directions€¦ · directions : refer to the information given below and answer the question that...

DIRECTIONS: For the following question, four options are given. Choose the correct option.

1. Two friends A and B roll a pair of dice. A wins if a 12 is thrown. B wins if consecutive 7 appear. The game continues until one of them wins. The probability that A wins is

(1) 6 11

(2) 7 13

(3) 8 15

(4) 9 17


2. In the circle given, there is a cyclic quadrilateral inscribed in it having two adjacent sides of length a√3. If the radius of the circle is a, then the value of the marked angle θ is

a 3 √

θ a 3 √

(1) 60 (2) 90 (3) 120 (4) 150


3. Distance of point (3, 5) from the line 2x + 3y – 14 = 0 measured parallel to the line x – 2y = 1 is

(1) 7

5 (2)

7

13

(3) 5 (4) 13

DIRECTIONS: For the following question, five options are given. Choose the correct option.

4. Let AM(x, y) be the arithmetic mean of x and y and HM(x, y) be the harmonic mean. Consider the equation: 2 × AM(x, y) = 2 × HM(x, y) + 4. The number of solutions of the form (x, y) such that 0 < y < x < 100 is (1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 14 (4) 15


5. The coefficient of x 2 in the polynomial (1 – x)(1 + 2x)(1 – 3x) ... (1 + 14x)(1 – 15x) is (1) –588 (2) –486 (3) 486 (4) 0


6. King Lear VII organizes a round table conference which Robin Hood attends too (pardon the historical errors!!). However the King and Robin Hood refuse to sit next to each other. The King’s Jester senses the tension of the situation and offers to sit between them. If there are 8 people in all attending the conference, in how many ways can they be seated in a circle with only the Jester between the King and Robin? (1) 120 (2) 240 (3) 480 (4) 960


7. How many pairs of positive x and y exist such that x 2 + 3y and y 2 + 3x are both perfect squares? (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3


8. The equation x 2 + 2(r 2 – 1)x + (2r 4 + 3r 2 + 6) = 0 has positive real roots. The number of positive integral values of r for which the above statement is true? (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) Infinite


9. If the regular hexagon ABCDEF has side 2 feet, the area ( in sq. ft) of the rectangle BCEF is

A

B

C

D

E F

(1) 4 (2) 4√2 (3) 4 + 4√2 (4) 4 + 4√3


10. Three ladies have each brought a child for admission to a school. The principal wants to interview the six persons one by one subject to the condition that no mother is interviewed before her child. The number of ways in which interviews can be arranged is (1) 30 (2) 60 (3) 90 (4) None of these


11. The value of the 10 th term in the series 1 2 , 2 2 + 3 2 , 4 2 + 5 2 + 6 2 , .... is (1) 15936 (2) 42394 (3) 36685 (4) None of these


12. Six men and seven women together can do a piece of work in 15 days, while 8 men and 8 women can do the same piece of work in 12 days. How many men must help 15 women in order that the work may be finished in 10 days? (1) 10 (2) 9 (2) 8 (4) 6


13. In the year 2010, CAT will have a multiple choice question paper with 4 options and more than one option will have the possibility of being correct. A candidate gets marks only if he ticks all the correct options. Nathuram, an ignorant candidate decides to tick options at random. How many times should he attempt the same paper so that the probabil ity of getting the a particular question right is at least 1/5? (1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 4


14. The parallel side of an isosceles trapezium are 10.5 cm and 4.5 cm in length and a lateral side is 5 cm, find its area. (1) 42 cm 2 (2) 37.5 cm 2

(3) 60 cm 2 (4) 30 cm 2


15. If a, b and c are positive numbers with no common factors and such that 1 1 1 a b c

+ = , then which of the

following is true? (1) (a + b) is a square (2) (b + c) is a square (3) (c + a + b) is a square (4) (c + a) is a square

DIRECTIONS: Refer to the information given below and answer the question that follow.

If in a group of p consecutive terms is missing from the polynomial equation fx) = 0, then (i) if p is even, the polynomial equation fx) = 0 has at least p imaginary roots; (ii) if p is odd, there are at least (p + 1) or at least (p – 1) imaginary roots of f(x) = 0, depending upon

whether the terms which immediately proceed and follow the group have like or unlike signs respectively.

16. The minimum number of least imaginary roots of the equation x 18 + 2x 17 – 7x 2 + 13x + 5 = 0 is (1) 15 (2) 14 (3) 16 (4) 13


17. A player rolls a biased dice and receives the same number of rupees as the number of dots on the face that turns up. The dice is such that it is twice likely to show an even number than an odd number. What should the player pay for each roll, if he wants to make a average profit of Rs.2/3 per throw of the dice in the long run? (1) Rs.3 (2) Rs.4 (3) Rs.5 (4) Rs.6

DIRECTIONS: Refer to the information given below and answer the question that follow.

If in a group of p consecutive terms is missing from the polynomial equation fx) = 0, then (i) if p is even, the polynomial equation fx) = 0 has at least p imaginary roots; (ii) if p is odd, there are at least (p + 1) or at least (p – 1) imaginary roots of f(x) = 0, depending upon

whether the terms which immediately proceed and follow the group have like or unlike signs respectively.

18. The maximum number of real roots of the equation 3x 17 + 4x 16 + 3x 15 – x 3 + 5x 2 + 6x + 8= 0 is (1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 12


19. In a colony Ramesh, Suresh and Mahesh stay in three different buildings. If we denote the buildings occupied by Ramesh, Suresh and Mahesh as points A, B and C respectively, then triangle ABC is a right angled at B. A fourth person named Mukesh comes to stay in the colony. His building is such located that it’s distance from Mahesh’s building is equal to distance of Mahesh’s building and Suresh’s building. Distance between Ramesh’s and Suresh’s building is 6 m and distance between Ramesh’s and Mukesh’s building is 12 m. A fifth person named Bharat takes a building such that, buildings of Ramesh, Mukesh and Bharat is in a straight line and it’s distance from Mahesh’s building is equal to distance between Mahesh’s and Mukesh’s building. The distance between Mukesh’s and Bharat’s house is (1) 3 m (2) 6 m (3) 9 m (4) 12 m


20. How many positive integer solutions exist for the equation (x 1 + x 2 ) (y 1 + y 2 + y 3 ) = 65? (1) 264 (2) 336 (3) 306 (4) None of these


21. In an equilateral triangle of side unit length, a point is chosen randomly in the interior and perpendiculars are drawn from the point to the sides of the triangle, then the sum of the lengths of these perpendiculars is

(1) 1 2 (2)

3 2

(3) 3 4

(4) 1 3


22. Three numbers whose product is 125 are three consecutive terms of a geometric progression. At the same time they are the first, the third and the sixth terms of an arithmetic series. Find the common ratio of the geometric series. (1) –3/2 (2) 2/3 (3) 3/2 (4) –1

DIRECTIONS: Refer to the following information to answer the question that follows.

