home assignment · 2020. 3. 21. · home assignment crash course for neet-2020 (4) 24. a particle...

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Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 CRASH COURSE for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Home Assignment Topics covered : Physics : Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane

Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom

Botany : The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom Zoology : Animal Kingdom

Instructions : (i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. (ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. (iii) Dark only one circle for each entry. (iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only. (v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing

material on Answer sheet. (vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : 1. If A, B and C are three physical quantities such

that A and B are of same dimensions while C has different dimensions, then which of the following may be meaningful

(1) ( )A C

B+ (2)

( )2C BA−

(3) ( )

AB C+

(4) ( )2 3A B

C−

2. Time period of a simple pendulum recorded in three experiments are 1.9 s, 2.0 s and 2.1 s, then

(1) Mean absolute error is 0.01

(2) Relative error is 0.05

(3) Percentage error is 0.5%

(4) Percentage error is 0.05%

3. If ε0 is permittivity of free space and µ0 is magnetic permeability of free space then the

dimensional formula of 12

0 0

2 µ ε

is

(1) [ ]1MLT−

(2) [ ]0 1M LT−

(3) [ ]2MLT−

(4) [ ]0 2M LT−

4. A particle moving on a straight line has initial velocity 2.03 m/s, accelerating uniformly with 1.0 m/s2 after 0.3 s will have velocity (in m/s) (upto correct significant figures)

(1) 2.3 (2) 2.0 (3) 2.06 (4) 2.1

Home Assignment Crash Course for NEET-2020

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5. A physical quantity X is related to four quantities

α, β, γ and ρ as 2 3

32

X α β=

ρ γ

The percentage errors in measurement of

α, β, ρ and γ are 1 1%, %, 2%2 3

and 1%3

respectively then percentage error in X is (1) 1.5% (2) 2.5% (3) 3.5% (4) 4% 6. If power of a force varies with displacement x and

time t as 2

,2

axPb t

=−

where a and b are

dimensional constants, then the dimensional formula of [ab] is

(1) [ ]0 1ML T− (2) [ ]2 3ML T−

(3) [ ]0 3ML T− (4) [ ]0 1M LT− 7. If force (F), acceleration (a) and time (t) are

considered to be fundamental quantities, then the dimensional formula of surface tension is

(1) [Fat] (2) [ ]1 1Fa t− −

(3) [ ]1 2Fa t− − (4) [ ]1 2Fa t− 8. If each division on the main scale is 1 mm, which

of the following vernier scales gives vernier constant equal to 0.05 mm?

(1) 9 mm divided into 10 divisions (2) 19 mm divided into 20 divisions (3) 90 mm divided into 100 divisions (4) 99 mm divided into 100 divisions 9. If dimensional formula of a physical quantity is

[ ]a b cM L T , then the physical quantity is

(1) Torque, if a = 1, b = 2 and c = –1 (2) Surface tension, if a = 1, b = 1 and c = –2 (3) Impulse, if a = 1, b = 1 and c = –1 (4) Radial acceleration, if a = 0, b = 1 and c = –1 10. Which of the following is more precise

instrument? (1) Meter scale having smallest division 1 mm (2) Vernier callipers in which 20 vernier scale

division coinciding with 19 main scale division (3) Screw gauge with 0.5 mm smallest division

on linear scale and 50 divisions on circular scale

(4) Vernier callipers with least count 0.02 mm

11. A particle is moving along x-axis such that its position (x) varies with time(t) as, x = (t sint) m then average acceleration of the particle from

t = 0 s to t = s2π is

(1) 2m/s2π (2) 22 m/s

π

(3) 2m/s4π (4) 24 m/s

π

12. The velocity time graph of a particle moving on a straight line is as shown in figure.

The corresponding displacement time graph will

be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13. A police jeep wants to chase a thief’s car which is moving with speed 40 m/s on a straight track. If the separation between the jeep and car is 400 m then speed of jeep required to catch the car in 20 s is

(1) 40 m/s (2) 60 m/s (3) 80 m/s (4) 120 m/s

Crash Course for NEET-2020 Home Assignment

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14. Who among the following scientist was awarded Nobel prize for his work on photoelectric effect?

(1) Sir Isaac Newton (2) Albert Einstein

(3) de-Broglie (4) Neil Bohr 15. The acceleration-time (a-t) graph of a particle

moving along a straight line is as shown in figure. If the initial velocity of the particle is 5 m/s then the velocity at the end of 7 s is

(1) 5 m/s

(2) 6 m/s (3) 8 m/s

(4) 10 m/s 16. A vehicle travels one fourth of total distance with

speed v1 and remaining part with speed v2 then its average speed in the total journey is

(1) 1 232+v v (2) 1 2

1 2

3+

v vv v

(3) 1 2

1 2

43 +

v vv v

(4) 1 2

1 2

4+

v vv v

17. An elevator of cabin height 1.2 m starts ascending with acceleration 2 m/s2. One second after the start a loose bolt starts falling from the ceiling. The time after which bolt will hit the floor of elevator is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 1 s5

(2) 6 s5

(3) 5 s (4) 1 s2

18. The displacement time graph of a particle moving on a straight line is as shown. The section of the graph which corresponds to positive acceleration is

(1) OA (2) AB

(3) BC (4) DE

19. A particle moves a distance x in time t according

to the equation 1 .( 1)

xt

=+

The acceleration of

the particle is proportional to

(1) 23(velocity) (2)

53(velocity)

(3) 13(distance) (4)

52(distance)

20. A ball is dropped from a high tower at t = 0. After 10 s another ball is thrown in downward direction from the same point with speed v. If these two balls meet at t = 15 s. Then the value of v is (take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 50 m/s (2) 100 m/s (3) 200 m/s (4) 225 m/s 21. A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with velocity

6 m/s,j in xy plane with constant acceleration

( ) 22 2 m/sa i j= −

. Then the position coordinates of the particle (in m) when velocity of the particle becomes parallel to x-axis is

(1) (9, 9) (2) (3, 9) (3) (6, –9) (4) (6, 0) 22. Speed of a projectile at the point of projection is

2 times the speed at its maximum height the angle of projection of the projectile is

(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60°

(4) ( )1tan 2−

23. A particle moves so that its position vector is given by sin cos ,r A t i B t j= ω + ω

where A and B are positive constants which of the following is true?

(1) Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r

(2) Velocity is perpendicular to r

and acceleration is directed towards origin

(3) Velocity is parallel to r

and acceleration is parallel to r

if A = B (4) Velocity is perpendicular to r

for A = B, and acceleration is opposite to r

for any value of A and B


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24. A particle is moving such that its position co-ordinates are varying with time as shown below

S. No. Position (x, y) in m Time (s)

(i) (0, 2) 0

(ii) (2, 5) 2

(iii) (8, 8) 6

The average velocity of the particle from t = 0 s to t = 6 s is

(1) ( )4 3i j+ m/s (2) 43

+ i j m/s

(3) ( )i j+ m/s (4) ( )3 4i j+ m/s

25. The angle of projection of a projectile for which range is double the maximum height, will be

(1) θ = tan–1(2) (2) θ = tan–1(4)

(3) θ = 45° (4) 1 1tan2

− θ =

26. Water jet comes out from a point O on the ground at a speed v at angle 45° with horizontal as shown. The speed v of jet so that it can wet the man upto his head will be (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 10 m/s (2) 10 2 m/s

(3) 10 m/s2

(4) 100 m/s

27. A particle moves with velocity v

in xy plane as ( )2 2 m/s= +

v c xy i yx j . Then the general equation of its path will be

(1) y = x + constant (2) y = x2 + constant (3) y2 = x2 + constant (4) y3 = x3 + constant 28. Which of the following set of magnitude of

vectors cannot give zero resultant? (1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 25, 5, 15 (3) 10, 5, 8 (4) 15, 8, 20 29. A man crosses a river of width 400 m flowing at

40 m/s in minimum time. If velocity of man in still water is 50 m/s then the displacement of man while he reaches the opposite bank of the river is

(1) 80 m (2) 8 4 m

(3) 80 41 m (4) 10 41 m

30. For a man walking with speed 3 2 km/h rain appears to fall vertically downward. When he starts running with 5 2 km/h rain appears to fall on him at an angle of 45° with vertical. The speed of rain w.r.t. ground (in km/h) is

(1) 22

(2) 2 6

(3) 26

(4) 2 7 31. Two boys A and B initially separated by a straight

line distance a on the ground. If A and B both start running simultaneously with same speed as shown in figure. The distance of their closest approach will be

(1) 2a (2) 2a

(3) 32

a (4) a

32. Consider three vectors , andA B C

, which add up to give zero vector. Then which of the following is false?

