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Forensics Final CTE Practice Test 2016

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. What is the first step in the process of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?

a. Elongation c. Denaturing

b. Annealing d. Helicase Bonding

____ 2. One backbone of a piece of DNA reads GCTCAATGC. What is the complementary sequence of bases that

is found on the other backbone?

a. GCTCAATGC c. CGAGTTACG

b. CGACTTACG d. CGTGTTAGC

____ 3. The process involved in profiling an offender has six steps which are listed below.

1. Crime Assessment

2. Profiling Inputs

3. Investigation

4. Decision Process Models

5. Apprehension

6. Criminal Profile

What is the correct Order of these steps?

a. 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5 c. 3, 1, 2, 4, 6, 5

b. 1, 2, 4, 6, 3, 5 d. 2, 4, 1, 6, 3, 5

____ 4. Which of these types of identification used in forensic investigation is the most accurate, most specific, and

has been in use for over 100 years?

a. Bertillon System d. Fingerprinting

b. Blood Types e. Retinal Scans

c. DNA Profiling f. Facial Recognition Software

____ 5. During an autopsy, the body is examined in a very specific order. In what order are the cavities explored

during this process?

a. 1 - Thoracic, 2 - Cranial, 3 - Pelvic, 4 - Abdominal, 5 - External

b. 1 - External, 2 - Thoracic, 3 - Abdominal, 4 - Pelvic, 5 - Cranial

c. 1 - Thoracic, 2- Pelvic, 3 - Abdominal, 4 - Cranial, 5 - External

d. 1 - External, 2 - Pelvic, 3 - Abdominal, 4 - Thoracic, 5 - Cranial

e. 1 - External, 2 - Cranial, 3 - Thoracic, 4 - Abdominal, 5 - Pelvic

____ 6. When performing an autopsy, after completing the external examination, you are ready to begin the internal

exam. The first step in this process is to create the Y-incision. Where do you make the first cut for this

incision?

a. At either site marked with an A b. At the site marked with a B

____ 7. The medulla of a hair is typically used to determine what characteristic about a hair?

a. The species of the animal that the hair comes from.

b. The race of the person that the hair comes from.

c. The region of the body that the hair comes from.

d. The age of the individual that the hair comes from.

____ 8. What is the PRIMARY responsibility of the first responding officer to a crime scene?

a. Safely secure the crime scene.

b. Track down the witnesses.

c. Document the crime scene.

d. Photograph the crime scene.

____ 9. A friend of yours who lives a long distance away is working on an unknown skeleton. The only bone they

have to work with is the skull, and they have asked for your opinion. They send you a picture of the skull to

examine. The only features that you can clearly make out are rounded (or blunt) eye socket edges and

smooth surfaces. What is your best estimate of the gender of the skull?

a. Male c. Cannot be determined

b. Female d. Too young to determine

____ 10. The major determining factor for which schedule a drug is placed in is which of the following?

a. Chemical Composition - the danger posed by the components in the drug’s manufacture.

b. Intent - whether there is a known medical use for the drug beyond recreation.

c. Availability - easy access to a drug can make it more dangerous.

d. Addictiveness - if it is highly addictive, it must me more highly regulated.

____ 11. What is the most common natural fiber in the world?

a. Wool c. Cotton

b. Hemp d. Polyester

____ 12. What is the most common method for creating a DNA fingerprint?

a. PCR c. RFLP

b. VNTR d. SNTR

____ 13. Which method of fingerprint recovery can be used on both porous and nonporous surfaces?

a. Superglue (cyanoacrylate) fuming d. Ninhydrin

b. Casting e. Silver Nitrate

c. Iodine f. Dusting

Multiple Response

Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

____ 14. Which of the following types of evidence should collected in paper containers to prevent its destruction

through decomposition?

a. Blood covered materials d. Clothing covered in Bodily Fluids

b. Fresh plant materials e. Shoes with mud in the treads

c. Hair

____ 15. The two terms that can be applied to this blood spatter picture would be:

a. Cast Off d. Swipe

b. Wipe e. Arterial Spurt

c. Skeletonized f. High Velocity

____ 16. Which of the items below are found in an autopsy report?

a. Any disorders or irregularities discovered in the victim.

b. Any genetic or structural malformities that could have contributed to their death.

c. A complete description of the state of the body at the time of death.

d. A complete medical history of the family as it relates to the victim.

e. New or recent injuries that could have contributed to their death.

f. The victim’s mental state prior to death.