Three trains namely Doon Valley Express, IndoreHowrah Express and Shatabdi Express moving on parallel tracks start from Patna at the same time to reach Allahabad. They follow the equation: Doon Valley Express: s= 30t + 12t 2 . IndoreHowrah Express: s = 36t + 16t 2 . Shatabdi Express: s = 19t + t 2 . (Where ‘s’ = distance in km and ‘t’ = time in hours.)

23. If all the three leave from Patna at 9:40 am, then the time at which IndoreHowrah Express will reach Mughalsarai, which is 70 km from Patna in the route (without any stoppage), is (1) 10:40 am (2) 10:55 am (3) 11:05 am (4) 10:52 am


24. In an examination paper there are 60 questions of which 50 are on Algebra. A candidate has to choose two questions. What is the probability that both these are on algebra? (1) 245/354 (2) (1 – 10/60)×(1 –10/59) (3) 50 C 2 / 60 C 2 (4) All of these


25. A cyclic quadrilateral ABCD is inscribed in a circle with centre O, such that MB and MD are the tangents to the circle with centre O and ∠BMD = 80°. The value of ∠BAD is

M

B A

D

C O

(1) 70° (2) 65° (3) 50° (4) 75°


26. In a certain number system, the product 44 × 11 is represented as 2124. How would 1453 (in the earlier obtained base) be represented in the decimal system? (1) 248 (2) 346 (3) 393 (4) 410


27. For how many values of k, the LCM of 6 6 , 8 8 and k is 12 12 ? (1) 12 (2) 24 (3) 25 (4) None of these


28. Two ants set out to gather food from a sugar mill. At time t = 0 one of the ants is starting towards the mill from the anthill and the other is starting from the mill towards the anthill with a sugar cube. If the speed of the ants while carrying the sugar cube is 1 km/h and without the sugar cube is 2 km/h, in how much time will they be able to gather 51 cubes? It is given that they meet for the first time at t = 20 mins (1) 27 hours 30 minutes (2) 28 hours 30 minutes (3) 37 hours 30 minutes (4) 38 hours 30 minutes


29. The path of a cyclist comprises three sections the length of the first section being 6 times the length of the third section. What is the speed of the cyclist averaged over the entire path, if it is equal to his speed along the second section, and is 2 kmph less than his speed in the first section and is 10 kmph more than half the speed in the third section? (1) 12 kmph (2) 14 kmph (3) 15 kmph (4) None of these


30. What is digit at the hundreds place of the number (201) 8 ? (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6


31. If m and n are two integers which are not multiples of 5 but their sum is always divisible by 5, then which of the following is necessarily true? (1) m 4 – n 4 is exactly divisible by 10 (2) 19m 2 + n 2 is exactly divisible by 5 (3) m 3 – n 3 is exactly divisible by 5 (4) 27m + n is exactly divisible by 5


32. Consider a square with integral sides. Its area is more than that of a rectangle whose one side is 5 cm less than double the side of the square and the other side is 4 cm less than the side of the square. Also the area of the square is less than that of a rectangle for which one side is smaller by 2 cm and the other greater by 3 cm than the side of the square. Find the possible length of the side of the square. (1) 5 cm (2) 6 cm (3) 7 cm (4) 14 cm


33. Let S 1 be a square of side a. Another square S 2 is formed by joining the midpoints of the sides of S 1 . The same process is applied to S 2 to form yet another square S 3 , and so on upto infinity. If A 1 , A 2 , A 3 , .. . be

the areas and P 1 , P 2 , P 3 , ... be the perimeters of S 1 , S 2 , S 3 ..., respectively, then the ratio P P P A A A

1 2 3

1 2 3

+ + + + + +

... ...

equals to

(1) 2 1 2 ( ) +

a (2)

2 2 2 ( ) − a

(3) 2 2 2 ( ) +

a (4)

2 1 2 2 ( ) + a


34. A person had left his home at the age of about 14 years. He remembers that the day was Monday. Since then, he has been fasting on every Tuesday. Today he is celebrating his 60th birth anniversary in a five star hotel with his friends. As today is Tuesday, he is not taking anything except wine. At the end of the party, he discloses that it is his 2400th Tuesday of fasting. If today is 9th October 2001, then on which date had he left his home? (1) 10th October 1955 (2) 9th October 1955 (3) 8th October 1955 (4) 11th October 1955

DIRECTIONS: The following graph shows the Population Growth Rate (in percentage terms) of Jansankhya Pradesh. Study the graph and answer the question that follows.

Population Growth Rate of Jansankhya Pradesh

5.7 5.85 5.75

4.4 4 4.2 4.4

5.4 5.55 5.8

6.8

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004

Years

Populatio

n Growth Rate ( in percentage)

NOTE: Population Growth Rate of a particular year (in percentage terms)

= × No. of births during the year – No. of deaths during the year lation last year Total popu

100

35. In any year, the economy is said to have performed worse than in the previous year, if the population growth rate during the following year is more than that during the current year. In how many years in the given period has the economy performed worse than the previous year? (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2



5.7 5.85 5.75

4.4 4 4.2 4.4

5.4 5.55 5.8

6.8

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004

Years

Populatio




100

36. If during year 1995 because of an epidemic 8% population of Jansankhya Pradesh died, then the ratio of the increase in population in that year to the number of people who died because of that epidemic in that year is (1) 0.725 (2) 0.50 (3) 1.055 (4) Cannot be determined



5.7 5.85 5.75

4.4 4 4.2 4.4

5.4 5.55 5.8

6.8

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004

Years

Populatio




100

37. If in the year 2000, the total population of Jansankhya Pradesh was 275.6 million, then which of the following is necessarily true for the population in year 1998? (1) It is approximately 255 million. (2) The approximate difference between the number of births during the year 2000 and the deaths

during the same year is equal to 10 million. (3) Both (1) and (2). (4) The population of the year 1998 cannot be determined.

