dev ped july exam corrected

7/31/2019 Dev Ped July Exam Corrected

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DEVELOPMENTAL AND PREVENTIVE PEDIATRICS EXAM QUESTIONS (SET B)

DEPARTMENT OF PEDIATRICS

NAME: _____________________________________________________ YEAR

LEVEL:____________________________

DATE:_____________________________ SCORE:________________________________

INSTRUCTIONS: PLEASE CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER. YOU MAY WRITE ON THE TEST

QUESTIONNAIRE BUT THE FINAL ANSWER IS TO BE WRITTEN ON THE ANSWER SHEET WITHOUT

ANY ERASURES. THIS EXAM IS TO BE TAKEN WITHIN 45 MINUTES ONLY. GOOD LUCK!

1. Which of the following parental concern is considered significant and merits an evaluation?a. “My 11 month old baby has no teeth

b. “My 4-year-old is constantly touching his genitalia.”c. “My 2½ yr. old is isn’t toilet trained.”d. “My 12 week old infant isn’t smiling when I smile at him.”

2. The optimal clinical practice for monitoring a child’s development is:a. developmental screeningb. developmental surveillancec. developmental assessmentd. standardized developmental tests ( e.g. Denver)

3. What are the three core behavioral characteristics that characterize Attention Defici

Hyperactivity Disorder?a. Hyperactivity, Inattention, Oppositionalityb. Inattention, Hyperactivity, Impulsivityc. Impulsivity, Poor Social Skills, Inattentiond. Hyperactivity, Inattention, Repetitive Behavior

4. An infant has 4 teeth, sits alone, pick up small objects with an inferior pincer grasp, and hasdeveloped object constancy. If he is developmentally normal, this infant is:

a. 7 months oldb. 12 months oldc. 15 months oldd. 9 months old

5. A normal infant may cry for up to 3 hr/day during the developmental peak time of this

behaviour. This peak is typically at age:

a. 2 wks

b. 4 wks

c. 6 mos

d. 6 wks



6. The best feeding protocol for a temperamentally irregular infant is:

a. A fixed schedule

b. One based on the parent’s schedule

c. Every 1-2 hr

d. One based on demand

7. Object permanence is not present at age 2 mo. The response to a ball dropped in front of

the child is:

a. Staring momentarily at the spot the ball was dropped from

b. Eyes lowering as the ball descends

c. Crying when the ball hits the ground

d. Smiling at the game of hide and seek

e. None of the above

8. The probable age of a developmentally normal child who is just able to sit without support,

can transfer objects from hand to hand, and speaks in a monosyllabic babble is:

a. 3 mos

b. 4 mos

c. 9 mos

d. 6 mos

e. 11 mos

9. After a certain age, spontaneous change in handedness should lead to the suspicion of a

central nervous system lesion. Handedness is usually determined by age:

a. 2-4 mos

b. 6-12 mos

c. 15-18 mos

d. 20-24 mos

e. 36-48 mos



10.The best approach for parents to help a preschool child overcome monster fear is to:

a. Rationalize that monsters do not exist

b. Read books that do not have monsters in them

c. Have the paediatrician explain that monsters are make-believe

d. Use “great power” like monster spray to keep monsters away

e. None of the above

11.A mother brings her 6 ½-mo-old circumcised boy to you for a “sick” visit. You saw the child 2

wks previously for health maintenance, including a DTP immunization, and the child

appeared well. The mother’s complaint is that the baby is waking up every night and is fussy

during the day, especially when she leaves him. The child’s history is otherwise normal, and

physical examination reveals no problems. The most appropriate approach to management

is to:

a. Perform urinalysis and obtain a complete blood count to rule out urinary tract

infection

b. Request that the mother feed the infant more

c. Reassure the mother that the behaviour is normal and will pass in time

d. Reassure the mother that the behaviour will pass because it is a reaction to the DPT

shot

12.All of the following statements regarding a child’s temperament are true EXCEPT:

a. Temperament is absolute and stable throughout the life span

b. Biology influences temperament

c. It is a pattern of the child’s responses

d. It is relatively resistant to parent’s attempts to modify

e. It helps parents understand the child’s behaviour without guilt

13.The visual acuity of a newborn permits recognition of an object held at a distance of:

a. 1-2 inches

b. 8-12 inches

c. 15-24 inches



d. 24-30 inches

e. 30-36 inches

14.A newborn infant spends about 40 minutes with the mother but then falls asleep and does

not respond to the mother’s voice. Which of the following statements regarding this lack of

activity is true?

a. It is suggestive of sepsis

b. It is suggestive of sedation

c. It is normal

d. It represents a seizure

e. It is due to apnea

15.All of the following statements regarding growth in the first month of life are true EXCEPT:

a. Weight may decrease 10% in the first weekb. Weight should equal or exceed birthweight by 2 weeksc. Once gaining weight, the infant should gain 30 g/dayd. Preterm infants take longer to regain birthweighte. The high fat content of colostrum enhances weight gain in the first week of life