____ 17. Which of the following are the jobs of the crime scene investigator, NOT the police investigator.

a. Interview witnesses. e. Photograph the crime scene

b. Collect evidence f. Determine who your suspects are

c. Document the crime scene g. Insure the chain of custody

d. Search the neighborhood h. Crowd control

____ 18. Which of these are types of arch fingerprints?

a. Double Loops e. Ulnar

b. Tented f. Radial

c. Plain g. Central Pocket

d. Accidental h. Peaked

____ 19. Which of these are types of loop fingerprints?

a. Central Pocket e. Ulnar

b. Tented f. Double Loop

c. Plain g. Accidental

d. Radial h. Peaked

____ 20. Which of these are types of whorl fingerprints?

a. Central Pocket e. Radial

b. Ulnar f. Double Loop

c. Tented g. Peaked

d. Plain h. Accidental

____ 21. A mother has type O+ blood and her child is born with type B-. What are all of the possible blood types that

the father could have?

a. AB+ e. B+

b. AB- f. B-

c. A+ g. O+

d. A- h. O-

____ 22. What antigens and antibodies would be present in the blood of a suspect with type A+?

a. Type A antigens. e. Type A antibodies.

b. Type B antigens. f. Type B antibodies.

c. Type Rh+ antigens. g. Type Rh+ antibodies.

d. Type O antigens. h. Type O antibodies.

____ 23. What antigens and antibodies would be present in the blood of a suspect with type O-?

a. Type A antigens. e. Type A antibodies.

b. Type B antigens. f. Type B antibodies.

c. Type Rh+ antigens. g. Type Rh+ antibodies.

d. Type O antigens. h. Type O antibodies.

____ 24. Which of these are tests to identify a presumed blood stain?

a. Precipitin Test d. Blue Star

b. Kastle-Meyer Test e. Leuco Crystal Violet

c. Luminol f. Secretor Test

____ 25. Which of these are examples of trace or physical evidence?

a. Gun shot residue d. Photograph

b. Hair and fibers e. Blood

c. Pollen grains f. Witness

____ 26. What are the 4 items needed to make a wet-mount slide?

a. Glass slide e. Alcohol

b. Microscope f. Specimen

c. Glue g. Water

d. Cover slip h. Scalpel

____ 27. In the process of paper chromatography, compounds are separated based on their solubility in a solvent and

their attraction to substrate, as pictured in the diagram below. Choose a word from each column that best

describes each of these parts of the process:

The liquid that moves up through the pores in the paper and dissolves the ink spot is called the

____(1)______ phase, while the paper that does not move is called the ____(2)____ phase.

Choices for blank (1): Choices for blank (2):

a. Solvent e. Solvent

b. Solute f. Solute

c. Mobile g. Mobile

d. Stationary h. Stationary

____ 28. Choose one word from column one to fill in blank (1) and one word from column 2 to fill in blank (2).

Choose the BEST words to complete the statement.

When dealing with blood evidence, a person’s blood type is considered ____(1)____ evidence, but the DNA

profile that can be created from that blood is considered ____(2)____ evidence.


a. Class d. Class

b. Individual e. Individual

c. Trace f. Trace

____ 29. Choose a word from column (1) to fill in the first blank, and a word from column (2) to fill in the second

blank.

Rayon, Dacron, Polyester and Acetate are all examples of ____(1)____ fibers.

