ,BO

74. Which of the following have X—O—X

linkage? (X = central atom)

(i) 2

2 7Cr O

(ii) 2

2 3S O

(iii) Pyrosilicate (iv) Hyponitrous acid

(1) (i), (iii) (2) (iii), (iv)

(3) (i), (iii), (iv) (4) (i), (ii)

75. The correct order of ionic radius of N–3, Na+, F– ,

Mg+2 and O–2 is

(1)2 2 3Mg F Na O N

(2) N–3 > F– > O–2 > Na+ > Mg+2

(3) Mg+2 > Na+ > F– > O–2 > N–3

(4) N–3 > O–2 > F– > Na+ > Mg+2

76. Borazine (B3N

3H

6) is

(1) Aromatic (2) Anti-aromatic

(3) Non-aromatic (4) Organic compound

77. The correct bond order value is

(1) N2

< O2

< CO < B2

(2) O2

< N2

< H2 < CO

(3) O2

< N2

= CO < CO+

(4) N2

< C2

< O2 < CO+

78. [Fe (H2O)

6]+2 and [Fe (CN)

6]–4 differ in

(1) Geometry, magnetic moment

(2) Geometry, hybridization

(3) Magnetic moment, colour

(4) Hybridization, number of d-electrons

79. The oxide of a metal (R) can be reduced by the

metal (P) and metal (R) can reduce the oxide of

metal (Q). Then the decreasing order of the reactivity

of metal (P), (Q) and (R) with oxygen is

(1) P > Q > R (2) P > R > Q

(3) R > P > Q (4) Q > P > R

(9)


80. A pale yellow precipitate and a gas with pungent

odour are formed on warming dilute HCl with an

aqueous solution containing

(1) Sulphate ion (2) Sulphide ion

(3) Thiosulphate ion (4) Sulphite ion

81. The formation of 4

PH is difficult compared to

4NH

because

(1) Lone pair of P is optically inert

(2) Lone pair of P resides in almost pure p orbitals

(3) Lone pair of P resides at sp3 orbital

(4) Lone pair of P resides in almost pure s orbitals

82. Borax is converted into crystalline boron by the

following steps

x y3 3 2 3Borax H BO B O B

x and y are respectively

(1) HCl and Mg (2) HCl and C

(3) C and Al (4) HCl and Na

83.

3

|h

3 2 3 2

CH

CH CH CH CH Cl

Possible monochloro derivatives of the above alkane

including stereoisomers

(1) 4 (2) 5

(3) 6 (4) 8

84. CH COOC H3 2 5

C H ONa2 5

P(Major)

H+

What is P?

(1) CH3COCH

2COOC

2H

5

(2) CH – C – CH – CH COOC H3 2 2 2 5

O

(3) (CH3COCH

2)2O

(4) CH – C – CH– COOC H3 2 5

CH3

O

85. Rate of reaction for SN1 mechanism of the

following compounds

Cl

OCH3

Cl Cl Cl

CH3

NO2

I II IVIII

(1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I

(3) III > I > II > IV (4) IV > II > I > III

86.

C – Br

O

C – CH3

O

F

Br

. This is

(1) R, Z (2) S, Z

(3) S, E (4) R, E

87. Which is not correct about resonance?

(1) It makes the species stable

(2) It occurs in planar as well as in non-planar

species

(3) Resonance occurs effectively when overlapping

orbitals have same energies

(4) All are correct

88. Consider the solvolysis of the following halides

I.Cl

II.

Cl

Ph

III.

Ph

Ph

CH – Cl IV.

Ph

Ph

CH – I

Correct order of rate of solvolysis

(1) II > III > I > IV (2) IV > III > I > II

(3) IV > II > I > III (4) IV > III > II > I

89. CH3 – CH

2 – CH =

42

(Major )

NBS in CClCH [x]

h ,

[x] may be

(1) 3 2 2|

CH CH CH – CH

Br

(2) CH3 – CH = CH – CH

2 – Br

(3) 3 3| |

CH CH CH CH

Br Br

(4) Both (1) & (2)

90. + CH – C N + HCl3

(i) ZnCl

2

(ii) H O3

+

x ,

x is

(1)

CN

(2)

CN

(3)

C—CH3

O

(4)

OCH3

(10)


BOTANY

91. Which one of the following pair of taxons represent

less similar characters as compared to different

genera in taxonomic hierarchy?