(1) A B B C× = ×

(2) ( )A B C× ×

lies in the plane of , andA B C

(3) ( )A B C ABC× ⋅ =

if A B⊥

(4) ( ) 0A B C× ⋅ =

for any angle between andA B

33. The position of a particle is varying w.r.t. time as 2 2( 1)r a t i bt j= − +

where a and b are constants, r

is in m, and t is in second. The time after which acceleration becomes normal to the velocity is

(1) aa b+

(2) 2

2( )a

a b+

(3) 2a

a b+ (4)

2

2 2a

a b+

34. A particle starts from rest on a circle of radius 25 mπ

with uniformly increasing speed. If it

completes 5 revolutions after 5 s of motion then tangential acceleration will be

(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2 (3) 15 m/s2 (4) 20 m/s2


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35. In the figure given below the maximum height of the projectile will be

(1) 13.5 m (2) 15.5 m (3) 18 m (4) 9 m 36. A particle is moving on a circle of radius 2 m. Its

speed (v) varies with time t as v = αt2, where α is a constant. The ratio of radial acceleration to tangential acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is

(1) α (2) 8 (3) 2α (4) 4 37. A ball is dropped from a long tower. One second

after its fall air provides horizontal acceleration of 24 m/s

3g . Total displacement covered by the ball

after 4 s of its fall will be (take g = 10 m/s2) (1) 133.3 m (2) 100 m (3) 227.8 m (4) 150 m 38. A particle on y-axis starts from rest along a

straight line y = 3 with constant acceleration22 3 m/s . Angle made by position vector of the

particle with positive x-axis after one second of its motion is

(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90° 39. A man standing at a point in a flood affected

area, is waiting for a food packet to be dropped from a plane. If the plane is flying at an altitude of 2 km with speed 360 km/h, then at what angle of sight (with respect to horizontal) the packet should be dropped so as to reach safely in hands of the man? (take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) tan–1(2) (4) 60°

40. If diagonals of a parallelogram are ( )i j− and

( )i j+ , then area of the parallelogram will be

(1) 0.5 unit (2) 1 unit (3) 2 unit (4) 4 unit 41. A system of units has 10 kg, 10 cm and 10 s as

the units of mass, length and time respectively. Then the value of 10 N in this system will be

(1) 1000 units (2) 1 units (3) 10 units (4) 100 units 42. A car moving along x-axis with speed 72 km/h is

brought to rest travelling a distance of 20 m. If retardation is uniform then time taken (in s) in stopping this car is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

43. If resultant of two unit vectors a and b is 3 in magnitude, then the magnitude of difference of these unit vectors is

(1) Zero (2) 1

(3) 3 (4) 2 44. A body is moving with 20 m/s towards east. After

5 s its velocity becomes 30 m/s towards north and continues. Then ratio of magnitude of average velocity between (0 to 10 s) and average acceleration between (0 to 10 s) is

(1) 12

(2) 3 132

(3) 5 (4) 5 13 45. Two quantities are measured as A = 1.0 m ± 0.2 m

and B = 2.0 m ± 0.2 m. The correct value of AB should be reported as

(1) 1.4 m ± 0.2 m (2) 1.4 m ± 0.1 m (3) 1.41 m ± 0.15 m (4) 1.4 m ± 0.4 m

CHEMISTRY

46. Total number of degenerate orbitals in the 2nd shell of Li2+ ion is

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 9 47. Angular nodes present in 4s and 2p orbitals

respectively are

(1) 1, 0 (2) 3, 0 (3) 0, 1 (4) 2, 3

48. Normality of 0.1 M H3PO3 is

(1) 0.2 N (2) 0.1 N

(3) 0.3 N (4) 0.15 N


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49. The molality of aq. solution of urea in which mole fraction of urea is 0.1, is

(1) 6.17 m (2) 5.24 m (3) 6.98 m (4) 5.78 m 50. The angular moment of electron in d-orbital is

(1) Zero (2) h2 π

(3) 3 h2 π

(4) h2π

51. The number of atoms present in 0.48 g of O3 is (NA = 6.022 × 1023)

(1) 18 × 1023 (2) 1.8 × 1023

(3) 18 × 1024 (4) 1.8 × 1022 52. Which of the following method of expressing

concentration is dependent on temperature? (1) Molality (2) Mole fraction (3) (w/w)% (4) Molarity 53. Maximum possible number of spectral lines

obtained in Lyman series when an electron in H-atom sample de-excites from third excited state to ground state is

(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 8 54. The wavelength associated with a 0.1 kg moving

object is 6.62 × 10–33 m. The speed of the moving object is (h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js)

(1) 10 ms–1 (2) 100 ms–1

(3) 1 ms–1 (4) 0.1 ms–1 55. The correct set of quantum numbers (n, , m) for

valence electron of zinc (Z = 30) is (1) 4, 1, 2 (2) 3, 0, 0 (3) 4, 0, 0 (4) 4, 2, 0 56. The number of significant figures in 50 pens is (1) Infinite (2) 2 (3) Zero (4) 1 57. The equivalent mass of KCl.MgCl2.6H2O is

(M = Molar mass of salt)

(1) M (2) M6

(3) M2

(4) M3

58. The ratio of the radius of second orbit of He+ to the first orbit of Be3+ ions is

(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 3 : 2 (4) 8 : 1 59. 50 ml of 1 N NaOH is mixed with 150 ml of 2 N

Ca(OH)2. The molarity of OH– ions in the resulting solution will be [Consider complete dissociation of NaOH and Ca(OH)2]

(1) 2.5 M (2) 1.75 M (3) 1.25 M (4) 1.50 M 60. Which of the following possess highest mass? (1) 22.4 L H2 at STP

(2) 5 g of H2

(3) 0.3 mole of H2

(4) 1.204 × 1024 molecules of H2

61. For a microscopic particle of mass m, x 2 v.∆ = ∆The uncertainty in the velocity of particle will be

(1) h2 mπ

(2) 1 h2 mπ

(3) 1 h2 2 mπ

(4) 1 h2m π

62. Volume of 0.2 M NaOH required to make 3 L of 0.1 M NaOH solution is

(1) 2 L (2) 2.5 L (3) 1.5 L (4) 1 L 63. x gram of metal gives y g of metal oxide on

complete combustion. The equivalent weight of metal is

(1) 8xy x−

(2) 8(y x)x−

(3) x8(y x)−

(4) y x8x−

64. Among the following em

ratio is minimum for

(1) Electron (2) Proton (3) -particleα

(4) Neutron 65. Among the following which has maximum number

of molecules? (1) 49 g of H3PO4 (2) 45 g of C6H12O6

(3) 28 g N2 (4) 36 g H2O


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66. An organic compound contain C, H and O gave the following analysis C = 40%, O = 53.33%. Its molecular formula may be

