form number : paper code : 1001cm303415032 … · classroom contact programme ... and questions...

Form Number :

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)

Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat

only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination

and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball

Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

OMR

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

Important Instructions /

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL - 2016

LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSEPHASE : MLI,MLJ & MAZC

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Papercode and Your Form No.

Correction Paper code Form No. [email protected] mail

Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT

TEST DATE : 14 - 03 - 2016

Paper Code : 1001CM303415032

TEST SYLLABUS : SYLLABUS - 01

Hin

di

PHYSICS : Basic Mathematics used in Physics, Vectors, Units,

Dimensions and Measurement

Kinematics (Motion along a straight line and Motion in a plane)

Laws of Motion and Friction

Work, Energy & Power and Circular Motion,Rotational Motion

Conservation Laws and Collisions, Centre of Mass

CHEMISTRY : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry

Structure of Atom

States of Matter : Gases and Liquids

Thermodynamics

Equilibrium (Chemical Equilibrium & Ionic Equilibrium)

Solid State

Solutions

BIOLOGY : Diversity in the Living World : (i) The living world

(ii) Biological Classification (iii) Plant Kingdom

(iv) Animal Kingdom

Structural Organisation in Plants & Animals :

(i)Morphology of Flowering plants (ii) Anatomy of Flowering

Plants (iii) Structural Organisation in Animals, Cockroach

Structure and Functions : (i) Cell : The Unit of Life

(ii) Biomolecules (Protoplasm) (iii) Cell cycle and Cell Division

ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 14 - 03 - 2016

SYLLABUS – 1

LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE (PHASE : MLI, MLJ & MAZC)

H-1/31

Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLI+J+MAZC/14-03-2016

1001CM303415032

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. Find minimum value of

2y 5x 2x 1 is

(1) 4

5(2)

3

5(3)

1

5(4)

2

5

2. From the top of a tower, a particle is thrown

vertically downwards with a velocity of 10 m/s.

The ratio of the distances, covered by it in the 3rd

and 2nd seconds of the motion is

(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 5 : 7 (2) 7 : 5 (3) 3 : 6 (4) 6 : 3

3. If a ladder weighing 250N is placed against a

smooth vertical wall having coefficient of friction

between it and floor is 0.3, then what is the

maximum force of friction available at the point

of contact between the ladder and the floor

(1) 75 N (2) 50 N (3) 35 N (4) 25 N

4. The components of a force acting on a particle

are varying according to the graphs shown. To

reach at point B (8, 20, 0) from point

A(0, 5, 12) the particle moves on paths parallel to

x-axis then y-axis and then z-axis, then work done

by this force is

37°10

F (in N)x

x (in m)

20

F (in N)y

y (in m)15

F (in N)z

z (in m)12

16

(1) 192 J (2) 58 J (3) 250 J (4) 125 J

5. A circular plate of uniform thickness of diameter

56 cm, whose center is at origin. A circular part

of diameter 42 cm is removed from one edge.

What is the distance of the centre of mass of the

remaining part

(1) 3 cm (2) 6 cm (3) 9 cm (4) 12 cm

1. 2y 5x 2x 1

(1) 4

5(2)

3

5(3)

1

5(4)

2

5

2. 10 m/s

:-

(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 5 : 7 (2) 7 : 5 (3) 3 : 6 (4) 6 : 3

3. 250N 0.3

:-

(1) 75 N (2) 50 N (3) 35 N (4) 25 N

4. A(0, 5, 12) B(8, 20, 0) x-y-z-

37°10

F (in N)x

x (in m)

20

F (in N)y

y (in m)15

F (in N)z

z (in m)12

16

(1) 192 J (2) 58 J (3) 250 J (4) 125 J

5. 56 cm 42 cm

(1) 3 cm (2) 6 cm (3) 9 cm (4) 12 cm

H-2/31

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/14-03-2016

1001CM303415032

6. The radius of a circular plate increases at the rate

of 0.1 cm/sec. At what rate does the area increase

when the radius of plate in 5

11cm.

(1) 1 cm2/sec (2) 0.1 cm2/sec

(3) 0.6 cm2/sec (4) 0.29 cm2/sec7. The horizontal range is four times the maximum

height attained by a projectile. The angle of

projection is :-

(1) 90° (2) 60° (3) 45° (4) 30°

8. A block of mass m is pressed against a vertical

surface by a spring of unstretched length . Ifthe coefficient of friction between the block andthe surface is . Choose the correct statement.

m

d

µ

(1) if spring constant k = 2mg

d, block will not

be in equilibrium.

(2) if spring constant is k = 2mg

d, the normal

reaction is mg

(3) in the part (2) force of friction is 2mg(4) minimum spring constant k

min to keep the

block of mass m in equilibrium is mg

d9. An object is moving on a circular track of radius

450 m. At some instant, the object is moving at

30 m/s and gaining speed at a uniform rate of

2 m/s2. Its acceleration at this instant is nearly :-

(1) 1.6 m/s2 (2) 0.8 m/s2

(3) 2.8 m/s2 (4) 3.4 m/s2

10. Two loops P and Qare made from a uniform wire.

The radii of P and Q are r1 and r

2 respectively,

and their moments of inertia are I1and I

2

respectively. If I2/I

1= 4 then

1

2r

r equals

(1) 42/3 (2) 41/3 (3) 4–2/3 (4)4–1/3

11. If L = 2.331 cm, B = 2.1 cm, then L + B =

(1) 4.431 cm (2) 4.43 cm

(3) 4.4 cm (4) 4 cm

6. 0.1 cm/sec.

5

11cm

(1) 1 cm2/sec (2) 0.1 cm2/sec

(3) 0.6 cm2/sec (4) 0.29 cm2/sec

7. :-

(1) 90° (2) 60° (3) 45° (4) 30°

8. m

:-

m

d

µ

(1) k = 2mg

d

(2) k = 2mg

d

mg

(3) (2) 2mg (4) m

kmin

mg

d

9. 450 m 30 m/s 2 m/s2 :-(1) 1.6 m/s2 (2) 0.8 m/s2

(3) 2.8 m/s2 (4) 3.4 m/s2

10. P Q

P Q r1 r

2

I1 I

2 I

2/I

1= 4

1

2r

r :-

(1) 42/3 (2) 41/3 (3) 4–2/3 (4) 4–1/3

11. L = 2.331 cm, B = 2.1 cm, L + B =

(1) 4.431 cm (2) 4.43 cm

(3) 4.4 cm (4) 4 cm

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1001CM303415032

12. The position of a particle moving in the xy-plane

at any time t is given by x = (3t2 – 6t) metres,

y = (t2 – 2t) metres. Select the correct statement

about the moving particle from the following :-

(1) The acceleration of the particle is zero at

t = 0 second

(2) The velocity of the particle is zero at

t = 0 second

(3) The velocity of the particle is zero at

t = 1 second

(4) The velocity and acceleration of the particle

are never zero

13. Five persons A, B, C, D & E are pulling a cart

of mass 100 kg on a smooth surface and cart

is moving with acceleration 3 m/s2 in east

direction. When person 'A' stops pulling, it

moves with acceleration 1m/s2 in the west

direction. When person 'B' stops pulling, it

moves with acceleration 24 m/s2 in the north

direction. The magnitude of acceleration of the

cart when only A & B pull the cart keeping

their directions same as the old directions, is:

(1) 26 m/s2 (2) 3 71 m/s2

(3) 25 m/s2 (4) 30 m/s2

14. A particle P is moving in a circle of radius 'a' with

a uniform speed v . C is the centre of the circle

and AB is a diameter. When passing through B

the angular velocity of P about A and C are in the

ratio :-

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

15. The moment of inertia of a sphere (mass M and

radius R) about it’s diameter is I. Four such

spheres are arranged as shown in the figure. The

moment of inertia of the system about axis

XX' will be :-

X X

(1) 3I (2) 5 I (3) 7 I (4) 9 I

12. xy-t

x = (3t2 – 6t)

y = (t2 – 2t)

:-

(1) t = 0

(2) t = 0

(3) t = 1

(4)

13. A, B, C, D E 100 kg

3 m/s2

A 1m/s2 B 24 m/s2

AB :

(1) 26 m/s2 (2) 3 71 m/s2

(3) 25 m/s2 (4) 30 m/s2

14. P, 'a' v C AB B

A C

:-

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

15. M R I

XX' :-

X X

(1) 3I (2) 5 I (3) 7 I (4) 9 I

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1001CM303415032

16. Which one of the following quantities has

dimensions different from the remaining three

(1) Energy per unit volume

(2) Force per unit area

(3) Product of voltage and charge per unit volume

(4) Angular momentum per unit mass

17. A body starts from rest and travels a distance S

with uniform acceleration, then moves uniformly

a distance 2S and finally comes to rest after

moving further 3S under uniform retardation. The

ratio of the average velocity to maximum velocity

is :-

(1) 2/5 (2) 3/5

(3) 4/7 (4) 5/718. Work done by the frictional force is

(1) Negative (2) Positive

(3) Zero (4) All of the above

19. A bucket tied at the end of a 1.6 m long string is

whirled in a vertical circle with constant speed.

