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CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)

T M

FORM NUMBER

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015)

PAPER CODE

ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 30 - 03 - 2015

0 1 C M 4 1 4 1 0 6

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2015

Corporate Office

CAREER INSTITUTE

“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-2436001 [email protected]

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination andshall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball

Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

OMR

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

INSTRUCTIONS ()

www.allen.ac.in

LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE

Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT

Hindi

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /

TEST SYLLABUS : SYLLABUS - 4

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.

Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail

1 4

(Phase - MLH & MAZ)

PHYSICS : Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating current

Electromagnetic Waves

OPTICS :

(i) Ray optics & optical Instruments

(ii) Wave optics: Nature of Light, Interference, Diffraction &

Polarization)

Modern Physics (Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation, Atoms

and Nuclei)

Electronic Devices

CHEMISTRY : Redox Reactions

Electrochemistry

Chemical Kinetics

Surface Chemistry

General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

Coordination Compounds

Environmental Chemistry

Biomolecules

Polymers

Chemistry in Everyday Life

BIOLOGY : Biology in Human Welfare :

(i) Human Health and Disease

(ii) Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

(Domestication of Plants & Animals)

Ecology :

(i) Organisms and Populations

(ii) Ecosystem

(iii) Biodiversity and Conservation

(iv) Environmental Issues

ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 30 - 03 - 2015

SYLLABUS – 4

LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE (PHASE : MLH & MAZ)

Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLH & MAZ/30-03-2015

H-1/31Kota/01CM414106

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. The figure shows three circuits with identical

batteries, inductors, and resistors. Rank the

circuits, in the decreasing order, according to the

current through the battery (i) just after the switch

is closed and (ii) a long time later

(1)

i1

(2)

i2

(3)

i3

(1) (i) i2 > i

3 > i

1 (i

1 = 0) (ii) i

2 > i

3 > i

1

(2) (i) i2 < i

3 < i

1 (i

1 0) (ii) i

2 > i

3 > i

1

(3) (i) i2 = i3 = i1 (i1 = 0) (ii) i2 < i3 < i1

(4) (i) i2 = i3 > i1 (i1 0) (ii) i2 > i3 > i1

2. A uniform coducting wire ABC has a mass of 10g.

A current of 2A flows through it. The wire is kept

in a uniform magnetic field B = 2T. The

acceleration of the wire will be

CA

4cm5cm

B

× × × ×

× × × ×

× × × ×

× × × ×× × × ×

× × × ×

y

xz

O

(1) Zero

(2) 12 ms–2 along y-axis

(3) 1.2 × 10–3ms–2 along y-axis

(4) 0.6 × 10–3ms–2 along y-axis

3. A convex lens is made of two different materials

having radius of face A as 25 and that of face B

as 24 cm. The effective focal length of the lens

is :-

(1) (75/4) cm

(2) 75 cm

A B

1=1.5 2=1.8(3) 50 cm

(4) 30 cm

4. Photon of 5.5 eV energy falls on the surface of

the metal emitting photoelectrons of maximum

kinetic energy 4.0 eV. The stopping voltage

required for these electrons are :-

(1) 5.5V (2) 1.5V (3) 9.5V (4) 4.0V

1. (i) (ii)

(1)

i1

(2)

i2

(3)

i3

(1) (i) i2 > i3 > i1 (i1 = 0) (ii) i2 > i3 > i1

(2) (i) i2 < i3 < i1 (i1 0) (ii) i2 > i3 > i1

(3) (i) i2 = i3 = i1 (i1 = 0) (ii) i2 < i3 < i1

(4) (i) i2 = i

3 > i

1 (i

1 0) (ii) i

2 > i

3 > i

1

2. ABC 10g 2A B = 2T

CA

4cm5cm

B

× × × ×

× × × ×

× × × ×

× × × ×× × × ×

× × × ×

y

xz

O

(1) (2) 12 ms–2 y-(3) 1.2 × 10–3ms–2 y-(4) 0.6 × 10–3ms–2 y-

3. A 25 B 24 cm :-

(1) (75/4) cm

(2) 75 cm

A B

1=1.5 2=1.8(3) 50 cm

(4) 30 cm

4. 5.5 eV 4.0 eV :-(1) 5.5V (2) 1.5V (3) 9.5V (4) 4.0V

Kota/01CM414106H-2/31

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/30-03-2015

5.h

2mkE is valid for ........:-

(1) Electron (2) Photon

(3) both of them (4) None of them

6. The current in a LR circuit builds up to 3/4th of

its steady state value in 4s. The time constant of

this circuit is

(1)1

sln 2

(2) 2

sln 2

(3) 3

sln 2

(4) 4

sln 2

7. In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric

field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of

2.0 × 1010 Hz and amplitude 48 V/m then what

is the wavelength of the wave :-

(1) 3 × 10–2 m (2) 1.5 × 10–2 m

(3) 3 m (4) 1.5 m

8. An astronomical telescope of ten fold angular

magnification has a length of 44 cm. The focal

length of the objective is :-

(1) 4 cm (2) 40 cm

(3) 44 cm (4) 440 cm

9. In photo electric emission experiment, maximum

kinetic energy of photo electrons is K1. If incident

frequency and work function both are doubled

then maximum kinetic energy is :-

(1) > 2K1 (2) 2K1 (3) < 2K1 (4) K1

10. Colour of matter wave may be :-

(1) White

(2) Same of matter

(3) depends upon wave length

(4) it can't show any colour

11. A square loop of side 5 cm enters a magnetic field

with 1 cms–1. The front edge enters the magnetic

field at t = 0 then which graph best depicts emf

5cm

× × × × ××××

×××

×××

×××

×××

20cm

B=0.6T

(1)

t(s)

V

0

3×10

–4

5 15 20

(2)

t(s)

V

0

3×

10

–4

5 1520

(3)t(s)

V

0

3×

10–4

515 20

(4) t(s)

V

0

3×

10

–4

515 20

5.h

2mkE ........:-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

6. LR 3/

4th 4s

(1)1

sln 2

(2) 2

sln 2

(3) 3

sln 2

(4) 4

sln 2

7. 2.0 × 1010Hz 48 V/m :-(1) 3 × 10–2 m (2) 1.5 × 10–2 m

(3) 3 m (4) 1.5 m

8. 10

44cm

(1) 4 cm (2) 40 cm

(3) 44 cm (4) 440 cm

9. K1 :-(1) > 2K1 (2) 2K1 (3) < 2K1 (4) K1

10. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

11. 5 cm 1 t = 0

5cm

× × × × ××××

×××

×××

×××

×××

20cm

B=0.6T

(1)

t(s)

V

0

3×10

–4

5 15 20

(2)

t(s)

V

0

3×

10

–4

5 1520

(3)t(s)

V

0

3×

10–4

515 20

(4) t(s)

V

0

3×

10

–4

515 20


H-3/31Kota/01CM414106

12. Displacement current is present :-

(1) When electric field is changing in the circuit

(2) When magnetic field is changing in the circuit

(3) In both types of fields

(4) Through wires and resistance only

13. A diver at a depth 12 m inside water ( = 4/3) sees

the sky in a cone of semi-vertical angle :-

(1) sin–14

3

(2) tan–14

3

(3) sin–13

4

(4) 90°

14. What will be the no. of ––particle emitting during

given reaction :

yAx nB

m

(1) x m

4

(2) n +

x m

2

+ y

(3) n + x m

2

– y (4) n – y

15. The depletion layer in silicon diode is 1m wide

and the knee potential is 0.6 V, then the electric

field in the depletion layer will be:-

(1) Zero (2) 0.6Vm–1

(3) 6 × 104 V/m (4) 6 × 105 V/m

16. A metallic ring is dropped down, keeping its plane

perpendicular to a constant and horizontal

magnetic field. The ring enters the region of

magnetic field at t = 0 and completely emerges

out at t = T sec. The current in the ring varies as

(1)Tt

I

O

(2) Tt

I

O

(3)Tt

I

O(4)