(1) C2H4O2 (2) C2H4O

(3) C2H6O (4) C2H6O2

67. The number of moles of nitrogen in one litre of air containing 79% nitrogen by volume, under standard conditions is

(1) 379 10

2.24

−× (2) 37.9 10

2.24

−×

(3) 379 10

0.224

−× (4) 379 10

224

−×

68. An element, X has the following isotopic composition, 100X : 80% and 102X : 20%. The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is closest to

(1) 100.9 (2) 100.4 (3) 101.2 (4) 101.8 69. Volume of CO2 obtained at STP by the complete

decomposition of 10 g of lime stone (90% pure) is nearly

(1) 1.7 litre (2) 3.8 litre (3) 2 litre (4) 2.6 litre 70. Select the isosteres pair among the following (1) O2, O3 (2) CO, N2

(3) CO2, O3 (4) CO, CO2

71. The number of revolution of electrons per second in nth orbit of H-atom is (k = constant)

(1) kn

(2) 3kn

(3) 2kn

(4) 4kn

72. The maximum wavelength among the following is of

(1) X-rays (2) -raysγ

(3) IR (4) Radio waves 73. The phenomenon which justify the wave nature of

light is/are (1) Diffraction (2) Photoelectric effect (3) Interference (4) Both (1) and (3)

74. Bohr theory is applicable to

(1) Li+ (2) Be2+

(3) B4+ (4) H+ 75. In H-atom spectrum, the wavelength of radiation

emitted when electron falls from third excited state to ground state is (RH = Rydberg constant)

(1) H

1615 R

(2) H

34 R

(3) H

98 R

(4) H

1516 R

76. The number of photons emitted in one second by a 10 watt bulb, which emits monochromatic light of wavelength 662 nm, is

(h = 6.62 × 10–34Js)

(1) 6.28 × 1018 (2) 3.33 × 1019

(3) 5.21 × 1018 (4) 7.25 × 1017 77. Select the correct statement regarding

photoelectric effect (1) Number of ejected electrons are independent

of intensity of light (2) Kinetic energy of electrons are independent

of intensity of light (3) Kinetic energy of electrons are independent

of frequency of light (4) Number of ejected electrons depends on the

frequency of light 78. A steel vessel containing 10 g H2 and 64 g O2

was exploded. The maximum moles of H2O produced in the reaction is

(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 4 (4) 5 79. If vapour density of a gas is 44 then the volume

occupied by the 0.88 g of gas at STP is (1) 2240 ml (2) 112 ml (3) 224 ml (4) 1120 ml 80. Number of maximum possible electron(s) in Zn

for which n + = 4, is (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 12 81. If the kinetic energy of an electron in nth shell of

H-atom is 3.4 eV then n is (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4


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82. 231

6.022 10 ×

g is known as

(1) 1 amu (2) 1 avogram

(3) 1 dalton

(4) All of these 83. The mole fraction of solute in aqueous solution

containing 42.5% (w/w) NaNO3 is

(1) 0.251 (2) 0.053

(3) 0.215

(4) 0.135 84. If threshold energy of a metal is 1.5 eV and

energy of incident photon an metal is 3 eV then stopping potential for the metal is

(1) 1.5 V (2) 2.5 V

(3) 3.5 V

(4) 0.5 V 85. The ratio of masses of two particles is 1 : 2 and

ratio of their kinetic energies is 9 : 2. The ratio of their de-Broglie wavelengths is

(1) 35

(2) 23

(3) 52

(4) 13

86. Which of the following is a possible arrangement of electrons in an atom?

(1) n = 5, l = 3, m = 4, s = + 12

(2) n = 4, l = 4, m = 3, s = – 12

(3) n = 5, l = 4, m = 2, s = + 12

(4) n = 4, l = 5, m = 3, s = + 12

87. The energy absorbed by each molecule of B2 is 2.2 × 10–18 J and bond energy per molecule of B2 is 2 × 10–18 J. The kinetic energy of the molecule per atom will be

(1) 1 × 10–18 J (2) 2 × 10–19 J (3) 2 × 10–20 J (4) 1 × 10–19 J 88. The percentage loss of mass by Na2SO4·10H2O

to become anhydrous is (1) 72.5% (2) 45.2% (3) 55.9% (4) 65.2% 89. The number of standing waves in 3rd shell of

H-atom is

(1) 3 (2) 32

(3) 3 (4) 33

90. A gaseous mixture contains H2 and CO2 gases in the ratio of 1 : 11 (w/w). The ratio of number of atoms of H2 to CO2 in the mixture is

(1) 43

(2) 25

(3) 13

(4) 27

BOTANY

91. Identify the wrong statement for flora.

(1) It gives the information about plants

(2) It gives the actual account of habitat and distribution of various plants of given area

(3) It is an index to the plant species of a specific area

(4) It also includes information of distribution pattern of animal species along with plants of an area

92. Key is an important taxonomic aid used for A

of plants and animals based on B in a pair

known as C

(1) A-Naming, B-Keys, C-Couplet

(2) A-Identification, B-Contrasting characters, C-Couplet

(3) A-Classification, B-Similarities, C-Keys

(4) A-Taxonomy, B-Dissimilarities, C-Lead


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93. Select the odd one out w.r.t. zoological parks (1) Wild animals are kept in zoos. (2) These are in-situ conservation strategies of

animals (3) Animals are kept in protective environment

under human care (4) National Zoological Park is located in Delhi 94. The specific epithet in Panthera leo and Pisum

sativum respectively, are (1) leo and Pisum (2) Panthera and sativum (3) leo and sativum (4) Panthera and Pisum 95. The basics to taxonomy does not include (1) Characterisation (2) Identification (3) Nomenclature (4) Evolutionary relationship 96. True regeneration is seen in (1) All fungi and algae (2) Planaria (3) Amoeba (4) Bacteria 97. In five kingdom classification, R.H. Whittaker

proposed a new kingdom as (1) Plantae (2) Protista (3) Monera (4) Fungi 98. R.H. Whittaker classified the organisms into five

kingdoms on basis the following criterias, except (1) Cell structure (2) Thallus organisation and mode of nutrition (3) 16 S rRNA sequences (4) Phylogeny 99. In six kingdom classification, which kingdom was

further divided into two kingdoms (1) Monera (2) Plantae (3) Fungi (4) Animalia 100. Which of the following is not a free living nitrogen

fixing bacteria (1) Azotobacter (2) Clostridium (3) Rhizobium (4) Klebsiella

101. Find the mismatched pair. (1) Acetobacteria – Vinegar production

aceti (2) Bacillus vulgaris – Ammonification (3) Nitrosomonas – N2 fixation

(4) Lactobacillus – Curd production 102. Branched chain lipids in cell membrane is a

feature of (1) Archaebacteria (2) Eubacteria (3) Diatoms (4) Cyanobacteria 103. Bacteria commonly reproduce asexually by (1) Conjugation (2) Binary fission (3) Budding (4) Conidia formation 104. Fungi differ from bacteria in having (1) 70 S ribosomes (2) Chitinous cell wall (3) Plasma membrane (4) Asexual reproduction 105. Euglena does not (1) Have chlorophyll a (2) Reproduce asexually (3) Have cell wall (4) Show heterotrophic mode of nutrition 106. The parasitic fungus found on mustard leaves is (1) Phytophthora (2) Albugo candida (3) Alternaria (4) Puccinia 107. Choose the correct option having names of all

sac fungi (1) Neurospora, Claviceps, Morels (2) Agaricus, Morels, Truffles (3) Claviceps, Penicillium, Puccinia (4) Alternaria, Penicillium, Morels 108. Find the odd one out w.r.t. lichens (1) They are composed of phycobiont and

mycobiont (2) The autotrophic component of lichens

prepare food for heterotrophic component (3) They are pioneer colonisers of barren rocks (4) Lichens can grow easily in SO2 polluted

areas


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109. Which one is incorrectly matched. (1) Ascomycetes – Penicillium (2) Basidiomycetes – Agaricus (3) Zygomycetes – Albugo candida (4) Oomycetes – Phytophthora 110. Which one is not a feature of fungi imperfecti. (1) Mycelium branched or septate (2) Asexual reproduction by conidia (3) Oospores are sexual spores (4) Fruiting bodies are absent 111. Endomycorrhiza (1) Forms, Hartig net in cortex of roots (2) Is mainly formed by oomycetes (3) Are also called Vesicular Arbuscular

