exam name pgp - cet 2019 total questions 100 1....

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Total Questions PGP - CET 2019 100 Exam Name : : Questions 1. Bronchopulmonary segment contains the following structure EXCEPT. Options Details Select Option No Marks 1 Bronchial artery A Segmental bronchus B Pulmonary venule C Pulmonary arteriole D Questions 2. Anterior interventricular groove contains Options Details Select Option No Marks 1 Left anterior descending artery A Circumflex coronary artery B Middle cardiac vein C Anterior cardiac vein D Questions 3. Superior radioulnar joint is which type of synovial joint Options Details Select Option No Marks 1 Hinge joint A Pivot joint B Ellipsoid joint C Ball and socket joint D Questions 4. Anatomical snuff box is formed by all EXCEPT Options Details Select Option No Marks 1 Extensor pollicis longus A Extensor pollicis brevis B Abductor pollicis longus C Abductor pollicis brevis D

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Page 1: Exam Name PGP - CET 2019 Total Questions 100 1. EXCEPT.view.mahacet.org/mahacet/admin/news_document/PGP - CET 2019.pdfTotal Questions PGP - CET 2019 100 Exam Name :: Questions 1. Bronchopulmonary

Total Questions

PGP - CET 2019

100

Exam Name :

:

Questions 1.

Bronchopulmonary segment contains the following structure EXCEPT.

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Bronchial arteryA

Segmental bronchusB

Pulmonary venuleC

Pulmonary arterioleD

Questions 2. Anterior interventricular groove contains

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Left anterior descending arteryA

Circumflex coronary arteryB

Middle cardiac veinC

Anterior cardiac veinD

Questions 3. Superior radioulnar joint is which type of synovial joint

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Hinge jointA

Pivot jointB

Ellipsoid jointC

Ball and socket jointD

Questions 4.

Anatomical snuff box is formed by all EXCEPT

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Extensor pollicis longusA

Extensor pollicis brevisB

Abductor pollicis longusC

Abductor pollicis brevisD

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Questions 5. Surfactant is secreted by

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Endothelium of the pulmonary capillaryA

Type 2 alveolar epithelial cellsB

Bronchial cellsC

Type 1 alveolar epithelial cellsD

Questions 6. Which of the following is an activated rhodopsin

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Metarhodopsin IIA

Metarhodopsin IB

LumirhodopsinC

BathorhodopsinD

Questions 7. Maximum ventricular filling occurs during

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Isovolumetric contraction periodA

Ejection PeriodB

Atrial diastoleC

Atrial systoleD

Questions 8. The structural and functional unit of muscle is

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

SarcolemmaA

SarcoplasmB

SarcomereC

Motor end plateD

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Questions 9. Deficiency of which of the following vitamin causes Pellagra.

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

RiboflavinA

ThiamineB

PyridoxineC

NiacinD

Questions 10. In competitive inhibition of enzymes, the correct statement is

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Km increases and Vmax decreasesA

Km increases and Vmax remains unchangedB

Km decreases and Vmax increasesC

Km remains unchanged and Vmax decreasesD

Questions 11. Toe standing is an example of ____________.

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Stable equilibriumA

Unstable equilibriumB

Neutral equilibriumC

Positive equilibriumD

Questions 12. The following is an example of third order of lever:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

BrachialisA

BrachioradialisB

Calf musclesC

Hip extensorsD

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Questions 13. When the angle of pull is obtuse, energy is wasted in:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

PullingA

MobilityB

StabilityC

PushingD

Questions 14. The following is a technique of progressive resistance exercise

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

de Lorme’s techniqueA

Theraband exercise techniqueB

Yoga exerciseC

Aquatic exerciseD

Questions 15. Laura Mitchell technique of relaxation is based on the following principle

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Passive MovementsA

Progressive RelaxationB

Reciprocal RelaxationC

Active RelaxationD

Questions 16. Originally, Faradic current was ___ current.

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

AlternatingA

DirectB

InterruptedC

ModifiedD

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Questions 17. While applying DC, the important parameter for therapeutic purpose is

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Current intensityA

Circuit resistanceB

Current densityC

Treatment durationD

Questions 18.

What is the best therapeutic use of iontophoresis?

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

For local anaesthesiaA

To apply antibioticsB

To apply anti inflammatory drugC

For treatment of hyper hydrosisD

Questions 19.

Which is NOT TRUE for iontophoresis

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Eliminates first pass metabolismA

Uncontrolled drug deliveryB

Avoids pain that accompanies injectionC

Decreases risk of infection.D

Questions 20. For Calcific deposit , the ion selected while treating with iontophoresis is

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

CopperA

AcetateB

CalciumC

MagnesiumD

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Questions 21. Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first passmetabolism:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

OralA

SublingualB

SubcutaneousC

RectalD

Questions 22.