Cotton, wool, silk, hemp and cashmere are all examples of ____(2)____ fibers.


a. Natural e. Natural

b. Synthetic f. Synthetic

c. Melting g. Melting

d. Ash Producing h. Ash Producing

____ 30. Choose a word from column (1) to fill in the first blank, and a word from column (2) to fill in the second

blank.

The DNA found in the nucleus of a cell comes from ___(1)___, while the DNA found in the mitochondria of

a cell comes from ___(2)___.


a. The Mother Only e. The Mother Only

b. The Father Only f. The Father Only

c. Both the Mother & the Father g. Both the Mother & the Father

d. Neither Parent h. Neither Parent

____ 31. Which of the following types of evidence should collected in paper containers to prevent its destruction

through decomposition?

a. Blood covered materials d. Clothing covered in Bodily Fluids

b. Fresh plant materials e. Shoes with mud in the treads

c. Hair

____ 32. Which TWO methods of fingerprint recovery are the least destructive methods?

a. Superglue (cyanoacrylate) fuming d. Iodine

b. Ninhydrin e. Silver Nitrate

c. Casting f. Dusting

____ 33. Which methods of fingerprint recovery can be used on porous surfaces?




____ 34. Which methods of fingerprint recovery can be used on nonporous surfaces?

a. Ninhydrin d. Dusting

b. Casting e. Iodine

c. Silver Nitrate f. Superglue (cyanoacrylate) fuming

Matching

Match the parts of the microscope with their correct name:

a. Part A g. Part G

b. Part B h. Part H

c. Part C i. Part I

d. Part D j. Part J

e. Part E k. Part K

f. Part F l. Part L

____ 35. Ocular lens (also called the eyepiece)

____ 36. Arm

____ 37. Nosepiece

____ 38. Coarse adjust knob

____ 39. Objective lense

____ 40. fine adjust knob

____ 41. Stage

____ 42. Lamp

What type of blood spatter do you see? OR What type is being described?

a. drip e. Arterial Spurt

b. Void f. Cast Off

c. Wipe g. Misting

d. Swipe

____ 43.

____ 44.

____ 45.

____ 46.

____ 47.

____ 48.

____ 49. This is spatter that has had a high velocity force applied to it, so it is reduced to a fine spray.

Match the Stage of decomposition with its correct description:

a. Fresh d. Active Decay or Putrifaction

b. Bloat e. Butyric Fermentation

c. Dry Decay (Skeletal)

____ 50. Gases subside and decomposition fluids seep from body. Bacteria and maggots break through the skin.

Large maggot masses and extreme amounts of fluid are present. There is an unpleasant odor. Larvae

beginning to pupate. The corpse is reduced to about 20% of it’s original mass. This is the longest and

slowest stage of decomposition.

____ 51. The carcass is reduced to hair, skin, and bones. The fly population reduced and replaced by other arthropods.

Hide beetles are dominant in dry environments. Mite and predatory beetle populations increase.

____ 52. Begins at death. Flies begin to arrive. Temperature of the body falls to that of the ambient temperature.

Autolysis, the degradation of complex protein and carbohydrate molecules, occurs.

____ 53. Body swells due to gases produced by bacteria. Temperature of the corpse rises. Flies are still present.

____ 54. This stage is highly environment dependent. Does not occur if corpse is in a wet region.

____ 55. Lasts from day 50 to 1 year.

____ 56. Lasts from day 20 to day 50.




a. PET Scan c. MRI

b. CT Scan d. Polygraph

____ 60. This is a test that uses a magnetic field and pulses of radio wave energy to make pictures of organs and

structures inside the body. In many cases it gives different information about structures in the body than can

be seen with an X-rays, ultrasounds, or other scans. It also may show problems that cannot be seen with

other imaging methods.

____ 61. Combines a series of X-ray views taken from many different angles and computer processing to create

cross-sectional images of the bones and soft tissues inside your body. The resulting images can be compared

to looking down at single slices of bread from a loaf. It is particularly well suited to quickly examine people

who may have internal injuries from car accidents or other types of trauma.