(1) Solanum tuberossum and S.melongena

(2) Leopard and tiger

(3) Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae

(4) Primata and carnivora

92. In Whittaker’s system of classification, multicellular

transducers with tissue/organ grade of organisation,

are included in how many kingdoms?

(1) Only one kingdom (2) Two kingdoms

(3) Three kingdoms (4) Four kingdoms

93. Bacteria playing great role in recycling of nutrients

like N, P, Fe and S are nutritionally

(1) Chemoheterotrophs

(2) Photolithotrophs

(3) Photoorganotrophs

(4) Chemolithotrophs

94. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in a given

feature which is responsible for their survival in

extreme conditions. This feature is

(1) Absence of sap vacuole

(2) Chemical nature of cell wall

(3) 16S rRNA

(4) Body organisation and nucleus structure

95. Choose incorrectly matched combination

(1) Coenocytic mycelium, zoospore, cellulosic wall

- Oomycetes

(2) Shorter dikaryophase, crozier, conidia -

Deuteromycetes

(3) Dominant dikaryophase, sex organs absent-Club

fungi

(4) Trisporic acid, gametangial copulation -

conjugating fungi

96. In Bentham and Hooker’s system of classification

(1) Gamopetalous dicots are advanced over

monochlamydeous dicots

(2) Gymnosperms are primitive than dicots

(3) Dicots are classified into 3 sub-classes and

14 series

(4) Ordines anomali is a series of monocots

97. Algae with sulphated phycocolloids are

(1) Unicellular only

(2) Multicellular filamentous only

(3) Mostly fresh water forms

(4) Oogamous only

98. Archegoniates with gametophytic main plant body

have/show

(1) Mitospores formation

(2) Motile chemotropic gametes

(3) Internal fertilisation

(4) Isomorphic alternation of generation

99. Select correct statement w.r.t. the life cycle of male

shield fern

(a) Frond (b) Rhizophore

(c) True indusium (d) Prothallus

(e) Multiflagellate sperms (f) Heterosporous

(1) (a), (c), (d) & (e) (2) (a), (d), (e) & (f)

(3) (c), (d), (e) & (f) (4) (a), (b), (d) & (e)

100. Mid rib produces secondary axis or branches which

bear leaflets in

(1) Acacia and Delonix

(2) Silk cotton tree and Margossa

(3) Azadirachta and Rosa

(4) Moringa and Coriandrum

101. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. Fabaceae

a. Non-endospermic seed

b. Actinomorphic flower

c. Vexillary aestivation

d. Cymose inflorescence

e. Monocarpellary

f. Axile placentation

(1) a, d, & f (2) b, d & f

(3) a & f (4) f only

102. Which one of the following is not true for a plant

tissue with maximum refractive index?

(1) Present below epidermis either as homogeneous

layer or in patches

(2) Cells are oval, spherical or polygonal

(3) Thickening in cell wall due to deposition of

cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin

(4) Intercellular spaces are usually present

(11)


103. Anatomically dicot stem differs from monocot stem

in

(1) Presence of centrifugal xylem

(2) Absence of schizo-lysigenous water cavity

(3) Presence of hypodermis

(4) Absence of phloem parenchyma

104. The peripheral region of secondary xylem is

(1) Dark in colour

(2) Having tylose

(3) Non-functional with cells extractives

(4) Functional and light coloured

105. Which of the following pair of tissues can be formed

after redifferentiation?

