depression free copy 100 mcqs

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www.pharmaqz.com INTRODUCTION TO MULTIPLE CHOICE MCQS Multiple choice questions each have a number of options for the correct answer, with only one option being right. Different pharmacy exams to be a registered practitioner have varying details and specifics depending on the region where the exam is to be taken. Multiple choice questions is the basis of most of the entrance exams in all fields of study and by looking at the performance the evaluator can understand the level of knowledge of the students in that particular subject or category. This form of evaluation is widely accepted in most of the study field’s .multiple choice questions are generally prepared by qualified specialist after intense preparation. Making the question is as hard as answering .mostly the questions are not based on single textbook or reference. Mcq maker does intense research before come up with the question. The question making is based on multiple reference and the author should specify the reference to the students so that they can go through the relevant textbook Type of questions There are different kinds of multiple choice questions some are simple and others are complex. Simple multiple choice questions have not got more than five options where as in the complex form there would be multiple answers so knowing one answer is not enough to answer the questions.in complex form of MCQS the student needs to know wrong answer also in order to get it correctly How to answer the questions Answering the questions are sometimes very tricky and students need extreme knowledge and some logical thinking about the answer.one of oldest method is to eliminate the possible wrong answer and narrowing the options. While studying or answering students need to aware the importance of current working practice guideline in order to make a judgement. Preparation Try to gather as many examples as you can of old papers and previous examples of MCQs used by the department or school in question in the past.Do not, however, try to memorise hundreds of responses to questions. The factual knowledge you will gain will be superficial and dissociated. It is better to look for the topic areas that recur frequently and ensure that you have a deeper knowledge of these topics. Revise with friends and colleagues. You can share knowledge and techniques. Familiarise yourself with the optical reader cards that you will be using to record your answers in the exam. Examples should be available from the examinations office. You should know what type of MCQ is being set for you. Will there be negative marking? How much time will you have and how many questions will there be? On the day Check that your understanding of the MCQ format is correct. It is negative marking, there are 300 questions, and I have two hours to complete this. Always read the stem for each question carefully. Have you understood the question? Are there any ambiguities? If so ask an invigilator who will alert an examiner. There are usually one or two in the room. Allocate three quarters of the time to answering the questions and a period at the end to checking answers and accuracy

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INTRODUCTION TO MULTIPLE CHOICE MCQS

Multiple choice questions each have a number of options for the correct answer, with only one

option being right. Different pharmacy exams to be a registered practitioner have varying details and

specifics depending on the region where the exam is to be taken.

Multiple choice questions is the basis of most of the entrance exams in all fields of study and by looking at the performance the evaluator can understand the level of knowledge of the students in that particular subject or category. This form of evaluation is widely accepted in most of the study field’s .multiple choice questions are generally prepared by qualified specialist after intense preparation. Making the question is as hard as answering .mostly the questions are not based on single textbook or reference. Mcq maker does intense research before come up with the question. The question making is based on multiple reference and the author should specify the reference to the students so that they can go through the relevant textbook Type of questions There are different kinds of multiple choice questions some are simple and others are complex. Simple multiple choice questions have not got more than five options where as in the complex form there would be multiple answers so knowing one answer is not enough to answer the questions.in complex form of MCQS the student needs to know wrong answer also in order to get it correctly How to answer the questions Answering the questions are sometimes very tricky and students need extreme knowledge and some logical thinking about the answer.one of oldest method is to eliminate the possible wrong answer and narrowing the options. While studying or answering students need to aware the importance of current working practice guideline in order to make a judgement. Preparation Try to gather as many examples as you can of old papers and previous examples of MCQs used by the department or school in question in the past.Do not, however, try to memorise hundreds of responses to questions. The factual knowledge you will gain will be superficial and dissociated. It is better to look for the topic areas that recur frequently and ensure that you have a deeper knowledge of these topics. Revise with friends and colleagues. You can share knowledge and techniques. Familiarise yourself with the optical reader cards that you will be using to record your answers in the exam. Examples should be available from the examinations office. You should know what type of MCQ is being set for you. Will there be negative marking? How much time will you have and how many questions will there be? On the day Check that your understanding of the MCQ format is correct. It is negative marking, there are 300 questions, and I have two hours to complete this. Always read the stem for each question carefully. Have you understood the question? Are there any ambiguities? If so ask an invigilator who will alert an examiner. There are usually one or two in the room. Allocate three quarters of the time to answering the questions and a period at the end to checking answers and accuracy