DIRECTIONS: Read the information given below and answer the question that follow.

Five school children have their own individual pegs for their outdoor wear. The teacher wishes to put individual labels underneath each peg but she cannot quite remember which child uses which peg. What she can remember is shown below.

The children are Adrian, Bernard, Clare, Dominic and Eve. The pegs are numbered 1 to 5 from left to right. Can you match each peg with its owner, and the type and colour of the clothing that is usually hung upon it? Clues: 1. Clare’s anorak is somewhere to the left of the green duffel coat. However, these two gar

ments are not directly sidebyside. 2. The clothing on peg 4 is blue, but it is not a polo neck. 3. Eve’s article of clothing is on peg 1. She does not wear a brown garment. 4. Bernard’s clothing is black. 5. There is a raincoat on peg 3. 6. Adrian doesn’t wear cardigans. The five articles are: an anorak, a cardigan, a duffel coat, a polo necksweater, and a raincoat. The five colors’ are: black, blue, brown, green and tan. On the basis of conditions, answer the following question:

38. Who amongst the five wear a raincoat? (1) Adrian (2) Bernard (3) Clare (4) Dominic

DIRECTIONS: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

A college XYZ has four departments viz. Computer Science, Electrical, Mechanical and Chemical. A student in the college has the option to choose one of the above departments as its major and any other department as its minor. The total number of students in the college is 500 for a particular batch. The table below shows the number of students who have taken each of the departments as major or minor. Some of the data in the table is missing.

Department Students who opted the department as their

Students who opted the department as their

CSE 200 100 Electrical 150 100 Mechanical Chemical 125

The fee structure for the college (in Rs.) is shown in the table below.

Department Fees charged for major course per annum

Fees charged for minor course per annum.

CSE 50000 10000 Electrical 60000 15000 Mechanical 75000 20000 Chemical 65000 18000

39. The number of students who have opted mechanical as their major is same as the number of students who have opted for chemical as their major. Find the percentage collection of the college fees through minor courses. (1) 15.71 (2) 29.46 (3) 21.85 (4) 32.16










40. The number of students from various departments who have taken CSE as their minors were observed to be positive multiples of 5 and each of them is less than 50. The college accountant wrote them down as 5k, 5m and 5n for Electrical, Mechanical and Chemical respectively. He also observed that (m – n) 3 = k. Find the number of students from chemical department who opted for CSE as their minor. (1) 25 (2) 35 (3) 40 (4) 45










41. The college committee decides that it needs to implement some changes in the fees structure of the college. Further it has taken a decision that sum of fees for majors and minors for each of the department will remain the same. The statements below describe the changes. 1. The fees for students who have CSE as major is increased by 5%. 2. The fees for students with Electrical as minor in decreased by 10%. 3. The fees for students with Mechanical as major is decreased by 10%. 4. The fees for students in chemical is unchanged. Find the percentage change in the total fees generated by the College. (1) 28% (2) 32% (3) 36% (4) Cannot be determined


Five managers, P, Q, R, S and T are evaluated by 3 Juniors, 3 Peers and 1 senior for four qualities, A, B, C and D and are given grades 1, 2, 3 or 4. Weightages given to a grade given by a senior, a peer and a junior are 4, 2 and 1 respectively.

In the graph given below, each manager’s scores are given for all the four qualities. Score of a particular quality for a particular manager is the sum of all grades (given by the seven assessors) multiplied by their respective weights.

20 22

44

30

20

34 38

32

26

40

30

40 40

50 48

16 18

36

45

36

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

P Q R S T

A B C D

42. The number of manager(s) who got same score by all his evaluators in atleast one quality is (1) Atleast one (2) Atmost one (3) Exactly one (4) Exactly two


Five managers, P, Q, R, S and T are evaluated by 3 Juniors, 3 Peers and 1 senior for four qualities, A, B, C and D and are given grades 1, 2, 3 or 4. Weightages given to a grade given by a senior, a peer and a junior are 4, 2 and 1 respectively.

In the graph given below, each manager’s scores are given for all the four qualities. Score of a particular quality for a particular manager is the sum of all grades (given by the seven assessors) multiplied by their respective weights.

20 22

44

30

20

34 38

32

26

40

30

40 40

50 48

16 18

36

45

36

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

P Q R S T

A B C D

43. If senior’s grades are withdrawn from the scores (and it is known that he was very much biased towards P, he has given maximum possible grades to him), what is P’s new score? (1) 72 (2) 120 (3) 77 (4) None of these

DIRECTIONS: Refer to the data below and answer the question that follows.

Mumbai 90° Kolkata

55°

Chennai 70°

Delhi 60°

Rest of India TCS 16%

Siemens 6% Other

12%

Infosys 19%

Wipro 24%

PCS 21%

Silverline 2%

Figure (1) Figure (2)

Number of students getting admissions in engineering colleges in Mumbai (000’s)

0 5

10 15

20 25

30 35

40

199495 199596 199697 199798 199899 19992000

(Academic Year)

Num

ber of students g

etting admission in engineering

colleges in Mum

bai (000’s)

Figure (3)

Fig. (1) shows the proportion of the number of engineering colleges in the 4 major cities and the rest of India in the year ’94 through 2000. Fig. (2) shows the percentage contribution of the job recruitments (recruitments through the colleges) for the various software firms in 1999. Fig. (3) shows the number of students (in thousands) getting admission in engineering colleges in the respective academic years. Note: 1 . The proportion of the number of colleges remains the same in India from the year 199495

through 19992000 with no new colleges built in India in that period. 2 . Total number of jobs available in India for the year 1999 is 52000. 3 . Every year 50% of the jobs in India go to fresh engineers. 4 . Assume all the students pass every year and no new admission is allowed in the middle of

the course (i.e., after the 1st year) and the course is of 4 years.