(1) Phellem and phellogen

(2) Phelloderm and interfascicular cambium

(3) Bark and secondary phloem

(4) Bark and vascular cambium

106. Which one is incorrect w.r.t. cell membrane?

(1) The lipid component of membrane mainly

consists of phosphoglycerides

(2) Integral proteins are never partially buried in the

membrane

(3) Polar head of lipid lies towards the outer side

(4) Lipid amount is less than protein in human

erythrocytes

107. A number of proteins synthesised by ribosomes are

modified in

(1) Cytoplasm (2) ER

(3) GBs (4) Lysosome

108. Mitosis in plants is

(1) Amphiastral and eumitosis

(2) Centric and anastral

(3) Centric and amphiastral

(4) Anastral and acentric

109. Select correct match w.r.t. meiotic division

Column-I Column-II

a. Synaptonemal (i) Leptotene

complex formation

b. Attachment plate (ii) Zygotene

c. Terminalisation start (iii) Pachytene

d. Recombinase activity (iv) Diplotene

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

110. Which one of the following direction is correct for

osmosis in between three adjacent cells?

OP=30

TP=22

S=–25

A B

C

P= 10

S=–40

P= 36

(1) A B, C A & B

(2) B A & C, C A

(3) C A, A B, B C

(4) B C, A B, C A

111. The movement of water through root layers is

ultimately symplastic in the

(1) Epidermis (2) Cortex

(3) Endodermis (4) Xylem

112. Find correct match w.r.t. essential elements as

activator of enzymes

Column-I Column-II

a. PEPcase (i) Mo

b. Alcohol dehydrogenase (ii) Cu

c. Nitrogenase (iii) Zn

d. Ascorbic acid oxidase (iv) Mg

(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

113. NADP+ reductase activity in light reaction occurs

when

(1) The electron is circulated within the photosystem

(2) Photosystem is situated on stroma lamellae

(3) Light of wavelength beyond and below 680 nm

are available

(4) Light of wavelengths beyond 680 nm is available

only

114. CAM plants differ from C4-plants in

(1) Absence of wreath anatomy

(2) Spatial separation in both carboxylations

(3) Having rubisco activity during day

(4) Use of assimilatory power for CO2 fixation

115. Slow oxidation of NADH to NAD+ occurs in

(1) Aerobic respiration (2) Fermentation

(3) TCA cycle (4) HMP-pathway

(12)


116. Find correct match w.r.t. PGRs

Column-I Column-II

a. Brewing industry (i) Auxin

b. Weed-free lawns (ii) CK

c. Richmond Lang’s effect (iii)Ethylene

d. Flowering in mango (iv) GA

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

117. Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Gootee is practised in tropical and sub-tropical

herbs and shrubs

(2) Monocarpic plants are annuals, biennials and

can be perennials also

(3) In potato, megasporocytes have 48

chromosomes

(4) Marchantia is a dioecious plant

118. Most common type of pollen tetrads in flowering

plants is______ formed as the result of_____

cytokinesis of meiosis

(1) Isobilateral, successive

(2) Decussate, simultaneous

(3) Tetrahedral, simultaneous

(4) Tetrahedral, successive

119. Proliferation of the outer integumentary cells at

micropylar region in some albuminous dicots is

(1) Endothelium (2) Hypostase

(3) Strophiole (4) Obturator

120. Select odd group of plants w.r.t. pollination

(1) Ficus , Aristolochia, Salvia, Ophrys

(2) Callistemon, Kigelia, Michelia, Papaya

(3) Arum, Lilies, Arisaema, Lemna

(4) Potamogeton, Myriophyllum, Maize, Bamboo

121. Apomictic viable or recurrent embryo cannot be

produced by

(1) Adventitive embryony (2) Diplospory

(3) Apospory (4) Haplospory

122. In Lathyrus odoratus probability of getting coloured

and white flowers from the cross of heterozygous

and recessive parental combination is ________

respectively.