____ 62. Measures and records several physiological indices such as blood pressure, pulse, respiration, and skin

conductivity while the subject is asked and answers a series of questions.

____ 63. Uses radiation to produce 3-dimensional, color images of the functional processes within the human body.

The machine detects pairs of gamma rays which are emitted indirectly by a tracer which is placed in the body

on a biologically active molecule. The images are reconstructed by computer analysis. These can be used to

diagnose a health conditions, as well as for finding out how an existing condition is developing. They are

often used to see how effective an ongoing treatment is.

Match the type of trauma to the correct picture:

a. Stabbing c. Blunt Force Trauma

b. Gunshot d. Disease

____ 64.

____ 65.

____ 66.

____ 67.

Know your Mortis’s:

a. Rigor Mortis

b. Algor Mortis

c. Livor Mortis

____ 68. A medical condition that occurs after death and results in the shortening of muscle tissue and the stiffening of

body parts in the position they are in when death occurs. Occurs within 24 hours and gone within 36 hours.

____ 69. A medical condition that occurs after death and results in the settling of blood in areas of the body closest to

the ground. Begins immediately after death and lasts for 12 hours.

____ 70. The postmortem changes that cause a body to lose heat. Process in which the body continues to cool to room

temperature. 1 – 1.5 degree/hour.

Match the description of the phases of hair growth with their correct name.

a. Anagen phase c. Telogen phase

b. Catagen phase

____ 71. Initial growth phase. May last up to 6 years. The root is attached to the follicle. Gives a “flame-shaped”

appearance.

____ 72. Transition stage. May last 2 to 3 weeks. Bulb becomes elongated as it shrinks and is pushed out of the

follicle.

____ 73. Falls out. Lasts 2 to 6 months. The hair is pushed out and the bulb looks club-shaped. This is the most

likely phase of hair growth to found at a crime scene.

There are four broad determinations are to be made by the pathologist. Match these with their correct

description:

a. Cause of Death c. Time of Death

b. Mechanism of Death d. Manner of Death

____ 74. This is the altered physiology by which disease or injury produces death (arrhythmia caused by heart attack,

exsanguination caused by a severed artery or gunshot).

____ 75. This is the medical diagnosis denoting disease or injury that is at the root of the death. The thing that is

ultimately responsible for the death - the immediate reason such as Strangulation or Drowning.

____ 76. This is the way a person died, or the broad category that the death fits into - Homicide, Suicide, Accidental,

Natural Causes, Unknown.

____ 77. This is the approximate time a person expired.

Manner of Death:

a. Homicide d. Natural Causes

b. Suicide e. Undetermined

c. Accident f. Unknown

____ 78. This manner of death is the result of one person taking the life of another person.

____ 79. This manner of death is assigned when there is not one specificly known way that a person died.

____ 80. This manner of death is assigned when it cannot be determined how a person died.

____ 81. This manner of death is the result of one person taking their own life.

____ 82. This manner of death is when death comes unexpectedly and by chance.

____ 83. This manner of death is assigned when a person dies expectedly from disease, old age, or as the result of a

known predetermined cause.

Databases - Match the database abbreviation with its correct name.

a. International Automated Fingerprint Identification System

b. Network of Integrated Ballistics IdentificatioN.

c. Paint Data Query.

d. Print Data Query.

e. Shoeprint Index Capture And Retreaval

f. Integrated Automated Fingerprint Identification System

g. COmbined DNA Index System

h. National Integrated Ballistics Information Network

i. Computer Operated DNA Indexing System

____ 84. CODIS

____ 85. PDQ

____ 86. NIBIN

____ 87. IAFIS

____ 88. SICAR

Match the Fingerprint retreaval method with its description below:




____ 89. Appropriate Surface - Ridged/non-porous such as glass, plastic, or metal.

Theory - Dust will adhere to sweat & oils left behind. ONE of the two least destructive methods of latent

print recovery.