What should be the minimum speed so that the

water from the bucket does not spill, when the

bucket is at the highest position :-

(Take g = 10 m/sec2)

(1) 4 m/sec (2) 6.25 m/sec

(3) 16 m/sec (4) None of the above

20. A disc of radius R is made to oscillate about a

horizontal axis passing through its periphery. Its

time period would be

(1) g

R

2

32 (2)

g

R

3

22

(3) g

R2 (4)

g

R22

21. A spherical body of mass m and radius r is allowed

to fall in a medium of viscosity . The time in

which the velocity of the body increases from zero

to 0.63 times the terminal velocity (v) is called

time constant (). Dimensionally can be

represented by

(1) 2mr

6(2)

2

6 mr

g

(3) m

6 rv(4) None of the above

16. :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17. S 2S

3S

:-

(1) 2/5 (2) 3/5

(3) 4/7 (4) 5/718. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

19. 1.6 m

:- (g = 10 m/sec2 )

(1) 4 m/sec (2) 6.25 m/sec

(3) 16 m/sec (4)

20. R :-

(1) g

R

2

32 (2)

g

R

3

22

(3) g

R2 (4)

g

R22

21. m r

(v)0.63

()

:-

(1) 2mr

6(2)

2

6 mr

g

(3) m

6 rv(4)

Key Filling

H-5/31


1001CM303415032

22. From the v-t graph, the:

v(m/s)

45°1

O 1t(s)

(1) speed at t = 1s is 1.2 m/s

(2) acceleration is 2 m/s2

(3) average speed during 1st second is 1.5 m/s

(4) speed of the particle can be zero23. A spring of spring constant 5 103 N/m is

stretched initially by 5cm from the unstretched

position. Then the work required to stretch it

further by another 5 cm is :-

(1) 6.25 N-m (2) 12.50 N-m

(3) 18.75 N-m (4) 25.00 N-m

24. A cannon ball is fired with a velocity 200 m/sec

at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. At the

highest point of its flight it explodes into 3 equal

fragments, one going vertically upwards with a

velocity 100 m/sec, the second one falling

vertically downwards with a velocity 100 m/sec.

The third fragment will be moving with a velocity

(1) 100 m/s in the horizontal direction

(2) 300 m/s in the horizontal direction

(3) 300 m/s in a direction making an angle of 60°

with the horizontal

(4) 200 m/s in a direction making an angle of 60°

with the horizontal

25. A massless string is wrapped round a disc of mass

M and radius R. Another end is tied to a mass m

which is initially at height h from ground level as

shown in the fig. If the mass is released then its

velocity while touching the ground level will be

M

h

m

(1) gh2 (2) m

Mgh2

(3) Mmgh /2 (4) Mmmgh 2/4

22. v-t v(m/s)

45°1

O 1t(s)

(1) t = 1 1.2 m/s (2) 2 m/s2 (3) 1.5 (4)

23. 5 103 N/m 5cm 5 cm

:-

(1) 6.25 N-m (2) 12.50 N-m

(3) 18.75 N-m (4) 25.00 N-m

24. 60° 200 m/sec

3

100 m/s 100 m/sec

:-

(1) 100 m/s

(2) 300 m/s

(3) 60° 300 m/s

(4) 60° 200 m/s

25. M R m h :-

M

h

m

(1) gh2 (2) m

Mgh2

(3) Mmgh /2 (4) Mmmgh 2/4

H-6/31


1001CM303415032

26. If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector,

then the magnitude of their difference is :-

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 2 (4) 5

27. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction

making an angle of 60º with the horizontal

direction with a velocity of 150 ms-1. Then the

time after which its inclination with the horizontal

is 45º is

(1) 15 3 1 s (2) 15 3 1 s

(3) 7.5 3 1 s (4) 7.5 3 1 s

28. A uniform chain of length 2m is kept on a table

such that a length of 60cm hangs freely from the

edge of the table. The total mass of the chain is

4kg. What is the work done in pulling the entire

chain on the table

(1) 7.2 J (2) 3.6 J (3) 120 J (4) 1200 J

29. A body of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of

3 m/sec collides head on with a body of mass 1 kg

moving in opposite direction with a velocity of

4 m/sec. After collision, two bodies stick together

and move with a common velocity which in

m/sec is equal to

(1) 1/4 (2) 1/3 (3) 2/3 (4) 3/4

30. At time t = 0 , a 2 kg particle has position vector

ˆ ˆr (4i 2 j) m

relative to the origin. Its velocity

is given by 2ˆv 2t i (m / s)

. The torque acting on

the particle about the origin at t = 2s, is

(1) 32 k̂ N-m (2) –16 k̂ N-m

(3) 16 k̂ N-m (4) 12 k̂ N-m

31. The component of vector ˆ Â 2i 3 j

along the

vector ˆ î j is :-

(1) 5

2(2) 10 2 (3) 5 2 (4) 5

32. The engine of a jet aircraft applies a thrust force

of 105 N during take off and causes the plane to

attain a velocity of 1 km/sec in 10 sec. The mass

of the plane is

(1) 102 kg (2) 103 kg

(3) 104 kg (4) 105 kg

26. :-

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 2 (4) 5

27. 60º 150 ms-1

45º :-

(1) 15 3 1 s (2) 15 3 1 s

(3) 7.5 3 1 s (4) 7.5 3 1 s

28. 2m 60cm

4kg

:-

(1) 7.2 J (2) 3.6 J (3) 120 J (4) 1200 J

29. 2 kg 3 m/sec

4 m/s 1 kg

(m/sec ) :-(1) 1/4 (2) 1/3 (3) 2/3 (4) 3/4

30. t = 0 2 kg

ˆ ˆr (4i 2 j) m

2ˆv 2t i (m / s)

t = 2s

:-

(1) 32 k̂ N-m (2) –16 k̂ N-m

(3) 16 k̂ N-m (4) 12 k̂ N-m

31. ˆ Â 2i 3 j

ˆ î j

:-

(1) 5

2(2) 10 2 (3) 5 2 (4) 5

32. 105 N 10 1 km/sec :-(1) 102 kg (2) 103 kg

(3) 104 kg (4) 105 kg

H-7/31


1001CM303415032

33. If F = 2x2 – 3x – 2, then choose correct option :-

(1) x = – 1/2 is position of stable equilibrium

(2) x = 2 is position of stable equilibrium

(3) x = – 1/2 is position of unstable equilibrium

(4) x = 2 is position of neutral equilibrium

34. Three masses of 2kg, 4 kg and 4 kg are placed

at the three points (1, 0, 0) (1, 1, 0) and (0, 1, 0)

respectively. The position vector of its center of

mass is :-

(1)3 4ˆ î + j5 5

(2) ˆ ˆ(3i + j)

(3)2 4ˆ î + j5 5

(4) 1 4ˆ î + j5 5

35. A constant power is supplied to a rotating disc.

Angular velocity () of disc varies with number

of rotations (n) made by the disc as :

(1) (n)1/3 (2) (n)3/2

(3) (n)2/3 (4) (n)2

36. Two forces, each of magnitude F have a resultant

of the same magnitude F. The angle between the

two forces is :-

(1) 45° (2) 120°

(3) 150° (4) 60°

37. A uniform chain of length L which hanges

partially from a table, is kept in equilibrium by

friction. The maximum length that can withstand

without slipping is , then coefficient of friction

between the table and the chain is :

(1) L

(2)

L

(3) L

(4)

L

L

38. Assume the aerodynamic drag force on a car isproportional to its speed. If the power output fromthe engine is doubled, then the maximum speedof the car.