The following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action:EXCEPT

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

EtherA

Nitrous oxideB

HalothaneC

IsofluraneD

Questions 23.

The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute inflammation, EXCEPT

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

ExudationA

VasodilationB

MarginationC

Granuloma formationD

Questions 24. Collapse of lung is called

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

EmphysemaA

BronchiectasisB

AtelectasisC

BronchitisD

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Questions 25.

All are the flagellated organisms EXCEPT

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Escherichia coliA

ProteusB

KlebsiellaC

Vibrio choleraeD

Questions 26. Reflected light is used in

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Light microscopeA

Dark field microscopeB

Electron microscopeC

Fluorescent microscopeD

Questions 27. “Mind and behaviour are adaptive- they enable an individual to changing environment” is seenin which school of psychology

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

StructuralismA

BehaviourismB

Gestalt psychologyC

FunctionalismD

Questions 28. Preoccupation with body diseases is seen in

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

ObsessionA

SomatizationB

HypochondriasisC

Conversion DisorderD

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Questions 29. The most susceptible peripheral nerve fibres affected by cold are

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

BA

CB

A alphaC

A deltaD

Questions 30. The Progression of E2 dosage in UVR is

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

25%A

50%B

75%C

100%D

Questions 31. Name the ion that is used for the treatment of wounds

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

ChlorideA

SalicylateB

IodineC

AcetateD

Questions 32. Conventional TENS is ____ stimulation

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

High intensity, low frequencyA

Low intensity, low frequencyB

High intensity, high frequencyC

High frequency, low intensityD

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Questions 33. What would be the ideal positioning of the SWD electrodes relative to the tissues

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Placing at an angle to each otherA

Placing parallel to each otherB

Placing parallel to the skinC

Placing perpendicular to each otherD

Questions 34. The shape of curve in a strength duration curve indicates

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

The site of lesionA

Onset of lesionB

Proportion of denervationC

Duration of lesionD

Questions 35. Whenever deeply placed structures are to be treated with the capacitor field method, which ofthe following is used

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Co planarA

Cross fireB

Contra planarC

Cable methodD

Questions 36. Which descriptive term is not associated with stance phase of the gait cycle?

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Heel strikeA

decelerationB

Loading responseC

midstanceD

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Questions 37. If the axillary nerve is severed, what muscle could laterally rotate the humerus?

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Teres majorA

SubscapularisB

InfraspinatusC

Teres minorD

Questions 38. The most common site for an ulnar nerve injury is at the

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Brachial plexusA

Medial epicondyle of the humerusB

Superficial surface of the retinaculumC

Distal wrist creaseD

Questions 39. During hydrotherapy,following factor is responsible for the patient’s ability to walk in water

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

buoyancyA

pressureB

cohesionC

viscosityD

Questions 40. A physical therapist performs manual muscle test on a patient with unilateral lower extremityweakness. The therapist should test the patient’s hip adductor with patient positiend in

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

proneA

side lyingB

standingC

supineD

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Questions 41. A physical therapist designs a treatment plan for a 8 year old boy with cystic fibrosis. Which ofthe following lung segments would be inappropriate for bronchial drainage?

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Left middle lobeA

Left upper lobeB

Right upper lobeC

Right lower lobeD

Questions 42. A patient positioned in supine lying on a mat is instructed to bring her right hip and kneetowards chest. This evaluative technique can be used to assess the length of the

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Hamstring on the leftA

Hamstring on the rightB

Hip flexor on the rightC

Hip flexor on the leftD

Questions 43. The worst position for scars is

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

BackA

ShoulderB

SternumC

AbdomenD

Questions 44. The most commonly affected peripheral nerve in leprosy is

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

UlnarA

RadialB

MedianC

Lateral popitealD

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Questions 45. Dupuytrens contracture of the hand commonly starts in

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

ThumbA

Index fingerB

Middle fingerC

Ring fingerD

Questions 46. The pathognomonic sign of traumatic fracture is

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

CrepitusA

RednessB

SwellingC

TendernessD

Questions 47. Gold standard for diagnosis of osteoporosis is -

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Qualitative computed tomographyA

DEXAB

Single beam densitometryC

Bone histomorphometryD

Questions 48.

True about fracture healing EXCEPT-

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Nutrition affects healingA

Stable fixation promotes healingB

Compression at fracture site causes nonunion.C

Hormonal status may affect healingD

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Questions 49.

