eamcet medical model grand …...eenadupratibha.net eamcet medical model grand test no. of...

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EAMCET MEDICAL MODEL GRAND TEST

No. of Questions: 160 Marks: 160 Time: 3 Hrs.

BOTANY1. Which of the following includes most closely linked organisms?

1) Genus 2) Class 3) Species 4) Family

2. Unicellular and multicellular algae of the following, respectively

1) Chlamydomonas; Spirogyra

2) Spirogyra; Chlamydomonas

3) Chlamydomonas; Euglena

4) Chlamydomonas, Chlorella

3. Author of Krishi Parasaram is also author of

1) Samaveda 2) Atharvanaveda

3) Vrikshayurveda 4) Yajurveda

4. Agar - Agar is obtained from

1) Gelidium 2) Polysiphonia

3) Fucus 4) Laminaria

5. The unique event in Angiosperms

1) Syngamy 2) Embryo

3) Double fertilization 4) Flower

6. In the given list what is the ratio of endospermic seeds to non endospermic seeds.

1) Wheat 2) Bean 3) Cicer

4) Castor 5) Rice 6) Maize

1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 1 3) 1 : 2 4) 4 : 1

7. Coleorhizae is the covering of

1) The plumule of Dicot 2) Plumule of Monocot

3) Radicle of Dicot 4) Radicle of Monocot

8. Aquatic plant popularly called as 'Terror of Bengal'.

1) Hydrilla 2) Pistia 3) Water hyacinth 4) Trapa

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9. Match the following.

1) Protandry ( ) A) Datura

2) Protogyny ( ) B) Hibiscus

3) Herkogamy ( ) C) Sunflower

4) Self sterility ( ) D) Primula

E) Abutilon

1) 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-B 2) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E

3) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E 4) 1-E, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

10. Entry of the pollen tube is guided by

1) Antipodals 2) Funicle

3) Filiform apparatus 4) Polar nuclei

11. Identify the taxon which can't survive in water deficient habitat.

1) Asparagus 2) Allium cepa 3) Aloe 4) Ruscus

12. Floral formula:

- Ebr, Ebrl, ⊕ , , K2+2, C4, A2+4, G- (2)

belong to the family

1) Pea family 2) Potato family

3) Lily family 4) Mustard family

13. Identify the incorrect statement with respect to mesosomes of a prokaryotic cell

1) Distributes the genetic material between daughter cells

2) Decrease the surface area of cell membrane

3) Involves in respiration

4) Helps in cell wall formation

14. What is the percentage ratio of proteins & lipids respectively, in the erythrocyte

membrane of human being (approximately)

1) 10 : 13 2) 13 : 12 3) 13 : 10 4) 10 : 15

15. Identify the mismatch from the following with respect to secondary metabolites

1) Drugs - Vinblastin 2) Alkaloids - Codeine

3) Toxins - Morphine 4) Polymeric substance - Cellulose



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16. Which of the following is unique to mitosis and not a part of meiosis?

1) Homologous chromosomes behave independently

2) Chromatids are separated during anaphase

3) Homologous chromosomes pair and form bivalents

4) Homologous chromosomes cross over

17. Parenchyma, Collenchyma and Sclerenchyma are similar in one of the following character

1) Consists of one type of cells 2) Photosynthesis

3) Cell structure 4) Cell shape

18. Cells are long, narrow with thick and lignified cell walls are found in

1) Pericycle of monocot stem 2) Hypodermis of dicot stem

3) Pericycle of dicot root 4) Pericycle of dicot stem

19. The entire sequence of communities that successively changes in a given area arecalled

1) Sere 2) Climax 3) Pioneer 4) Xerarch

20. An individual transition communities in ecological succession are termed as

1) Climax community 2) Pioneer community

3) Seral community 4) Single community

21. When a cell is placed in hypotonic solution

I) Its water potential increases II) Its osmotic potential increases

III) Its turgor pressure increases IV) No change in the turgor pressure

V) Its osmotic pressure increases

Choose the correct options

1) I, II, V, IV 2) I, IV, III, V

3) I, III only 4) I, II, III, V only

22. Phosphorous is not a structural component of

1) Nucleotide 2) Nucleic acid

3) Plasma membrane 4) Nucleoside

23. A micronutrient which is structural component of mobile electron carrier presenton thylakoid membrane

1) Mn 2) Cu 3) Mo 4) Fe

24. The competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is

1) Succinase 2) Acetylase 3) Malonate 4) Fumerase



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25. The hypothesis: 'Plants restore to the air whatever breathing animals and burning

candles remove' was put forwarded by

1) Ingenhouz 2) Priestly 3) Englemann 4) Von Sachs

26. Number of net ATP molecules produced by the complete oxidation of one

molecule of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate in aerobic respiration is

1) 17 2) 16 3) 19 4) 15

27. 5-carbon compound formed in citric acid cycle is

1) Malic acid 2) α - Ketoglutaric acid

3) Acetyl Co.A 4) Citric acid

28. Growth of pollen tube is measured in terms of its

1) increase in surface area 2) length

3) size 4) number

29. Study the following lists

List-I List-II

A) Photoheterotroph I) Nitrosomonas

B) Photoautotroph II) Xanthomonas

C) Chemoheterotroph III) Chromatium

D) Chemoautotroph IV) Rhodospirillum

The correct match is

A B C D A B C D

1) III IV II I 2) IV II III I

3) IV III II I 4) IV III I II

30. Number of nucleotides present in the RNA molecule of TMV is

1) 158 2) 2,130 3) 6,500 4) 39 × 106

31. In Lamarck's evening primrose plant mutations were first noticed by

1) Lamarck 2) Hugo de vries 3) Darwin 4) Mendel

32. "Pleiotropic" is

1) Pair of genes related to more than one character

2) Number of genes related to one character

3) A single gene may be related to more than one character

4) A single gene related to one character



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33. Consider the following statements. In eukaryotes

I) RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs

II) RNA polymerase II transcribes snRNAs

III) RNA polymerase III transcribes hnRNA

IV) RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA

1) I and II are correct 2) I and III are correct

3) I, II and IV are correct 4) I and IV are correct

34. In Hershey and Chase experiments, radioactive 32P was used to culture

bacteriophages which resulted in radioactive

1) viral DNA 2) bacterial capsule

3) viral proteins 4) plasma membrane of bacteria

35. The inducer for switching 'on' the Lac operon in bacteria is

1) Presence of lactose

2) Number of bacteria

3) Presence of structural genes in the bacteria

4) Presence of RNA polymerase

36. Cloning requires all the following except

1) A vector DNA and a foreign DNA

2) DNA ligase

3) Methylases

4) Restriction endonucleases

37. Which of the following characteristics is undesirable in cloning vectors?

1) control their own replication

2) readily isolated from cells

3) high copy number

4) vulnerable at several sites to a restriction enzyme

38. Crystals of BT toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria

themselves because

1) bacteria are resistant to the toxin

2) toxin is immature

3) toxin is inactive

4) bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac



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39. Consider the following four statements and select the option which indicates all

that correct ones only.

A) Single cell, Spirulina can produce large quantities of food rich in protein,

minerals vitamins etc.

B) Body weight-wise the microorganism, Methylophilus methylotrophus may be

able to produce several times more proteins than the cows per day.

C) Golden rice is a β - carotene containing rice variety fortified with Calcium.

D) Atlas 66 is a maize variety with high protein content.

1) C and D only 2) A, C and D

3) B, C and D 4) A and B only

40. The domestic sewage in large cities

1) is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary

treatment in Sewage Treatment Plant (STPs).

2) When treated in STPs does not really require the aeration step as the sewage

contains adequate oxygen.

3) Has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts.

4) Has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.

ZOOLOGY41. Which of the following are true about the father of taxonomy ?

a) Established a definite hierarchy of taxonomic categories

b) First taxonomist to introduce six taxa

c) Introduced the method of representing phylogeny by branching diagram

d) Founder of modern systematic

e) Proposed the idea of evolution of species

1) a, c, d, e 2) a, c, e 3) a, d 4) a, b, c & d

42. Adding the suffix 'inae' to the genus indicate

1) Family 2) Super family

3) Infra family 4) Sub family

43. The products of cellular wear and tear in neurons accumulate as

1) Nissl bodies 2) Lipofuscin granules

3) Neurofibrils 4) Synaptic vesicles



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44. Smooth muscles are

1) without action and myosin 2) with sarcomeres

3) without tendons 4) with fatigue

45. Match the following:

List-I List-II

A) Two aboral tentacles I) Sea fin

B) Four oral arms

around mouth II) Cuttle fish

C) Ten arms around mouth III) Members of Tentaculata

D) Mouth is surrounded IV) Moon jelly

by retractile tentacles

V) Sea cucumber

A B C D A B C D

1) III IV II V 2) IV III II I

3) III IV II I 4) III V II I

46. Leaf like out growths present in the scolex of some tape worms are termed

1) Bothridia 2) Rhabdites 3) Acetabula 4) Phasmids

47. When a human female is heterozygous for both blood group 'A' and 'Rh'. Then

the possible number of types of gametes are

1) 2 2) 4 3) 8 4) 16

48. Which of the following characters are common to crocodiles, extant birds and

mammals?

1) Epidermal exoskeleton 2) Four chambered heart

3) Extra embryonic membranes 4) Thecodont dentition

5) Internal fertilization

1) 1, 2, 3 only 2) 2, 3, 4 only

3) 1, 2, 3, 5 4) 2, 3, 4, 5

49. Mammals with intra abdominal testes are

1) Cats, tigers and elephants 2) Whales, elephants, sea cows

3) Lions, tigers and donkeys 4) Macropus, pteropus, equus



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50. Beginning from trophozoites, arrange the following stages of the life cycle of

Entamoeba in correct sequence.

A) Trophozoite B) Tetranuclete cyst

C) Precystic stage D) Metacyst

E) Cystic stage

1) A, C, E, B, D 2) A, E, C, B, D

3) A, C, E, D, B 4) A, E, C, D, B

51. Undulipodia that help in locomotion as well as food collection are

1) Pseudopodia & cilia 2) Cilia and flagella

3) Cilia only 4) Flagella & myonemes

52. Fusion of two mature multi flagellate protozoans who do not produce gametes

but behave themselves as gamets is called

1) Conjugation 2) Sporulation

3) Hologamy 4) Schizogony

53. In the life history of Ascaris in man, the larval stages that begin and end the extra

intestinal migration respectively are

1) First stage, third stage 2) Second stage, third stage

3) Second stage, fourth stage 4) Third stage, fourth stage

54. Nerve fibres in the optic nerve of cockroach carry impulses from

1) Cone cells to tritocerebrum 2) Retinulae to protocerebrum

3) Retinulae to deutocerebrum 4) Protocerebrum to retinulae

55. Assertion (A): Images formed by compound eyes in nocturnal insects like

cockroach are superposition images.

Reason (R): Rhabdome and retinulae of an ommatidium receive light rays

entering not only through its own cornea, but also through corneas of adjacent

ommatidia.

1) Both A and R are correct, but R does not explains A.

2) Both A and R are correct, R explains A.

3) A is true, R is false.

4) A and R are false.



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56. Choose the correct statements regarding cockroach.

i) Contraction of dorsolongitudinal muscles elevate the wing.

ii) Contraction of alary muscles increases the volume of pericardial sinus.

iii) Contraction of dorsoventral muscles decreases volume of body cavity.

iv) Contraction of ventro longitudinal muscles make the segments telescoped.

1) i, ii, iii only 2) ii, iii, iv only

3) i, iii, iv only 4) All

57. Assertion (A): Predators keep the prey population under control.

Reason (R): In the absence of prey, predator species could achieve very high

population densities and cause instability in the ecosystems.