____ 90. Appropriate Surface - Porous and non-porous such as paper, index cards, magazines, and cardboard.

Theory - Sweat and oil will absorb iodine vapors. ONE of the two least destructive methods of latent print

recovery.

____ 91. Appropriate Surface - Porous such as paper, tissue, and clothing

Theory - Reacts with amino acids to form a purple compound.

____ 92. Appropriate Surface - Porous such as paper or drywall.

Theory - When exposed to ultra-violet (UV) light, silver nitrate reacts with the salt in sweat to form a

blackish-brown compound.

____ 93. Appropriate Surface - Used on nonporous surfaces.

Theory - Superglue is approximately 98 – 99% cyanoacrylate ester, a chemical that interacts with and

visualizes a latent fingerprint. Creates a white print that is sometimes highly visible in UV light.

Match the Fingerprint minutae with their correct name.

a. Part A e. Part E

b. Part B f. Part F

c. Part C g. Part G

d. Part D

____ 94. This is the Core.

____ 95. This is the Delta.

____ 96. This is a bifurcation.

____ 97. This is a ridge ending.

____ 98. This is an eye.

____ 99. This is an island or a dot.

____ 100. This is a spur or a hook.

a.

b.

c.

____ 101. This is and Arch.

____ 102. This is a Loop.

____ 103. This is a Whorl.

Pick the best bones for determining the following characterisitics:

a. Length of Femur

b. O. S. of Pubis

c. Features of Skull

____ 104. Height of an individual

____ 105. Gender of an individual

____ 106. Race of an individual

Give an approximate age category for an individual with the number of teeth described below. Assume that

no theeth have been removed, knocked out or have fallen out post mortem. Use the chart to help you decide.

a. Infant c. Adult

b. Child d. Elderly

____ 107. 32 Teeth (with no wear damage)

____ 108. 17 Teeth

____ 109. 4 Teeth

____ 110. 32 Teeth (with wear damage)

Match the bone with the correct label in the diagram:

a. Bone A h. Bone H

b. Bone B i. Bone I

c. Bone C j. Bone J

d. Bone D k. Bone K

e. Bone E l. Bone L

f. Bone F m. Bone M

g. Bone G

____ 111. Femur

____ 112. Phalanges

____ 113. Tibia

____ 114. Radius

____ 115. Vertebrae

____ 116. Clavicle

____ 117. Humerus

____ 118. Ulna

____ 119. Fibula

____ 120. Carpals

____ 121. Sternum

____ 122. Scapula

____ 123. Sacrum

Match the skull with its decent or race (read the description, don’t just look at the picture).

a. Negroid c. Mongoloid

b. Caucasoid d. Cannot be Determined

____ 124.

Rectangular palate, wide nasal aperture, very pronounced zygomatic bones, Rectangular eye sockets.

____ 125.

U-Shaped palate, medium-wide oval nasal aperture, slight zygomatic bones, Round eye sockets.

____ 126.

V-Shaped palate, narrow nasal aperture, small zygomatic bones, slanted rectangular eye sockets.

Match the VELOCITY of spatter with its picture or description

a. High Velocity

b. Medium Velocity

c. Low Velocity

____ 127. Speed = 100+ ft/second.

____ 128. Speed = about 5 ft/second.

____ 129. Speed = 6 – 25 ft/second.

____ 130.

____ 131.

____ 132.

____ 133. Less than 1 mm in diameter.

____ 134. Indicating gunshot trauma, power tools, etc.

____ 135. Usually 3 mm or greater in diameter.

____ 136. Indicates blood is dripping.

____ 137. Between 1 - 3 mm in diameter.

____ 138. Usually indicates blunt trauma, sharp trauma or cast-off.

Match the blood component with its correct name:

a. Part A

b. Part B

c. Part C

____ 139. Which of these is the Platelet?

____ 140. Which of these is the Erythrocyte?

____ 141. Which of these is the Leukocyte?

Match the stages of an insect’s lifecycle with their correct names:

a. Stage A d. Stage D

b. Stage B e. Stage E

c. Stage C f. Stage F

____ 142. Which of these is the 2nd instar larval stage?

____ 143. Which of these is the adult stage?

____ 144. Which of these is the egg stage?

____ 145. Which of these is the pupae stage?

Match the drug type with its effects.