44. If we assume that all the software firms mentioned, come to the engineering colleges for placements at the end of the third academic year, then in 1999 how many engineering students per college did not get placed in Mumbai where percentage placement then was 40% (assuming that the number of colleges in India is 100)? (1) 380 (2) 420 (3) 280 (4) None of these

45. Which academic year shows a minimum marginal increase in the number of students enrolling for engineering in Mumbai? (Marginal increase is the ratio of difference in the number of students between the 2 years to number of students in the previous year). (1) 199596 (2) 199697 (3) 199899 (4) 199798

46. If one student can have only one job, then which of the following is definitely true? Assume:

Ø that each college in India has equal number of students. Ø that all the software firms came to all the colleges in the 4 major cities only viz., Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi,

Chennai and that they absorb an equal number of students from each of the 4 cities in 1999. (1) Infosys places more Mumbai students then Delhi students. (2) Silverline places the least number of students among all other software firms in India in the year

199495 through 19992000 (3) Percentage of students getting placed in Chennai is greater than Kolkata in 1999. (4) Percentage of students getting placed in Kolkata is greater than Chennai in 1999.

DIRECTIONS: Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Current Ratio Graph

0.71 0.83

0.66 1.04

0.9 0.5

0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1 1.2

1

Com

panies

Current Ratio

F E D C B A

Values in the given pie chart represents respective shares of companies’ current assets.

Total Assets = 500

F, 54° A, 36°

B, 90°

C, 30° D, 60°

E, 90°

Current Assets vs Current Liabilities

0 50 100 150 200

0 20 40 60 80

Total Assets

Total L

iabilities

Current ratio of a company is defined as the ratio of its current assets to the current liabilities. These current assets and current liabilities are mentioned in the above charts. Also, current ratios of the companies are given in the bar diagram.

47. What is the approximate average of current liabilities of the companies not shown in one of the graphs? (1) 112 (2) 123 (3) 104 (4) 99

48. Which company has the highest amount of current liabilities? (1) F (2) E (3) A (4) B

49. Which of the following is true? (1) The company with highest current liabilities has the highest current ratio. (2) The company with highest current liabilities has the lowest current ratio. (3) The company with lowest current liabilities has the highest current ratio. (4) The company with lowest current liabilities has the lowest current ratio.

50. Companies having current ratio in the range 0.6 to 0.9 (both inclusive) are considered to be good for investment. What is the highest current liability among the companies not considered to be good for investment? (1) 80 (2) 150 (3) 150.6 (4) 139

DIRECTIONS: Use the information given below to solve the question that follows.

S 1

S 2

S 5 S 4

S 6

S 3

1/0 0/0

0/0

1/1 0/0

0/0 1/1

1/0

0/0

1/0

0/0

0/0

Shown above is a state machine, with initial state S 1 . Inputs are given to this machine in the form of 0’s and 1’s sequentially. The machine goes to a new state and generates output bit after each 0 or 1 is fed as input according to the information given on the transition arrows on each state in the form of input/output.

For eg. if the machine is on state S 5 and it receives an input 1 it will jump to state S 1 producing 1 as output.

51. If the machine is fed as input stream 011101000, starting from the leftmost digit and initial state S 1 , what will be the final state and output sequence? (1) S 1 ,001100000 (2) S 2 ,001000000 (3) S 3 ,010010000 (4) S 4 ,000010100


S 1

S 2

S 5 S 4

S 6

S 3

1/0 0/0

0/0

1/1 0/0

0/0 1/1

1/0

0/0

1/0

0/0

0/0



52. Any state in the machine that can be reached by only one unique input sequence, starting from initial state S 1 is called a pristine state. How many pristine states are there in the given machine? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) None (4) 3


S 1

S 2

S 5 S 4

S 6

S 3

1/0 0/0

0/0

1/1 0/0

0/0 1/1

1/0

0/0

1/0

0/0

0/0



53. Such machines are generally used to detect input sequences. If at the end of a particular sequence, the output is 1, and the rest of the output sequence generated is all 0’s, then that particular input sequence is said to be detected. Which of the following sequences cannot be detected by this machine? (1) 1101 (2) 1011 (3) 011 (4) 0100


S 1

S 2

S 5 S 4

S 6

S 3

1/0 0/0

0/0

1/1 0/0

0/0 1/1

1/0

0/0

1/0

0/0

0/0



54. There is only one input bit (with value 1). Once that input bit is fed to any one of the states, the corresponding output received is fed to the next state and so on. Which of the following states, fed with the initial input, are revisited after a loop is completed i.e. If suppose S 2 is fed with 1, it goes to S 5 and output 0. This output 0 is fed to S 6 which brings it back to S2. Thus S 2 is revisited. Which of the following states behaves like S 2 ? (There need not be only 2 steps before the state is revisited.) (1) S 1 (2) S 3 (3) S 4 (4) S 5


Distance traveled by Nikhil, Sumit, Vivek, Abhishek, Prasad (one of them lives in sector 5) to reach home from their school is 20, 30, 60, 70, 80 Kms (not necessarily in order). The average speed of their vehicles are 20, 30, 35, 40, 45 Kmph (not necessarily in order). Following facts are also known about them:

1. Nikhil drove 80 Km to his place. 2. The student who covered 60 Km went at 40 Kmph, it wasn’t Vivek, who lives in sector7. 3. It took two of the friends 40 minutes each to reach their homes. Neither Sumit nor the driver to

sector4 was one of them. 4. Prasad took 2 hours to reach sector–11. 5. The driver to sector8 covered 30 Km.

55. Who took maximum time to reach home from school? (1) Prasad (2) Abhishek (3) Nikhil (4) Vivek





56. The student living in sector–8 drove with the speed (1) 45 Kmph (2) 35 Kmph (3) 30 Kmph (4) 20 Kmph





57. Vivek took .... to reach home. (1) 4 hrs. (2) 50 mins. (3) 40 mins. (4) 1 hr. 20 mins.





58. Suppose Sumit got stuck in traffic and it took him extra 30 mins to reach home, who is the other student reaching home in exactly same time? (1) Prasad (2) Nikhil (3) Vivek (4) Abhishek





59. Who lives in sector–5? (1) Nikhil (2) Sumit (3) Vivek (4) Can’t be determined

DIRECTIONS: The question has a blank that is to be filled by the most appropriate option among the given set of options.