16.The probable age of a child who scribbles, walks alone, speaks one real word, and pretendsto drink from a cup is:

a. 8 mos

b. 13 mosc. 16 mosd. 20 mose. 24 mos

17.The probable age of a child who rolls back to front, has a thumb-finger grasp, self-inhibits to

“no”, and bangs two cubes is:

a. 7-8 mosb. 10-12 mosc. 12-15 mosd. 3-4 mos

e. 15-18 mos

18.The probable age of a child who skips, names four colors, and dresses and undresses is:

a. 15 mos

b. 24 mos

c. 30 mos

d. 18 mos



e. 60 mos

19.Early walking suggests:

a. Preoccupation with objects

b. Advanced social development

c. Advanced language development

d. High-activity type

e. Spasticity

20.Between 2 and 5 years of age, language increases; as a rule, the number of words in a

sentence is:

a. Based on knowledge of numbers

b. Equal to the age of the child in years

c. Independent of the environment

d. Independent of the number of questions asked the child by adults

e. Based on the ABCs

21.All of the following statements regarding language development are true EXCEPT:

A. Deaf children may create their own languageB. The basics for language may be “hard-wired” in the brainC. Language has a minimal role in behaviour regulationD. Delayed language may signify deafnessE. Delayed language may signify mental retardation

22.All of the following are considered habit disorders except:a. Ticsb. Bruxismc. Trichotillomaniad. Stutteringe. Thumb sucking

23.A 26-mo-old boy has a history of poor speech development, tantrum-like rages, and rocking,repetitive, ritualistic behaviour. He attends a daycare but spends most of his time in solitaryplay. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Encephalitisb. Latent slow virus infectionc. Rasmussen diseased. Autisme. Prader-Willi syndrome

24.Additional features of the disease affecting the patient described in the previous questioninclude all of the following EXCEPT:



a. Empathyb. Preoccupation with body partsc. Prevalence of 3/1000-4/1000 populationd. Association with fragile Xe. Visual scanning of the fingers

25.The following are Philippine Pediatric Society Policy Statements on Pediatric BlindnessPrevention and Vision Screening, EXCEPT:

a. Routine eye examination as a screening tool for Retinoblastoma recommends routineeye examination for early detection of leukoria

b. Routine eye examination as a screening tool for Retinoblastoma recommends routineeye examination for early detection of strabismus

c. PPS asserts that proper dietary supplementation, measles immunization, routinepediatric eye evaluation for all patients, and subsequent referral of children at highrisk for blindness

d. Screening should be done within the first three months of life with referral before theage of 6 months

26.The Phil Pediatric Dental Society, Inc. recommends the following:a. Thrice daily use of fluoride-containing toothpaste is recommended as a primary

preventive measureb. Parents/caregivers must ensure that half of the toothbrush is covered with toothpastec. The first dental visit should be done at the time of eruption of the first molarsd. The first dental visit should be no later than 12 months

27.The Phil Society of Newborn Medicine lists the following minimum criteria for dischargingnewborns before 48 hours, EXCEPT:

a. Has urinated and passed at least one stoolb. Must be able to follow-up within the next 48 hoursc. Able to consume at least 1 oz of milk per feedingd. No evidence of significant jaundice in the first 24 hours of life

28.Which of the ff is a cause for worry and considered a RED FLAG in development?a. Hands still fisted by 3 monthsb. Sat independently at 10 monthsc. Was able to stand on one leg by 40 monthsd. Was Able to hold objects by 6-7 months

29.Which of the following is considered a sign of Psychosial Delay?a. Child with initial social smile at 3 monthsb. A child that is in constant motion, but listens when the mother calls his attentionc. An 7 month old infant noted to have no positive reaction when played withd. A child that does not play interactively with other children at 2 years

30.Which of the ff is NOT TRUE regarding Breastmilk storage period ?a. Room temperature 4 hoursb. Refrigerator 8 daysc. Freezer compartment of a 1-door refrigerator 2 weeksd. Deep Freezer with constant temperature 5 months

Matching Type: Match the vaccine with the proper immunization administration/schedule/dose.

Each letter can be used only once.

31. Rotavirus Vaccine a. administered to females 10-18 years of age



32. BCG vaccine b. 1st dose of the vaccine is given at age 12-

15 months

33. MMR vaccine c. minimum age is 6 weeks or at 2 years old

34. Pneumococcal vaccine d. Given subcutaneously

35. Typhoid e. Given subcutaneously or intramuscularly

36. Influenza vaccine f. may be given as early as 2 years of age withrevaccination every 2 to 3 years if there is

continued exposure to the bacteria

37. Human papillomavirus vaccine (HPV) g. 1st dose is given from age 6 weeks to 14

weeks & 6 days

38. Varicella h. dose for less than 12 months is 0.05ml

IDENTIFICATION:

39. What is included in the base of the food pyramid?

40. A 4 year old boy’s anthropometrics were measured and upon computation and plotting of BMI,

his BMI z score was noted at below – 2. What does it signify?

dev ped july exam corrected

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