a. Steroids e. Halucinagens

b. Opiates & Opioids f. Inhalants

c. Depressants g. Stimulants

d. Cannabinoids

____ 146. These drugs speed up the body’s nervous system and create a feeling of energy.

____ 147. These drugs result in feelings of euphoria, cause confusion and memory problems, anxiety, a higher heart

rate, as well as staggering and poor reaction time.

____ 148. These drugs are taken to improve physical performance as well as to enlarge muscles and increase strength.

____ 149. These drugs change the mind and cause the appearance of things that are not really there.

____ 150. These drugs can cause drowsiness, confusion, nausea, feelings of euphoria, respiratory complications and

relieve pain.

____ 151. These drugs slow down activity in the central nervous system of your body.

____ 152. These drugs are sniffed or huffed and give the user immediate results.

The following diseases can become deadly if left untreated. Pathologists are ofted required to search for

signs of these diseases in an autopsy if certain symptoms show up in the victim. Match these interesting

symptoms with the disease that produces them.

a. Foaming at the mouth and fear of water.

b. Symptoms can include headache, high fever, neck stiffness, disorientation, coma, tremors,

seizures, or paralysis.

c. Lock-jaw, or stiffening of the muscles of the body.

d. Symptoms include confusion, stiff neck, low temperature, severe headache.