58. Identify the correct match from the following

1) Scrubbers - particulate matter

2) Electrostatic precipitators- aerosols

3) Catalytic converters- thermal power plants

4) Incinerators - automobiles

59. Protection of trees in forests was the main objective of

1) Green revolution 2) Chipko movement

3) Reforestation 4) Jhum cultivation

60. Organisms which are common in both grazing food chain and detritus food chain

are

1) decomposers 2) herbivores

3) producers 4) carnivores

61. If we take food rich in lime juice, then

1) action of ptyalin on starch is enhanced

2) action of ptyalin on starch is reduced

3) action of ptyalin on starch is unaffected

4) action of ptyalin on starch stops



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62. A child took sugarcane and sucked its juice, which of the following match is

correct regarding this?

Substrate Enzyme Site of secretion of Products formed

1) Proteins Pepsin Duodenum Polypeptide

2) Starch Amylase Salivary glands Glucose

3) Lipids Lipase Pancreas Fatglobules

4) Sucrose Invertase Small intestine Glucose + Fructose

63. During muscular contraction, which of the following events occur?

i) H-zone disappears ii) A band widens

iii) I band reduces in width iv) Width of A band is unaffected

v) Z lines come closer

1) i, iii, iv and v 2) i, ii and v

3) ii, iv and v 4) i, ii and iii

64. Select incorrect statement:

1) Deposition of iron particles in tissue leads to siderosis.

2) Lungs become more elastic and less fibrous in emphysema.

3) Allergen cause release of histamine causing constriction of the bronchi.

4) Inhalation of coal particles leads to black- lung disease.

65. Mammal which can remain under water for upto two hours

1) Elephant 2) Hippocampus

3) Elephant seal 4) Armadillo

66. Select incorrect options:

i) Cephalopods and cephalochordates have closed circulatory system.

ii) Most of the ammonia is lost through gills in the form of ammonium ions in

chondrichthys.

iii) Deamination chiefly occurs in kidneys.

iv) Warning signal of deprivation of blood supply to heart muscles is angina

pectoris.

1) i, ii and iii 2) ii, iii and iv

3) i, ii and iv 4) ii and iii



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67. Correct statement related to Henle's loop.

1) Reabsorption is maximum.

2) Descending limb is permeable to ions, impermeable to water.

3) Helps to maintain high osmolarity of cortical interstitial fluid.

4) NaCl is actively pumped out in distal ascending limb.

68. Limbic system of man is formed by

1) Amygdala and hippocampus

2) Amygdala and hypothalamus

3) Amygdala, hippocampus and hypothalamus

4) Hippocampus and hypothalamus

69. Gout is due to

1) decreased levels of oestrogen.

2) progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle.

3) accumulation of uric acid crystals.

4) low amount of Ca2+ in blood.

70. Find out the set of cells that show haploid condition

1) Primary spermatocytes and secondary spermatocytes

2) Spermatids and spermatogonia

3) Spermatozoa and primary spermatocytes

4) Spermatids and spermatozoa

71. The non medicated IUD is

1) LNG - 20 2) Copper - T

3) Lippes loop 4) Progestasert

72. Cranial nerves that innervate human eye ball muscles

1) III, IV, VI 2) II, IV, VI

3) I, IV, VI 4) IV, V, VII

73. The first human like being was

1) Neanderthals 2) Austrolopithecus

3) Homo habilis 4) Homo sapiens



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74. Psoriasis, a type of skin disease, is treated with

1) Hetrazan 2) Aureomycin

3) Isonicotinic acid hydrazide 4) Methotrexate

75. Acini of pancreas have

1) Merocrine gland 2) Apocrine gland

3) Holocrine glands 4) Endocrine gland

76. Short lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through

mother's milk to the infant is categorized as

1) Active immunity 2) Passive immunity

3) Cellular immunity 4) Innate non specific immunity

77. Finch birds in Galapagos islands can form best example for

A) Allopatric speciation B) Anagenesis

C) Sympatric speciation D) Cladogenesis

E) Centrifugal selection F) Centripetal selection

G) Divergent evolution H) Convergent evolution

1) A, B, D and H 2) A, D, E and G

3) A, C, F and H 4) A, B, C and G

78. Arrange the following cells in correct sequence of formation:

a) Proerythroblast b) Erythroblast

c) Myeloid progenitor d) Erythrocyte

e) Reticulocyte

1) c, a, b, e, d 2) b, c, a, d, e

3) a, c, b, e, d 4) c, a, e, b, d

79. The method useful to detect multivalent antigens like proteins and polysaccha-

rides is

1) Competitive assay 2) Indirect ELISA

3) Sandwich assay 4) Western blot test

80. In honey bees royal jelly secreting glands are located on the

1) labium of scout bees 2) hypopharynx of nurse workers

3) salivary glands of queen bee 4) proboscis of field workers



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PHYSICS81. In the formula, a = 3bc2, 'a' and 'c' have dimensions of electric capacitance and

magnetic induction respectively. What are dimensions of 'b' in MKS system

1) [M−3L−2 T4 Q4] 2) [M−3 T4 Q4]3) [M−3 T3 Q ] 4) [M−3 L2 T4 Q−4]

82. The relation given the value of 'x'

a3b3x = . Find the percentage error in 'x',

c √d

if the percentage error in a, b, c, d are 2%,1%, 3% and 4% respectively.