Tt

I

O

17. A radar has a power of 1 kw and is operating at

a frequency of 100 GHz it is located on a mountain

top of height 500m. The maximum distance upto

which it can detect object located on the surface

of the earth (Radius of earth = 6.4 × 106 m) :-

(1) 40 km (2) 64 km

(3) 80 km (4) 16 km

12. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

13. ( = 4/3) 12m

(1) sin–14

3

(2) tan–14

3

(3) sin–13

4

(4) 90°

14. –– :-

yAx nB

m

(1) x m

4

(2) n +

x m

2

+ y

(3) n + x m

2

– y (4) n – y

15. 1m (knee potential) 0.6 V

(1) Zero (2) 0.6Vm–1

(3) 6 × 104 V/m (4) 6 × 105 V/m

16. t = 0 t = T

(1)Tt

I

O

(2) Tt

I

O

(3)Tt

I

O(4)

Tt

I

O

17. 1 kw 100 GHz 500m

(= 6.4 × 106 m) :-

(1) 40 km (2) 64 km

(3) 80 km (4) 16 km

Kota/01CM414106H-4/31


18. Two tree are at distance of 3.14 m from each

other. What should the maximum distance of an

observer from tree to see them separately

(1) 21.6 km (2) 10.8 km

(3) 15 km (4) 25.2 km

19. The half life of a substance is 25 minutes what

is the time interval between 33% decay and 67%

decay (approx) :

(1) 40 min

(2) 20 min

(3) 30 min

(4) 25 min

20. The reason of current flow in P-N junction in

forward bias is :-

(1) Drifting of charge carriers

(2) Minority charge carriers

(3) Diffusion of charge carriers

(4) All of these

21. Relative permittivity and permeability of a

material are r and

r, respectively. Which of the

following values of these quantities are allowed

for a diamagnetic material

(1) r = 1.5 r = 0.5

(2) r = 0.5,

r = 0.5

(3) r = 1.5, r = 1.5

(4) r = 0.5, r = 1.5

22. Light is incident on one face of the prism at angle

60° while the other face of the prism is silvered

(prism angle is 30°). If the ray retraces its path,

the refractive index of the material of the prism

is :-

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 3 / 2 (4) 2

23. By increasing aperature of objective lens of

telescope :-

(a) Limit of resolution increases

(b) Limit of resolution decreases

(c) Intensity of image increases

(d) Resolving power increases

(1) a, c, d (2) b, c, d

(3) a, c (4) c, d

24. How much average number of neutrons are

obtained by fission of one U nucleus :-

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2.5 (4) 3.5

18. 3.14 (1) 21.6 km (2) 10.8 km

(3) 15 km (4) 25.2 km

19. 25 33%

67% () :(1) 40 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 25

20. P-N (1) (2) (3) (4)

21.

r r

(1) r = 1.5 r = 0.5

(2) r = 0.5,

r = 0.5

(3) r = 1.5, r = 1.5

(4) r = 0.5,

r = 1.5

22. 60°

( 30°)

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 3 / 2 (4) 2

23. :-(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a, c, d (2) b, c, d

(3) a, c (4) c, d

24. U (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2.5 (4) 3.5


H-5/31Kota/01CM414106

25. A NPN transistor conducts when:-

(1) Both collector and emitter are positive with

respect to the base

(2) Collector is positive and emitter is negative

with respect to the base

(3) Collector is positive and emitter is at same

potential as the base

(4) Both collector and emitter are negative with

respect to the base

26. The magnetic susceptibility of paramagnetic

materials is

(1) Positive, but very high

(2) Negative

(3) Negatvie and very high

(4) Positive, but small

27. Two beams of red and violet colours are made to

pass separetly through a prism (angle of the prism

is 60°). In the position of minimum deviation, the

angle of refraction will be :-

(1) 30° for both the colours

(2) greater for the violet colour

(3) greater for the red colour

(4) equal but not 30° for both the colours

28. A slit of width 12× 10–7m is illuminated by light

of wavelength 6000Å. The angular width of the

central maxima is approximately –

(1) 30° (2) 60° (3) 90° (4) 0°

29. In a proton- proton cycle, hydrogen converts into

helium and 0.03 amu mass is destroyed. Find

energy generated per amu –

(1) 28 MeV (2) 6.7 MeV

(3) 0.03 MeV (4) 200 MeV

30. For the transistor circuit shown below, If = 100,

voltage drop between emitter and base is 0.7 V

then value of VCE will be:-

B

C

E

18V

100

8.6k

5V

VCE

(1) 10V (2) 5V (3) 13V (4) 0V

25. NPN :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 27. ( 60°)

:-

(1) 30°

(2)

(3)

(4) 30° 28. 12× 10–7 6000Å

–(1) 30° (2) 60° (3) 90° (4) 0°

29. 0.03 amu amu (1) 28 MeV (2) 6.7 MeV

(3) 0.03 MeV (4) 200 MeV

30. = 100,

0.7 V VCE

B

C

E

18V

100

8.6k

5V

VCE

(1) 10V (2) 5V (3) 13V (4) 0V

Kota/01CM414106H-6/31


31. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic

field are produced, pointing in the same direction.

If an electron is projected with its velocity

pointing in the same direction

(1) The electron will turn to its right

(2) The electron will turn to its left

(3) The electron velocity will increase in magnitude

(4) The electron velocity will decrease in magnitude

32. A lens is placed between a source of light and a

wall. It forms images of areas A1 and A

2 on the

wall for its two different positions. The area of

the source of light is :-

(1) 1 2A A (2) 1 2A A

2

(3)1 2A A

2

(4)

1 2

1 1

A A

33. Intensities of two waves, which produces

interference are 9:4 . The ratio of max. and min.

intensity is –

(1) 9 : 4 (2) 3 : 2

(3) 25 : 1 (4) 5 : 1

34. Two identical, photocells receive light of

frequencies f1 and f2. If the maximum velocities

of the photoelectrons (of mass m) coming out are

respectively v1 and v2, then–

(1) 2 21 2v v

2

=

h

m(f1 – f2)

(2) v1 + v2 =

1/2

1 2

2h(f f )

m

(3) 2 21 2v v

2

=

h

m(f1 + f2)

(4) v1 + v2 =

1/2

1 2

2h(f f )

m

35. NPN transistors are preferred to PNP transistors

because they have:-

(1) Low cost

(2) Low dissipation energy

(3) Capability of handling large power

(4) Electrons having high mobility than holes

31.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 32.

A1 A

2

(1) 1 2A A (2) 1 2A A

2

(3)1 2A A

2

(4)

1 2

1 1

A A

33. 9:4 –

(1) 9 : 4 (2) 3 : 2

(3) 25 : 1 (4) 5 : 1

34. f1 f2 m) v1 v2

(1) 2 21 2v v

2

=

h

m(f1 – f2)

(2) v1 + v2 =

1/2

1 2

2h(f f )

m

(3) 2 21 2v v

2

=

h

m(f1 + f2)

(4) v1 + v2 =

1/2

1 2

2h(f f )

m

35. PNPNPN :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-7/31Kota/01CM414106

36. Two concentric coils each of radius equal to

2cm are placed at right angles to each other. 3

A and 4 A are the currents flowing in each coil

respectively. The magnetic induction in Wb/m2 at

the centre of the coils will be :-

(µ0 = 4 × 10–7 Wb/Am)

(1) 12 × 10–5

(2) 10–5

(3) 5 × 10–5

(4) 7 × 10–5

37. If m1 and m

2 be the linear magnifications of the

object in the conjugate position of a convex lens,

and if d be the distance between the conjugate

positions, then the focal length of the lens is given

by :-

(1)1 2

df

m m

(2) 1 2

df

m m

(3)1 2m m

fd

(4) either (1) and (2)