Mycorrhiza (4) Is found in Pinus roots 112. Chief producers in the oceans are (1) Dinoflagellates (2) Euglenoids (3) Cyanobacteria (4) Diatoms 113. Sexual spores are produced exogenously in (1) Alternaria and Trichoderma (2) Puccinia and Ustilago (3) Penicillium and Aspergillus (4) Neurospora and Phytophthora 114. Find the statement wrong for both virus and

viroids (1) Both are non-infectious (2) Both have genetic material (3) Both are obligate parasites (4) Both are smaller than bacteria 115. Early blight of potato is caused by (1) Ustilago (2) Alternaria (3) Albugo (4) Phytophthora 116. Cellulose and chitin respectively are major

components of cell wall of (1) Algae and blue-green algae (2) Algae and diatoms (3) Algae and fungi (4) Fungi and algae

117. Membrane bound organelles are present in (1) Saccharomyces (2) Streptococcus (3) Bacillus (4) Clostridium 118. Which of the following is not related to ‘prions’? (1) Kuru disease (2) CFJ disease (3) BSE or Mad Cow disease (4) Cholera 119. Which is true about cyanobacteria? (1) Perform oxygenic photosynthesis and cell

wall is composed of chitin (2) Perform non-oxygenic photosynthesis and

cell wall is composed of cellulose (3) Perform oxygenic photosynthesis along with

nitrogenase activity in heterocyst (4) Perform non-oxygenic photosynthesis but

have heterocyst 120. Find the odd one out w.r.t. chlorophyceae (1) Storage bodies are called pyrenoids (2) Pyrenoid are composed of protein and starch (3) Ectocarpus, Dictyota and Fucus are

members of this class (4) Chlorophyll a, b and carotene are pigments

found in chlorophyceae 121. Which of the given is a feature of

‘Phaeophyceae’? (1) Cell wall is composed of cellulose, pectin and

polysulphated esters (2) Floridean starch is stored food (3) They have carrageen and agar in cell wall (4) Produce flagellatd spores and gametes 122. Hydrocolloids of red algae (a) Are water holding substances (b) Also includes agar (c) Are produced by Gelidium and Gracilaria Which of the above statements are true? (1) All (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a) and (c) only 123. Classification system given by Linnaeus and

Hutchinson respectively are (1) Natural and artificial (2) Artificial and natural (3) Artificial and phylogenetic (4) Phylogenetic and artificial


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124. Find the correctly matched pair.

(1) Chlorophyceae – Asexually reproduce by zoospores

(2) Phaeophyceae – Show post fertilizational development

(3) Rhodophyceae – Antherozoids are flagellated male gametes

(4) Phaeophyceae – Characteristic colour is due to phycoerythrin

125. Find the odd one out

(1) Chara

(2) Nostoc

(3) Ulothrix

(4) Spirogyra

126. Which of the following statements is wrong w.r.t. bryophytes?

(1) They are found in damp, shady and humid localities

(2) They are called amphibians of plant kingdom

(3) Gametophyte is diploid and dominant plant body

(4) Bryophytes are homosporous

127. Mosses

(1) Have less developed sporophyte than liver worts

(2) Exhibit creeping, green and branched filamentous stage called protonema, which is their juvenile phase

(3) Show diplontic life cycle

(4) May asexually reproduce by gammae

128. Which bryophyte has been employed by gardners to keep the seedlings moist?

(1) Sphagnum

(2) Marchantia

(3) Polytrichum

(4) Funaria

129. Coralloid roots are found in

(1) Pinus

(2) Sequoia

(3) Cycas

(4) All gymnosperms

130. After double fertilization in angiosperms

(1) Fertilized ovules develops into embryos

(2) Synergid and antipodal cells degenerate

(3) Zygote develop into seeds

(4) Synergids cells remain suspended in antipodal cells

131. Find the odd one out w.r.t. alternation of generations.

(1) In haplontic life cycle, gametophyte is dominant stage

(2) In diplontic life cycle, sporophyte is dominant stage

(3) In haplo-diplontic life cycle both sporophyte and gametophyte stages are absent

(4) In haplo-diplontic life cycle both sporophyte and gametophyte stages are equally dominant

132. Zygotic meiosis

(1) Is found in all algae

(2) Occur in all pteridophytes and angiosperms

(3) Is seen in green algae

(4) Occur in all gymnosperms and angiosperms

133. Find the mismatched pair w.r.t. plants

(1) Bryophyta– Embryophytes

(2) Pteridophyta–First tracheophytes

(3) Gymnosperms–Naked seeded plants

(4) Angiosperms– Archegoniate spermatophyte

134. Read the following statements.

A. In angiosperms seeds are formed inside fruit and the sporophylls are organised into flowers.

B. Smallest angiosperm is Wolfia

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are wrong

(3) Only statement A is correct

(4) Only Statement B is correct

135. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. angiosperms.

(1) A flower is the modified shoot

(2) PEN is triploid

(3) A pistil has stigma, style and ovary

(4) Pollen grain is formed inside megasporangia


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ZOOLOGY

136. The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct option w.r.t. a common characteristic of two of these animals.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) (a) and (d) have cnidoblast for self defense

(2) (c) and (d) have a true coelom

(3) (a) and (d) respire mainly through gills

(4) (b) and (c) show radial symmetry

137. Choose the option in which, the genus name, its two characters and class are not correctly matched.

(1) Ectoparasite, circular mouth Cyclostomata

Poikilothermous, operculum(2) ChondrichthyesabsentSexes are separate, skin(3) Osteichthyeswith cycloid scales

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Genus name Two characters Class

Myxine

Carcharodon

Clarias

Icht Tetrapoda, tympanum present Amphibiahyophis

138. Match the following genera in column I with their respective phylum in column II.

Column I Column II

a. Cucumaria (i) Platyhelminthes

b. Meandrina (ii) Mollusca

c. Chaetopleura (iii) Coelenterata

d. Taenia (iv) Echinodermata

Select the correct option.

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

139. The adult animal which exhibits radial symmetry is

(1) Asterias (2) Loligo

(3) Aedes (4) Pheretima

140. A new animal was discovered and brought to the lab for scientific observation and study. The following characteristic features were documented about it.

(i) The adults were tetrapods

(ii) A lot of difference was observed between larvae and adults.

(iii) The tails were absent in the adults, which the larvae had.

(iv) Adults could live both on land and water.

The organism most likely belongs to

(1) Arthropoda (2) Pisces

(3) Protochordata (4) Amphibia

141. Select the animal that is characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system.

(1) Tapeworm

(2) Sponges

(3) Cockroach

(4) Humans

142. Which of the following animals is a homeotherm?

(1) Struthio

(2) Naja

(3) Saccoglossus

(4) Vipera russelli

143. Select the flying mammal.

(1) Macropus

(2) Pteropus

(3) Balaenoptera

(4) Ornithorhynchus

144. Choose the incorrect statement.

(1) All mammals are not viviparous

(2) All cyclostomes possess jaws and paired fins.

(3) Reptiles generally have a three chambered heart

(4) Not all fishes have gills covered by an operculum


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145. Which one of the following characteristic features is shared by reptiles and amphibians?