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PHARMACY REGISTRATION EXAM IN USA

In the United States, there are three exams available to gain license as a pharmacy practitioner. The

FPGEE, or Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Exam, is for international candidates that desire

to practice in the US. There are 250 multiple choice questions to be completed within 5.5 hours. The

NAPLEX, or North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination, is to determine a native candidate’s

knowledge in the practice of pharmacy. It consists of 185 multiple choice questions to be completed

within 4.25 hours. The MPJE, or Multistate Pharmacy Jurisprudence Examination, is concerned with

the laws, regulations, and legal aspect of practicing in particular states and jurisdictions. There are

120 multiple choice questions to be completed within 2.5 hours. (nabp.net).

PHARMACY REGISTRATION EXAMS IN CANADA

In Canada, the PEBC (Pharmacy Examining Board of Canada) is responsible for the Qualifying

Examination that certifies aspiring practitioners. The examination is divided into two parts: the MCQ

(multiple choice questions) and the OSCE (objective structured clinical examination). The MCQ is

taken for two consecutive days, and each day consists of 150 questions within 3.75 hours. (pebc.ca).

PHARMACY REGISTRATION EXAMS IN AUSTRALIA

In Australia, the APC (Australian Pharmacy Council) administers exams to certify competent

practitioners. Foreign candidates will sit for either the KAPS (Knowledge Assessment of

Pharmaceutical Sciences) or the CAOP (Competency Assessment of Overseas Pharmacists). The KAPS

is divided into two multiple choice sections (theory and practice) each consisting of 100 questions

within 2 hours. The CAOP involves 105 multiple choice questions and 1 short-answer question, to be

finished within 3 hours. For Australian natives, the Australian Intern Written Examination must be

taken. It consists of 125 multiple choice questions to be completed within 3 hours.

(pharmacycouncil.org.au).

PHARMACY REGISTRATION EXAMS IN GULF COUNTRIES

In the Persian Gulf, the different countries each have their own regulatory bodies that conduct

exams to license candidates. The most notable of these are the three exams conducted in the United

Arab Emirates, which are the MOH (Ministry of Health) exam, the DHA (Dubai Health Authority), and

the HAAD (Health Authority Abu Dhabi). (www.moh.gov.ae›eServicesUserManuals).

Types of multiple choice questions

There are different sections of multiple choice questions in the pharmacy examination.

Pharmacology involves knowledge of the effects of drugs on the brain and nervous system. This area

is the major percentage of the whole exam. Pharmaceutics and biopharmaceutics involves drug

preparation and drug absorption rates, as dependent on how the drug is administered into the body.

Pharmacy calculations are mathematical questions concerning dosage and potency. They make up a

smaller percentage of the general exam. Clinical pharmacy is a part of the exam that deals with the

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candidate’s understanding of prescription medications, and how they can best be used to optimize

patient’s health and disease prevention.

Tips for preparation of multiple choice questions

In preparation for the multiple choice exam, there are three solid avenues which when combined

together will guarantee success. Review classes: these are preparatory lectures designed by

pharmacy institutes to thoroughly equip candidates for the exam. They cover all areas, and usually

last for a few weeks. Review classes are highly recommended to all candidates. Practice tests and

Revisions: exams from past years provide a great example of what future ones will hold. It is of great

importance to study these practice tests and get acquainted with them. Mock test: this is a test that

resembles the actual one in a similar setting. It is good to go for a mock test before the real exam to

eliminate exam-day nervousness and improve your skills in time-management.

Effective time management in exam

And speaking of time management, it is necessary to allocate a specified amount of time to each section of the exam, since different sections will consume different lengths of time. For example, pharmacology is about 50% of the examination, while other areas like biopharmaceutics and clinical pharmacy take up about 15-20% apiece.