38. The slits in Young's double slit apparatus are

identical each of intensity I, the resultant intensity

at any point on screen will vary between –

(1) 0 and I (2) I and 4I

(3) 0 and 2I (4) 0 and 4I

39. At t = 0, N0 is no of active nuclei which 0N

e at

t = 5 minute. Its half life period is –

(1) 5 min (2) (loge2) 5min

(3) elog 2

min5

(4) e

5min

log (2)

40. A transistor is used as an amplifier in CB mode

with a load resistance of 5k the current gain of

amplifier is 0.98 and the input resistance is 70,

the voltage gain and power gain respectively are:-

(1) 70, 68.6 (2) 80, 75.6

(3) 60, 66.6 (4) 90, 96.6

36. 2cm 3 A 4 A

(µ0

= 4 × 10–7 Wb/Am)

(1) 12 × 10–5

(2) 10–5

(3) 5 × 10–5

(4) 7 × 10–5

37. m1 m2

d

:-

(1)1 2

df

m m

(2) 1 2

df

m m

(3)1 2m m

fd

(4) (1) (2)

38. I –(1) 0 I (2) I 4I

(3) 0 2I (4) 0 4I

39. t = 0, N0 t = 5 min

0N

e –

(1) 5 min (2) (loge2) 5min

(3) elog 2

min5

(4) e

5min

log (2)

40. 5k 0.98 70

(1) 70, 68.6 (2) 80, 75.6

(3) 60, 66.6 (4) 90, 96.6

Key Filling

Kota/01CM414106H-8/31


41. Same current i = 2A is flowing in a wire frame

as shown in figure. The frame is a combination

of two equilateral triangles ACD and CDE of side

1m. It is placed in uniform magnetic field B = 4T

acting perpendicular to the plane of frame. The

magnitude of magnetic force acting on the frame

is

C D

A

E× × × × × × ×

× × × × × × ×

× × × × × × ×

× × × × × × ×

× × × × × × ×

(1) 24 N (2) Zero (3) 16 N (4) 8 N

42. Hydrogen gas is filled in a transparent balloon

which is kept in air. The balloon behaves as :-

(1) convex lens

(2) concave lens

(3) convex mirror

(4) concave mirror

43. Figure represents a graph of kinetic energy (K)

of photoelectrons (in eV) and frequency (v) for

a metal used as cathode in photoelectric

experiment. What is value of frequency at

point A :-

(1) 5 × 1014 HzA

3210

–1

–2–3

(2) 1015 Hz

(3) 5 × 1015 Hz

(4) 1016 Hz

44. Wavelength of an electron is 1.4 nm then its K.E.

is :-

(1) 14 eV (2) 150 eV

(3) 0.75 eV (4) 10 eV

45. A Ge specimen is doped with A1. The

concentration of acceptor atoms is ~1021atoms/

m3. Given that the intrinsic concentration of

electron hole pairs is ~1019/m3, the concentration

of electrons in the specimen is :-

(1) 1017/m3 (2) 1015/m3

(3) 104/m3 (4) 102/m3

41. i = 2A ACDCDE

1m

B = 4T

C D

A

E× × × × × × ×

× × × × × × ×

× × × × × × ×

× × × × × × ×

× × × × × × ×

(1) 24 N (2) (3) 16 N (4) 8 N

42. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

43.

(eV)

(v)

:-

(1) 5 × 1014 HzA

3210

–1

–2–3

(2) 1015 Hz

(3) 5 × 1015 Hz

(4) 1016 Hz

44. 1.4 nm K.E. :-

(1) 14 eV (2) 150 eV

(3) 0.75 eV (4) 10 eV

45. (Ge) A1(Acceptor) ~1021atoms/m3 ~1019/m3

(1) 1017/m3 (2) 1015/m3

(3) 104/m3 (4) 102/m3

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question


H-9/31Kota/01CM414106

46. The equivalent conductance of monobasic acid at

infinite dilution is 348 ohm–1 cm–1 eq–1. If the

resistivity of the solution containing

15 g acid (mol. wt. 49) in 1 litre is 18.5 ohm cm.

What is the degree of dissociation of acid?

(1) 45.9% (2) 40.2%

(3) 60.4% (4) 51.7%

47. The equilibrium constant for the following

general reaction is 1030. Calculate E° for the cell

at 25°C ?

2(s) (aq)2X 3Y 3

(aq) (s )2X 3Y

(1) + 0.105 Volt

(2) + 0.2955 Volt

(3) – 0.2955 Volt

(4) +0.0985 Volt

48. The given graphs I, II, III represent general trends

observed for different physisorption and

chemisorption process under mild conditions of

temperature and pressure. Which of following

statement are correct.

T T T

I II III

amou

nt o

f ad

sorb

ed

amou

nt o

f ad

sorb

ed

amou

nt o

f ad

sorb

ed

P = constant

P = constant

200K250K

(1) I is physisorption and II is physisorption

(2) I is physisorption and III is chemisorption

(3) I is physisorption and II is chemisorption

(4) II is chemisorption and III is chemisorption

49. Which of the following is minimum paramagnetic:-

(1) [Fe(H2O6]

+2 (2) [Co(H2O)6]+3

(3) [Ni(H2O)

6]+2 (4) [Mn(H

2O)

6]+2

50. –D–glucose and –D–glucose differ from each

other due to difference in one carbon with respect

to its :-

(1) Size of hemiacetal ring

(2) Number of OH groups

(3) Configuration

(4) Conformation

46.

348 ohm–1 cm–1 eq–1 1 15 g

( = 49)

18.5 ohm cm ?

(1) 45.9% (2) 40.2%

(3) 60.4% (4) 51.7%

47. 1030

25°C (E°)

?2

(s) (aq)2X 3Y 3(aq) (s )2X 3Y

(1) + 0.105

(2) + 0.2955

(3) – 0.2955

(4) +0.0985 48.

I, II III

T T T

I II III

amou

nt o

f ad

sorb

ed

amou

nt o

f ad

sorb

ed

amou

nt o

f ad

sorb

ed

P = constant

P = constant

200K250K

(1) I II

(2) I III

(3) I II

(4) II III

49. :-

(1) [Fe(H2O

6]+2 (2) [Co(H

2O)

6]+3

(3) [Ni(H2O)6]+2 (4) [Mn(H2O)6]

+2

50. –D– –D–

:-

(1)

(2) OH

(3)

(4)

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

Kota/01CM414106H-10/31


51. Equal quantities of electricity are passed through

three voltameters containing FeSO4, Fe

2(SO

4)

3 and

Fe(NO3)

3. Mark out the correct statement

regarding the experiment :

(1) The amount of iron deposited in FeSO4 and

Fe2(SO

4)

3 are equal

(2) The amount of iron deposited in Fe(NO3)

3 is

two third of the amount of iron deposited in

FeSO4

(3) The amount of iron deposited in Fe2(SO

4)

3 and

Fe(NO3)

3 is different

(4) The amount of iron deposited in all three

voltameter is same

52. In the cell, Zn(s)|Zn+2 (C1)||Cu+2(C2)|Cu(s) ;

Ecell – E°cell = 0.0591 volt. The ratio (C1/C2) at

298 K will be :-

(1) 2 (2) 100 (3) 10–2 (4) 1

53. Function of flourspar (CaF2) in reduction of Al

2O

3

is :-

(1) To increase M. P. of electrolyte

(2) To increase conductivity of electrolyte

(3) To remove impurity as slag

(4) All

54. [CO(NH3)5 Br]SO4 & [CO(NH3)SO4] Br can be

distinguished by :-

(1) Chromyl chloride test (2) Molar conductance

(3) AgNO3 sol (4) Both (2) & (3)

55. Orlon is a polymer of :-

(1) Styrene (2) Acrylonitrile

(3) Vinyl chloride (4) Tetra flouro ethylene

56. Given that :

Ni2+ | Ni = –0.25 V;

Cu2+ | Cu = 0.34 V

Ag+ | Ag = 0.80 V;

Zn2+ | Zn = – 0.76 V

Which of the following reactions under standard

condition will not take place in the specified

direction :

(1) 2)()()(

2)( CuNiCuNi aq.ssaq.