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 1

(3) 9 : 7 (4) 3 : 5

123. Inheritance of genetic trait in given pedigree chart is

controlled by

(1) Autosomal recessive gene

(2) Allosomal dominant gene

(3) Holandric gene

(4) Autosomal dominant gene

124. Removal of primer strand during auto-catalytic

function of DNA occurs by exonuclease activity in

(1) 3’ 5’ by kornberg enzyme

(2) 5’ 3’ by DNA polymerase I

(3) 5’ 3’ by DNA polymerase III

(4) 3’ 5’ by DNA polymerase I and III

125. Choose odd one out w.r.t. enzymes involved in post

transcriptional processing

(1) Guanyl transferase (2) Ribonuclease-P

(3) SnRNPs (4) Translocase

126. Select correct match

Column-I Column-II

a. Ambiguous codon (i) UGG

b. Non-degenerate (ii) GUG

codon

c. Mis-sense mutation (iii) 3’ GAA 5’ 3’GAT 5’

d. Silent mutation (iv) 3’ CTC 5’ 3’CAC 5’

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

127. In human genomics, sequencing of whole set of

exonic and intronic genes was done by

(1) STS

(2) ESTs

(3) Sequence annotation

(4) RFLP

128. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Jagannath variety of rice is developed by

mutation breeding

(2) C-306 wheat variety is a product of multiple

cross

(3) Himgiri is white rust resistant variety of mustard

(4) Pusa sadabahar is tobacco mosaic virus

resistant chilli variety

(13)


ZOOLOGY

136. Which of the following animal phylum includes

triploblastic, metamerically segmented and

Schizocoelomate animals with closed type of

circulatory system?

(1) Annelida (2) Arthropoda

(3) Mollusca (4) Echinodermata

137. Unsegmented body, calcareous shell, feather like

gills, rasping organ “Radula” and body divisible into

head, visceral hump and foot are characteristics of

phylum _____?

(1) Arthropoda (2) Mollusca

(3) Echinodermata (4) Hemichordata

138. Which of the following is not a correctly matching

pair of an animal and its characteristic features?

(1) Limulus – living fossil, respires with book gills

(2) Peripatus – connecting link between mollusca

and arthropoda

(3) Julus – Worm like body with 2 pairs of jointed

legs on each abdominal segment

(4) Echinus – Biting and chewing apparatus with

teeth, called “Aristotle’s lantern” is present

139. Which of the following features/structures are

common in chondrichthyes and osteichthyes?

(1) Placoid scales and cartilaginous endoskeleton

(2) Heterocercal tail and ampulla of lorenzini

(3) Air bladder and operculum

(4) Internal ear labyrinth and neuromast organs

140. All of these features make reptiles truly land

vertebrates except one?

(1) Development of internal fertilization

(2) Presence of amnion

(3) Presence of cledoic eggs

(4) Partially 4-chambered heart

141. Which of the following are found exclusively in all

mammals without any exception?

(1) Thecodont teeth and extra-abdominal testes

(2) Corpus callosum and seven cervical vertebrae

(3) Mammary glands and diaphragm

(4) Body hair and mammary glands

129. Turbidity in waste water is removed by

(1) Primary treatment

(2) Activated sludge method

(3) Secondary treatment

(4) Tertiary treatment

130. Choose incorrectly matched pair

(1) Gluconic acid – Penicillium chrysogenum

(2) Cyclosporin A – Mortierella renispora

(3) Large holed – Propionibacterium

swiss cheese sharmanii

(4) Butter milk – Lactobacillus acidophilus

131. The intrinsic rate of natural increase in population is

represented by

(1)dN

dt

(2)K N

K

(3) r

(4)Nn

N t

132. Connell’s elegant field experiments on the rocky sea

coasts of Scotland is the evidence of

(1) Habitat diversification (2) Prudent predators

(3) Resource partitioning (4) Competitive exclusion

133. Available biomass for the consumption to

decomposers is

(1) GPP (2) Standing state

(3) NPP (4) TLE

134. The current species extinction rates are estimated to

be 100 to 1000 times faster than in pre-human

times due to

(1) Mass extinction (2) Background extinction

(3) Natural extinction (4) Sixth extinction

135. Select correct statement

(1) Excessive use of fertilisers decreases soil salinity

(2) Catalytic converters can convert unburnt

hydrocarbons into CO and H2O

(3) Integrated waste water treatment in arcata

includes primary, secondary and tertiary

treatment

(4) Most effective greenhouse gas is CO2

(14)


142. Which of the following is not a correctly matched

pair?