(1) A tympanum represents the ear (2) Fertilization is mainly internal (3) Development is indirect (4) Skin is moist without scales 146. Choose the incorrect statement. (1) Petromyzon has an ammocoete larvae (2) Vertebrates possess notochord during the

embryonic period. (3) All vertebrates are chordates (4) All chordates are vertebrates 147. Read the following statements and choose the

correct option. Statement A : Subphyla Urochordata and

Cephalochordata are often referred to as protochordates.

Statement B : Ascidia is a urochordata. (1) Both statements are incorrect (2) Statement A is incorrect (3) Both statements are correct (4) Statement B is incorrect 148. Chordates are not (1) Schizocoelomates (2) Triploblastic (3) Bilaterally symmetrical (4) Possessing organ-system level of

organisation 149. Choose the odd one w.r.t. super class

Tetrapoda. (1) Mammals (2) Osteichthyes (3) Aves (4) Reptilia 150. Choose the correct statement w.r.t.

Osteichthyes. (1) Notochord is persistent throughout life (2) Mouth is located ventrally (3) Teeth are modified placoid scales which are

backwardly directed (4) Air bladder is present which regulates

buoyancy 151. Select the largest animal without any

endoskeleton or exoskeleton. (1) Aurelia (2) Myxine (3) Cucumaria (4) Sword fish

152. How many animals in the given box have open circulatory system?

, ,Octopus, Salamandra Spider Crab,Chelone

(1) 4 (2) 2

(3) 5 (4) 3

153. Among the following which organism is an enterocoelomate with bilateral symmetry?

(1) Grass-hopper (2) Octopus

(3) Sea horse (4) Loligo

154. Choose the animal that shows direct development during the life cycle.

(1) Pheretima (2) Echinus

(3) Saccoglossus (4) Dentalium

155. An important characteristic feature that is shared between Balanoglossus and Pteropus is

(1) Presence of air sacs

(2) Sexes are separate

(3) Dorsal solid nerve cord

(4) Presence of notochord

156. Musca domestica belongs to the order

(1) Arthropoda (2) Insecta

(3) Muscidae (4) Diptera

157. Which one of the following is a feature of butterfly?

(1) Organ level of body organisation

(2) Body consists of head, thorax and abdomen

(3) Belongs to second largest phylum

(4) Body is covered by a calcareous exoskeleton

158. Alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organism is termed

(1) Metagenesis (2) Metastasis

(3) Metamorphosis (4) Morphogenesis

159. How many of the features listed below are correct w.r.t. phylum porifera?

(i) Internal cavities are lined with food filtering flagellated cells

(ii) Body is made up of meshwork of cells

(iii) Mostly asymmetrical

(iv) Water vascular system

(1) None (2) One

(3) Two (4) Three


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160. A viviparous endoparasite of the human body is

(1) Hookworm (2) Round worm

(3) Trichina worm (4) Tape worm

161. Members of phylum A and B are

exclusively marine. A and B respectively are

(1) Porifera and Coelenterata

(2) Ctenophora and Hemichordata

(3) Aschelminthes and Porifera

(4) Platyhelminthes and Coelenterata

162. An organism that does not show the presence of cell wall is

(1) Sea pen (2) E.coli

(3) Pseudomonas (4) Thermus aquaticus

163. Which of the following represents genus of ‘Cat’?

(1) Equus (2) Felis

(3) Canis (4) Rattus

164. Select the incorrect feature w.r.t. ctenophores.

(1) Tissue level of body organisation

(2) Fertilization is external

(3) Ciliated comb plates primarily help in feeding

(4) Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular

165. The group of animals which belong to the same phylum are

(1) Tape worm, Pinworm, Hookworm

(2) Sea anemone, Sea hare, Sea cucumber

(3) Star fish, Flying fish, Saw fish

(4) Cuttle fish, Devil fish, Sea hare

166. A member of the largest phylum of animal kingdom is

(1) Lepisma (2) Exocoetus

(3) Sepia (4) Tetradon

167. Members of which phylum have a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth and anus

(1) Mollusca (2) Platyhelminthes

(3) Echinodermata (4) Annelida

168. Which of the following animals is diploblastic?

(1) Lancelet (2) Magur

(3) Liver fluke (4) Sea walnut

169. Choose the odd one w.r.t. presence of ventral solid central nervous system.

(1) Doliolum

(2) Scorpion

(3) Spider

(4) Periplaneta

170. Which of the following characteristics is present in phylum Aschelminthes?

(1) Monoecious

(2) Parapodia

(3) Pseudocoelom

(4) Metamerism

171. All of the following are correctly matched, except (1) Bombyx mori – Sericulture

(2) Apis indica – Apiculture

(3) Pinctada – Pearl culture

(4) Laccifer lacca – Vermiculture

172. Which one is not a feature of Adamsia?

(1) Metagenesis

(2) Gastrovascular cavity

(3) Diploblastic

(4) Cnidoblast

173. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Schizocoelom first originated in phylum Annelida.

(2) Blastopore is the pore of blastocoel

(3) Solenocytes are the main excretory structures in platyhelminthes

(4) The embryonated egg of Ascaris represents an egg with a juvenile.

174. Given below are four matches of animals and their respiratory organs.

A. Herdmania – Book lungs

B. Delphinus – Lungs

C. Anopheles – Tracheal tubes

D. Limulus – Book gills

The correct matches are

(1) C and D only

(2) A and B

(3) B, C and D

(4) A and D only


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175. A larvicidal fish which helps control malaria is (1) Silverfish (2) Gambusia (3) Cuttlefish (4) Flyingfish 176. Select the correct statement w.r.t aves. (1) The forelimbs generally have scales (2) Respiration is carried out mainly by air sacs (3) Development is indirect (4) Endoskeleton is fully ossified 177. The larva of which animal undergoes

metamorphosis in fresh water and then returns to the ocean

(1) Petromyzon (2) Branchiostoma (3) Ascidia (4) Salpa 178. Choose the incorrect feature w.r.t.

hemichordates. (1) Presence of stomochord

(2) Worm like marine animal

(3) Presence of proboscis gland

(4) Body is metamerically segmented

179. Select the flightless bird.

(1) Neophron

(2) Aptenodytes

(3) Psittacula

(4) Columba

180. Select the organism which has the following characteristics.

(i) The male bears a brood pouch where female lays egg.

(ii) Tail is prehensile

(iii) Presence of long snout

(iv) Bony endoskeleton

(1) Hippocampus

(2) Catla

(3) Scoliodon

(4) Pristis

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MM : 720 CRASH COURSE for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Home Assignemt

Answer Key

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (1) 22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (2) 29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (4) 35. (1) 36. (3)

37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (2) 41. (1) 42. (2) 43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (1) 49. (1) 50. (3) 51. (4) 52. (4) 53. (1) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (1) 57. (4) 58. (4) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (3) 62. (3) 63. (1) 64. (4) 65. (4) 66. (1) 67. (1) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (2) 71. (2) 72. (4)

73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (1) 76. (2) 77. (2) 78. (3) 79. (3) 80. (3) 81. (1) 82. (4) 83. (4) 84. (1) 85. (2) 86. (3) 87. (4) 88. (3) 89. (1) 90. (1) 91. (4) 92. (2) 93. (2) 94. (3) 95. (4) 96. (2) 97. (4) 98. (3) 99. (1) 100. (3) 101. (3) 102. (1) 103. (2) 104. (2) 105. (3) 106. (2) 107. (1) 108. (4)

109. (3) 110. (3) 111. (3) 112. (4) 113. (2) 114. (1) 115. (2) 116. (3) 117. (1) 118. (4) 119. (3) 120. (3) 121. (4) 122. (1) 123. (3) 124. (1) 125. (2) 126. (3) 127. (2) 128. (1) 129. (3) 130. (2) 131. (3) 132. (3) 133. (4) 134. (1) 135. (4) 136. (2) 137. (4) 138. (3) 139. (1) 140. (4) 141. (3) 142. (1) 143. (2) 144. (2)