(2) 2)()()()( CuAg2CuAg2 aq.ssaq.

(3) 2 2

s eq aq sZn Cu Zn Cu

(4) 2)()(2)()( ZnH3ZnH2 aq.ssaq.

51. FeSO4, Fe

2(SO

4)

3

Fe(NO3)3

:

(1) FeSO4 Fe

2(SO

4)

3

(2) Fe(NO3)3 FeSO

4

(3) Fe2(SO

4)

3 Fe(NO

3)3

(4)

52. , Zn(s)|Zn+2 (C1)||Cu+2(C2)|Cu(s)

Ecell – E°cell = 0.0591 298 K (C1/C2)

(1) 2 (2) 100 (3) 10–2 (4) 1

53. Al2O3 (CaF2) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

54. [CO(NH3)5 Br]SO

4 [CO(NH3)SO

4] Br

:-(1) (2) (3) AgNO

3 (4) (2) (3)

55. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

56. :

Ni2+ | Ni = –0.25 V;

Cu2+ | Cu = 0.34 V

Ag+ | Ag = 0.80 V;

Zn2+ | Zn = – 0.76 V

:

(1) 2)()()(

2)( CuNiCuNi aq.ssaq.

(2) 2)()()()( CuAg2CuAg2 aq.ssaq.

(3) 2 2

s eq aq sZn Cu Zn Cu

(4) 2)()(2)()( ZnH3ZnH2 aq.ssaq.


H-11/31Kota/01CM414106

57. Calculate the half life of the first-order reaction

C2H4O(g) CH4(g) + CO(g)

If the initial pressure of C2H

4O(g) is 80 mm and

total pressure at the end of 20 minutes is

120 mm:-

(1) 40 min (2) 120 min

(3) 20 min (4) 80 min

58. Which of following elctrolyte is used for

electrolysis of Pb :-

(1) PbSO4 + H2SO4

(2) PbCl2 + HCl

(3) PbSiF6 + H

2SiF

6

(4) None

59. Match list one (I) and two (II) and select the

correct answer using the codes given below the

lists :–

List–I List–II

(A) Nylon (1) Polyester

(B) Terylene (2) Poly tetrafluoroethylene

(C) Teflon (3) Syntheticrubber

(D) Neoprene (4) Polyamide

A B C D

(1) 2 3 1 4

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 4 1 3 2

(4) 4 1 2 3

60. Which of the following is not a polyester

(1) Glyptal (2) Dacron

(3) Terylene (4) Bakelite

61. In the reaction

P2H

4 — PH

3 + P

4H

2

the equivalent mass of P2H

4 may be given as :

(M = M.wt of P2H

4)

(1) 3M

4(2)

5M

6

(3) 3M

5(4)

12M

13

57. -

C2H4O(g) CH4(g) + CO(g)

C2H

4O(g) 80 mm 20

120 mm :-

(1) 40 min (2) 120 min

(3) 20 min (4) 80 min

58. Pb :-

(1) PbSO4

+ H2SO

4

(2) PbCl2 + HCl

(3) PbSiF6 + H2SiF6

(4) None

59. –I –II

–I –II

(A) (1)

(B) (2)

(C) (3)

(D) (4)

A B C D

(1) 2 3 1 4

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 4 1 3 2

(4) 4 1 2 3

60. (1) (2) (3) (4)

61.

P2H

4 — PH

3 + P

4H

2

P2H

4 :

(M = P2H

4 )

(1) 3M

4(2)

5M

6

(3) 3M

5(4)

12M

13

Kota/01CM414106H-12/31


62. Which of the following is correct ?

(1) molecularity of a reaction can be fractional.

(2) Zero order reaction never stops.

(3) A first order reaction must be homogeneous.

(4) The rate constant of a reaction becomes equal

to the pre-exponential factor when the

absolute temperature is infinity.

63. Slope of oxidation curve of metal in elingham

diagram is given by :-

(1) S (2) TS (3) –S (4) –TS

64. Terylene is a condensation polymer of ethylene

glycol and

(1) Benzoic acid (2) Phthalic acid

(3) Salicylic acid (4) Terephthalic acid

65. –D–Glucose and –D–Glucose are :-

(1) Epimers

(2) Anomers

(3) Tautomers

(4) Confermers

66. 6 × 10–3 mole K2Cr

2O

7 reacts completely with

9 × 10–3 mole Xn+ to give XO3–

and Cr+3. The value

of n is :-

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 5

67. Considers the reaction

Cl2(aq.)+H2S(aq.) S(s)+2H+(aq.)+2Cl–(aq.)

The rate equation for this reaction is -

rate = K [Cl2] [H2S]

AWhich of these mechanisms are consistent with

this rate equation ?

(A) Cl2 + H2S H+ + Cl– + Cl+ + HS– (slow)

Cl+ + HS– H+ + Cl– + S (fast)

(B) H2S H+ + HS– (fast equilibrium)

Cl2 + HS– 2Cl– + H+ + S (slow)

(1) Neither A nor B (2) only A

(3) only B (4) A and B Both

68. When K4 [Fe(CN)6] is treated with FeCl3, a blue

colour is obtained due to formation of mainly :-

(1) II III

6Fe Fe CN

(2) III II

6Fe Fe CN

(3) both (1) & (2) (4) none

69. Which of the following harmone contains iodine

(1) Adrenaline (2) Testosterone

(3) Thyroxine (4) Insulin

62. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

63. :-(1) S (2) TS (3) –S (4) –TS

64. (1) (2) (3) (4)

65. –D– –D– :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

66. K2Cr

2O

7 6 × 10–3 9 × 10–3 Xn+

XO3–

Cr+3 n

:-

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 5

67. Cl

2(aq.)+H

2S(aq.) S(s)+2H+(aq.)+2Cl–(aq.)

-rate = K [Cl2] [H2S]

?

(A) Cl2 + H

2S H+ + Cl– + Cl+ + HS– (slow)

Cl+ + HS– H+ + Cl– + S (fast)

(B) H2S H+ + HS– (fast equilibrium)

Cl2 + HS– 2Cl– + H+ + S (slow)

(1) Neither A nor B (2) only A

(3) only B (4) A and B Both

68. FeCl3 K4 [Fe(CN)6]

:-

(1) II III

6Fe Fe CN

(2) III II

6Fe Fe CN

(3) both (1) & (2) (4) none

69. (1) (2) (3) (4)


H-13/31Kota/01CM414106

70. A condensation polymer among the following is

(1) Dacron (2) PVC

(3) Polystyrene (4) Teflon

71. Find out ionisation constant of a weak acid (HA)

in terms of Om and C

m ? (Given: "" can not be

ignored w.r.t. 1):-

(1)

om

a C om m

CK

(2)

2cm

a o o cm m m

CK

(3)

2om

a o o cm m m

CK

(4) None of these

72. What is the activation energy for the reverse of

this reaction ?

N2 O

4(g) 2NO

2(g)

Data for the given reaction is H = +54 KJ and

Ea = +57.2 KJ

(1) –54 KJ (2) +3.2 KJ

(3) +60.2 KJ (4) +111.2 KJ

73. Compound [Pt Cl2 (NH

3)

2] can form :-

(1) Geometrical isomers

(2) Coordination isomers

(3) Linkage isomers

(4) Optical isomers

74. Which of the following is incorrect :-

(1) FeCl3 is used in detection of phenols

(2) Fehling solution is used in detection of glucose

(3) Tollen's reagent is used in detection of

unsaturation

(4) NaHSO3 is used in detection of carbonyl

compounds

75. How many ATP will be formed by oxidation of

one mole glucose –

(1) 36 (2) 40

(3) 24 (4) 32

76. The difference in the oxidation numbers of two

types of carbon atom in C3O

2 is:-

(1)4 (2) 5

(3) 2 (4) 1

70. –

(1) (2) PVC

(3) (4) 71. (HA) O

m Cm

( 1 ) :-

(1)

om

a C om m

CK

(2)

2cm

a o o cm m m

CK

(3)

2om

a o o cm m m

CK

(4) 72.