1) ± 8% 2) ± 10% 3) ± 12% 4) ±14%

83. Choose the correct option for the graph between the frequency of incident light

and the stopping potential

1) It is a parabola 2) It is a straight line

3) It is a hyperbola 4) It is a circle

84. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity υ moving an angle of 45° with

the horizontal. The magnitude of angular momentum of projectile about the point

of projection when the particle is at its maximum height h is

mυh mυh2 mυh1) Zero 2) 3) 4)

√2 √

2 2

85. A body of mass 10 kg is to be raised by a massless string from rest to rest,

through a height 9.8 m. The greatest tension which the string can safely bear is

20 kg wt. The least time of ascent is

1) 1 sec 2) 3 sec 3) 4 sec 4) 2 sec

86. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of radius 10 m with a constant speed

of 10 m/s. A plumb bob is suspended from the roof of the car by a light rigid rod

of length 1 m. The angle made by the rod with the track is (g = 10 m/s2)

1) zero 2) 30° 3) 45° 4) 60°

87. An insect is crawling up a fixed hemispherical bowl of radius R. The coefficient

of friction between insect and bowl is 1−3

. The insect can only crawl upto a height

1) 60% of R 2) 10% of R 3) 5% of R 4) 100% of R



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88. If a ball is dropped from rest, it bounces from the floor respectively. The

coefficient of restitution is 0.5 and the speed just before the first bounce is 5

m/sec. The total time taken by the ball to come to rest is (g = 10m/s2)

1) 2 sec 2) 1 sec 3) 1.5 sec 4) 0.25 sec

89. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc and a circular ring of the same

radii about a tangential axis in the plane is

1) 1: 2 2) √5 : √

6 3) 2 : 3 4) 2 : 1

90. A rod of length L is hinged from one end. It is brought to a horizontal position

and released. The angular velocity of the rod when it is in vertical position, is 2g 3g g g

1) 2) 3) 4) √ L √ L √ 2L √ L

91. Calculate in how many months, (3/4)th of the substance will decay, if half-life of

the radioactive substance is 2 months

1) 4 months 2) 6 months 3) 8 months 4) 14 months

92. If the radius of earth decreases by 10%, the mass remaining unchanged, what will

happen to the acceleration due to gravity?

1) decreases by 19% 2) increases by 19%

3) decreases by more than 19% 4) increases by more than 19%

93. A simple pendulum has a time period T1 when on the earth's surface, and T2

when taken to a height R above the earth's surface, when R is the radius of earth. T2

The value of isT1

1) 1 2) √2 3) 4 4) 2

94. The pressure at the bottom of a tank of liquid is not proportional to

1) the density of the liquid 2) the area of the liquid surface

3) the height of the liquid 4) the acceleration

95. A vertical tank with depth H is full with water. A hole is made on one side of the

walls at a depth h below the water surface. At what distance from the foot of the

wall does the emerging stream of water strike the foot?

1) √ h(H − h) 2) 2 √ h(H − h)

3) 2(H) √ h/(H − h) 4) √ 2h /(H − h)



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96. A body of mass 1 kg is fastened to one end of a steel wire of cross − sectional

area 3 × 10−6 m2 and is rotated in horizontal circle of radius 20 cm with a

constant speed 2 m/s. Find the elongation of the wire

(Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2)

1) 0.33 × 10−5m 2) 0.67 × 10−5m

3) 2 × 10−5m 4) 4 × 10−5m

97. A string of length 'l' is fixed at both ends and is vibrating in second harmonic. The lamplitude at antinode is 5 mm. The amplitude of a particle at distance ' ' from 8

the fixed end is

1) 5 √2 mm 2)

5

√2

mm 3) 5 mm 4) 10

√2

mm

98. A closed organ pipe and an open pipe of the same length produce 4 beats when

they are set into vibrations simultaneously. If the length of each of them were

twice their initial lengths, the number of beats produced will be:

1) 2 2) 4 3) 1 4) 8

99. If same amount of heat is supplied to two identical spheres (one is hollow and

other is solid), then

1) the expansion in hollow is greater than the solid.

2) the expansion in hollow is same as that in solid.

3) the expansion in hollow is lesser than the solid.

4) the temperature of both must be same to each other.

100. 5 g of water at 30°C and 5 g of ice at −20°C are mixed together in a calorimeter.

The water equivalent of calorimeter is negligible and specific heat and latent heat

of ice are 0.5 cal/g°C and 80 cal/g °C respectively. The final temperature of the

mixture is

1) 0°C 2) −8°C 3) −4°C 4) 2°C

101. The figure shows, the P − V diagram of two different masses m1 and m2 drawn

at constant temperature T, then

1) m1 > m2

2) m2 > m1

3) m1 = m2

4) insufficient data


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102. Which of the following quantities is zero on an average for the molecules of an

ideal gas in equilibrium?

1) Kinetic energy 2) Momentum

3) Density 4) Speed

103. If a gas is compressed adiabatically

1) the internal energy of gas increases

2) the internal energy of gas decreases

3) the internal energy of gas does not change

4) the work done is positive

104. A Carnot's engine has an efficiency of 50% at sink temperature 50°C. Calculate

the temperature of source.

1) 133°C 2) 143°C 3) 100°C 4) 373°C

105. If mass of He is 4 times that of hydrogen then mean velocity of He is

11) 2 times of H - mean value 2) times of H - mean value

2

3) 4 times of H - mean value 4) same as H - mean value

106. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate all of same material having same mass

are initially heated to 200°C. Which of these will cool fastest?

1) Circular plate 2) Sphere

3) Cube 4) All of these

107. What does it represent?

1) OR 2) AND 3) NAND 4) NOR

108. An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for

distant object. The separation between the objective and the eye piece is 36 cm

and final image is formed at infinity. The focal length to the objective and focal

length be for eye- piece are

1) ƒο = 45 cm and ƒe= − 9 cm 2) ƒο = 50 cm and ƒe = 10 cm

3) ƒο = 7.2 cm and ƒe = 5 cm 4) ƒο = 30 cm and ƒe = 6 cm



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109. If Young's double slit experiment, is performed in water

1) the fringe width will decrease

2) the fringe width will increase

3) the fringe width will remain unchanged

4) there will be no fringe

110. Two charged particles of charge +2q and +q have masses m and 2m respective-

ly. They are kept in uniform electric field and allowed to move for the same time.

Find the ratio of their kinetic energies

1) 1 : 8 2) 16 : 1 3) 2 : 1 4) 3 : 1

111. What should be the flux linked with the cube, if a point charge q is placed at one

corner of a cube

q q q q 1) 2) 3) 4)

ε0 2ε0 3ε0 8ε0

112. What is the electric potential at a point distance 100 cm from the centre of an

electric dipole of moment 2 × 10−4 C−m on a line making an angle of 60°?