(1) is unchanged

(2) increases by a factor of 2

(3) is also doubled

(4) increases by a factor of four.

33. F = 2x2 – 3x – 2 :-(1) x = – 1/2

(2) x = 2

(3) x = – 1/2

(4) x = 2

34. 2kg, 4 kg 4 kg

(1, 0, 0) (1, 1, 0) (0, 1, 0)

:-

(1)3 4ˆ î + j5 5

(2) ˆ ˆ(3i + j)

(3)2 4ˆ î + j5 5

(4) 1 4ˆ î + j5 5

35. (supply)

() (n) :(1) (n)1/3 (2) (n)3/2

(3) (n)2/3 (4) (n)2

36. F F :-

(1) 45° (2) 120°

(3) 150° (4) 60°

37. L

:-

(1) L

(2)

L

(3) L

(4)

L

L

38.

:-

(1)

(2) 2

(3)

(4)

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

H-8/31


1001CM303415032

39. Consider a rubber ball freely falling from a height

h = 4.9 m on a horizontal elastic plate. Assume

that the duration of collision is negligible and the

collision with the plate is totally elastic. Which

one of the following graph represents the velocity

as a function of time and the height as a function

of time ?

(1) v

t t

y

h

(2)

v

t t

y

h+v

–v

(3)

v

t t

y

h+v

–v

t1 2t1 3t 4t1

(4)

v

tt

y

h+v

t1 2t1 3t 4t1

40. The moment of inertia of a body does not depend

on:

(1) the mass of the body

(2) the angular velocity of the body

(3) the axis of rotation of the body

(4) the distribution of the mass in the body

41. A 150 m long train is moving with a uniform

velocity of 45 km/h. The time taken by the train

to cross a bridge of length 850 meters is

(1) 56 sec (2) 68 sec

(3) 80 sec (4) 92 sec

39. h = 4.9 m

:-

(1) v

t t

y

h

(2)

v

t t

y

h+v

–v

(3)

v

t t

y

h+v

–v

t1 2t1 3t 4t1

(4)

v

tt

y

h+v

t1 2t1 3t 4t1

40.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41. 150 m 45 km/h 850 :-(1) 56 sec (2) 68 sec

(3) 80 sec (4) 92 sec

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1001CM303415032

42. A lift is going up. The total mass of the lift and

the passenger is 1500 kg. The variation in the speed

of the lift is as given in the graph. The tension in

the rope pulling the lift at t = 11th sec will be :-

2 10 12

3.6

spee

d (

in m

/sec

)

time (sec)

(1) 17400 N (2) 14700 N

(3) 12000 N (4) Zero43. A small bar starts sliding down on inclined plane

forming an angle with the horizontal. Thefriction coefficient depends on the distance x

covered as kx , where k is a constant. Find

the distance covered by the bar till it stops.

(1) tan

k

(2)

2 tan

k

(3) 3tan

k

(4) None

44. Two point masses of 0.3 kg and 0.7 kg are fixed

at the ends of a rod of length 1.4 m and of

negligible mass. The rod is set rotating about an

axis perpendicular to its length with a uniform

angular speed. The point on the rod through which

the axis should pass in order that the work required

for rotation of the rod is minimum is located at a

distance of

(1) 0.4 m from mass of 0.3 kg

(2) 0.98 m from mass of 0.3 kg(3) 0.70 m from mass of 0.7 kg

(4) 0.98 m from mass of 0.7 kg

45. Three particle A, B & C move in a circle of

radius 1

r m

, in anticlockwise direction

with speeds 1 m/s, 2.5 m/s and 2 m/s

respectively. The initial positions of A, B and

C are as shown in figure. The ratio of distancetravelled by B and C by the instant A, B and C

meet for the first time is :-

(1) 3 : 2 (2) 5 : 4 (3) 3 : 5 (4) 3 : 7

42. 1500 kg t = 11 :-

2 10 12

3.6

(1) 17400 N (2) 14700 N(3) 12000 N (4) Zero

43.

x

kx , k

:-

(1) tan

k

(2)

2 tan

k

(3) 3tan

k

(4)

44. 1.4 m 0.3 kg 0.7 kg

:-

(1) 0.3 kg 0.4 m

(2) 0.3 kg 0.98 m (3) 0.7 kg 0.70 m (4) 0.7 kg 0.98 m

45. A, B C 1

r m

1 m/s, 2.5 m/s 2 m/s A, B C A, B C BC :-

(1) 3 : 2 (2) 5 : 4

(3) 3 : 5 (4) 3 : 7

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1001CM303415032

46. The momentum of a photon with energy 20 eV is

(1) 10.0 × 10–27 kg m

s

(2) 10.95 × 10–27 kg m

s

(3) 10.66 × 10–27 kg m

s

(4) 10.2 × 10–27 kg m

s

47. Equal masses of CH4 and H

2 are mixed in an empty

container at 25°C. The fraction of the total

pressure exerted by methane is

(1) 1/9 (2) 8/9

(3) 16/17 (4) 1/2

48. If relative decrease in vapour pressure is 0.4 for

a solution containing 1 mol NaCl in 3 mol of H2O,

the degree of ionization of NaCl is–

(1) 60% (2) 50%

(3) 100% (4) 40%

49. Molar heat capacity of water in equilibrium with

ice at constant pressure is–(Enthalpy of fusion of

ice Hf = 6 kJ/mol, Tm = 273 K)

(1) zero (2) infinity

(3)6kJ / mol

273K(4) 6kJ / mol 273K

50. What is the molarity of F– ions in a saturated

solution of BaF2? (Ksp = 1.0 × 10–6)

(1) 1.0 × 10–2 (2) 1.0 × 10–3

(3) 1.26 × 10–2 (4) 6.3 × 10–3

51. Wave number of a spectral line for a given

transition is ycm–1 for He+, then its value for Li2+

for the same transition is

(1) 4ycm–1 (2) ycm–1

(3) 13y

cm4

(4)

19ycm

4

52. The equilibrium concentration of x, y and yx2 are

4, 2 and 2 respectively for the equilibrium

2x + y yx2. The value of equilibrium

constant, KC is

(1) 0.625 (2) 6.25

(3) 0.0625 (4) 62.5

46. 20 eV

(1) 10.0 × 10–27 kg m

s

(2) 10.95 × 10–27 kg m

s

(3) 10.66 × 10–27 kg m

s

(4) 10.2 × 10–27 kg m

s

47. 25°C CH4 H

2

CH4

(1) 1/9 (2) 8/9

(3) 16/17 (4) 1/2

48. 3 1 NaCl 0.4 NaCl (1) 60% (2) 50%

(3) 100% (4) 40%

49. (Hf = 6 kJ/mol, Tm = 273 K)

(1) (2)

(3)6kJ / mol

273K(4) 6kJ / mol 273K

50. BaF2 F–

(Ksp = 1.0 × 10–6)

(1) 1.0 × 10–2 (2) 1.0 × 10–3

(3) 1.26 × 10–2 (4) 6.3 × 10–3

51. He+ ycm–1 Li2+ (1) 4ycm–1 (2) ycm–1

(3) 13y

cm4

(4)

19ycm

4

52. 2x + y yx2x, y yx

2

4, 2 2 KC

(1) 0.625 (2) 6.25

(3) 0.0625 (4) 62.5

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

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1001CM303415032

53. Which one of the following pairs of solution will

be isotonic at the same temperature ?

(1) 1 M NaCl and 2 M – Urea

(2) 1 M CaCl2 and 0.5 M – KCl

(3) 1.5 M AlCl3 and 1 M – Na2SO4

(4) 2.5 M KCl and 3.5 M – Al2(SO4)3

54. For a reaction 2(g) 2(g) 2 ( )1

H O H O2

l

Cp = 32 JK–1, H at 27ºC = –285.8 kJ mol–1.