All of the following heart sounds occur shortly after S2 EXCEPT

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Opening snapA

Pericardial knockB

Ejection clickC

Tumor plopD

Questions 50. Bad prognostic factor in Lupus Nephritis

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Anti ds DNAA

HyponitramiaB

Persistent proteinuria ( > 3 gm/day)C

Anti-La (SS-B)D

Questions 51. Transfusing blood after prolonged storage could lead to

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Citrate intoxicationA

Potassium intoxicationB

Circulatory overloadC

Hemorrhagic diathesisD

Questions 52. In facial palsy, food accumulated in the mouth due to paralysis of

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

MasseterA

TemporalisB

MentalisC

BuccinatorD

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Questions 53. Earliest valvular lesion in a case of rheumatic fever is

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Mitral regurgitation(MR)A

Aortic regurgitation (AR)B

Mitral stenosis (MS)C

Aortic stenosis (AS)D

Questions 54.

All are seen in ARDS EXCEPT

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Pulmonary edemaA

HypoxiaB

HypercapniaC

Stiff lungD

Questions 55. Ovarian cycle is initiated by

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

LHA

FSHB

GRHC

EstrogenD

Questions 56. In primigravida during active phase of labor, the rate of cervical dilatation per hour is

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

1.2 cmA

1.5 cmB

1.7 cmC

2 cmD

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Questions 57.

Contraindications to use of oral contraceptive pills are all EXCEPT

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Breast CAA

Kidney diseaseB

SmokingC

Liver diseaseD

Questions 58. A weak and painful contraction on isometric assessment of contractile structure indicates:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

TendinitisA

Partial TearB

Complete TearC

Neurological InvolvementD

Questions 59. The supply to the following region of the tongue will be affected by a Facial Nerve Palsy:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Anterior 2/3rdA

Posterior 2/3rdB

Anterior 1/3rdC

Posterior 1/3rdD

Questions 60. Obesity, Diabetes and Hypertension together present as:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Metabolic disorderA

HypermetabolismB

Metabolic SyndromeC

HypometabolismD

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Questions 61. An objective measurement of the extent of Oedema can be brought about by:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Gravimetric measurementsA

Palpatory analysisB

Observatory analysisC

Volumetric measurementsD

Questions 62. A large amplitude mobilisation which reaches the end range is referred to as ______ Maitlandtechnique

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Grade IA

Grade IIB

Grade IIIC

Grade IVD

Questions 63. When there is a significant base deficit, the appropriate terminology is

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

AcidosisA

AcidaemiaB

AlkalaemiaC

AlkalosisD

Questions 64. The ULTT3 is a test that is biased towards______ Nerve

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

MedianA

RadialB

AxillaryC

UlnarD

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Questions 65. A Faradic Galvanic Test is performed to assess

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Tendon continuityA

Nerve continuityB

ChronaxieC

RheobaseD

Questions 66. The following movement restriction needs to be imposed in the case of a Total HipReplacement with a posterior lateral approach:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Hip Flexion beyond 90° and abductionA

Hip adduction and Internal RotationB

Hip Extension and external rotationC

Hip flexion to 90° and external rotationD

Questions 67. Close chain exercises are helpful following an ACL reconstruction surgery as they:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Offer compressive forcesA

Increase Shear StressesB

Eliminate co-contraction of musclesC

Offer Proprioceptive loadsD

Questions 68. Presence of the scoliotic curvature in the standing position and not in sitting could be due to

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Unilateral Gluteal AtrophyA

Congenital segmental BarB

Limb length discrepancyC

Unilateral Rib fusionD

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Questions 69. MET technique of Post Isometric relaxation to the triceps will help to increase:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Passive Elbow FlexionA

Passive Elbow ExtensionB

Active Elbow FlexionC

Active Elbow ExtensionD

Questions 70. The mainstay of management of Phase III Periarthritis of the shoulder is:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Pain managementA

Restoration of Scapulo Humeral RhythmB

Strengthening of the Gleno Humeral MusclesC

Mobility of Scapulothoracic JointD

Questions 71. Inability of a patient to perform active abduction at the shoulder in the absence of aneurological involvement may indicate:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Capsular restrictionA

Ligamentous InstabilityB

Muscular tendinitisC

Muscular TearD

Questions 72. The following is the most common long term complication of a stress shielding device used to fixa fracture of a long bone:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Decreased mobility of the adjacent jointsA

Reduced weight bearing capacity of the boneB

Decreased strength of the surrounding musclesC

Non Union of the fractureD

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Questions 73. Flexion biased exercises are preferred in a patient with Spinal Canal Stenosis because:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

They have a stabilizing effect on the spineA

They are functional in natureB

They cause a decrease in painC

They increase the neural canal diametersD

Questions 74. The initial phase physiotherapy management of a patient post TKR focusses on preventingfollowing complication:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Knee flexion deformityA

DVTB

AtelectasisC

TA tightnessD

Questions 75. The type of exercises that should be administered in a patient with Osteoporosis is:

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

CyclingA

High impact weight bearingB

Low impact weight bearingC

SwimmingD

Questions 76. While conducting EMG studies the characteristic picture at rest in normal subject shows…….