(1) Biomacromolecule – All are formed by

polymerisation of monomers including lipids

(2) Homopolysaccharides – Starch, glycogen,

cellulose, inulin etc.

(3) PUFA – Lower melting point and have tendency

to solidify on exposure to air

(4) Protein – Collagen is most abundant in animal

world and Rubisco is most abundant in the

whole of the biosphere

143. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. vitamins and

deficiency disease

(1) Retinol – Xerophthalmia

(2) Thymine – Beri beri

(3) Folacin – Macrocytic anemia

(4) Cyanocobalamine – Megaloblastic anemia

144. Which of the following is an incorrect statement

w.r.t. Periplaneta americana?

(1) Peritrophic membrane is secreted by gizzard

and helps in protecting soft lining of midgut

(2) Human trachea is endodermal but cockroach’s

trachae is ectodermal in origin

(3) At resting stage, tracheoles remains filled with

tissue fluid as the O2 requirement is less

(4) The sperms are stored in the spermatheca and

are glued together in the form of bundle called

spermatophore

145. Injection of which of the following chemical into body

can prevents activation of prothrombin to check blood

coagulation?

(1) Thromboplastin released from activated platelets

(2) Fibrinogen synthesized by liver

(3) Heparin released by mast cells

(4) Sodium oxalate released by liver

146. Which of the following is a correct sequence of

events involved in the micturition reflex?

a. Contraction of smooth muscles of the bladder

and relaxation of the urethral sphincter

b. Interpretation of the sensory impulse in CNS

providing a feeling of fullness.

c. Stretching of the urinary bladder as it gets filled

with urine

d. Conduction of motor impulse through

parasympathetic nerve

e. Stretch receptors sends sensory signals to CNS

through sacral spinal nerve

(1) a, b, c, d & e (2) b, c, a, d & e

(3) c, e, b, d & a (4) c, e, d, b & a

147. Which of the following regulatory protein binds to

Ca2+ in the cytosol of smooth muscle?

(1) Calsequestrin (2) Calmodulin

(3) Troponin (4) Tropomyosin

148. Which of the following is a sesamoid bone

developed by tendon of quadriceps extensor

muscle?

(1) Humerus (2) Skull bones

(3) Patella (4) Pisiforms

149. Which of the following is not a correct statement

w.r.t. the joint diastole in cardiac cycle?

(1) The blood flows from the great veins into the

atria and from the atria into the respective

ventricle as AV valves remain open

(2) There is no flow of blood from the ventricle to the

aorta as the semilunar valves remain closed

(3) At the beginning there is rapid closure of

semilunar valve produces a sound “dup”

(4) At the end, rapid closure of AV valve produces

a louder sound “lubb”

150. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(1) Angina pectoris – Acute chest pain due to

inadequate blood supply to

heart muscle

(2) Heart failure – Interruption of conduction

of action potential from SA

node to muscles at any

degree

(3) Cardiac arrest – When the heart stops

beating

(4) Heart attack – When the heart muscle is

suddenly damaged by an

inadequate blood supply

151. In what way liver may be considered excretory in

function?

(1) Biosynthesis of bile salts

(2) Elimination of bilirubin and biliverdin

(3) Deamination of amino acids

(4) Detoxification of toxic substance

152. Human teeth are characterised by all of the following

except one?

(1) Heterodont and diphyodont

(2) Thecodont and bunodont

(3) Thecodont and brachydont

(4) Secodont and thecodont

(15)


153. In an athlete, pulmonary ventilation rate is

7200 ml/minute. When he is breathing at the rate

12 breath/minute and about 200 ml air remains in

dead space during each breath, what would be the

alveolar ventilation rate (in ml/minute) under similar

physical conditions?

(1) 3600 (2) 4800

(3) 6000 (4) 1000

154. Shifting of oxygen dissociation curve towards right

side shows higher rate of dissociation of

oxyhaemoglobin. Which of the following is not a

favourable factor for dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin

to release O2 in tissues?