What will be the value of H at 127ºC ?

(1) –289 kJ/mol (2) –282.6 kJ/mol

(3) –317 kJ/mol (4) –253.8 kJ/mol

55. At 298 K, the solubility product of PbCl2 is

1.0 × 10–6. What will be the solubility of PbCl2in moles/litre -

(1) 6.3 × 10–3 (2) 1.0 × 10–3

(3) 3.0 × 10–3 (4) 4.6 × 10–14

56. Arrange the orbitals of H–atom in the increasing

order of their energy

3px, 2s, 4dxy, 3s, 4pz, 3py, 4s

(1) 2s < 3s < 3px = 3py < 4s < 4pz < 4dxy

(2) 2s < 3s = 3px = 3py < 4s = 4pz = 4dxy

(3) 2s < 3s < 3px = 3py < 4s = 4pz = 4dxy

(4) 2s < 3px = 3p4 < 3s < 4s = 4pz < 4dxy

57. Chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature because–

(1) The equilibrium is maintained quickly

(2) Conc. of reactants and products become same

at equilibrium

(3) Conc. of reactants and products are constant

but different

(4) Both forward and backward reactions occur

at all times with same speed

58. The number of gram atoms of oxygen present in

0.3 gram mole of (COOH)2.2H

2O is:

(1) 0.6 (2) 1.8 (3) 1.2 (4) 3.6

59. When two mole of an ideal gas . .

5

2p mC R

heated from 300 K to 600 K at constant pressure.

the change in entropy of gas (S) is :

(1) 3

ln 22R (2)

3ln 2

2R

(3) 5R ln 2 (4) 5

2R ln 2

53. (1) 1 M NaCl 2 M – Urea

(2) 1 M CaCl2 0.5 M – KCl

(3) 1.5 M AlCl3 1 M – Na2SO4

(4) 2.5 M KCl 3.5 M – Al2(SO4)3

54. 2(g) 2(g) 2 ( )1

H O H O2

l

Cp = 32 JK–127ºC H = –285.8 kJ mol–1

127ºC H (1) –289 kJ/mol (2) –282.6 kJ/mol

(3) –317 kJ/mol (4) –253.8 kJ/mol

55. 298 K PbCl2 1.0 × 10–6 PbCl2 -

(1) 6.3 × 10–3 (2) 1.0 × 10–3

(3) 3.0 × 10–3 (4) 4.6 × 10–14

56. 3px, 2s, 4dxy, 3s, 4pz, 3py, 4s

(1) 2s < 3s < 3px = 3py < 4s < 4pz < 4dxy

(2) 2s < 3s = 3px = 3py < 4s = 4pz = 4dxy

(3) 2s < 3s < 3px = 3py < 4s = 4pz = 4dxy

(4) 2s < 3px = 3p4 < 3s < 4s = 4pz < 4dxy

57. –

(1) (2)

(3)

(4)

58. (COOH)2.2H

2O 0.3

(1) 0.6 (2) 1.8 (3) 1.2 (4) 3.6

59. . .

5

2p mC R

300 K 600 K :

(1) 3

ln 22R (2)

3ln 2

2R

(3) 5R ln 2 (4) 5

2R ln 2

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1001CM303415032

60. A certain buffer solution contains equal

concentration of X– and HX. The Kb for X– is

10–10. The pH of the buffer is

(1) 4 (2) 7 (3) 10 (4) 14

61. If the total energy of an electron in a hydrogen

atom in excited state is –3.4 eV, then the

de–Broglie wavelength of the electron is

(1) 3.3 × 10–8 cm (2) 6.6 × 10–10 cm

(3) 3.3 × 10–10 cm (4) 6.64 × 10–8 cm

62. In what manner will increase of pressure affect

the following equation ?

(s) 2 (g) (g) 2(g)C H O CO H

(1) Shift in the forward direction

(2) Shift in the backward direction

(3) Increase in the yield of H2

(4) No effect

63. An enzyme peroxidase has 5% by weight of

sulphur (S = 32) its minimum molecular weight

will be–

(1) 320 (2) 640 (3) 1280 (4) 480

64. 18 gm of ice is converted into water at 0ºC and

1 atm. The entropies of H2O(s) and H2O(l) are 38.2

and 60 J/mol K respectively. The enthalpy change

for this conversion is:

(1) 5951.4 J/mol (2) 595.14 J/mol

(3) 5951.4 J/mol (4) 2975.7 J/mol

65. A unit cell having dimensions a b c ;

90º is known as

(1) Monoclinic (2) Triclinic

(3) Rhomobohedral (4) Orthorhombic

66. If ‘X’ is ionization energy of hydrogen then the

energy required for excitation of Li2+ electron

from 2nd excited state to 5th excited state is–

(1) 3X

4(2)

4

3X(3)

X

12(4)

12

X

67. At temperature, T, a compound AB2(g)

dissociates

according to the reaction; 2AB2(g)2AB

(g) + B

2(g)

with a degree of dissociation x, which is small

compared with unity. The expression for Kp, in

terms of x and the total pressure, P is :

(1)

3Px

2(2)

2Px

3(3)

3Px

3(4)

2Px

2

60. X– HX X– Kb 10–10 pH (1) 4 (2) 7

(3) 10 (4) 14

61. –3.4 eV (1) 3.3 × 10–8 cm (2) 6.6 × 10–10 cm

(3) 3.3 × 10–10 cm (4) 6.64 × 10–8 cm

62. ?

(s) 2 (g) (g) 2(g)C H O CO H

(1) (2) (3) H

2

(4) 63. 5%

(S = 32) (1) 320 (2) 640 (3) 1280 (4) 480

64. 0ºC 1 H2O(s) H2O(l) 38.2 60 J/mol K (1) 5951.4 J/mol (2) 595.14 J/mol

(3) 5951.4 J/mol (4) 2975.7 J/mol

65. a b c ;

90º (1) (2) (3) (4)

66. ‘X’ Li2+

(1) 3X

4(2)

4

3X(3)

X

12(4)

12

X

67. T AB2(g)

2AB2(g)2AB

(g) + B

2(g)

x

x P Kp

(1)

3Px

2(2)

2Px

3(3)

3Px

3(4)

2Px

2

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1001CM303415032

68. 100 ml of PH3 when completely decomposed

produces phosphorus and hydrogen. The change

in volume of the gas is -

PH3(g) P(s) + 3

2H

2(g)

(1) 50 ml increase (2) 500 ml decrease

(3) 900 ml decrease (4) nil

69. The maximum work done in expanding 16 g

oxygen at 300K and occupying a volume of 5 dm3

isothermally and reversibly until the volume

become 25 dm3 is: (log 5 =0.699)

(1) 2.01 × 103 J (2) + 2.81 × 103 J

(3) 2.01 × 10–3 J (4) + 2.01 × 10–6 J

70.