145. (1) 146. (4) 147. (3) 148. (1) 149. (2) 150. (4) 151. (1) 152. (2) 153. (3) 154. (1) 155. (2) 156. (4) 157. (2) 158. (1) 159. (4) 160. (3) 161. (2) 162. (1) 163. (2) 164. (3) 165. (4) 166. (1) 167. (2) 168. (4) 169. (1) 170. (3) 171. (4) 172. (1) 173. (2) 174. (3) 175. (2) 176. (4) 177. (1) 178. (4) 179. (2) 180. (1)

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MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

Home Assignment

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS

1. Answer (4) Quantities with same dimensions can be added

or subtracted. 2. Answer (2)

1.9 2.0 2.13ma + +

= = 2

∆a1 = |1.9 – 2| = 0.1 ∆a2 = |2.0 – 2.0| = 0.0 ∆a3 = |2.1 – 2.0| = 0.1

0.1 0.0 0.1 0.2 1 0.07 0.13 3 15ma + +

∆ = = = = =

0.1 0.052

m

m

aa

∆== =

%error 100 0.05 100 5%m

m

aa

∆= × = × =

3. Answer (2)

Using dimensional analysis 0 0

1µ ε

represents

speed of light.

∴ 0 1

0 0

2 [speed] [M LT ]− = = µ ε

4. Answer (1) v = u + at = 2.03 + 1.0 × 0.3 = 2.03 + 0.3 = 2.33 Upto correct significant figure 2.3 m/s.

5. Answer (3)

100 2 100 3 100∆ ∆α ∆β× = × × + ×

α βXX

1 3100 1002 2

∆ρ ∆γ+ × + ×

ρ γ

1 1 1 3 12 3 22 3 2 2 3

= × + × + × + ×

11% 1% 1% %2

= + + + = 3.5%

6. Answer (1)

[b] = [t] = [T]

2[ ][ 2 ] [ ]

[ ]P b t a

x−

=

⇒ 2 3

2[ML T ][T] [ ]

[L ]a

−

=

⇒ 0 2[ML T ] [ ]a− =

∴ 0 2[ ] [ML T ] [T]ab −= ×

0 1[ML T ]−=

7. Answer (3)

Surface tension Forcelength

S =

1 22

[ ][ ] [ ][ ]

FS Fa ta t

− −= =×

Crash Course for NEET-2020 Home Assignment_(Hints & Solutions)

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8. Answer (2)

1 MSD – 1 VSD = LC

⇒ 1 mm – 1 VSD = 0.05 mm

⇒ 1 VSD = (1 – 0.05) = 0.95

1920

= mm

∴ 19 mm if divided into 20 divisions then 191VSD20

= mm

9. Answer (3) [Torque] = [Force] × [distance] = [MLT–2] [L] = ML2T–2

2

0 2[Force] [MLT ][surface tension] [ML T ][length] [L]

−−= = =

[Impulse] = [Force × time] = [MLT–2] × T = [MLT–1] [Radial acceleration] = [acceleration] = [M0LT–2] 10. Answer (3)

Least count of screw gauge is 0.5 0.01 mm50

=

Which is smallest and hence most precise among all.

11. Answer (2) x = t sint v = tcost + sint v(0) = 0 + 0 = 0 m/s

0 12

v t π = = +

∴ 2| | 1 2 m/s

2

avvat

∆= = =

π∆ π

12. Answer (1) For constant velocity, velocity-time graph is a

horizontal line along time axis and displacement-time graph is a straight line while for uniform acceleration displacement time graph is parabolic in nature.

From 0 to t1 → Velocity is constant hence S – t graph is a straight line

t1 to t2 → Acceleration is positive hence displacement time graph is upward parabola.

t2 to t3 → Same as t1 to t2

13. Answer (2) Separation = 400 m Time = 20 s rel jeep carV V V= −

= v – 40

∴ 400( 40) 2020

− = =v

v = 60 m/s 14. Answer (2) 15. Answer (3) f iadt dv v v v= = ∆ = −∫ ∫

adt∫ is area under a v-t graph

⇒ 3 f iv v= −

⇒ 3 3 5f iv v= + = + = 8 m/s

16. Answer (3)

total distancetotal time

=avv

1 2

34 4

=+

SS Sv v

1 2

2 1

43

=+v v

v v

17. Answer (1) Acceleration of bolt with respect to elevator when

bolt starts falling is 210 ( 2) 12 m/sBEa = − − = downward

Initial relative velocity = 0 Displacement travelled by bolt with respect to

elevator is 1.2 mBES =

212 BE BEa t S× × =

2 1.2 1 s12 5

t ×= =

18. Answer (4) Displacement time graph is upward parabola for

positive acceleration. 19. Answer (2)

12( 1)x t

−= +

321( 1)

2v t

−

= − +

523 ( 1)

4a t

−

= + + 5 32 33 ( 1)

4t

− ×= +

3 52 33 ( 1)

4t

− ×= +

533

2= v

Home Assignment_(Hints & Solutions) Crash Course for NEET-2020

(4)

20. Answer (3)

21 110 15 5 10 252 2

v× × = × + × ×

⇒ 225 = v + 25 ⇒ v = 200 m/s 21. Answer (1)

6 m/su j=

( ) 6 (2 2 )v t j i j t= + −

(6 2 ) 2t j t i= − +

If velocity is parallel to x-axis, vy = 0

When 0 6 2 0yv t= ⇒ − =

t = 3 s

21 2 32

x∴ = × × y = 6 × 3 –1 2 92

× ×

= 9 = 18 – 9 = 9 22. Answer (2)

2 cos= θv v

1cos2

θ =

45θ = °

23. Answer (4)

sin cosr A t i B t j= ω + ω

cos sinv A ti B t j= ω ω − ω ω

2 2sin cosa A ti B t j= − ω ω − ω ω

2( sin cos )A t i B t j= −ω ω + ω

2r= −ω

For A = B, cos sinv A ti A t j= ω ω − ω ω

Hence 0r v⋅ =

⇒ r

is perpendicular to v

24. Answer (2)

(8 2) 86av

r j ivt

∆ − += =

∆

8 66

i j+=

43

i j = +

25. Answer (1)

tan 1 = θ −

xy xR

⇒ tan 12 2R RH

R = θ −

⇒ 4 tanHR

= θ

⇒ tanθ = 2

⇒ 1tan (2)−θ =

26. Answer (1)

2

2 2tan2 cos

gxy xu

= θ −θ

Putting the values of x = 4 m, y = 2.4 m, θ = 45° We get,

2

10 162.4 4 1 122

×= × −

× ×v

2160 4 2.4= −v

⇒ 2 160 1001.6

= =v

v = 10 m/s 27. Answer (3)

2dy cyxdt

=

2dx cxydt

=

2

2dy yx xdx yxy

= =

⇒ ydy = xdx

⇒ 2 2

constant2 2y x

= +

⇒ y2 = x2 + constant 28. Answer (2) Sum of magnitude of any two vectors should be

greater than or equal to third vector. 29. Answer (3)

min400 8 s50

= = =mr

wtv

Drift x = 40 × 8 = 320 m

∴ 2 2S x w= +

2 2320 400 80 41 m= + =


(5)

30. Answer (3)

Let ( ) km/hrV ai b j= +

for first condition

( ) 3 2rmV ai b j i= + −

.