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Small Action potentialA

Electrical silenceB

Positive sharp waveC

Fibrillation potentialD

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Questions 77. Vertigo is seen in a lesion of ……

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

IVth cranial nerveA

Vth cranial nerveB

VIIth cranial nerveC

VIIIth cranial nerveD

Questions 78. The ability to integrate information from environment to produce movement is……

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Stimulus identificationA

Sensory integrationB

Information processingC

PerceptionD

Questions 79.

All are seen in Horner’s syndrome EXCEPT ….

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

mutismA

ptosisB

miosisC

Decreased sweating on opposite side of faceD

Questions 80. Decreased arm swing in case of Parkinson’s Disease is due to…

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Reduced arm strengthA

Trunk muscle weaknessB

Truncal rigidityC

Decreased ROM at shoulderD

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Questions 81. Primitive grasp reflex disappears by the age of….

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

0-1monthA

2-3monthsB

4-5monthsC

12-18 monthsD

Questions 82. In Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy ,EMG picture shows …..

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

PolyphsiaA

Increased amplitudeB

Short duartionsC

Large MUP with fast firing rateD

Questions 83. The ability of brain to change and adapt is called…..

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Neural substitutionA

Neural irradiationB

NeuroplasticityC

Neural ReinforcementD

Questions 84. Scanning speech is characteristic of

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

ACA infarctA

Cerebellar disorderB

Parkinson’s DiseaseC

Cerebral PalsyD

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Questions 85. ……..approach gives emphasis on environment and musculoskeletal components

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Motor re-learning programmeA

NDTB

PNFC

Sensory integrationD

Questions 86. Unstick phase of autogenic drainage involves following lung volume

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Low lung volumeA

Mid lung volumeB

High lung volumeC

Tidal volumeD

Questions 87.

Pump handle movement of thorax is a feature of -----------

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Lower ribsA

Upper ribsB

Mid ribsC

DiaphragmD

Questions 88. Mediastinal shift towards the affected side is seen in which of the following condition?

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Lung collapseA

Pleural effusionB

PneumoniaC

PneumothoraxD

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Questions 89.

PEP devices can be used in any position EXCEPT one device that is position dependent

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

AcapellaA

Thera PEPB

FlutterC

CornetD

Questions 90. Following acts as a pacemaker in the human heart

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

SA nodeA

AV nodeB

Bundle of HisC

Purkinje fibersD

Questions 91. Which of the following AV blocks are considered as incomplete heart blocks

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Only First degreeA

Only Second degreeB

First and Second degreeC

First and Third degreeD

Questions 92. In metabolic acidosis which of following respiration is seen?

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Biot’sA

Chyne Stoke’sB

EupneaC

KussmaulD

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Questions 93. As the respiratory rate increases the inspiration to expiration (I:E) ratio------

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

IncreasesA

decreasesB

Remains sameC

Can increase or decreaseD

Questions 94. Loud, high pitched, hollow quality, louder on expiration, distinct pause between inspiration andexpiration are the characteristics of the ------- breath sounds

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

BronchialA

Broncho-vesicularB

VesicularC

CracklesD

Questions 95.

How many centimeters above the sternal angle, normally the jugular pulse is Not Visible when theindividual is positioned at a 45 degree angle?

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

1 cmA

2 cmsB

5 cmsC

7 cmsD

Questions 96. Cystocoele involves prolapse of

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

RectumA

IntestinesB

BladderC

VaginaD

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Questions 97. The following is age related change in the respiratory system

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

decrease in the pulmonary diffusion pressureA

increase in the pulmonary arterial pressureB

decrease in the airways resistanceC

increase in the diastolic blood pressureD

Questions 98.

Factors contributing to work related cumulative trauma disorders are the following EXCEPT

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

Nature of workA

Work postureB

Force applicationC

Work durationD

Questions 99. The energy system utilised in aerobic exercises is

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

PhosphocreatineA

ATPB

PhosphorylationC

lactic acidD

Questions 100. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment is a component of which rehabilitation domain?

Options Details Select OptionNo

Marks 1

PrimordialA

PrimaryB

SecondaryC

TertiaryD