?N2 O4(g) 2NO2(g)

H = +54 KJ E

a = +57.2 KJ

(1) –54 KJ (2) +3.2 KJ

(3) +60.2 KJ (4) +111.2 KJ

73. [Pt Cl2 (NH3)2] :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

74. :-(1) FeCl3 (2)

(3)

(4) NaHSO3

75. ATP –(1) 36 (2) 40

(3) 24 (4) 32

76. C3O

2

:-(1)4 (2) 5

(3) 2 (4) 1

Kota/01CM414106H-14/31


77. The rate constant of the reaction

2H2O2(g) 2H2O()+O2(g) is 3×10–3 min–1

At what concentration of H2O

2, the rate of the

reaction will be 2×10–4 MS–1 :-

(1) 2M (2) 4 M

(3) 6.67×10–3 M (4) 0.08 M

78. The ligand called -acid is :-

(1) CO (2) NH3

(3) C2O

42– (4) ethylene diamine

79. Glucose molecules react with x number of

molecules of phenyl hydrazine to yield osazone.

The value of x is :-

(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4

80. Glucose and Mannose are –

(1) Diastereomers only

(2) Epimers only

(3) Stereoisomers only

(4) All

81. For the cell,

Mn(S)

| Mn+2(aq)

(0.4M) | | Sn+2(aq)

(0.04M)| Sn(S)

,

Calculate free energy change (G) at 298 K.

Given : 2

o

Mn | MnE = –1.18V ;

2

o

Sn | SnE

= –0.14 volt

2.303RT

F = 0.06

(1) 180.93 kJ (2) –194.93 kJ

(3) –180.93 kJ (4) None of these

82. Which of the following statements are not true?

(1) Blood is positively charged sol.

(2) Soap solution contains ionic micelles as the

colloidal particles.

(3) Blood is purified by the process of dialysis.

(4) Chemical adsorption first increase then

decreases with increase in temperature.

83. Which of following is not organometallic compd :-

(1) Ferrocene (2) Cis-platin

(3) Zeise's salt (4) Grignard reagent

77. 2H2O

2(g) 2H

2O()+O

2(g)

3×10–3 min–1H2O

2 2×10–4 MS–1 :-

(1) 2M (2) 4 M

(3) 6.67×10–3 M (4) 0.08 M

78. - :-(1) CO (2) NH3

(3) C2O42– (4) ethylene diamine

79. x

x

(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4

80. –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

81. , Mn(S)

| Mn+2(aq)

(0.4M) || Sn+2(aq)

(0.04M)| Sn(S)

298 K(G)

: 2

o

Mn | MnE = –1.18V ;

2

o

Sn | SnE

= –0.14 volt

2.303RT

F = 0.06

(1) 180.93 kJ (2) –194.93 kJ

(3) –180.93 kJ (4)

82.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

83. :-

(1) (2) -

(3) (4)


H-15/31Kota/01CM414106

84. RNA is different from DNA because RNA

contains :-

(1) Ribose sugar and thymine

(2) Ribose sugar and uracil

(3) Deoxyribose sugar and thymine

(4) Deoxyribose sugar and uracil

85. Cobalt is present in –

(1) Vitamin B2

(2) Vitamin B1

(3) Vitamin B6

(4) Vitamin B12

86. The reduction potential of hydrogen half cell will

be positive if :-

(1) 2HP = 2 atm; [H+] = 1.0 M

(2) 2HP = 1 atm; [H+] = 1 M

(3) 2HP = 4 atm; [H+] = 1 M

(4) 2HP = 2 atm; [H+] = 2 M

87. Arrange the following electrolytes in increasing

order of coagulation power for As2S

3 sol.

K2SO

4, CaCl

2, AlCl

3

A B C

(1) C < B < A (2) A < B < C

(3) C < A < B (4) A = B < C

88. Which of following is not correct about

wilkinson's catalyst :-

(1) It is non-ionic complex

(2) It is diamagnetic

(3) It is tetrahedral

(4) Used for hydrogenation of organic molecule

89. The following compound is used as

(1) Antibiotic (2) Antipyratic

(3) Hypnotic (4) Antiseptic

90. Caprolactum is polymerises to give –

(1) Terylene (2) Teflon

(3) Glyptal (4) Nylon–6

84. RNA ,DNA RNA :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

85. –

(1) B2

(2) B1

(3) B6

(4) B12

86.

(1) 2HP = 2 atm; [H+] = 1.0 M

(2) 2HP = 1 atm; [H+] = 1 M

(3) 2HP = 4 atm; [H+] = 1 M

(4) 2HP = 2 atm; [H+] = 2 M

87. As2S

3

K2SO1, CaCl2, AlCl3

A B C

(1) C < B < A (2) A < B < C

(3) C < A < B (4) A = B < C

88. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

89.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 90. –

(1) (2) (3) (4) –6

Kota/01CM414106H-16/31


91. Gametes during life cycle of Plasmodium are

developed in :-

(1) RBCs of mosquito

(2) Stomach of mosquito

(3) Liver of man

(4) RBCs of man

92. (a) Trisomy of 21

(b) Simian palmer crease

(c) Partially open mouth

(d) Psychomotor development is retarded

Above informations are related with :-

(1) Patau's syndrome (2) Turner's syndrome

(3) Down's syndrome (4) Edward's syndrome

93. Which of the following disease is acquired from

soil ?

(1) Ringworm (2) Amoebiasis

(3) Typhoid (4) Tetanus

94. Which lymphoid tissue constitutes about 50% of

the lymphoid tissue in human body :-

(1) Lymph nodes (2) Bone marrow

(3) MALT (4) Thymus

95. (a) Variety of Brassica

(b) Have resistance to white rust disease

(c) Developed by hybridisation and selection

Above statements are true for :-

(1) Pusa Gaurav (2) Pusa Sadabahar

(3) Pusa Swarnim (4) Pusa Sawani

96. Periodic migration shown by :-

(1) North ground squirrels (2) Locust

(3) Praying mantis (4) Cladocera

97. Select the correct match:-

(1) Earth Summit - 1997

(2) Kyoto Protocol - 2002

(3) World Summit - 1992

(4) Montreal Protocol - 1987

98. Which statement is incorrect ?

(1) Trophic level represent functional level not a

species as such

(2) A same species may occupy more than one

trophic level in same ecosystem at same time

(3) In most ecosystem, pyramids of number, or

energy and biomass are upright

(4) Energy at higher trophic level is more as

compared to lower levels as they are

physically strong

91. :-(1) RBCs (2) (3) (4) RBCs

92. (a) 21-(b) (c) (d) Psychomotor :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

93.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

94. 50% :-(1) (2) (3) MALT (4)

95. (a) (b) (c) :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

96. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

97. (1) - 1997

(2) - 2002

(3) - 1992(4) - 1987

98. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-17/31Kota/01CM414106

99. Which of the following is not a method of

physiological adaptation :-

(1) Internal fat oxidation for water in kangaroo rat

(2) Reduction of leaf into spines in Opuntia

(3) Urine concentration in kangaroo rat

(4) Anti freezing protein in fish to tolerate cold

100. Choose the correct match :-

(a) Tropical rain – 2–3 dry month

forest

(b) Temperate broad – Autumn colouration

leaf forest

(c) Temperate needle – 500–1700 mm.

leaf forest rain.