60. A series of unusual ads in the Pakistani media advising people how to handle missing or stray radioactive material should they come across it has raised hackles in the West and ..... a debate about the country's wellchronicled reputation for nuclear irresponsibility and adventurism. (1) revived (2) arose (3) exaggerated (4) embellished


61. Not so long ago, men and women suffered depression silently. But this appears to be changing, for instead of getting bogged down by low moods, people are ..... them so as to continue with their demanding, stressladen lives. The result – a spurt in the sale of antidepressant drugs. (1) rejuvenating (2) fearing (3) abandoning (4) combating


In a cricket tournament the lowest runs scored by the 11 players are all prime numbers less than 55. The average of their lowest run scored is also amongst these prime numbers. No two player has scored same lowest runs or same as the average of these numbers.

62. The maximum number amongst the least runs scored by players is (1) 41 (2) 43 (3) 47 (4) None of these


In a cricket tournament the lowest runs scored by the 11 players are all prime numbers less than 55. The average of their lowest run scored is also amongst these prime numbers. No two player has scored same lowest runs or same as the average of these numbers.

63. How many players have scored more than the average number of runs? (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7


All North – South streets are numbered consecutively, starting at the westernmost street as 1 st street . All evennumbered streets are oneway going towards North. All oddnumbered streets are oneway going towards South. All East – West streets are named by consecutive letters of the alphabet, starting at the northernmost street as ‘A’ street. ‘M’ street is oneway going East. ‘N’ street is a twoway street. ‘O’ street is oneway going West. There are traffic signals at the intersection of 10 th and ‘O’, 11 th and ‘O’ and 12 th and ‘N’. Drivers always obey the traffic laws.

64. A driver who is travelling towards West on an East – West street could not be at the intersection of (1) 10 th and ‘O’ (2) 11 th and ‘M’ (3) 11 th and ‘N’ (4) 11 th and ‘O’



65. A driver travelling towards West on an East – West street may make a right turn at any of the following intersections EXCEPT (1) 10 th and ‘N’ (2) 10 th and ‘O’ (3) 11 th and ‘O’ (4) 12 th and ‘N’



66. If a driver is at the intersection of 12 th and ‘O’ and wants go to 10 th and ‘M’ and pass through only one intersection with a traffic signal, then which of the following routes he/she can take (1) North on 12 th and West on ‘M’. (2) North on 12 th , West on ‘N’, and North on 10 th . (3) North on 12 th , West on ‘N’, North on 11 th and West on ‘M’. (4) West on ‘O’, and North on 10 th .

DIRECTIONS: The passage given below is followed by a question. Choose the best answer.

PASSAGE

There is no Story. That a sequence of actions may seem to have a “beginning,” a “middle,” and an “end” is at best a banal consequence of the inevitable dissipation of energy. For nothing lasts forever and events simply occur along the way.

A mind numbed by the expectations of narrative will not react to things as they are, but only in a manner that supports the current fable in which we embalm ourselves. The desire to see some greater causal logic in our experience of a random world generates a mental haze of rationalizing explanations. Dulled by circuses (yet without bread), we remain stupefied by the noise of corporate propaganda we misunderstand as culture.

The Earth is not our supportive mother, an unelected politician is not our protective father, but the collective social narrative exults in a return to childhood. Our desperate hopes drag us toward an irreparably poisoned world, fascism triumphant. There is no greater design, only the instinctive chaos driven by anger, fear and greed.

Into this void, I insert my pointless actions: the production of artifacts, evidence that I existed at some moment in the flow of time. Images and sounds are constructed and presented. Forms drift and fade, diagonals converge, the final alarm is ringing. But there is no Story.

67. The author of the passage is probably a/an (1) Painter (2) Politician (3) Movie Director (4) Executioner


PASSAGE





68. By ‘the fable in which we embalm ourselves’, the author means (1) The twisted corporate propaganda, dubbed as culture. (2) A set of preconceived notions that stunt the way we look at the world around us. (3) The mental haze of rationalizing explanations. (4) The continuous flow of time.


PASSAGE





69. The ‘void’ the author refers to in the last paragraph is (1) The perpetual din of corporate propaganda. (2) A numb mind, hungry for a narrative. (3) The story that is not there. (4) The chaotic, poisoned world, driven by fear, anger and greed.


PASSAGE





70. The tone of the passage is (1) Ironical (2) Argumentative (3) Satirical (4) Pitying

DIRECTIONS: The passage given below is followed by a question. Choose the best answer to the question.

PASSAGE

The multiplication of journals “delivering judgements on all things all day long” has done much to deaden the small stock of individuality in public verdicts. It has done much to make vulgar ways of looking at things and vulgar ways of speaking them stronger and stronger, by formulation and repeating and stereo typing them incessantly from morning until afternoon and from year ’s end to year’s end. For a newspaper must live, and to live it must please, and its conductors suppose, perhaps not altogether rightly, that it can only please by being very cheerful towards prejudices, very chilly to general theories, loftily disdainful to the man of principle. Their one cry to an advocate of improvement is some sagacious silliness about recognising the limits of the practicable in politics and seeing the necessity of adapting theories to facts. As if the fact taking a broader and wiser view that the common crowd disqualifies a man from knowing what the view of the common crowd happens to be, and from estimating it at the proper value of practical purposes. Then there is the newspaper press that huge engine for keeping discussion on low level and making the political test final. To take off the taxes on knowledge was to place a heavy tax on broad and independent opinion. Why are the men who despair of improvement to be the only persons endowed with the gift of discerning the practicable? It is, however, only too easy to understand how a journal, existing for a day, should limit its view to the possibilities of the day, and how being most closely affected by the particular it should coldly turn its back upon all that is general, and it is easy, too, to understand the reaction of this intellectual timorousness upon the minds of ordinary readers who have too little natural force and too little cultivation to be able to resist the narrowing and deadly effect of the daily iteration of shortsighted common places.