If appears vertically downward

Then, ( )3 2 0 3 2a a− = ⇒ = …(i)

For second condition, ( ) 5 2rmV ai b j i= + −

This appears at 45° with vertical

⇒ 5 2a b− =

⇒ 3 2 5 2 2 2b b− = ⇒ = −

∴ ( )3 2 2 2 km/hrv i j= −

∴ ( ) ( )2 23 2 2 2 18 8 26 km/hrv = + = + =

31. Answer (1)

S = distance of closest approach = asin30°

2a

=

32. Answer (3)

(i) ( ) 0A B C B+ + × =

⇒ ( ) ( )A B B C A B B C× = × ⇒ × = ×

(ii) Since ( )A B×

is perpendicular to the plane containing ,A B

and C

vectors which

means ( )A B×

is perpendicular to C

. Therefore, ( )A B C× ×

will be lying in the plane of A

, B

and .

C

(iii) Since A B×

is perpendicular to C

therefore, ( ) 0A B C× ⋅ =

(iv) From (iii) ( ) 0A B C× ⋅ =

always. 33. Answer (4)

2 2( 1)r a t i bt j= − +

2 ( 1) 2v a t i bt j= − +

2 2a ai b j= +

2 24 ( 1) 4 0a v a t b t⋅ = − + =

⇒ 2 2 2( )a b t a+ =

2

2 2at

a b=

+

34. Answer (4)

212

= ×s at

25 15 2 25

2 π = × π

a

a = 20 m/s2 35. Answer (1) Equation of trajectory of the projectile is

tan 1 xy xR

= θ −

Putting the values of x, y and θ we get

1812 18 1R

= −

⇒ 2 1813 R

− =

⇒ R = 54 m At θ = 45°

4H = Rtanθ

5414 4RH = × = = 13.5 m

36. Answer (3)

v = αt2

at = 2αt at t = 2 s at = 4α

2 2 4

2rv tar

α= =

= 8α2

∴ 28 2

4r

t

aa

α= = α

α

37. Answer (2) Vertical displacement after 4 s

1 10 16 80 m2

h = × × =


(6)

horizontal displacement in 3 s

21 4 10 32 3

x ×= × × = 60 m

∴ Total displacement

2 280 60= + = 100 m 38. Answer (3)

21 2 3 12

x = × × 3=

y = 3

∴ Co-ordinate of particle is ( )3, 3

∴ 3tan 33

θ = =

θ = 60°

39. Answer (2)

2000 mMP′ =

u = 360 km/h = 5360 100 m/s18

× =

Time taken by packet to reach in the hands of

man is 2 2 2000 20 s

10ht

g×

= = =

100 20 2000 mPP u t′⇒ = × = × =

1Angle of sight tan P MPP

− ′ ∴ θ = ′

45θ = °

40. Answer (2)

Area = 1 212

d d×

( ) ( )1 2d d i j i j× = − × +

k k= + 2k=

∴ area

1 2 12

k = unit

41. Answer (1) n1u1 = n2u2

2 21 1 1 2 2 2 210 M L T M L Tn− − =

⇒ 2

21kg 100 cm 1s10

10 kg 10 cm 10 sn

− = × × ×

2110 10 10 100010

= × × × =

42. Answer (2)

5 72 20 m/s18

v = × =

Retardation 2

2400 10 m/s2 s 2 20Va = = =

×

20 0 2 s10

t −= =

43. Answer (2)

2 2 2 cos 3a b ab+ + θ =

2cos 32θ

=

3cos2 2θ

=

θ = 60°

∴

2 2 2 cosa b a b ab− = + − θ

11 1 2 12

= + − × =

44. Answer (3)

avV S

t∆

=∆

2 2(20 5) (30 5)S∆ = × + ×

2 2100 (150)= + 50 13=

50 13 5 1310avV = =

10 1310av

Vat

∆= =

∆

1 13=

∴ 5 13 513

av

av

Va

= =


(7)

45. Answer (1)

Let 2 1.414 mY AB= = =

Rounding off to two significant digit

Y = 1.4 m

12

Y A BY A B∆ ∆ ∆ = +

1 0.2 0.2 1.4 0.212 1.0 2.0

Y ⇒ ∆ = + × =

So, result should be 1.4 m ± 0.2 m

CHEMISTRY

46. Answer (2)

No. of degenerate orbitals = n2 = 22 = 4

47. Answer (3)

No. of angular nodes =

48. Answer (1)

N = M × n-factor = 0.1 × 2 = 0.2 N

49. Answer (1)

Molality(m) = 0.1 1000 6.17 m0.9 18

×=

×

50. Answer (3)

Orbital angular momentum

= h( 1)2

+π

51. Answer (4)

No. of atoms

= 23 220.48 3 6.022 10 1.8 1048

× × × = ×

52. Answer (4)

Molarity depends on volume of solution.

53. Answer (1)

54. Answer (3)

h hvmv m

λ = ⇒ =λ

34

336.62 10v 1 m/s

0.1 6.62 10

−

−×

= =× ×

55. Answer (3)

Zn = [Ar] 3d10 4s2

For last electron n = 4, = 0, m = 0

56. Answer (1)

57. Answer (4)

Equivalent mass = Molar mass Mn factor 3

=−

58. Answer (4)

2

nnr 0.53Z

=

3

2

2 He2

1 Be

2(r ) 2 8(r ) 11

4

+

+

= =

59. Answer (2) N1V1 + N2V2 = N3V3

1 × 50 + 2 × 150 = N3 × 200

N3 = 1.75 N

60. Answer (2) • 22.4 L H2 at STP = 1 mole H2 = 2 g

• 0.3 mole H2 = 0.3 × 2 = 0.6 g

• 1.204 × 1024 molecules of H2 = 2 mole H2 = 4 g

61. Answer (3)

hx p4

∆ × ∆ ≥π

h2 v m v4

∆ × × ∆ ≥π

1 hv2 2 m

∆ ≥π

62. Answer (3) M1V1 = M2V2

0.2 × V1 = 0.1 × 3 1V 1.5 L⇒ =

63. Answer (1) g eq. of metal = g eq. of oxygen

MM

x y x 8xEE 8 y x

−= ⇒ =

−

64. Answer (4)

For neutron, e Zerom

=


(8)

65. Answer (4) • 49 g H3PO4= 0.5 mole = 0.5 NA molecules • 45 g C6H12O6 = 0.25 mole = 0.25 NA molecules • 28 g N2 = 1 mole = NA molecules • 36 g H2O = 2 mole = 2 NA molecules 66. Answer (1)

C2H4O2 : % of C = 24 100 40%60

× =

% of O = 32 100 53.33%60

× =

67. Answer (1)

Volume of N2 = 1 79 lit100×

Mole of 32

7979100N 10

22.4 2.24−

= = ×

68. Answer (2) Average atomic mass

= 100 80 102 20 100.4100

× + ×=

69. Answer (3)

3 2CaCO CaO CO∆→ +

Volume of CO2 at STP

= 10 90 22.4 2 lit100 100

× ×

70. Answer (2) Isosters species have same number of atoms and

same number of total electrons. 71. Answer (2)

Number of revolution per second vr

∝

2

32

zznnn

z

∝ ∝

72. Answer (4) :λ Radiowaves > IR > X-rays > -raysγ

73. Answer (4) 74. Answer (3) 75. Answer (1)

2 2H H2 2 2 2

1 2

1 1 1 1 1R Z R 1n n 1 4

= − = × × − λ

H

1615 R

λ =

76. Answer (2)

EnergyPowerTime

=

hcx 1010 x1 hc

× λλ= ⇒ =

9

1934 8

10 662 10 3.33 106.62 10 3 10

−

−× ×

= = ×× × ×

77. Answer (2) 78. Answer (3)

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

t = 0, 5 mol 2 mol 0 Final, 1 mol 0 4 mol 79. Answer (3) M.W = 2 × VD = 2 × 44 = 88 g/mol At STP, 88 g of gas will have 22400 ml So, 0.88 g of gas will have = 224 ml 80. Answer (3) 81. Answer (1)

2

213.6ZKE eV

n=


solute

42.50.585X 0.13542.5 57.5 0.5 3.19

85 18

= = =++

84. Answer (1) 0h h KEν = ν +

3 = 1.5 + eVs 85. Answer (2)

h2m KE

λ =

1 2 2

2 1 1

m KE 2 2 2m KE 1 9 3

λ∴ = = × =

λ


h2B 2Bν→

Energy absorbed = BE + 2x

18 182.2 10 2 10x

2

− −× − ×=

= 0.1 × 10–18 = 10–19 J


(9)

88. Answer (3)

Na2SO4.10 H2O → Na2SO4 + 10 H2O

332 g 10 × 18 g

% loss of mass = 10 18 100 55.9%322

×× =

89. Answer (1)

90. Answer (1)

2

2

H2

2 CO

2 natoms of Hatoms of CO 3 n

×=

×

2

2

H

CO

w2 44 44 1 43 2 w 3 11 3

= × × = × = .