(d) Arctic desert – Less precipitation than

desert

(1) a, b and c are correct

(2) a and b are correct

(3) b and d are correct

(4) a and c are correct

101. Most feared property of malignant tumors is:-

(1) Contact inhibition

(2) Metastasis

(3) Oncogenic transformation

(4) Benign growth

102. Mark the incorrect match :-

(1) Colostrum = Yellowish fluid, IgA present

(2) Antivenom = Passive immunisation

(3) Peyer's patches = PLO of small intestine

(4) Antibody = H2L2

103. Choose the option where the disease does not

match with its mode of transmission from the

patient to the healthy person :-

(1) Pneumonia – Air-borne/droplet

(2) Ascariasis – Contaminated food and water

(3) Filariasis – Bite by female Anopheles vector

(4) Sleeping sickness – Bite by tse-tse fly

104. Read the following four statements (a-d) :-

(a) Cross breeding increases homozygosity

(b) Artificial insemination helps to overcome

several problems of normal matings

(c) Bee keeping is easy and require some

specialised knowledge

(d) Hilsa, common carp, mackerel are edible

fishes

How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

99. (1) (2) (3) (4)

100. :-(a) – 2–3

(b) –

(c) – 500–1700 mm.

(d) –

(1) a, b c (2) a b (3) b d (4) a c

101. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

102. :-(1) = IgA (2) = (3) = PLO

(4) = H2L2

103. :-(1) – /(2) – (3) – (4) –

104. (a-d)

(a) (b)

(c)

(d)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Kota/01CM414106H-18/31


105. During the period 1960 to 2000, rice production

increased from ..... "A" ...... tonnes to ...... "B" .....

tonnes.

Choose the correct word for "A" and "B"

respectively :-

(1) 35 Billion, 89.5 Billion

(2) 11 Million, 75 million

(3) 35 Million, 89.5 million

(4) 11 Billion, 75 Billion

106. Biological equilibrium is an equilibrium amongst ?

(1) Producer and decomposer

(2) Producer and consumers

(3) Producer, consumers and decomposers

(4) Consumer and decomposer

107. Euro IV/B.S IV applied :-

(1)All vehicles of 13 cities of India

(2)On only 4 wheelers of 13 cities of India

(3)On all vehicles in all over India

(4)On 4 wheelers of all over India

108. According to tilman how species rich biological

community show more stability:-

(1) Plots with more species show less year to

year variation in total biomass

(2) Increased diversity contributed to higher

productivity

(3) Provide resistance to invasions by aline

species

(4) All of these

109. Ecologically the most relevant environmental

factor that directly affects the rate of metabolism

of a species and decides its distribution is:-

(1) Temperature (2) Rainfall

(3) Water (4) Light

110. Secondary pollutants are :-

(a) Brown air (b) Grey air

(c) Acid rain (d) DDT

(1) a, b and c are correct

(2) a and b are correct

(3) b and d are correct

(4) a and c are correct

105. 1960 2000 ....."A"............"B".....

"A" "B" :-

(1) 35 , 89.5

(2) 11 , 75

(3) 35 , 89.5

(4) 11 , 75

106. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

107. IV/B.S IV

(1) 13

(2) 13

(3)

(4)

108. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

109. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

110. :-(a) (b) (c) (d) DDT

(1) a, b c

(2) a b

(3) b d

(4) a c


H-19/31Kota/01CM414106

111.

A

Labelled ‘‘A’’ is :-

(1) Primary lymphoid organ (2) Tonsil

(3) Lymph node (4) Lymphatic vessel

112. Haemophilus inflenzae bacteria are responsible

for :-

(1) Influenza (2) Pneumonia

(3) Dengue (4) Filariasis

113. The presence of typhoid fever in a person can be

confirmed by :-

(1) ELISA test (2) Widal test

(3) Mantaux test (4) Schick's test

114. How many fishes in the list given below are fresh

water ?

Catla, Pomfret, Common carp, Silver carp, Hilsa,

Cod, Mackerel, Salmon, Mrigal, Shark

(1) Six (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five

115. Which of the following is significans of meristem

culture :-

(1) Detection of mutation

(2) Developement of pure lines

(3) Transfer of male sterility gene

(4) Production of virus free plants

116.

Time

Popu

lati

on

A B

C

D E

Which one is correct according to above graph

(1) B = –ve acceleration phase,

A = Lag phase

(2) B = +ve acceleration phase,

E = asymptote phase

(3) B = Exponential phase,

E = Stationary phase

(4) D = +ve acceleration phase;

B = deacceleration phase

111.

A

‘‘A’’ :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

112. (1) Influenza (2) Pneumonia

(3) Dengue (4) Filariasis

113. (1) ELISA (2) (3) (4)

114. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

115. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

116.

Time

Popu

lati

on

A B

C

D E

(1) B =

A = Lag phase(2) B =

E = (3) B =

E = (4) D =

B =

Kota/01CM414106H-20/31


117. Catalytic converter is used for :-

(1) Particulate matter

(2) Carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxides

(3) High noise level

(4) Solid wastes

118. During the natural ageing of lake :-

(A) Lakes fertility increases

(B) Plant animal life burgeons

(C) Lake grows shallower and warmer

(D) Organic remains begin to be deposited on the

lake bottom

(1) Only A (2) A and D

(3) A, B and C (4) A, B ,C and D

119. Intergovernmental panel on climate change

(IPCC) periodically makes an assesment of the

atmospheric abundance of :-

(1) Only O.D.S. (2) Only S.P.M.

(3) Only VOCs (4) Green house gases

120. Out of the total cost of various ecosystem services,

alone soil formation costs upto 50 percent. How

much would climate regulation and habitat for

wildlife cost upto ?

(1) 5 percent each

(2) 6 percent each

(3) 4 percent each

(4) 10 percent each

121. Salmonella typhi are G bacteria, causes typhoid,

pathogen causes lesions and ulceration in the

____. There is a pea-soup diarrhoea which may

become haemorrhagic.

(1) Stomach wall (2) Intestinal wall

(3) Gall bladder (4) Blood vessels

122. Incorrect about spleen is :-

(1) Secondary lymphoid organ

(2) Bean - shaped organ

(3) Contains phagocytes only

(4) Traps blood - borne micro organisms

123. Which of the following are important components

of poultry farm management ?

(1) Hygiene

(2) Safe farm conditions

(3) Proper feed and water

(4) All the above

117. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

118. :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A (2) A D

(3) A, B C (4) A, B, C D

119. (IPCC) :-(1) O.D.S. (2) S.P.M.

(3) VOCs (4) 120. 50%

(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 10

121. G

____

pea-soup

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 122. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

123.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-21/31Kota/01CM414106

124. How many of the following are correct statement:-

(i) Saccharum officinarum is a variety of

sugarcane which had ticker stem and did not

grown in South India

(ii) Genetic variability is the root of any breeding

programme

(iii)By plant breeding crop yield would be

improved but nutrition quality can not be

improved

(iv)A wheat variety Ratna has been developed

which is very rich in iron.

(1) Zero (2) Three

(3) Two (4) One

125. In thermal waste water, the number of organism

sensitive to high temperature are ......... and may

...... the growth of plant and fish in extremely cold

region :-

(1) Enhance, reduce

(2) Reduce, enhance

(3) enhance, enhance

(4) reduce, reduce

126. Sacred groves is also one of the important mean

of Biodiversity conservation. In respect of this find

out the odd one :-

(1) Khasi & Jaintia – Meghalaya

(2) Aravalli hills – Rajasthan

(3) Sarguja, Chanda, Bastar – Mizorum

(4) Western Ghat – Maharashtra

127. Which one is not a adaptation of altitude

sickness :-

(1) Increasing red blood cell production

(2) Decreasing the binding capacity of haemoglobin

with oxygen

(3) Increasing breathing rate

(4) Increase in heart palpitation

128. Problems that have come in the wake of the green

revolution :-

(1) Soil erosion and Acidity

(2) Lack of CO2

in Atmosphere

(3) Water logging and salinity

(4) Excessive growth of crop plant

124.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 125.

......