71. The author’s tone towards the newspapers of today can best be described as (1) objective (2) recriminatory (3) detached (4) lamenting


PASSAGE

The multiplication of journals “delivering judgements on all things all day long” has done much to deaden the small stock of individuality in public verdicts. It has done much to make vulgar ways of looking at things and vulgar ways of speaking them stronger and stronger, by formulation and repeating and stereotyping them incessantly from morning until afternoon and from year’s end to year’s end. For a newspaper must live, and to live it must please, and its conductors suppose, perhaps not altogether rightly, that it can only please by being very cheerful towards prejudices, very chilly to general theories, loftily disdainful to the man of principle. Their one cry to an advocate of improvement is some sagacious silliness about recognising the limits of the practicable in politics and seeing the necessity of adapting theories to facts. As if the fact taking a broader and wiser view that the common crowd disqualifies a man from knowing what the view of the common crowd happens to be, and from estimating it at the proper value of practical purposes. Then there is the newspaper press that huge engine for keeping discussion on low level and making the political test final. To take off the taxes on knowledge was to place a heavy tax on broad and independent opinion. Why are the men who despair of improvement to be the only persons endowed with the gift of discerning the practicable? It is, however, only too easy to understand how a journal, existing for a day, should limit its view to the possibilities of the day, and how being most closely affected by the particular it should coldly turn its back upon all that is general, and it is easy, too, to understand the reaction of this intellectual timorousness upon the minds of ordinary readers who have too little natural force and too little cultivation to be able to resist the narrowing and deadly effect of the daily iteration of shortsighted common places.

72. By the term ‘sagacious silliness’ the author refers to (1) worldywise, but shortsighted thinking. (2) the practice of adapting facts to theories. (3) politically feasible line of thinking. (4) stereotyped thinking habits.


PASSAGE


73. The author seems to be (1) exhorting the platitudinous accounting of newspaper reporting. (2) condemning the process of blunting mass individuality by repetition of hackeneyed perceptions. (3) denouncing the newspapers for propagating banal beliefs in common people just to ingratiate

themselves. (4) decrying the askewed newspaper reporting that demoralises the independent thinking process to

commonplace banalities.


PASSAGE


74. In the passage, according to the author’s theory, the effect of newspapers has been to (1) estimate views at the proper value. (2) the benefit of politics. (3) reduce individuality in public opinion. (4) adapt facts to theories.


PASSAGE

Conscience is the light of the Soul that burns within the chambers of our psychological heart. It is as real as life is. It raises the voice in protest whenever anything is thought of or done contrary to the righteousness. Conscience is a form of truth that has been transferred through our genetic stock in the form of the knowledge of our own acts and feelings as right or wrong.

Conscience is also a great ledger where our offences are booked and registered. It is a terrible witness. It threatens, promises, rewards, and punishes, keeping all under its control. If conscience stings once, it is an admonition, if twice, it is a condemnation. Cowardice asks, “Is it safe?” Greed asks, “Is there any gain in it?” Vanity asks, “Can I become great?” Lust asks, “Is there pleasure in it?” But conscience asks, “Is it right?” Why have we become deaf to its voice? Insensitive to its pricks? Callous to its criticism? The answer is corruption.

Corruption is an assault on consciousness. The habit of taking bribes and seeking favours has become very common. People holding important positions have developed inconsiderateness to their conscience. They pretend everything is all right. Do they not have an idea of the law of action and reaction? Have they forgotten how impressions of the subconscious mind and their force work? If you take bribes, your thoughts and actions are registered in the subconscious mind. Will you not be carrying forward your dishonesty to your next generations causing them great suffering? It is a painful reality that corruption has become a way of life affecting all aspects of living, personal as well as social. It is not merely the pecuniary corruption but other forms as well. Immoral ways of people holding high positions and handling power have taken away guilt from the minds of lesser mortals. What a dangerous situation! A great civilisation is endangered.

A virtuous man alone can use the instrument of conscience. He alone can hear the inner voice of the soul clearly. In a wicked man this faculty is dead. The sensitive nature of his conscience has been destroyed by sin or corruption. Hence he is unable to discriminate right from wrong. Those who are leading organisations, business enterprises, institutions and governments, how can they be corrupt? Is it not wise to have a clean conscience and enjoy freedom from anxiety and all kinds of worries? If you do wrong actions and sinful deeds and treat them lightly today, you will not hesitate to perform serious crimes tomorrow. If you allow one sin to enter and dwell in your conscience, you pave the way for the entry of a thousand sins. Your conscience will become blunt and lose its sensitivity. The habit of doing evil deeds will pervade the whole body like the poison of a scorpion.

Do you know when you are corrupt, your children who are indeed enjoying the fruits of your corruption are mocking at you? After all they are well informed and knowledgeable. Your parental mask is too thin to hide the contempt of your children. You are no more the role model of your own children. Is this disgrace not enough? Our society is fast reaching a stage where the immunity of conscience of people holding positions of consequence is challenged by the corruption, as HIV would do to the body of an AIDS patient. The corruption has seeped into every stream of our lifeblood. Can we save ourselves as a civilization?

Spiritual leaders have evolved morals, codes, and teachings of righteousness. Beautiful hymns, songs and prayers have been written and composed. But the annihilation of conscience by corruption appears frightening. Religion has not been effective in evoking conscience. Who then will? Can our conscience be redeemed?

75. According to the given passage, conscience is (1) a record which validates offences done and sins committed. (2) an illumination in the soul. (3) a symbolism of truth. (4) All of the above.

76. The author has directly raised which of the following questions in the passage? (1) Are people unaware of the law of action and reaction? (2) Are people unaware that their own flesh and blood may be enjoying the fruits of sinning behind their

back? (3) Can taking a dip into the holy water cure the conscience? (4) Has the sensitive nature of man’s conscience been destroyed by sin or corruption?

77. The tone of the passage is (1) Censuring (2) Moralizing (3) Discriminatory (4) Religious

78. Which of the following can be the most likely source for the above passage? (1) Edited text of a speech by one of the former presidents of India. (2) A chapter of a book on literature. (3) A chapter of a book on sociology. (4) A foreword given by an editor of a leading magazine.

DIRECTIONS: Choose the option that best completes the paragraph.

79. Russia is a strong, sovereign and prosperous country, surrounded by enemies and traitors who are bent on undermining its geopolitical power. Upstarts such as Estonia and Poland are trying to spoil Russia’s far more important relationships with proper European countries, such as Germany or France. The freshly baked European Union (EU) members act on the instructions of America, a hypocritical and arrogant dictator of the world order, which pretends to be a democracy but in fact is closer to the Third Reich. (1) This, in short and perhaps a bit exaggerated, is the view of Europe to be, if the unchecked rise of

American hegemony continues. (2) This, in short and perhaps a bit exaggerated, is the view of Europe, as it stands since the end of the

Cold war. (3) This, in short and perhaps a bit exaggerated, is the view of Europe, seen from telescopes across the

Atlantic, by the warmonger called the US of A. (4) This, in short and perhaps a bit exaggerated, is the view of Europe, seen from the halls of power of

Russia, and is shared by many Russians.