(1) High pCO2 and H+ concentration

(2) Low pH and high pCO2

(3) High body temperature and concentration of

DPG

(4) High pH and low concentration of DPG

155. Which of the following is associated with the

regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of

emotional reaction and motivation?

(1) Corpus-callosum (2) Limbic system

(3) Corpus-striata (4) Medulla

156. Arrange the following structures to make the correct

pathway for passing the sound waves which finally

converts into neural impulses in the organ of Corti?

a. Reissner’s and tectorial membrane

b. Ear pinna and external auditory meatus

c. Tympanum and ear ossicles

d. Perilymph of scala vestibuli

e. Oval window

(1) a, b, c, d & e (2) b, c, d, e & a

(3) b, c, e, d & a (4) c, d, e, a & b

157. Which of the following is not associated with

transmission of impulse through chemical synapse?

(1) Ca2+ and acetylcholine

(2) Acetylcholine esterase in synaptic cleft

(3) Specific receptors on post-synaptic membrane

(4) Gap-junctions between the two successive

neurons

158. Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder

associated with neuro-muscular junction?

(1) Myasthenia gravis (2) Multiple sclerosis

(3) Rheumatoid arthritis (4) Chronic anemia

159. Thyroid hormones play important roles in regulation

of all the following activities except one?

(1) Basal metabolic rate and blood formation

(2) Blood Ca2+ level and activity of osteoclast cells

(3) Menstrual cycle and activity of gonads

(4) Differentiation of T lymphocytes and production

of antibodies

160. Which of the following is/are correct statement(s)

w.r.t. the male accessory glands?

a. Secretes seminal plasma which is rich in

fructose

b. Fructose is produced by seminal vesicles only

and provide a forensic test for rape

c. Prostaglandins initiate a wave of contraction in

the uterus and fallopian tube

d. Secretion of prostate gland forms 60% of the

volume of semen

e. Secretion of Cowper’s glands carries some

sperms released before ejaculation

(1) a, b & c (2) b, c & e

(3) a, b, c & e (4) All of these

161. Which of the following smooth muscles help in

maintaining the temperature of testes, necessary for

spermatogenesis, particularly during cold season?

(1) Detrussor muscle (2) Dartor’s muscle

(3) Cremastor muscle (4) Both (2) & (3)

162. Which of the following is a correct match of the

source, the hormone secreted from it and the target

organ on which the hormone act?

(1) Testis – ICSH – Interstitial cell

(2) Hypothalamus – GnRH – anterior pituitary

(3) Anterior pituitary – FSH – Leydig cells

(4) Hypothalamus – Gonadotropins – testis

163. All of the following events are involved in a menstrual

cycle except one?

(1) Lack of menstruation may be an indicative of

pregnancy

(2) Proliferative phase is characterised by high

concentration of hormones like FSH, LH and

progesterone

(3) Rapid secretion of LH leading to its maximum

level during the mid of the cycle induces

ovulation

(4) Luteal phase has high concentration of ovarian

hormones which is essential for maintenance of

the endometrium

(16)


164. The signals for parturition originate from the_____and

the_____, which induces mild uterine contractions

called foetal ejection reflex. This triggers release of

_____ from the maternal pituitary?

(1) Hypothalamus, ovary, progesterone

(2) Hypothalamus, placenta, relaxin

(3) Fully developed foetus, placenta, oxytocin

(4) Fully developed foetus, maternal pituitary,

Oxytocin

165. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. the MTPs?

(1) Usually practised to get rid of unwanted or

unsustainable pregnancies

(2) According to MTP act, 1971, MTPs can be

done upto 12 weeks but is considered relatively

safe upto 20 weeks of pregnancy

(3) MTPs has a significant role in decreasing the

population, but is not meant for that

(4) Certain drugs like RU-486 (mifepristone) can

induce abortion without surgery

166. No contraceptive drug or device is used in all of the

following contraceptive methods except one?