...... :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 126.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 127.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

128. :-

(1)

(2) CO2

(3)

(4)

Time Management is Life Management

Kota/01CM414106H-22/31


129. Match the following-

Column-I Column-II

(Type of interaction) (Organism)

a. Proto-cooperation (i) Lantana and

Pteridophytes

b. Commensalism (ii) Sea anemone and

clown fish

c. Amensalism (iii) Cuckoo and crow

d. Parasitism (iv)Hermit crab and

sea anemone

(1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)

(2) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i)

(3) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iii)

(4) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)

130. Plasmodium enters the human body as :-

(1) Female Anopheles mosquito (2) Sporozoite

(3) Trophozoite (4) Haemozoin

131. Memory based acquired immunity envolved

in_______, based on the differentiate foreign

organisms :-

(1) Lower plants (2) Bacteria

(3) Higher vertebrates (4) Lower vertebrates

132. Read the following four statement (a – d) :

(a) Fisheries include rearing, catching and selling

of fishes, mollusca etc.

(b) More then 70 percent of the world livestock

population is in India only.

(c) Milk yield is primarily dependent on the

quality of breeds in the farm.

(d) The feeding of cattle should be carried out in

scientific manner.

How many of the above statements are wrong ?

(1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three

133. Which one of the following is not correctly

described ?(1) Explant – Any part of plant from

that whole plant,could be regenerate

(2) Atlas 66 – A wheat varietyhaving a highcarbohydrate content

(3) Micropropagation – Is the method ofproducing thousandsof plants throughtissue culture

(4) Parbhani Kranti – Is a variety ofAbelomoschusesculentus haveresistance to yellowmosaic virus

129. -I -II

( ) ()

a. (i)

b. (ii)

c. (iii)d. (iv)

(1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)

(2) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i)

(3) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iii)

(4) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)

130. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

131. _______ :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

132. (a – d) (a)

(b) 70

(c)

(d)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

133. ?(1) –

(2) 66 –

(3) –

(4) –


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134. Exploring molecular genetic and species level

diversity for products of economic importance is

called :-

(1) Biodiversity (2) Bioprospecting

(3) Biopiracy (4) Bioremediation

135. Match the following –

(a) dodo (i) Africa

(b) quagga (ii) Mauritius

(c) Thylacine (iii) Russia

(d) Steller's Sea Cow (iv) Australia

(1) a (ii) b (i) c (iii) d (iv)

(2) a (ii) b (i) c (iv) d (iii)

(3) a (i) b (ii) c (iv) d (iii)

(4) a (i) b (ii) c (iii) d (iv)

136. The organism try to maintain the constancy of its

internal environment, this process called :-

(1) Thermoregulation (2) Adaptation

(3) Homeostasis (4) Acclimatisation

137. Choosing different time for feeding and

different foraging pattern can avoid

competition in the :-

(a) Closely related species found in different

habitats

(b) Two species compete for same resources

(c) Species having same niche and sharing

same habitat

(d) Two species having different niche in

same habitat

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) d, a

138. All given are included among 34 hot spots of

world, except :-

(1) Indo-Burma

(2) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka

(3) Himalaya

(4) Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar

139. Which of the following cells are not included in

cellular barriers ?

(1) Neutrophils (2) Helper T–cells

(3) NK cells (4) Macrophages

140. Toxin which is responsible for chill and high fever

during malaria :-

(1) Haematin (2) Haemoglobin

(3) Haemozoin (4) Heam

141. During grafting, what is it that the doctors check ?

(1) Blood group (2) Tissue matching

(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Drugs

134.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 135.

(a) dodo (i) Africa

(b) quagga (ii) Mauritius

(c) Thylacine (iii) Russia

(d) Steller's Sea Cow (iv) Australia

(1) a (ii) b (i) c (iii) d (iv)

(2) a (ii) b (i) c (iv) d (iii)

(3) a (i) b (ii) c (iv) d (iii)

(4) a (i) b (ii) c (iii) d (iv)

136. (1) (2) (3) (4)

137. (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) d, a

138. (1) (2) (3) (4)

139. (1) (2) T–(3) NK (4)

140. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

141. (1) (2) (3) 1 2 (4)

Kota/01CM414106H-24/31


142. Which type of breeding exposes harmful

recessive genes :-

(1) Out – crossing

(2) In breeding

(3) Cross – breeding

(4) Interspecific hybridisation

143. The IARI New Delhi has released several

vegetable crops. Which crop is not rich in vitamin

'A' :-

(1) Bitter gourd (2) Spinach

(3) Pumpkin (4) Carrots

144. Some species have evolved the ability to regulate,

but only over a limited range of environmental

conditions beyond which they are simply ........

(1) Regulater

(2) Conformers

(3) Migreater

(4) None of these

145. Unlike domestic sewage, waste water from

industries like petrolium paper manufacturing metal

extractions and processing etc. are often important

source of water pollution out of these heavy metals

are –

(1) Elements with density < 5 g/cm3

(2) Elements with density < 5 g/Cm2

(3) Elements with density > 5g /cm3

(4) Elements with density > 5g/ cm2

146.

Simple organic matter

Detritusinorganic nutrients

A

B

in above flow chart B is :-

(1) Minerlisation

(2) Humification

(3) Catabolism

(4) Fragmentation

147. In the following statements choose wrong

options :-

(a) Wasp laying egg in a fig fruit is an example

of mutual relationship

(b) Mycorrhiza is an example of ectoparasitism

(c) Physiological ecology is ecology at organism

level

(d) Competitive exclusion principle was given

by connell

(1) a & c (2) a, c, d

(3) b and d (4) b, c and d

142. (1) (2) (3) (4)

143. IARI :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

144. (1) (2) (3) (4)

145.

(1) < 5 g/cm3

(2) < 5 g/Cm2

(3) > 5g /cm3

(4) > 5g/ cm2

146.

A

B

B :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

147. (a)

(b)

(c)

(d) (1) a & c (2) a, c, d

(3) b and d (4) b, c and d


H-25/31Kota/01CM414106

148. Select the incorrect statement about biodiversity:-

(1) Increases from high to low latitudes

(2) Decrease of biodiversity prmote niche

specilization

(3) Habitat destruction or loss is the primary cause

for the loss of biodiversity

(4) Whooping crane and blue whale are more

susceptible to extinction due to fixed habitat

and migratory routes

149. The short-lived antibody-secreting B-cells are

called :-

(1) Plasma B–cells (2) Histiocytes

(3) Keratinocytes (4) Dendritic cells

150. ‘Mary Mallon’ was a carrier of a disease. This

disease spreads through which of the following :-

(1) Bite of mosquito

(2) Droplets

(3) Contaminated food and water

(4) Prolonged physical contact

151. Following diagram of HIV shows A, B, C and D

(respectively) :-

(1) ss-RNA, Reverse transcriptase, lipoprotein,

g-120

(2) gp-120, ss-RNA, Reverse transcriptase,

lipoprotein

(3) Reverse transcriptase, ss-RNA, lipoprotein,

g-120

(4) gp-120, lipoprotein, ss-RNA, Reverse

transcriptase

152. Which of the following is viral disease ?

(1) Ranikhet, Fowlpox, Coryza, Thrush

(2) Ranikhet, Bird flu, Fowl pox

(3) Bird flu, Pullorum, Thrush, Anthrax

(4) Ranikhet, Thrush, Bird flu

153. What is correct about Green house effect ?

(a) Salinity of sea water will increase

(b) Water absorption capacity of atmosphere will

increase

(c) Photosynthetic rate will increase

(d) Stomatal conductance will increase

(1) a,b, d (2) a, c, d (3) b, c (4) a, d

148. (1) (2)

(3)

(4)

149. B- :-

(1) B– (2)

(3) (4)

150. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

151. HIV A, B, C D

:-

(1) ss-, , ,g-120

(2) gp-120, ss-, ,

(3) , ss-, ,g-120

(4) gp-120, , ss-,

152. (1) (2) (3) (4)

153. (a)

(b)

(c) (d) (1) a,b, d (2) a, c, d (3) b, c (4) a, d

Kota/01CM414106H-26/31


154. Which one represents the range of conditions of

organism, the resource it utilises and its functional

role in ecosystem ?