DIRECTIONS: Choose the option that best completes the paragraph.

80. Each year, the Earth travels a tremendous distance in its orbit around the sun, at a speed of around 30 km/second or over 100,000 km per hour. The sun itself is traveling about the galactic center at even greater speeds, and there are other motions at higher levels of the structure of the universe. Since the Earth is in motion, it was expected that the flow of aether across the Earth should produce a detectable “aether wind.” Although it would be possible, in theory, for the Earth’s motion to match that of the aether at one moment in time, it was not possible for the Earth to remain at rest with respect to the aether at all times (1) because earth is always in relative motion with the aether. (2) because of the variation in both the direction and the speed of the motion. (3) because of the collective gravitational effects of both the sun and the moon. (4) because, as Einstein said, ‘nothing is at absolute rest’.

DIRECTIONS: The question has a pair of two words separated by a colon. From the given options (all the options also have a pair of two words), choose the one that exhibits a relationship similar to the give question pair.

81. Soothsayer : Sibyl (1) Machiavellian : Arriviste (2) Oracular : Clairvoyant (3) Sequester : Envision (4) Papal : Acolyte

DIRECTIONS: The question consists of three statements A, Band C, each of which has a word underlined. Answer the question using the following instructions.

Choose (1) if only statements A and B correctly use the underlined words and not statement C. Choose (2) if only statements B and C correctly use the underlined words and not statement A. Choose (3) if only statements C and A correctly use the underlined words and not statement B. Choose (4) if all the statements A, B and C correctly use the underlined words.

82. A. It’s a curious phenomenon that at a time when Christianity continues its steady decline in this country, religion has reemerged as a central inspiration of political rhetoric not as the flashinthepan aberration of one individual but now well established as a convention of the centre ground, acknowledged by the Cameroons as much as by Labour.

B. This strange afterlife of religious belief must be pretty gratifying to secularists and humanists. C. It’s even more evident on the other side of the Atlantic, where almost all serious contenders for

political office have to go through a process of personal confession of faith which must prompt the likes of Richard Dawkins to choke over their breakfast.

DIRECTIONS: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question that follows it.

83. Sixty years ago, territorial separation was a pre requisite for Independence. Still, with the passage of time, the sorrows of partition have not been institutionalised as a national project in hate. For the Indian Muslim, home is never elsewhere. Pakistan is a bad memory, and a painful one, but the Indian Muslim is not in bad company. Which one of the following most substantially strengthens the argument above? (1) Independence of a nation is defined by clear territorial demarcation. (2) Partition of nation is accompanied by bloodshed and hatred. (3) Indian Muslims have realised that they have been lucky to be part of India after independence. (4) The partition has not been used by the state to invoke hatred in the minds of people.

DIRECTIONS: The following question has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

84. A Democrat President will withdraw from Iraq faster than a Republican one. But the US public demands muscu larity, and no US President wants to be called a wimp. The challenge of Islamic militancy will continue, and will invite muscular US responses. The saving grace is that, after Iraq, the US public has lost its appetite for adven tures that entail substantial casualties. ..... . (1) Therefore, they plan to withdraw the troops by 2009. (2) The main reason for US avoiding such encounters in the future is that it has now lost the support of EU. (3) So, future Presidents will avoid invasions and stick to bombing targets from high in the sky. (4) However, things won't change, as the US president will always be prone to prove their superpower status in

the world.

DIRECTIONS: Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences.

85. (A) Marvin with his beautiful wife, have come for the screening of his debut movie. (B) The entire star cast and guests gave him a standing ovation. (C) The handling of a sensitive issue by a young director impressed everyone. (D) Marvin hopes to continue directing on subjects close to his heart. (1) A only (2) A and C (3) B and D (4) C only


86. We inhabit a carcrazy world. In the increasingly vain hope of easing traffic, infrastructure development today has come to mean building ever more roads. We can't seem to have enough of animated, statisticladen debates and discourses on emissions, biofuels, green cars, hybrids, congestion charges, and roadpricing. But while our newfound recourse to "payasyoudrive" schemes and road tolls might appear reassuring, the real breakthrough in persuading people to part with the car is ..... . (1) unattainable (2) at large (3) elusive (4) perplexing

DIRECTIONS: Sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are four numbered words or sets of words. Choose the word or set of words that best fits each blank.

87. Madhavi was a quiet .... at office, but at conferences she was absolutely .... , charming everyone with her witty remarks. (1) crusader, brilliant (2) drudge, scintillating (3) paragon, drab (4) doyen, energetic

DIRECTIONS: In the following question, the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways , numbered 1 to 4. Choose the opt ion in which the usage of the word i s INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.

88. INDISCRETION

1 This committee may want to exercise its indiscretion to look into those charges. 2 He admitted his past indiscretions to investigators. 3 It would be an indiscretion to leave her winter coat behind. 4 It would have been an indiscretion just to drive on.


89. Not so long ago, men and women suffered depression silently. But this appears to be changing, for instead of getting bogged down by low moods, people are ..... them so as to continue with their demanding, stressladen lives. The result – a spurt in the sale of antidepressant drugs. (1) rejuvenating (2) fearing (3) abandoning (4) combating

DIRECTIONS: Read each of the following short passages given below and answer the question that follows each passage.

90. The ideal student would rather question his own ability to understand than think the teacher is withholding information. Studentteacher relationship is based on mutual trust and faith. Realising that, the Acharya expects the student to go the extra mile to gain knowledge, to question the pros and cons, and reflect deeply on what is taught. True learning calls for concentration, ability to comprehend and a keen desire to explore the gaps. The pursuit of true knowledge begins with the awareness of one's ignorance and the desire to dispel this ignorance. Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the above argument? (1) The questionanswer pattern is a method where the gaps in information and interpretation are meant

to prod the learner into further inquiry. (2) The relationship between a student and teacher is based on the student's acceptance of what the

teacher says and a questioning of the student's ability to understand. (3) Only when one delves deeper into the information one has received and tries to analyse and reflect,

is one able to research and imbibe the knowledge given to him. (4) It is incorrect to assume that whatever one has been told is correct one must accept it only after

questioning the provider of the information and analysing it.