(1) and represent tetrahedral holes

(2) and represent tetrahedral holes

(3) and represent octahedral holes

(4) and represent octahedral holes

71. The number of waves made by any electron

moving in an orbit having maximum magnetic

quantum number m 3 is –

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

72. Which of the following will form an ideal solution?

(1) C2H

5OH and water

(2) HNO3 and water

(3) CHCl3 and CH

3COCH

3

(4) C6H

6 and C

6H

5CH

3

73. 510 milli gm of a liquid on vapourisation in

Victor Mayer's apparatus displaces 510 C.C. of dry

air (at NTP). The molecular weight of liquid is -

(1) 0.224 (2) 2.24 (3) 224 (4) 22.4

74. The gas absorbs 100 J and is simultaneously

compressed by a constant external pressure of

1.50 atm from 8 lit to 2 lit volume. Hence U will be:

(1) – 812 J (2) 812 J

(3) 1011 J (4) 911 J

68. PH3 100 ml

:-

PH3(g) P(s) + 3

2H

2(g)

(1) 50 ml (2) 500 ml (3) 900 ml (4)

69. 300K 5 dm3 25 dm3 : (log 5 =0.699)

(1) 2.01 × 103 J (2) + 2.81 × 103 J

(3) 2.01 × 10–3 J (4) + 2.01 × 10–6 J

70.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 71.

m

(+3) (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

72. (1) C

2H

5OH

(2) HNO3

(3) CHCl3 CH

3COCH

3

(4) C6H

6 C

6H

5CH

3

73. 510 510 (NTP ) (1) 0.224 (2) 2.24 (3) 224 (4) 22.4

74. 100 J 1.50 atm 8 lit 2 lit

U :

(1) – 812 J (2) 812 J

(3) 1011 J (4) 911 J

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1001CM303415032

75. F–centers are

(1) the electrons trapped in anionic vacancies

(2) the electrons trapped in cation vacancies

(3) non-equivalent sites of stoichiometric compound

(4) all of the above

76. If the velocity of an electron in Ist orbit of H atom is

V, then what will be the velocity in 4th orbit of Be+3:-

(1) V (2) V

4(3) 16 V (4) 4 V

77. 1 mole each of following solutes are taken in

5 moles water,

(i) NaCl (ii) K2SO

4

(iii) Na3PO

4(iv) glucose

Assuming 100% ionisation of the electrolyte,

relative decrease in V. P. will be in order

(1) i < ii < iii < iv (2) iv < iii < ii < i

(3) iv < i < ii < iii (4) equal

78. The empirical formula of a compound is CH. Its

molecular weight is 78. The molecular formula

of the compound will be :

(1) C2H

2(2) C

3H

3(3) C

4H

4(4) C

6H

6

79. For the given reaction :

H2(g) + S(s) H

2S(g) ; H

r = 100 kJ/mol and

Sr = 400 J/mol/K

Temperature at which above reaction occurs

reversibly is (Assumning Hr and S

r are

independent of temperature)

(1) 200 K (2) 250 K

(3) 400 K (4) None

80. Number of atoms per unit cell for body centrered

cubic system is:

(1) Six (2) Four (3) Two (4) One

81. How will the viscosity of liquid be affected by the

increase in temperature?

(1) Increase

(2) No effect

(3) Decrease

(4) No regular pattern will be followed

82. An aqueous solution of a solute AB has b.p of101.080C (AB is 100% ionised in boiling point of

the solution ) and freezes at -1.800C.Hence, AB (K

b / K

f = 0.3)

(1) is 100% ionised at the f.p. of the solution(2) behaves as non-electrolyte at the f.p. of the

solution(3) forms dimer

(4) none of these

75. F–(1) (2) (3) (4)

76. H V Be+3

(1) V (2) V

4(3) 16 V (4) 4 V

77. 1 5

,(i) NaCl (ii) K

2SO

4

(iii) Na3PO

4(iv)

100% (1) i < ii < iii < iv (2) iv < iii < ii < i

(3) iv < i < ii < iii (4) 78. CH 78

(1) C

2H

2(2) C

3H

3(3) C

4H

4(4) C

6H

6

79.

H2(g) + S(s) H

2S(g) ; H

r = 100 kJ/mol

Sr = 400 J/mol/K

(Hr S

r )

(1) 200 K (2) 250 K

(3) 400 K (4)

80. (b.c.c.) (1) (2) (3) (4)

81. (1) (2) (3) (4)

82. AB 101.080C (AB 100% ) –1.800C AB (K

b / K

f = 0.3)

(1) 100% (2)

(3) (4)

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1001CM303415032

83. Which of the following pairs of substances

illustrates the law of multiple proportions?

(1) CO and CO2

(2) NaCl and NaBr

(3) H2O and D

2O

(4) MgO and Mg(OH)2

84. What is the pH of a solution in which 10.0 mL

of 0.010 M Sr(OH)2 is added to 10.0 mL of

0.010 M HCl ?

(1) 2.30 (2) 1.50

(3) 11.70 (4) 7.00

85. The radius of the Na+ is 95 pm and that of Cl– ion

is 181 pm. Predict the co-ordination number of

Na+ in NaCl :

(1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 8 (4) Unpredictable

86. Which of the following conditions, a gas deviates

from the ideal behaviour?

(A) Low pressure

(B) High pressure

(C) Low temperature

(D) High temperature

(1) A, D (2) A,B

(3) B,C (4) A, B, C, D

87. The freezing point of aqueous solution which contains

5% by mass urea, 1.0% by mass KCl and 10% by

mass of glucose is: 21

H OK 1.86Kmolality

(1) 290.2 K (2) 285.5 K

(3) 269.7 K (4) 250 K

88. 100 mL of a mixture of NaOH and Na2SO

4 is

neutralised by 10 mL of 0.5 M H2SO

4. Hence

NaOH in 100 mL solution is:

(1) 0.2 g (2) 0.4 g

(3) 0.6 g (4) None of these

89. What will be the pH of an aqueous solution of

1.0 M ammonium formate ? (Given: pKa = 3.8 and

pKb = 4.8)

(1) 7.5 (2) 3.4 (3) 6.5 (4) 10.2

90. An ionic compound has unit cells consisting of

A ions at the corners of a cube and B ions on the

centres of the faces of cube. The empirical formula

of this compound is :

(1) AB (2) A2B

(3) A3B (4) AB

3

83. (1) CO CO

2

(2) NaCl NaBr

(3) H2O D

2O

(4) MgO Mg(OH)2

84. 10.0 mL, 0.010 M Sr(OH)2 10.0 mL, 0.010 M

HCl pH

(1) 2.30 (2) 1.50

(3) 11.70 (4) 7.00

85. Na+ 95 pm Cl– 181 pm NaClNa+

(1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 8 (4)

86. (A) (B) (C) (D) (1) A, D (2) A,B

(3) B,C (4) A, B, C, D

87. 5% w/W , 1.0% w/W KCl 10% w/W

21

H OK 1.86Kmolality

(1) 290.2 K (2) 285.5 K

(3) 269.7 K (4) 250 K

88. NaOH Na2SO

4 100

0.5 M H2SO

4 10

100 NaOH (1) 0.2 g (2) 0.4 g

(3) 0.6 g (4) 89. 1.0 M pH

pKa = 3.8 pKb = 4.8

(1) 7.5 (2) 3.4 (3) 6.5 (4) 10.2

90. A B

(1) AB (2) A2B

(3) A3B (4) AB

3

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1001CM303415032

91. Lymph differ from blood in possessing

(1) only WBC

(2) More RBC and WBC

(3) more RBC and few WBC

(4) more WBC and few RBC

92. Choose the correct option.

(1) Annelida – Exhibit bilateral symmetry,

metamerism and coelom.

(2) Echinodermata – Exhibit tissue level

organisation and radial symmetry.

(3) Arthropoda – Exhibit incomplete digestive

system and segmentation.

(4) Notochord is present on ventral side in

vertebrate.

93. Mammals that are viviparous but retain the new

borns in a pouch like structure for the completion

of development are :-

(1) Prototherians (2) Marsupials

(3) Ornithorhynchus (4) All sharks

94. Which of the following is not an obligate category?

(1) Class (2) Genus (3) Kingdom (4) Series

95. Bryophytes resemble pteridophytes in producing:

(1) Motile, chemotactically attracted antherozoids

(2) Formation of embryo from the zygote

(3) Archegonia as the female sex organ

(4) All of the above

96. First haploid cell in pteridophytes -

(1) Male gametes (2) Female gametes

(3) Spore (4) Oospore

97. Chlorophyll in chloroplast is located in :-

(1) Grana (2) Pyrenoid

(3) Stroma (4) Both 1 and 2

98. Match the following and choose the correct options-

Column I Column II

A Basal i Dianthus

B Free central ii Pea

C Parietal iii Lemon

D Axile iv Marigold

E Marginal v Argemone

(1) A - (i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)

(2) A - (ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(v), E-(i)

(3) A - (iv), B-(i), C-(v), D-(iii), E-(ii)

(4) A - (iv), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(i), E-(ii)

91. (Lymph) (1) WBC

(2) RBC WBC

(3) RBC WBC

(4) WBC RBC

92. (1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4)

93. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

94. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

95. :(1) (2) (3) (4)