BOTANY

91. Answer (4)

Flora provides information about plants only.

92. Answer (2)

93. Answer (2)

Zoological parks are ex-situ conservation strategies of animals.

94. Answer (3)

Specific epithet begins with small letter.

95. Answer (4)

Taxonomy along with phylogeny is considered systematics.

96. Answer (2)

Planaria shows true regeneration.

97. Answer (4)

98. Answer (3)

16S rRNA sequences were used by Carl Woose to classify organisms into 3 domains.

99. Answer (1)

100. Answer (3)

Rhizobium is a symbiotic N2 fixer.

101. Answer (3)

Nitrosomonas is a nitrifying bacteria.

102. Answer (1)

103. Answer (2)

104. Answer (2)

Fungi have chitinuous cell wall.

105. Answer (3)

106. Answer (2)

107. Answer (1)

108. Answer (4)

Lichens cannot grow in SO2 polluted areas.

109. Answer (3)

Albugo candida – Member of Oomycetes.

110. Answer (3) Fungi imperfecti i.e. Deuteromycetes do not show

sexual reproduction. 111. Answer (3) Ectomycorrhiza is found in Pinus roots. 112. Answer (4) 113. Answer (2) Sexual spores are basidiospores in

basidiomycetes. 114. Answer (1) Both viruses and viroids cause infection. 115. Answer (2) 116. Answer (3) 117. Answer (1) Saccharomyces is a eukaryotic organism. 118. Answer (4) Cholera is a bacterial disease. 119. Answer (3) Cyanobacteria can fix N2. 120. Answer (3) Ectocarpus, Dictyota and Fucus are members of

phaeophyceae. 121. Answer (4) Cell wall of Phaeophyceae do not contain pectin

and sulphated esters. 122. Answer (1) 123. Answer (3) Hutchinson – Proposed phylogenetic system of

classification. 124. Answer (1) 125. Answer (2) Nostoc is a cyanobacterium. 126. Answer (3) Gametophyte of bryophytes is haploid.


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127. Answer (2)

Protonema is juvenile phase of mosses.

128. Answer (1)

Sphagnum is also called cotton moss.

129. Answer (3)

130. Answer (2)

Synergid and antipodal cells degenerate after fertilization in angiosperms.

131. Answer (3) In haplo-diplontic life cycle both sporophyte and

gametophyte stages are present. 132. Answer (3) Haploid algae show zygotic meiosis. 133. Answer (4) Angiosperms lack archegonia. 134. Answer (1) 135. Answer (4) Pollen grains are formed inside microsporangia.

ZOOLOGY

136. Answer (2) a, b, c and d are respectively liver fluke,

Adamsia, Pila and Locust. Pila and locust have a true coelom. Liver fluke, Pila and Locust show bilateral symmetry. Locust respire through tracheal system. Radial symmetry and cnidoblasts are shown by Adamsia.

137. Answer (4) Ichthyophis is a limbless amphibian. Tympanum

is absent in Ichthyophis. 138. Answer (3) Phylum Animal Coelenterata Meandrina Platyhelminthes Taenia

Mollusca Chaetopleura

Echinodermata Cucumaria 139. Answer (1) Loligo, Aedes and Pheretima are bilaterally

symmetrical. 140. Answer (4) The larvae of amphibians exhibit metamorphosis

which is absent in organisms belonging to pisces and protochordata.

141. Answer (3) Birds and arthropods are characterized by a crop

and gizzard in their digestive system. 142. Answer (1) Aves and mammals are homeotherms. 143. Answer (2) Pteropus is flying fox. 144. Answer (2) All cyclostomes are included in Division Agnatha.

145. Answer (1) Amphibians show indirect development while

reptiles show direct development. Skin of amphibians is moist without scales. Amphibians show external fertilization (exception-european salamander).

146. Answer (4) Post anal tail is absent in nonchordates. 147. Answer (3) 148. Answer (1) Enterocoelom is present in members of phylum

echinodermates to chordates. 149. Answer (2) Class Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves and Mammals are

included in super class Tetrapoda. 150. Answer (4) Features given in other options are of

chondrichthyes. 151. Answer (1) Aurelia i.e. jelly fish is a coelenterate. 152. Answer (2) In arthropods open circulatory system is present

e.g. spider and crab. 153. Answer (3) Sea horse is an enterocoelomate with bilateral

symmetry. 154. Answer (1) Larval stage is absent in earthworm i.e.

Pheretima. 155. Answer (2) Balanoglossus belongs to hemichordates while

pteropus belongs to Mammalia.


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156. Answer (4) Musca domestica i.e. housefly belongs to

phylum-Arthropoda; class-Insecta, family-Muscidae

157. Answer (2) In butterfly, organ system level of body

organisation is present. It belongs to the largest phylum and body is covered by a chitinous exoskeleton.

158. Answer (1) Metastasis is spread of cancerous cells to distant

sites in the body. 159. Answer (4) In poriferans water canal system is present. 160. Answer (3) Trichinalla spiralis is also known as ‘pork worm’. 161. Answer (2) Members of phylum Ctenophora, Hemichordata

and Echinodermata are exclusively marine. 162. Answer (1) Cell wall is not present in animals. 163. Answer (2) Cat-Felis domestica. Dog-Canis familiaris 164. Answer (3) In Ctenophores, ciliated comb plates help in

locomotion. 165. Answer (4) Cuttle fish, Devil fish and Sea hare belong to

phylum Mollusca. 166. Answer (1) Tetradon is puffer fish, Exocoetus is flying fish.

Lepisma or silver fish is an arthropodan. 167. Answer (2) Digestive tract is incomplete in platyhelminthes,

while it is absent in tapeworms.

168. Answer (4) Ctenophores, commonly known as sea walnuts

or comb jellies are diploblastic organisms. 169. Answer (1) In non-chordates ventral solid central nervous

system is present. Doliolum is a urochordate. 170. Answer (3) Parapodia and metamerism are features of

phylum Annelida. 171. Answer (4) In lac culture Laccifer lacca is used. Vermiculture

is related to Pheretima. 172. Answer (1) Metagenesis is found in Obelia. 173. Answer (2) Blastopore is the pore of archenteron. 174. Answer (3) Herdmania respires through paired pharyngeal

gill slits. 175. Answer (2) Gambusia fish (Larvivorous) was introduced into

several tropical regions to control malaria. 176. Answer (4) In aves the hindlimbs generally have scales.

Respiration is by lungs, air sacs connected to lungs are avascular and supplement respiration. Development is direct.

177. Answer (1) Petromyzon shows anadromous migration. 178. Answer (4) Body of hemichordates is cylindrical in shape and

is divisible into three distinct regions or parts – proboscis, middle collar and a long posterior trunk. They possess an unsegmented body.

179. Answer (2) Struthio, Aptenodytes, etc. are flightless birds. 180. Answer (1) Hippocampus (Sea horse) is an osteichthyes.

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