(1) Lactational amenorrhoea

(2) Coitus interruptus

(3) Implants

(4) Periodic abstinence

167. Study the figure given below showing internal

structure of forelimbs in different mammals. It

indicates all of the following except one?

Man Cheetah Whale Bat

(1) Common ancestry

(2) Same structure developed along different

directions due to adaptation to different needs

(3) Divergent evolution

(4) Different structure evolving for the same function

and hence having similarity

168. When more than one adaptive radiations appeared to

have occurred in an isolated geographical area, one

can call this_____?

(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution

(3) Parallel evolution (4) Macro-evolution

169. Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. the

genetic drift?

. (1) Change in gene frequency in a small population

occurring-by chance

(2) It upsets Hardy-Weinberg law

(3) It fixes or eliminates genes in the gene pool

irrespective of its adaptive value

(4) It is similar to natural selection

170. Which of the following man emerged about

34000 years ago and had a well built body, strong

jaws with modern man like dentition, well developed

chin and is believed to be somewhat more intelligent

and cultured than us?

(1) Homo habilis

(2) Homo erectus

(3) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis

(4) Homo sapiens fossilis

171. Which of the following is/are the correct statement

with respect to HIV?

a. Enters into the host cell through receptor

mediated endocytosis

b. The viral RNA genome produces the viral DNA in

the host cell by using enzyme reverse

transcriptase

c. Drug addicts, thalassemic patients etc are at

high risk of getting HIV infection

d. Retrovirus and is diploid

e. Viral glycoprotein GP120 binds with CD4

receptor of T4-lymphocytes

(1) a, b and c (2) b, c, d and e

(3) a, b, c and e (4) All of these

172. All of the following lymphoid organs provide the sites

for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen which

then proliferate to become effector cell, except one

(1) Thymus (2) Spleen

(3) Lymph nodes (4) MALT

173. Which of the following is a very effective sedative

and pain killer and is useful in patients who have

undergone surgery?

(1) Barbiturates (2) Codeine

(3) Morphine (4) Amphetamine

(17)


��

174. The gene responsible for MHC antigens or HLA is

located on which chromosome of the tissue cells?

(1) 2 (2) 6

(3) 15 (4) 21

175. Cell mediated immunity is responsible for rejection of

organ transplant or graft. Which of the following graft

has maximum differences in their MHC antigens and

could be rejected easily?

(1) Autograft

(2) Isograft

(3) Xenograft

(4) Allograft

176. Which of the following is not a correctly matched

pair w.r.t. the breads of cattle?

(1) Milch breeds – Sahiwal, Red Sindhi etc.

(2) Draught breeds – Malvi, Nageri etc.

(3) Exotic breeds – Jersey, Ayrshire etc.

(4) Cross breeds – Brown Swiss, Karan Fries

etc.

177. Which of the following gene is used to control corn

borer?

(1) cry I Ac

(2) cry II Ab

(3) cry I Ab

(4) All of these

178. In PCR, multiple copies of the gene of interest can

be synthesised in vitro by using all except one?

(1) 2 sets of primers (2) Taq polymerase

(3) DNA ligase (4) Thermal changes

179. Which of the following is not correct statement w.r.t.

the RNA interference technology (RNAi)?

(1) Process of post-transcriptional gene silencing

(2) Occurs in all eukaryotic cells as method of

cellular defence

(3) Using Agrobacterium vector, a nematode specific

gene has been introduced into the tobacco plant

to make them resistant against infection of the

nematode

(4) Involves dicer enzyme complex which can cut

ss-RNA of nematode when it infects the plant

180. When antibiotic resistance gene is used as

selectable marker and pBR-322 plasmid of E.coli as

a vector in recombinant DNA technology, which of the

following is correct w.r.t. the successfully

transformed recombinant E.coli?

(1) Can survive on plate-II containing ampicillin and

tetracycline in medium

(2) Shows insertional inactivation of one antibiotic

resistance gene

(3) Can be collected from plate-II and are allowed to

grow in bioreactors

(4) There is no insertion of desired gene

Edition: 2020-21

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