96. (1) (2) (3) (4)

97. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) 1 2

98. -

Column I Column II

A i

B ii

C iii

D iv

E v

(1) A - (i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)

(2) A - (ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(v), E-(i)

(3) A - (iv), B-(i), C-(v), D-(iii), E-(ii)

(4) A - (iv), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(i), E-(ii)

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1001CM303415032

99. Select correct statements.

A. Spring wood is also known as a early wood.

B. All tissue outside phellem is known as bark.C. Secondary medullary rays in stem is secondary

in origin.D. Vascular cambium ring of stem is partialy

primary and partialy secondary in origin.(1) Only (B) incorrect and (A), (C), (D) correct

(2) Only (A) incorrect and (B), (C), (D) correct(3) Only (B) and (C) incorrect and (A) and (D) correct

(4) Only (D) incorrect and (A), (B), (C) correct

100. The enzyme associated with transcription of

SnRNA, hnRNA, 5srRNA is :-

(1) RNA polymerase I, II and III respectively

(2) RNA polymerase III, II and I respectively

(3) RNA polymerase III, III and II respectively

(4) RNA polymerase III, II and III respectively

101. Basement membrane is made up of

(1) epidermal cells only

(2) endodermal cells only

(3) both (1) and (2)

(4) no cell at all, but is a product of epithelial

cells and connective tissue

102. Match the following columns. Mark the most

appropriate match only.

Column-I Column-II

A Ctenophora I Bilateral symmetry

B Cnidaria II Comb plates

C Platyhelminthes III Radial symmetry

D Echinodermata IV Tissue level oforganisation

Codes:

A B C D

(1) IV I II III

(2) III II I IV

(3) II IV I III

(4) I III IV II

103. Which of the following statement is incorrect for

hemichordates?

A. Excretion by general body surface.

B. Body contains proboscis, collor and trunkC. Body is schizocoelomic

D. Respiration by proboscis gland(1) A, B & D (2) B & C

(3) A, C & D (4) A, B & C

99. A. B. C.

D.

(1) (B) (A), (C), (D) (2) (A) (B), (C), (D) (3) (B) (C) (A) (D) (4) (D) (A), (B), (C)

100. SnRNA, hnRNA, 5srRNA :-(1) RNA polymerase I, II and III (2) RNA polymerase III, II and I (3) RNA polymerase III, III and II (4) RNA polymerase III, II and III

101. (1) (2) (3) (1) (2)(4)

102.

-I -I

A I

B II

C III

D IV

Codes:

A B C D

(1) IV I II III

(2) III II I IV

(3) II IV I III

(4) I III IV II

103. A.

B. C. D. (1) A, B D (2) B C

(3) A, C D (4) A, B C

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1001CM303415032

104. Which of the following can be called as infection

RNA :-

(1) Bacteriophage

(2) gemini viruses

(3) Prions

(4) Viroids

105. The heterosporous pteridophytes are :-

(1) Lycopodium and Pteris

(2) Selaginella and Psilotum

(3) Selaginella and Salvinia

(4) Dryopteris and Adiantum

106. Bryophytes include :-

(1) Mosses (2) Horn worts

(3) Liver worts (4) All the above

107. How many of the following statements are correct?

(I) Mitochondrial membranes do not have

enzymes.

(II) Mitochondrial lumen divided into two distinct

compartments

(III) Matrix of Mitochondria does not have RNA

molecules.

(IV) Number of Mitochondria per cell is fixed

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

108. Which of the following pairs is not correct-

(1) Corymb - Candytuft

(2) Capitulum - Sunflower

(3) Catkin - Mulberry

(4) Raceme - Wheat

109. Which is incorrect with respect to xylem?

(1) It act as a conducting tissue.

(2) It provides mechanical strength.

(3) It is composed of four similar kind of elements.

(4) Normally gymnosperm lack vessels in

xylem

110. In prokaryote predominent site for control of gene

expression is :-

(1) Control of transcriptional initiation.

(2) Processing level

(3) Translation level

(4) All of these

104. RNA :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 105. :-

(1) (2) (3)

(4) 106. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 107. ?

(I)

(II)

(III) RNA (IV)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

108. (1) -

(2) - (3) - (4) -

109. (1) (2)

(3)

(4)

110.

:-(1) (2) (3) (4)

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1001CM303415032

111. Match the columns.

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’

(a) Tightjunctions

(i) Performcementing toneighbouring cell

(b) Gapjunctions

(ii) Stop substancesleaking a tissue

(c) Interdigitations

(iii) Finger likeprocesses

(d) Adheringjunctions

(iv) Rapid transfer ofions andmolecules

a b c d

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii iv iii i

(3) ii iv i iii

(4) ii i iii iv

112. Dicondylic skull is found in

(1) Amphibia and reptilia

(2) Amphibia and aves

(3) Amphibia and fishes

(4) Amphibia and mammalia

113. Match the following columns:

Column I Column II

A

B

C

1

2

3

4

Codes:

A B C

(1) 2 3 4

(2) 3 4 2

(3) 4 3 1

(4) 1 2 3

111.

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’

(a) Tightjunctions

(i)

(b) Gapjunctions

(ii)

(c) Interdigitations

(iii)

(d) Adheringjunctions

(iv)

a b c d

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii iv iii i

(3) ii iv i iii

(4) ii i iii iv

112. (1) (2) (3) (4)

113.

I II

A

B

C

1

2

3

4

Codes:

A B C

(1) 2 3 4

(2) 3 4 2

(3) 4 3 1

(4) 1 2 3

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114. Which statement is/are correct regarding heterocyst?

(1) It is non photosynthetic

(2) Can fix atmospheric nitrogen

(3) Found in Nostoc

(4) All the above

115. Gametophytes and sporophytes both are

independent and pollen tube is absent in :-

(1) Gymnosperm (2) Angiosperm

(3) Bryophytes (4) Pteridophytes

116. If the number of chromosome at G2 stage of a cell

is 14 then find out the number of chromosome in

Anaphase and Anaphase I :-

(1) 14 and 18 respectively




117. How many of the following terms are not

associated with chromosome ?

Histone, Ribophorin, Kinetochroes, Acrocentric,

Oxysome, Centromere, Proton pump, Telomere.

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

118. Stem tendrils are found in

(1)Grape, cucumber, pumpkin

(2)Cucumber, pea, watermelon

(3)Cucumber, pumpkin, sweet pea

(4)Sweet pea, pea, cucumber

119. Pulp of fruits like guava, pear and sapota contain.

(1) Parenchyma and collenchyma

(2) Collenchyma and sclerenchyma

(3) Sclerenchyma and parenchyma

(4) Only parenchyma

120. Which of following also act as catalyst in bacterial

cell ?

(1) 5s rNA (2) Sn RNA

(3) hnRNA (4) 23s RNA

121. The epithelial cells lining the blood vessels belong

to the category of :

(1) Cuboidal epithelium

(2) Squamous epithelium

(3) Columnar epithelium

(4) Transitional epithelium

122. Which of the following is strictly an avian character:-

(1) Presence of four chambered heart

(2) Homeothermic

(3) Twelve pairs of cranial nerves

(4) Only right systemic arch persists and presence

of pneumatic bones

114. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

115. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

116. G2 14

Anaphase I Anaphase I :-(1) 14 18 (2) 28 14 (3) 14 14 (4) 28 28

117. ?Histone, Ribophorin, Kinetochroes, Acrocentric,

Oxysome, Centromere, Proton pump, Telomere.

(1) (2) (3) (4) 118.

(1)(2)(3)(4)

119. (1) (2) (3) (4)

120. ?(1) 5s rNA (2) Sn RNA

(3) hnRNA (4) 23s RNA

121. (1) (2) (3) (4)

122. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

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123.

The above diagram indicates to–

(1) Dense regular connective tissue – e.g. skin

(2) Dense regular connective tissue – e.g. tendon

(3) Dense irregular connective tissue – e.g. skin

(4) Dense irregular connective tissue – e.g. tendon

124. Which one of the following is not the characteristic

of chrysophytes ?