(1) Habitat (2) Microclimate

(3) Niche (4) Home range

155. Under certain conditions soil nutrients get tied up

with the biomass of microbs and becomes

temporarily unavailable to other organism such

incorporation of nutrients is called –

(1) Nutrient immobilisation (2) Acclimatisation

(3) Mineralisation (4) Leaching

156. Match the column :-

II II

a. Fragmentation i. Leads toaccumulation of adark colouredsubstance

b. Humification ii. Water-solubleinorganic nutrientsundergo in soil

c. Catabolism iii. Bacterial and fungalenzymes degradedetritus into simpleorganic andinorganic substance

d. Leaching iv. Detritivores breakdown detritus insmall pieces

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii(2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

157. Which is not the example of link between

two ecosystems :

(a) A leaf of tree falling into pond

(b) A fish is eaten by bird

(c) A fish is eaten by man

(d) Grass is eaten by goat

(1) a, b, c (2) b & d

(3) c & d (4) only d

158. Incinerators are used in :-

(1) Thermal power plant

(2) Cement industries

(3) Hospital

(4) Coal mines

154. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

155. –(1) (2) (3) (4)

156.

II II

a. i.

b. ii.

c. iii.

d. iv.

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

(2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

157. (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) a, b, c (2) b & d

(3) c & d (4) only d

158. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)


H-27/31Kota/01CM414106

159. The four polypeptide chains of the antibody

molecule are held together by :-

(1) Peptide bonds

(2) Disulphide bonds

(3) Ionic bonds

(4) Van der waal's interactions

160. Natural killer cells kill virus-infected cells and

some tumour cells by producing :-

(1) Histamine and prostaglandin

(2) Perforins that form channels in the plasma

membrane of target cells

(3) Phagocytic effect

(4) Lysozyme

161. Which of the following class of immunoglobulins

can trigger the complement cascade ?

(1) IgA (2) IgM (3) IgD (4) IgE

162. How many of the animals in the list given below

are exotic breeds of cow ?

Karanswiss, Sunandani, Karanfries, Brown

Swiss, Sahiwal, Jersey, Holstein

(1) Five (2) Four

(3) Six (4) Three

163. FOAM, and biologists from Humboldt state

university, California created an integrated waste

water treatment in which they used plant to

purify :-

(1) Sludge from water

(2) Nitrate and phosphate from water

(3) Heavy metals from water

(4) All of the above

164. When the population density reaches the carrying

capacity that stage is called as

(1)Exponential phase

(2)Acceleration phase

(3)Deceleration phase

(4) Asymptote phase

165. What will happen to a well growing herbaceous

plant in the forest if it is transplanted outside the

forest in a park ?

(1) It will grow normally

(2) It will grow well because it is planted in the

same locality

(3) It may not survive because of change in its

micro climate

(4) It grows very well because the plant gets more

sunlight

159. (1) (2) (3) (4)

160. (1) (2)

(3) (4)

161. (1) IgA (2) IgM (3) IgD (4) IgE

162. ?, , , , ,

, (1) (2) (3) (4)

163. FOAM ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

164. (1)(2) (3)(4)

165. (1) (2)

(3)

(4)

Kota/01CM414106H-28/31


166. Relative contribution of various greenhouse gases

to total global warming is given in circle. Indentify

correct option.

C

BA

D

(i) C is-major product produce by burning of

biomass

(ii) D is-main responsible gas for ozone depletion

(iii) A is-most abundent natural hydrocarbon

(iv) B is-Release from fertilizer industries

(1) i, ii, iii, iv (2) i, iv

(3) iii, iv (4) i, ii

167. National forest policy (1988) of India has

recommended----------% of forest cover for the

plains and -------------% for the hills.

(1) 33, 19.4 (2) 33, 67

(3) 19.4, 33 (4) 33, 100

168. Brown air or haze is produced by:-

(1) NOx (2) SO2

(3) VOC's (4) CO

169. In_____ disorder, phenylalanine is accumulated

and converted into phenylpyruvic acid and other

derivative. Accumulation of these in brain results

in mental retardation. These are also excreted

through urine because of its poor absorption by

kidney :-

(1) Alkaptonuria (2) Phenylketoneuria

(3) Sickle cell anemia (4) Albinism

170. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to

foetus across placenta and through mother's milk

to infant is respectively due to :-

(1) IgG, IgM (2) IgA, IgG

(3) IgG, IgA (4) IgG, IgD

171. Read the statements a-d. How many statements

are true for passive immunity ?

(a) Anti-tetanus serum administered after an injury.

(b) An injection of anti-venom after snake bite.

(c) A newborn vaccinated against Hepatitis-B.

(d) Life time immunity attained by suffering from

chicken pox once.

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

166.

C

BA

D

(i) C-

(ii) D-

(iii) A-

(iv) B-

(1) i, ii, iii, iv (2) i, iv

(3) iii, iv (4) i, ii

167. (1988) ----------% -------------%

(1) 33, 19.4 (2) 33, 67

(3) 19.4, 33 (4) 33, 100

168. (1) NOx (2) SO2

(3) VOC's (4) CO

169. _____

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 170.

(1) IgG, IgM (2) IgA, IgG

(3) IgG, IgA (4) IgG, IgD

171. a-d (a) (b) (c) -B (d)

(1) (2) (3) (4)


H-29/31Kota/01CM414106

172. How many of the following is the variety of wheat

Sonalika, Pusa Swarnim, Himgiri, Jaya, Pusa komal, IR8

(1) Three (2) One (3) Two (4) Five

173. Which is the example of sexual deceit ?

(1) Fig and wasp (2) Ophrys and bee

(3) Cuckoo and crow (4) Parasite and host

174. Major part of the organic matter in the sewage

water is decomposed in

(1)Primary treatment

(2)Aeration tank/oxidation pond

(3)Anaerobic sludge digester

(4)Tertiary treatment

175. What will happen when sewage gets mixed in

river water :-

(a) First BOD will increases but further along the

river it decreases

(b) First DO will increase but further along the

river it decreases

(c) First DO will decrease but further along the

river it increases

(d) First BOD will decrease but future along the

river it increases

(1) b, c (2) a, c (3) b, d (4) a, d

176. How many statements are correct ?

(a) Net primary productivity is available biomass

for consumption to heterotrops

(b) Secondary productivity is defined as rate of

formation of new organic matter by heterotrophs

(c) The annual net primary productivity of ocean

is greater than land

(d) Warm and moist environment favours

decomposition

(1) abcd (2) abc (3) abd (4) ac

177. Which one is incorrect :-

(a) BOD 1

DO

(b) Biodiversity ecosystem stability

(c) Biodiversity Biomass production

(d) BOD 1

No. of trout fish

(e) DO No. of E coli

(1) a, b, c (2) a, c, e

(3) Only d, c (4) Only e

172.

IR8

(1) (2) (3) (4) 173.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

174. (1) (2) (3) (4)

175. (a) BOD

(b) DO

(c) DO

(d) BOD

(1) b, c (2) a, c (3) b, d (4) a, d

176. (a)

(b)

(c) NPP, (d)

(1) abcd (2) abc

(3) abd (4) ac

177.

(a) BOD 1

DO

(b) (c)

(d) BOD 1

No. of trout fish

(e) DO No. of E coli

(1) a, b, c (2) a, c, e

(3) Only d, c (4) Only e

Kota/01CM414106H-30/31


178. Select the incorrect match:-

(1) ESP - SPM

(2) Land fills - Solid waste

(3) Catalytic converter - Aerosol

(4) Ear muffs - Noise pollution

(Q.179 & 180 Based on given diagram)

Figure179. Above plant/plant part is the source of :-

(1) Cocaine (2) Cannabinoids

(3) Opioids (4) Coca alkaloid

180. Above diagram is of :-

(1) Cannabis Sativa (2) Datura

(3) Opium poppy (4) Atropa belladona

178. (1) ESP - SPM

(2) - (3) - (4) -

(Q.179 180 )

179. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

180. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015

Your moral duty

is to prove that is


H-31/31Kota/01CM414106

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /

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