DIRECTIONS: Sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are four numbered words or sets of words. Choose the word or set of words that best fits each blank.

91. Cryogenic energy storage has the advantage of being suitable in any ....., regardless of geography or geology, factors that may ..... both underground gas storage and pumped hydroelectric storage. (1) location, limit (2) climate, deter (3) site, forebode (4) proportion, typify

DIRECTIONS: The sentences given in the question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a meaningful paragraph.

92. (A) It just made no sense. (B) The problem was that they still didn’t have any idea how old any of these bones were. (C) The upshot is that by the turn of the twentieth century, paleontologists had literally tons of old bones

to pick over. (D) If Earth were really only twenty million years old or so, as the great Lord Kelvin insisted, then whole

orders of ancient creatures must have come into being and gone out again practically in the same geological instant.

(E) Worse, the agreed ages for the Earth couldn’t comfortably support the numbers of eons and ages and epochs that the past obviously contained. (1) CBEDA (2) ADBEC (3) CDBAE (4) DACEB

DIRECTIONS: Read the following short passage and answer the question that follows.

93. Some girls studying in NM college live in Indira hostel; others live in Chetana hostel. No girl from Indira hostel can ride a motorbike. All girls from Chetana hostel can ride motorbikes. Every girl who is not from Indira hostel can drive a car. Assume that each one of the above statements is true. Which of the following must be true, if it is also true that no girl from Indira hostel drives cars? (1) The only girls who can ride motorbikes are cardriving Chetanites. (2) All girls from Chetana hostel are cardrivers. (3) All car drivers can ride motorbikes. (4) Any girl who does not belong to Chetana hostel belongs to Indira hostel.

DIRECTIONS: In the following question, there are five sentences/paragraphs. The sentence/ paragraph labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option.

94. (A) What those who speak of silent discourse have in mind is, no doubt, the fact that interlaced with our thinking of or about things is a great deal of imaging of linguistic entities.

(B) To image a linguistic sequence is not to have it in a special sort of placethe mind nor is it to have a special sort of linguistic sequence.

(C) To image is to exemplify a certain sort of thinking or intentional state, and a sort, which does have interesting relationships with other kinds of thinking.

(D) This is especially true of academics or intellectuals in general, because of their great concern with expression of thought. Probably an adequate phenomenology of thinking would exhibit great contrast between them and other classes of persons precisely at the relation between thinking and degree of activity in imaging linguistic entities and events.

(E) But imaging a word is not using a word, any more than imaging a horse is using a horse. Moreover, imaging a word, phrase, or sentence is not producing or perceiving a word, phrase, or sentence any more than imaging a horse is producing or perceivingor otherwise 'having'a horse. (1) EDBC (2) BCDE (3) DEBC (4) DBEC

DIRECTIONS: Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences. Check grammar, usage, mechanics, and redundancy, punctuation, spelling and style elements.

95. A. Unlike the Puritan ethic, which extols hard work as the supreme virtue, the doctrines of many modern psychologists focus on the goals of inner peace and selfdiscovery.

B. The customer will not be responsible for transactions made with lost or stolen credit cards after replacement cards have been issued.

C. As genetics researchers achieve greater success in their attempt to map the exact locations and functions of human genes, the close connection between genes and birth defects has become increasingly clear.

D. At Agincourt, Charles D’Albret’s battle plan was thwarted as a direct result of the irrepressible desire the French nobility had to charge headlong into any enemy offering a challenge. (1) A, B and C only (2) C and D only (3) A and B only (4) All of the above

DIRECTIONS: The following question test your knowledge of grammar, usage, word choice, and idiom. If there is an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct.

96. Originally a protest on conventional painting, the PreRaphaelite movement exerted great influence on (1) (2) (3)

the art of its time. (4)


97. (A) The professor who invoked physics is surrounded constantly with things and events for which no physical explanation yet exists, nor even the beginnings of one.

(B) A most obvious case is the existence of the physical universe itself, as well as of life and human consciousness.

(C) When confronted with the de facto inability of physics in this respect, the academically sanctified dodge is to invoke chance, along with huge spans of time, for everything to "work," and further, to invoke the promise of what science (really, physics) supposedly will be able to explain in the future as it continues to make progress.

(D) But chance is not something that can produce or explain anything. Rather, it is invoked precisely at the point where there is no known explanation or cause.

(E) Just look at the physics texts and see. (1) EBCD (2) CDEB (3) ECDB (4) CEDB


98. (A) Rudolf Carnap and others attempted to center the basic logical concepts (logical form, logical relations, logical laws) on the physical (spatial) structure and order of written ‘sentences’ in a 'formalized' language.

(B) It was between the sentence as a physical entity and its meaning. (C) Indeed, the meaning is just the unit of information, and this was now totally set aside by the radically

different sense of "form" that was introduced. (D) “Formal rules” were now explicitly understood as rules which do not refer to meaning. (E) The important contrast now was not between the general character of a proposition (unit of

information) and what the proposition was specifically about. (1) ECDB (2) EBCD (3) CDEB (4) BCED

DIRECTIONS: The following question test your knowledge of grammar, usage, word choice, and idiom. If there is an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct.

99. At the music recital, Alexandra enjoyed listening to her friend Mohammed's insightful interpretation, (1)

which she thought was more sophisticated than the other performers. (2) (3) (4)

DIRECTIONS: Read the information given in the paragraph and answer the following question.

100.Weight loss programs that guarantee results mislead their customers. No program can ensure that someone who follows it will lose weight. These programs prey upon unhappy and insecure people who are often driven more by emotion than by reason. Moreover, many people who lose weight while on a program eventually regain the weight within a year. So while the programs’ claims may be true for a short period, customers will be disappointed in the long run. The two highlighted portions play which of the following roles? (1) The first is a generalization; the second is a consequence of that generalization. (2) The first is the author ’s position; the second is a consideration in support of that position. (3) The first is an opinion under examination; the second is evidence weighing against that opinion. (4) The first is an assertion that the author questions; the second is evidence in support of that assertion.

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