(1) They float passively on water current

(2) Most of them are photosynthetic

(3) Their cell walls form two thin overlapping shells

(4) Most of them have two flagella, one lies

longitudinally and the other transversely in a

furrow

125. Floridian starch is the storage food materials in?

(1) Blue green algae (2) Green Algae

(3) Rhodophyceae (4) Pheophyceae

126. In which part of mitochondria oxidative

phosphorylation take place :-

(1) Outer mitochondrial membrane

(2) Inner mitochondrial membrane

(3) Matrix

(4) Perimitochondrial space

127. Number of chromosomes in root cells of Allium

cepa (onion) is

(1) 7 (2) 16 (3) 21 (4) 28

128. When the stamens are fused throughout their

whole length they are termed as

(1)Syngenesious (2) Gynandrous

(3)Polyandrous (4) Synandrous

129. Read the statement carefully & choose the correct

answer.

a- Companion cells do not help in maintaining

pressure gradient in sieve tubes.

b- Phloem parenchyma is present in most of

monocot plant stems.

c- Phloem parenchyma is living component with

nucleus.

d- Jute, flax, hemp are xylem fibres

(1) b, c, d are correct (2) a, b, d are incorrect

(3) only b is correct (4) a, b, c are correct

123.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

124. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

125. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

126. (1) (2) (3) (4)

127. Allium cepa (1) 7 (2) 16 (3) 21 (4) 28

128. (1) (2) (3) (4)

129. a-

b-

c-

d- (1) b, c, d (2) a, b, d (3) b (4) a, b, c

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130. Which of the following act as substrate as well

as provide energy during DNA replication ?

(1) ATP

(2) GTP

(3) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate

(4) Dexoyribonucleotide triphosphate

131. Fats are richly found in :-

(1) Alveolar tissue (2) Lymph glands

(3) Adipose tissue (4) Kidney's nephron

132. Which of the following statements is not

incorrect for the class-amphibia?

(1) Three chambered heart

(2) Air sacs in lungs

(3) They have feathers, beak, forlimbs modified

into wings and hind limb have scales

(4) Skin is dry without glands with no exception

133. Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

A Black rust of wheat i Puccinia

B Loose smut of wheat ii Ustilago tritici

C Late blight potato iii Phytophthora

D White rust of crucifer iv Albugo

(1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv)

(2) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (iv)

(3) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv)

(4) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i)134. Mycorrhiza is :-

(1) Symbiotic association between algae andfungi

(2) Symbiotic association between fungi andanimal

(3) Symbiotic association between plant andanimal

(4) Symbiotic association between fungi androots of higher plants

135. Phylogenetic classification is the one which is

based on

(1) overall similarities

(2) utilitarian system

(3) habits of plants

(4) evolutionary descent

130. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

131. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

132. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

133. :-

-I -II

A i

B ii

C iii

D iv

(1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv)

(2) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (iv)

(3) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv)

(4) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i)

134. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

135. (1) (2) (3) (4)

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136. Mark out the correct statements

(I) Mesosomes are specialised differentiated form

of cell membrane.

(II) Glycoclayx is not the part of cell envelope

(III) Mesosome helps in distribution of DNA to

the daughter cells in prokaryotes.

(IV) Fimbrae could be helpful in attaching the

bacteria to the substrate.

(V) Chromatophores are the reserve food of

cyanophycean cell.

(1) II, III and IV (2) I, II and V

(3) I, III and IV (4) I, II and III

137. Mark the correct statements

(I) In oocyte of some vertebrates, pachytene stage

can last for months or years.

(II) The bivalents align on equatorial plate in

Metaphase – I

(III) The sister chromatids separate at their

centromere during Anaphase – I

(IV) Diad of cells is formed at the end of

Telophase –I

(1) I and II (2) I and IV

(3) II and IV (4) I, II and IV

138. Tetradynamous condition of stamens is found in

(1)Fabaceae (2) Poaceae

(3)Brassicaceae (4) Liliaceae

139. Scattered vascular bundles, presence of bundle

sheath and water containing cavities are the

characteristic feature of

(1) Monocot stem (2) Dicot stem

(3) Monocot roots (4) Dicot roots

140. Removal of introns & Joining of exons in a

defined order in a transcription unit is called

(1) Capping (2) Splicing

(3) Tailing (4) Transformation

141. Tick mark the statement which is not correct with

respect to cockroach ?

(1) In cockroach the grinding of the food particles

is performed by mandibles

(2) Malpighian tubules help in the removal of

nitrogenous wastes in the form of urea

(3) Hind gut of cockroach is differentiated into

ileum, colon and rectum

(4) Blood vessels open into spaces called

haemocoel

136. (I)

(II) cell envelope)

(III) DNA

(IV) Fimbrae

(V)

(1) II, III IV (2) I, II V(3) I, III IV (4) I, II III

137. (I) vertebrates oocyte

(II) Metaphase–I bivalent equatorial align

(III) Anaphase – I

(IV) Telophase –I Diad

(1) I II (2) I IV(3) II IV (4) I, II IV

138. (1) (2) (3) (4)

139. (1) (2) (3) (4)

140. (1) (2) (3) (4)

141. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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142. Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

A Amphioxus I Hag fish

B Petromyzon II Lamprey

C Trygon III Sting ray

D Myxine IV Ascidia

V Branchiostoma

Codes:

A B C D

(1) I V II IV

(2) III I II V

(3) V IV I II

(4) V II III I

143. Screen out the unrelated statement with

Herbarium :-

(1) It provides facilities for taxonomic research

(2) If provides key for the preparation of modern

system of classification

(3) Information about general botany can be obtained.

(4) Basic understanding of horticulture operations.

144. The unit of protein coat of virus is called :-

(1) Capsid (2) Cosmid

(3) Capsomere (4) paplomer

145. Match the following :–

Column – I Column – II

(A) Green algae (I) Cyanophycean starch

(B) Blue green algae (II) Laminarian

(C) Diatom (III) Leucosin starch

(D) Brwon algae (IV) Starch

A B C D

(1) I II IV III

(2) IV I III II

(3) II I III IV

(4) I III II IV

146. Find out the incorrect statement regarding

ribsomes of prokaryote.

(1) Many ribosome with an mRNA is polysome

(2) They are associated with plasma membrane

of the cell

(3) They have four types of r-RNA

(4) They are made up of 50s and 30s subunit.

142. -I -II

-I -I

A I

B II

C III

D IV

V

Codes:

A B C D

(1) I V II IV

(2) III I II V

(3) V IV I II

(4) V II III I

143. :-(1) (2)

(3) (4)

144. (1) (2) (3) (4)

145. :–– I – II

(A) (I) (B) (II) (C) (III) (D) (IV)

A B C D

(1) I II IV III

(2) IV I III II

(3) II I III IV

(4) I III II IV

146. (1) mRNA

(2)

(3) r-RNA (4) 50s 30s

Time Management is Life Management

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147. Na+/K+ pump is associated with :-

(1) Active transport

(2) Diffusion

(3) Facilitated diffusion

(4) Osmosis

148. Radish is a modified root and an example of -

(1) napiform root (2) fusiform root

(3) conical root (4) tuberous root

149. Parenchymatous cells which lie between the

xylem and the phloem of root is known as

(1) Endodermis

(2) Conjuctive tissue

(3) Phellem

(4) Complimentary cells

150. Which one of (A-D) given below correctly

represents structural formula of basic Amino

Acid?

2

2

2

NH|

H C COOH|CH|CH|C OH||O

2

2

NH|

H C COOH|

CH|

OH

A B

C

NH |H–C–COOH | CH | CH | CH | CH | NH

2

2

2

2

2

2

D

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

147. Na+/K+ :-(1) Active transport (2) Diffusion (3) Facilitated diffusion (4) Osmosis

148. -(1) (2) (3) (4)

149. (1) (2) (3) (4)

150. (A-D)

2

2

2

NH|

H C COOH|CH|CH|C OH||O

2

2

NH|

H C COOH|

CH|

OH

A B

C

NH |H–C–COOH | CH | CH | CH | CH | NH

2

2

2

2

2

2

D

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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151. The figure below illustrate one of the mouth parts

of cockroach. Select the option which gives correct

identification of the structure and the labelled parts

A and B with function / characteristic

B

A

(1) It is maxilla, A is grinding region, B is incising

region

(2) It is mandible, A is grinding region, B is

incising region

(3) It is labium, A is incising region, B is grinding

region

(4) It is mandible, A is incising region, B is

grinding region

152. Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

A. 1. Spongilla

B. 2. Euspongia

C. 3. Sycon

Codes:

A B C

(1) 3 2 1

(2) 2 3 1

(3) 1 2 3

(4) 3 1 2

153. Whose classification method is being used in

majority of the well known herbaria of the world?