1) 7 × 105 V 2) 8 × 105 V

3) 9 × 105 V 4) 10 × 105 V

113. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential difference Vo. The charge

battery is disconnected and the capacitor is connected to a capacitor of unknown

capacitance Cx. The potential difference across the combination is V. The value

of Cx should be

C(Vo − V ) C(V −Vo)1) 2)

V V

CV CVo3) 4)

Vo V

114. Two electric bulbs rated P1 watt V volt and P2 watt V volt are connected in

parallel across V volts mains, then the total power is:

1) P1 + P2 2) √P1P2

P1P2 P1 + P23) 4)

(P1 + P2) P1P2



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115. A uniform wire of 16 Ω resistance is made into the form of a square. Two

opposite corners of square are connected by a wire of resistance 16 Ω. The

effective resistance between the other two opposite corners is:

1) 32 Ω 2) 16 Ω 3) 8 Ω 4) 4 Ω

116. Conversion of galvanometer to ammeter, we connect:

1) low resistance in series 2) low resistance in parallel

3) high resistance in series 4) high resistance in parallel

117. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is accelerated through a potential

difference of V volt. It enters a region of uniform magnetic field which is direct-

ed perpendicular to the direction of motion of the particle. The particle will move

on a circular path of radius given by

Vm 2Vm

1) () 2) √ qB2 qB2

√

√

2Vm 1 Vm 1 3) ( ) ( ) 4) ( ) ( )q B q B

118. Curie temperature is the temperature above which

1) a paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic

2) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic

3) a paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic

4) a ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic

119. The inductance of a coil in which a current of 0.1 A increasing at the rate of 0.5

A/s represents a power flow of 1−2

watt, is

1) 2 H 2) 8 H 3) 20 H 4) 10 H

120. A TV tower has a height of 100 m. Find the area covered by the TV broadcast,

if radius of the earth is 6400 km

1) 380 × 107 m2 2) 402 × 107 m2

3) 595 × 107 m2 4) 440 × 107 m2



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CHEMISTRY121. Aluminum chloride in acidified aqueous solution forms

1) tetrahedral complex 2) square planar complex

3) linear complex 4) octahedral complex

122. The incorrect statement regarding C60 molecule

1) It contains 12 five membered rings and 20 six membered rings.

2) It has soccer ball like shape.

3) A six membered ring is always fused with only five membered ring.

4) All carbon atoms are in sp2 hybridisation.

123. The correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of chlorine atomis

n l m

1) 2 1 0

2) 2 −1 0

3) 3 1 1

4) 3 0 0

124. Sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia to give a deep blue solution which isalso conducting in nature. This is due to the presence of following

1) [Na(NH3)x]+ 2) [e(NH3)4]−

3) NH4+ 4) [Na(NH3)x]+1 and [e(NH3)4]−


List-I List-II

A) Calgon Method 1) R+NH3OH + X− → R

+N H3X + OH−

B) Ion exchange Method 2) Mg(HCO3)2 + 2Ca(OH)2 → 2CaCO3 + Mg(OH)2 + 2H2O

C) Synthetic resin method 3) Ca+2 + Na4P6 O18−2

→ [Na2CaP6O18]_2

+ 2Na+

D) Clarks Method 4) 2NaAlSiO4 + Mg+2 → Mg (AlSiO4)2 + 2Na+


A B C D A B C D

1) 3 4 2 1 2) 4 3 2 1

3) 3 4 1 2 4) 4 3 1 2



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126.

'M' represents

1) Bonding π molecular orbital

2) Anti bonding π molecular orbital

3) Both bonding and anti bonding π molecular orbital

4) bonding σ molecular orbital

127. In Castner - Kellner cell, reaction at mercury cathode is

1) 2H2O + 2e− → H2 + OH −

2) 2Cl − → Cl2 + 2e−

3) Na+ + OH− → NaOH

4) Na+ + e− + Hg → NaHg

128. Critical temperatures of four gases A, B, C and D are 154.3 K, 304.1 K, 126 K

and 405.5 K respectively. The gas which can be liquefied easily is

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D

129. S0of N2, H2 and NH3 respectively are 190 J/K, 130 J/K and 111 J/K

respectively, then ∆S (sys) for the formation of 8.5 grams of NH3 in J/K is

1) −179 2) −358 3) +179 4) −89.5

130. Ka of 0.1 M weak acid HA is 1 × 10−5. The pH of the acid is

1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5

131. The volume of CO2 liberated at STP, when 2.1 gram of MgCO3 reacts with

excess of dilute H2SO4 is

1) 5600 ml 2) 11,200 ml 3) 560 ml 4) 112 ml

132. Which of these statements are correct?

A) Bond energy order of single bond

C − C > N − N > O − O

B) Crystal latice energy is in the order

NaCl < KCl < RbCl < CsCl

C) SF6 is a non-planar molecule with a maximum of 5 atoms in a plane.

D) CH2Cl2 is a polar molecule with polar covalent bonds.

1) A,B and C only 2) A and B only

3) A and C only 4) A,C and D only



−− − −

−+

+

++→

'M'

2px 2px

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133. An element 'A' has face centred cubic structure with edge length equal to 361 pm.