____ 153. The Rhabdovirus family has several different species that can cause the disease Rabies.

____ 154. This disease is commonly known as tetanus and is caused by the bacteria Clostridium tetani.

____ 155. Transmitted by mosquitoes, the host may not even know that they have West Nile Virus when they die.

____ 156. Pnemococcal Meningitis is caused by different types of pneumococcus bacteria.

Forensics Final CTE Test (Closest to CTE Test) 2014

Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: C PTS: 1

2. ANS: C PTS: 1

3. ANS: D PTS: 1

4. ANS: D PTS: 1

5. ANS: B PTS: 1

6. ANS: A PTS: 1

7. ANS: A PTS: 1

8. ANS: A PTS: 1

9. ANS: B PTS: 1

10. ANS: B PTS: 1

11. ANS: C PTS: 1

12. ANS: C PTS: 1

13. ANS: C PTS: 1

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

14. ANS: A, B, D PTS: 1

15. ANS: B, C PTS: 1

16. ANS: A, B, C, E PTS: 1

17. ANS: B, C, E, G PTS: 1

18. ANS: B, C PTS: 1

19. ANS: D, E PTS: 1

20. ANS: A, D, F, H PTS: 1

21. ANS: A, B, E, F PTS: 1

22. ANS: A, C, F PTS: 1

23. ANS: E, F, G PTS: 1

24. ANS: B, C, D, E PTS: 1

25. ANS: A, B, C, E PTS: 1

26. ANS: A, D, F, G PTS: 1

27. ANS: C, H PTS: 1

28. ANS: A, E PTS: 1

29. ANS: B, E PTS: 1

30. ANS: C, E PTS: 1

31. ANS: A, B, D PTS: 1

32. ANS: D, F PTS: 1

33. ANS: C, D, E PTS: 1

34. ANS: D, E, F PTS: 1

MATCHING

35. ANS: F PTS: 1

36. ANS: H PTS: 1

37. ANS: A PTS: 1

38. ANS: J PTS: 1

39. ANS: B PTS: 1

40. ANS: K PTS: 1

41. ANS: I PTS: 1

42. ANS: E PTS: 1

43. ANS: D PTS: 1

44. ANS: C PTS: 1

45. ANS: E PTS: 1

46. ANS: A PTS: 1

47. ANS: B PTS: 1

48. ANS: F PTS: 1

49. ANS: G PTS: 1

50. ANS: D PTS: 1

51. ANS: E PTS: 1

52. ANS: A PTS: 1

53. ANS: B PTS: 1

54. ANS: C PTS: 1

55. ANS: C PTS: 1

56. ANS: E PTS: 1

57. ANS: D PTS: 1

58. ANS: B PTS: 1

59. ANS: A PTS: 1

60. ANS: C PTS: 1

61. ANS: B PTS: 1

62. ANS: D PTS: 1

63. ANS: A PTS: 1

64. ANS: D PTS: 1

65. ANS: C PTS: 1

66. ANS: A PTS: 1

67. ANS: B PTS: 1

68. ANS: A PTS: 1

69. ANS: C PTS: 1

70. ANS: B PTS: 1

71. ANS: A PTS: 1

72. ANS: B PTS: 1

73. ANS: C PTS: 1

74. ANS: B PTS: 1

75. ANS: A PTS: 1

76. ANS: D PTS: 1

77. ANS: C PTS: 1

78. ANS: A PTS: 1

79. ANS: E PTS: 1

80. ANS: F PTS: 1

81. ANS: B PTS: 1

82. ANS: C PTS: 1

83. ANS: D PTS: 1

84. ANS: G PTS: 1

85. ANS: C PTS: 1

86. ANS: H PTS: 1

87. ANS: F PTS: 1

88. ANS: E PTS: 1

89. ANS: F PTS: 1

90. ANS: C PTS: 1

91. ANS: D PTS: 1

92. ANS: E PTS: 1

93. ANS: A PTS: 1

94. ANS: B PTS: 1

95. ANS: G PTS: 1

96. ANS: F PTS: 1

97. ANS: E PTS: 1

98. ANS: C PTS: 1

99. ANS: D PTS: 1

100. ANS: A PTS: 1

101. ANS: C PTS: 1

102. ANS: A PTS: 1

103. ANS: B PTS: 1

104. ANS: A PTS: 1

105. ANS: B PTS: 1

106. ANS: C PTS: 1

107. ANS: C PTS: 1

108. ANS: B PTS: 1

109. ANS: A PTS: 1

110. ANS: D PTS: 1

111. ANS: M PTS: 1

112. ANS: J PTS: 1

113. ANS: H PTS: 1

114. ANS: E PTS: 1

115. ANS: A PTS: 1

116. ANS: K PTS: 1

117. ANS: C PTS: 1

118. ANS: D PTS: 1

119. ANS: I PTS: 1

120. ANS: F PTS: 1

121. ANS: B PTS: 1

122. ANS: L PTS: 1

123. ANS: G PTS: 1

124. ANS: A PTS: 1

125. ANS: C PTS: 1

126. ANS: B PTS: 1

127. ANS: A PTS: 1

128. ANS: C PTS: 1

129. ANS: B PTS: 1

130. ANS: C PTS: 1

131. ANS: A PTS: 1

132. ANS: B PTS: 1

133. ANS: A PTS: 1

134. ANS: A PTS: 1

135. ANS: C PTS: 1

136. ANS: C PTS: 1

137. ANS: B PTS: 1

138. ANS: B PTS: 1

139. ANS: C PTS: 1

140. ANS: B PTS: 1

141. ANS: A PTS: 1

142. ANS: C PTS: 1

143. ANS: F PTS: 1

144. ANS: A PTS: 1

145. ANS: E PTS: 1

146. ANS: G PTS: 1

147. ANS: D PTS: 1

148. ANS: A PTS: 1

149. ANS: E PTS: 1

150. ANS: B PTS: 1

151. ANS: C PTS: 1

152. ANS: F PTS: 1

153. ANS: B PTS: 1

154. ANS: C PTS: 1

155. ANS: A PTS: 1

156. ANS: D PTS: 1

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