(1) Classification method by Eichler

(2) Classification method by Whittaker

(3) Classification method by Bentham & hooker

(4) Classification method by woose

151. A B

B

A

(1) A B

(2) A B

(3) A B

(4) A B

152. -I -II

A. 1.

B. 2.

C. 3.

Codes:

A B C

(1) 3 2 1

(2) 2 3 1

(3) 1 2 3

(4) 3 1 2

153. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

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154. Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer?

(1) Glomus (2) Azotbactor

(3) Frankia (4) Azolla

155. Only oogamous type of reproduction present in -

(1) Red Algae (2) Green Algae

(3) Blue Green Algae (4) Pheophyeceae

156. Match the column :-

Column I Column II Column III

I MembraneStudy

A RobertBrown

i Prokaryote

II Nucleus B Plastid ii RBC

III E.coli C ElectronMicroscope

iii Cell Wall

IV Plant Cell D Plasmid iv Chromatin

(1) I-C-ii, II-A-iv, III-D-i, IV-B-iii

(2) I-D-iii, II-A-iv, III-C-ii, IV-B-i

(3) I-A-ii, II-B-ii, III-C-iv, IV-D-iii

(4) I-A-ii, III-B-iv, III-C-i, IV-D-iii

157. Highly extented and elaborated nucleo protein

fibres are seen in

(1) Interphase Nucleus

(2) Anaphase Nucleus

(3) Metaphase Nucleus

(4) Telophase Nucleus.

158.

A

B

C

How many zones of above figure have only

parenchyma ?

(1)3 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) None

159. Which is not the part of the ground tissue system?

(1) Epidermis (2) Hypodermis

(3) Cortex (4) Pith

154. (1) (2) (3) (4)

155. (1) (2) (3) (4)

156. :-

Column I Column II Column III

I MembraneStudy

A RobertBrown

i Prokaryote

II Nucleus B Plastid ii RBC

III E.coli C ElectronMicroscope

iii Cell Wall

IV Plant Cell D Plasmid iv Chromatin

(1) I-C-ii, II-A-iv, III-D-i, IV-B-iii

(2) I-D-iii, II-A-iv, III-C-ii, IV-B-i

(3) I-A-ii, II-B-ii, III-C-iv, IV-D-iii

(4) I-A-ii, III-B-iv, III-C-i, IV-D-iii

157. (1) Interphase (2) Anaphase (3) Metaphase (4) Telophase

158.

A

B

C

?(1)3 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 159.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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160. :-(1) NAD (2) FAD

(3) CoQ (4) Zinc

161. :-

(1) 6th

(2) 9-10

(3) 14-16

(4)

162.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

163.

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

164. :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

165. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

166.

:

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

160. Which of the following act as a co-factor for the

proteolytic enzyme carboxy peptidase :-

(1) NAD (2) FAD

(3) CoQ (4) Zinc

161. Given below are four statements with respect to

female cockroach, select the wrong one :-

(1) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th

segment which opens into the genital chamber.

(2) On average, females produce 9-10 ootheca.

(3) Each ootheca contains 14-16 eggs.

(4) Mushroom shaped gland is present in 6th – 7th

abdominal segment.

162. Which of the following sets of derivatives of

integumentary structures characterise birds, as

glorified reptiles?

(1) Scales and claws

(2) Syrinx and uropygial gland

(3) Claws and uropygial gland

(4) Syrinx and scales

163. Which group in Bentham and Hooker's

classification is same to Phanerogamia of Eichler?

(1) Spermatophyta

(2) Cryptogamia

(3) Dicotyledonae

(4) Gymnospermae

164. A fertilized archegonium with zygote represents a:

(1) Gametophyte bearing newly formed sporophytic

cell

(2) Sporophyte bearing a newly developed

sporophytic cell

(3) Sporophyte bearing a gametophytic cell

(4) All of the above

165. Clamp junction are present in ?

(1) Ascomyceties

(2) Basidiomyceties

(3) Phycomyceties

(4) Deutiriomyceties

166. Normal cellular activities, such as protein

synthesis, occur primarily during :

(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase

(3) Anaphase (4) Interphase

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167. Most abundant lipid in plasma membrane is :

(1) Sterol (2) Cholestrol

(3) Phospholipid (4) Glycolipid

168. Seedless banana is

(1) Parthenocarpic fruit

(2) Multiple fruit

(3) Drupe fruit

(4) Pseudocarpic fruit

169.ATGCTTACGA

PT3'

5'

5'

3'

The m-RNA produced by transcribtion of above

given DNA is :-

(1) 5' AUGCU 3' (2) 5' AGCAU 3'

(3) 3' UCGUA 5' (4) 5' UACGA 3'

170. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first

demonstrated in

(1) Salmonella typhimurium

(2) Drosophilla malarogester

(3) Escherichia coli

(4) Streptococum Pneumoriac

171. Cnidoblast in cnidarian are used for :-

(1) Defence only

(2) Defence and food capturing

(3) Food capturing only

(4) Anchorage, defence and food capturing

172. Choose the animals that belong to phylum-

Echinodermata from the options.

(1) Sea urchin, cuttle fish and sea lily

(2) Echinus, sea hare and sea cucumber

(3) Antedon, Ophiura and Echinus

(4) Ophiura, Chaetopleura and Echinus

173. Which one is not a defining property of living

organisms ?

(1) Growth

(2) Metabolism

(3) Consciousness

(4) Intrinsic growth

174. Protista includes ?

(1) Unicellular eukaryotes

(2) Multicellular prokaryotes

(3) Unicellular prokaryotes

(4) All of these

167.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

168.

(1)

(2) (3) (4)

169.ATGCTTACGA

PT3'

5'

5'

3'

m-RNA

:-

(1) 5' AUGCU 3' (2) 5' AGCAU 3'

(3) 3' UCGUA 5' (4) 5' UACGA 3'

170. DNA (1) (2) (3) (4)

171. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

172. (1) (2) (3) (4)

173. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

174. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

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175. Label the A, B, C & D in the given diagram :–

Code :– Air bladder – I

Holdfast – IV

Frond – II

Midrib – III

A

BC

D

A B C D

(1) IV III II I

(2) IV II III I

(3) II I III IV

(4) I IV II III

176. At the end of G2 phase, the number of

chromosomes and amount of DNA in a diploid

cell is respectively :-

(1) n and 2c (2) 2n and c

(3) n and 4c (4) 2n and 4c

177. Which of the following is not correct with refrence

to kinetochores ?

(1) Found in eukaryote cell only

(2) Present on surface of centromere

(3) Serve as site of attachement of spindle fibres

(4) At metaphase stage a chromosome have one

kinetochore

178. Pappus is modification of

(1) Thalamus (2) Stemen

(3) Calyx (4) Ovary

179. A DNA have 10 nucleosome find out the number

of phospho diester bond and hydrogen bond in the

DNA, if adenine is 15 percent :-





180. Select the right option -

(1) Green algae are ancesture of land plants

(2) Red algae are ancestors of land plants.

(3) Pheophyceae is ancestors of land plants.

(4) Lichens are ancestors of land plants.

175. A, B, C D :– :– – I

– IV

– II

– III

A

BC

D

A B C D

(1) IV III II I

(2) IV II III I

(3) II I III IV

(4) I IV II III

176. G2 DNA

:-

(1) n 2c (2) 2n c

(3) n 4c (4) 2n 4c

177. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

178. (1) (2) (3) (4)

179. 10 15 :-(1) 1998 2700 (2) 3998 5400 (3) 1998 5400 (4) 1998 2700

180. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Your moral duty

is to prove that is

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