The apparent radius of atom 'A' is

1) 127.6 pm 2) 180.5 pm 3) 160.5 pm 4) 64 pm

134. Which of the following aqueous solution can have pH more than 7

1) NH4Cl 2) NaCl 3) K2SO4 4) CH3COONa

135. RMS velocity of methane gas at −17 °C is

1) 1.58 × 102 ms−1 2) 3.16 × 102 ms−1

3) 4.74 × 102 ms−1 4) 6.32 × 102 ms−1

136. HI is decomposed thermally on gold surface. If the initial concentration of HI is

0.2 M and rate constant of the reaction is ‘K’ mol L−1 min−1, then the half life

of the reaction is

1) 0.2 K min 2) 0.1 K min

0.2 0.13) min 4) min

K K

137. Mono saccharides that form lactose sugar are

1) α − D galactose & α − D glucose

2) β − D galactose & β − D glucose

3) α − D glucose & β − D fructose

4) β − D glucose & α − D galactose

138. Amino acid that contains secondary amino group is

1) Tyrosine 2) Proline

3) Phenylalanine 4) Lysine

139. The vapour pressure of two liquids (A) and (B) are 100 torr and 80 torr. The total

vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 2 mol of (A) and 3 mol of (B)

would be

1) 20 torr 2) 36 torr 3) 88 torr 4) 180 torr

140. Chloramphenicol is

1) a narrow spectrum antibiotic

2) a limited spectrum antibiotic

3) a broad spectrum antibiotic

4) an antioxidant



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141. Given the limiting molar conductivity as

Λom (HCl) = 425.9 Ω−1 cm−2 mol−1

Λom (NaCl) = 126.4 Ω−1 cm2 mol−1

Λom (CH3COONa) = 91 Ω−1 cm 2 mol−1

The molar conductivity at infinite dilution of acetic acid ( in Ω−1cm 2 mol−1) will

be

1) 481.5 2) 390.5 3) 299.5 4) 516.9

142. Calculate the equilibrium constant of the

reaction Cu(s) + 2 Ag+(aq) → Cu+2

(aq) + 2 Ag (s)

Given that Eocell = +0.46 V (Antilog 0.6 = 3.92)

1) 3.92 × 1012 2) 3.92 × 1015

3) 3.92 × 1018 4) 3.92 × 1010

143. [Co (NH3)4 (NO2)2] Cl exhibits

1) ionization isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism

2) linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism

3) linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and optical isomerism

4) linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and geometrical isomerism

144. Which of the following can act as a Lewis acid?

1) (CH3)3B 2) (CH3)3N

3) (CH3)3P 4) (CH3)2O

145. The monomers present in polymer Glyptal are

1) Ethylene glycol and Terephthalic acid

2) Ethylene glycol and phthalic acid

3) Adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine

4) Phenol and formaldehyde

KOH (solid) Electrolytic146. MnO2 → X → Y, then X and Y are

KNO3 Oxidation (KOH solution)

1) MnO4−2, MnO2 2) MnO4

−1, MnO4−2

3) Mn+2, MnO4−

4) MnO4−2, MnO4

−



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147. Detergent that is used in hair conditioners is

1) Sodium Lauryl sulphate

2) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate

3) Cetyl Trimethyl ammonium bromide

4) Sodium stearyl suphonate

148. Which of the following oxyacid of phosphorus contains two P − OH, two P − H

and two P = O and one P − O − P bond;

1) Pyrophosphoric acid

2) Hypophosphoric acid

3) Pyrophosphorus acid

4) Cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid

149. The incorrect statement regarding sulphur and its oxides is

1) SO3 is formed in second excited state of “S”

2) Molecule of SO3 contains both pπ − pπ bonds and pπ − dπ bonds

3) SO2 is angular and it is a resonance hybrid of two canonical form

4) S2 in vapour state is diamagnetic

150. Assertion (A): In froth floatation process, NaCN is used as depressant for

preferential separation of PbS from the ore containing mixture of PbS and ZnS.

Reason (R): NaCN prevents ZnS from coming to the froth as it form layer of

Na2 [Zn(CN)4] on the surface of ZnS.


2) Both A and R are correct but R does not explains A.



151. HO

IUPAC name is

1) 5, 6 dimethyl hexanol

2) 4, 5 − dimethyl hexanol − 1

3) 2, 3 − dimethyl hexanol 6

4) 1, 1, 2 − trimethyl pentanol − 5



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152. Which of the following compounds give blood red colour during Lassigne's test

OII

1) H2N − C − NH2 2) C6H5SO3H

3) H2N − C6H4 − SO3H 4) CHCl3

153. In Dumas method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.3 grams of an organic compound

gave 45 ml of nitrogen at STP . The percentage composition of nitrogen in the

compound is

1) 18.75 2) 1.875 3) 37.5 4) 3.75

154. Number of isomeric 1°, 2° and 3° alcohols for molecular formula C5H12O

respectively are

1) 4, 3, 1 2) 3, 4, 1

3) 4, 1, 3 4) 3, 2, 3

155. Major products formed by heating each of the following ethers with HI

respectively are

CH3

a) CH3CH2CH2 - O - C - CH2 - CH3

CH3



1) CH3 − CH2CH2I,

OH

2) CH3 − CH2CH2OH,

CH2 − Ob)

CH2 − OH

4) CH3CH2CH2I,

CH2 − I

OHCH3

3) C2H5 − C − I,

CH3

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156. A compound (A) C5H10O form phenyl hydrazone and shows negative tollens

and Iodoform tests. The compound on reduction given n − pentane. The

compound (A) is

1) Pentanal 2) Pentan− 2−one

3) Pentan − 3 − one 4) Aryl alcohol

158. The conversion

O Br2 + KOH

CH3 − C − NH2 → CH3 − NH2 is called ∆

1) Gabriel pthalimide reaction 2) Hoffmann's bromamide reaction

3) Carbylamine reaction 4) Hinsbergs reaction

159. In which of the following reactions, Anti Markownikoff's rule is observed:

peroxide1) CH3 − CH = CH2 + HCl →

peroxide2) CH3 − CH = CH2 + HBr →

peroxide3) CH3 − CH = CH2 + HI →

peroxide4) CH3 − CH = CH2 + H2SO4 →

160. The reactivity order of the following towards dehydrohalogenation is

A) (CH3)3C − Br B) CH3CH2CH2 − Br

C) (CH3)2CH − Br

1) A > B > C 2) C > B > A

3) A > C > B 4) A = B = C



NO2

CH3

NH2

CH3

1)

NH2

CHO

2)

NO2

CHO

3)

NH2

COOH

4)

157. → X. The product X is

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KEY

1-3; 2-1; 3-3; 4-1; 5-3; 6-2; 7-4; 8-3; 9-2; 10-3; 11-2; 12-4; 13-2; 14-3; 15-3; 16-1;

17-1; 18-4; 19-1; 20-3; 21-3; 22-4; 23-2; 24-3; 25-2; 26-3; 27-2; 28-2; 29-3; 30-3;

31-2; 32-3; 33-4; 34-1; 35-1; 36-3; 37-4; 38-3; 39-4; 40-1; 41-3; 42-4; 43-2; 44-3;

45-1; 46-1; 47-2; 48-3; 49-2; 50-1; 51-3; 52-3; 53-3; 54-2; 55-2; 56-2; 57-3; 58-2;

59-2; 60-4; 61-2; 62-4; 63-1; 64-2; 65-3; 66-4; 67-4; 68-1; 69-3; 70-4; 71-3; 72-1;

73-3; 74-4; 75-1; 76-2; 77-2; 78-1; 79-3; 80-2; 81-1; 82-4; 83-2; 84-2; 85-1; 86-3;

87-3; 88-3; 89-2; 90-2; 91-1; 92-4; 93-4; 94-2; 95-2; 96-2; 97-2; 98-1; 99-1;

100-1; 101-2; 102-2; 103-1; 104-4; 105-2; 106-1; 107-2; 108-4; 109-1; 110-1;

111-4; 112-3;113-1; 114-1; 115-4; 116-2; 117-3; 118-2; 119-4; 120-2; 121-4;

122-3; 123-3; 124-4; 125-3; 126-2; 127-4; 128-4; 129-4; 130-2; 131-3; 132-4;

133-1; 134-4; 135-4; 136-4; 137-2; 138-2; 139-3; 140-3; 141-2; 142-2; 143-4; 144-1;

145-2; 146-4; 147-3; 148-3; 149-4; 150-1; 151-2; 152-3; 153-1; 154-1; 155-3; 156-3;

157-3; 158-2; 159-2; 160-3.

- - -(-vQ í¬-ßª’-vA -N-ü∆-uÆæçÆæn-© π◊ -îÁç-C-† -E°æ¤-ù’-©’ -Ñ -†-´‚-Ø√ -v°æ-¨¡o°æ-vû√-Eo ®Ω÷-§Òç-Cç-î√-®Ω’.)



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9. Match the following.

1) Protandry ( ) A) Datura

2) Protogyny ( ) B) Hibiscus

3) Herkogamy ( ) C) Sunflower

4) Self sterility ( ) D) Primula

E) Abutilon

1) 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-B 2) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E

3) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E 4) 1-E, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

10. Entry of the pollen tube is guided by

1) Antipodals 2) Funicle

3) Filiform apparatus 4) Polar nuclei

11. Identify the taxon which can't survive in water deficient habitat.

1) Asparagus 2) Allium cepa 3) Aloe 4) Ruscus

12. Floral formula:

- Ebr, Ebrl, ⊕ , , K2+2, C4, A2+4, G- (2)

belong to the family

1) Pea family 2) Potato family

3) Lily family 4) Mustard family

13. Identify the incorrect statement with respect to mesosomes of a prokaryotic cell

1) Distributes the genetic material between daughter cells

2) Decrease the surface area of cell membrane

3) Involves in respiration

4) Helps in cell wall formation

14. What is the percentage ratio of proteins & lipids respectively, in the erythrocyte

membrane of human being (approximately)

1) 10 : 13 2) 13 : 12 3) 13 : 10 4) 10 : 15

15. Identify the mismatch from the following with respect to secondary metabolites

1) Drugs - Vinblastin 2) Alkaloids - Codeine

3) Toxins - Morphine 4) Polymeric substance - Cellulose



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16. Which of the following is unique to mitosis and not a part of meiosis?

1) Homologous chromosomes behave independently

2) Chromatids are separated during anaphase

3) Homologous chromosomes pair and form bivalents

4) Homologous chromosomes cross over

17. Parenchyma, Collenchyma and Sclerenchyma are similar in one of the following character

1) Consists of one type of cells 2) Photosynthesis

3) Cell structure 4) Cell shape

18. Cells are long, narrow with thick and lignified cell walls are found in

1) Pericycle of monocot stem 2) Hypodermis of dicot stem

3) Pericycle of dicot root 4) Pericycle of dicot stem

19. The entire sequence of communities that successively changes in a given area arecalled

1) Sere 2) Climax 3) Pioneer 4) Xerarch

20. An individual transition communities in ecological succession are termed as

1) Climax community 2) Pioneer community

3) Seral community 4) Single community

21. When a cell is placed in hypotonic solution

I) Its water potential increases II) Its osmotic potential increases

III) Its turgor pressure increases IV) No change in the turgor pressure

V) Its osmotic pressure increases

Choose the correct options

1) I, II, V, IV 2) I, IV, III, V

3) I, III only 4) I, II, III, V only

22. Phosphorous is not a structural component of

1) Nucleotide 2) Nucleic acid

3) Plasma membrane 4) Nucleoside

23. A micronutrient which is structural component of mobile electron carrier presenton thylakoid membrane

1) Mn 2) Cu 3) Mo 4) Fe

24. The competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is

1) Succinase 2) Acetylase 3) Malonate 4) Fumerase



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25. The hypothesis: 'Plants restore to the air whatever breathing animals and burning

candles remove' was put forwarded by

1) Ingenhouz 2) Priestly 3) Englemann 4) Von Sachs

26. Number of net ATP molecules produced by the complete oxidation of one

molecule of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate in aerobic respiration is

1) 17 2) 16 3) 19 4) 15

27. 5-carbon compound formed in citric acid cycle is

1) Malic acid 2) α - Ketoglutaric acid

3) Acetyl Co.A 4) Citric acid

28. Growth of pollen tube is measured in terms of its

1) increase in surface area 2) length

3) size 4) number

29. Study the following lists

List-I List-II

A) Photoheterotroph I) Nitrosomonas

B) Photoautotroph II) Xanthomonas

C) Chemoheterotroph III) Chromatium

D) Chemoautotroph IV) Rhodospirillum


A B C D A B C D

1) III IV II I 2) IV II III I

3) IV III II I 4) IV III I II

30. Number of nucleotides present in the RNA molecule of TMV is

1) 158 2) 2,130 3) 6,500 4) 39 × 106

31. In Lamarck's evening primrose plant mutations were first noticed by

1) Lamarck 2) Hugo de vries 3) Darwin 4) Mendel

32. "Pleiotropic" is

1) Pair of genes related to more than one character

2) Number of genes related to one character

3) A single gene may be related to more than one character

4) A single gene related to one character



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33. Consider the following statements. In eukaryotes

I) RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs

II) RNA polymerase II transcribes snRNAs

III) RNA polymerase III transcribes hnRNA

IV) RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA

1) I and II are correct 2) I and III are correct

3) I, II and IV are correct 4) I and IV are correct

34. In Hershey and Chase experiments, radioactive 32P was used to culture

bacteriophages which resulted in radioactive

1) viral DNA 2) bacterial capsule

3) viral proteins 4) plasma membrane of bacteria

35. The inducer for switching 'on' the Lac operon in bacteria is

1) Presence of lactose

2) Number of bacteria

3) Presence of structural genes in the bacteria

4) Presence of RNA polymerase

36. Cloning requires all the following except

1) A vector DNA and a foreign DNA

2) DNA ligase

3) Methylases

4) Restriction endonucleases

37. Which of the following characteristics is undesirable in cloning vectors?

1) control their own replication

2) readily isolated from cells

3) high copy number

4) vulnerable at several sites to a restriction enzyme

38. Crystals of BT toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria

themselves because

1) bacteria are resistant to the toxin

2) toxin is immature

3) toxin is inactive

4) bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac



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39. Consider the following four statements and select the option which indicates all

that correct ones only.

A) Single cell, Spirulina can produce large quantities of food rich in protein,

minerals vitamins etc.

B) Body weight-wise the microorganism, Methylophilus methylotrophus may be

able to produce several times more proteins than the cows per day.

C) Golden rice is a β - carotene containing rice variety fortified with Calcium.

D) Atlas 66 is a maize variety with high protein content.

1) C and D only 2) A, C and D

3) B, C and D 4) A and B only

40. The domestic sewage in large cities

1) is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary

treatment in Sewage Treatment Plant (STPs).

2) When treated in STPs does not really require the aeration step as the sewage

contains adequate oxygen.

3) Has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts.

4) Has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.

ZOOLOGY41. Which of the following are true about the father of taxonomy ?

a) Established a definite hierarchy of taxonomic categories

b) First taxonomist to introduce six taxa

c) Introduced the method of representing phylogeny by branching diagram

d) Founder of modern systematic

e) Proposed the idea of evolution of species

1) a, c, d, e 2) a, c, e 3) a, d 4) a, b, c & d

42. Adding the suffix 'inae' to the genus indicate

1) Family 2) Super family

3) Infra family 4) Sub family

43. The products of cellular wear and tear in neurons accumulate as

1) Nissl bodies 2) Lipofuscin granules

3) Neurofibrils 4) Synaptic vesicles



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44. Smooth muscles are

1) without action and myosin 2) with sarcomeres

3) without tendons 4) with fatigue


List-I List-II

A) Two aboral tentacles I) Sea fin

B) Four oral arms

around mouth II) Cuttle fish

C) Ten arms around mouth III) Members of Tentaculata

D) Mouth is surrounded IV) Moon jelly

by retractile tentacles

V) Sea cucumber

A B C D A B C D

1) III IV II V 2) IV III II I

3) III IV II I 4) III V II I

46. Leaf like out growths present in the scolex of some tape worms are termed

1) Bothridia 2) Rhabdites 3) Acetabula 4) Phasmids

47. When a human female is heterozygous for both blood group 'A' and 'Rh'. Then

the possible number of types of gametes are

1) 2 2) 4 3) 8 4) 16

48. Which of the following characters are common to crocodiles, extant birds and

mammals?

1) Epidermal exoskeleton 2) Four chambered heart

3) Extra embryonic membranes 4) Thecodont dentition

5) Internal fertilization

1) 1, 2, 3 only 2) 2, 3, 4 only

3) 1, 2, 3, 5 4) 2, 3, 4, 5

49. Mammals with intra abdominal testes are

1) Cats, tigers and elephants 2) Whales, elephants, sea cows

3) Lions, tigers and donkeys 4) Macropus, pteropus, equus



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50. Beginning from trophozoites, arrange the following stages of the life cycle of

Entamoeba in correct sequence.

A) Trophozoite B) Tetranuclete cyst

C) Precystic stage D) Metacyst

E) Cystic stage

1) A, C, E, B, D 2) A, E, C, B, D

3) A, C, E, D, B 4) A, E, C, D, B

51. Undulipodia that help in locomotion as well as food collection are

1) Pseudopodia & cilia 2) Cilia and flagella

3) Cilia only 4) Flagella & myonemes

52. Fusion of two mature multi flagellate protozoans who do not produce gametes

but behave themselves as gamets is called

1) Conjugation 2) Sporulation

3) Hologamy 4) Schizogony

53. In the life history of Ascaris in man, the larval stages that begin and end the extra

intestinal migration respectively are

1) First stage, third stage 2) Second stage, third stage

3) Second stage, fourth stage 4) Third stage, fourth stage

54. Nerve fibres in the optic nerve of cockroach carry impulses from

1) Cone cells to tritocerebrum 2) Retinulae to protocerebrum

3) Retinulae to deutocerebrum 4) Protocerebrum to retinulae

55. Assertion (A): Images formed by compound eyes in nocturnal insects like

cockroach are superposition images.

Reason (R): Rhabdome and retinulae of an ommatidium receive light rays

entering not only through its own cornea, but also through corneas of adjacent

ommatidia.