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DEPRESSION Disease conditions (question 100)

1. What are the sign and symptoms observed in patient with more severe symptoms of depression? I. Decline in grooming and hygiene II. Psychomotor retardation III. Mal nutritious development A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

In patients with more severe symptoms, a decline in grooming and hygiene may be observed, as well as a change in weight. Patients may also show the following:

Psychomotor retardation Flattening or loss of reactivity in the patient's affect (ie, emotional expression) Psychomotor agitation or restlessness

2. What are the sign and symptoms observed in patient with more severe symptoms of depression? I. Phobia from water II. Flattening or loss of reactivity in the patient's affect III. Psychomotor agitation or restlessness A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

In patients with more severe symptoms, a decline in grooming and hygiene may be observed, as well as a change in weight. Patients may also show the following:

Psychomotor retardation Flattening or loss of reactivity in the patient's affect (ie, emotional expression) Psychomotor agitation or restlessness

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3. What are the major depressive disorder associated with depression ? I. Depressed mood II. Diminished interest or loss of pleasure in almost all activities III. Significant change in standard of life style A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Among the criteria for a major depressive disorder, at least 5 of the following symptoms have to have been present during the same 2-week period :

Depressed mood: For children and adolescents, this can also be an irritable mood Diminished interest or loss of pleasure in almost all activities (anhedonia)

4. What are the major depressive disorder associated with depression ? I. Significant change in standard of life style II. Significant weight change or appetite disturbance III. Sleep disturbance A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Among the criteria for a major depressive disorder, at least 5 of the following symptoms have to have been present during the same 2-week period :

Significant weight change or appetite disturbance: For children, this can be failure to achieve expected weight gain

Sleep disturbance (insomnia or hypersomnia)

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5. What are the major depressive disorder associated with depression ? I. Psychomotor agitation or retardation II. Significant change in standard of life style III. Fatigue or loss of energy A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Among the criteria for a major depressive disorder, at least 5 of the following symptoms have to have been present during the same 2-week period :

Psychomotor agitation or retardation Fatigue or loss of energy

6. What are the major depressive disorder associated with depression ? I. Feelings of worthlessness II. Diminished ability to think or concentrate; indecisiveness III. Significant change in standard of life style A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Among the criteria for a major depressive disorder, at least 5 of the following symptoms have to have been present during the same 2-week period :

Feelings of worthlessness Diminished ability to think or concentrate; indecisiveness

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7. What are the major depressive disorder associated with depression ? I. Significant change in standard of life style II. Recurrent thoughts of death III. Recurrent suicidal ideation without a specific plan A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Among the criteria for a major depressive disorder, at least 5 of the following symptoms have to have been present during the same 2-week period :

Recurrent thoughts of death Recurrent suicidal ideation without a specific plan, or a suicide attempt or specific plan for

committing suicide

8. Which of the following drugs are used in the pharmacotherapy for treatment of depression ? I. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) II. Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) III. Selective calcium channel blockers A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: B

Pharmacotherapy---Drugs used for treatment of depression include the following: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (ssris) Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (snris)

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9. Which of the following drugs are used in the pharmacotherapy for treatment of depression ? I. Prostaglandin analog II. Atypical antidepressants III. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Pharmacotherapy---Drugs used for treatment of depression include the following: Atypical antidepressants Tricyclic antidepressants (tcas)

10. Which of the following drugs are used in the pharmacotherapy for treatment of depression ? I. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) II. NSAIDS III. St. John's wort ( Hypericum perforatum) A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Pharmacotherapy---Drugs used for treatment of depression include the following: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (maois) St. John's wort ( Hypericum perforatum)

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11. What are the psychotherapeutic treatments for adults with major depressive disorder on the basis of evidence ? I. Interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT) II. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) III. Problem activation A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Psychotherapy----Evidence-based psychotherapeutic treatments for adults with major depressive disorder include the following:

Interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

12. What are the psychotherapeutic treatments for adults with major depressive disorder on the basis of evidence ? I. Mood swings therapy II. Problem-solving therapy (PST) III. Behavioral activation (BA) A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Psychotherapy----Evidence-based psychotherapeutic treatments for adults with major depressive disorder include the following:

Problem-solving therapy (PST) Behavioral activation (BA)/contingency management

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13. What are the psychotherapeutic treatments for children and adolescents with major depressive disorder on the basis of evidence ? I. Problem-solving therapy (PST) II. Behavior therapy (BT) III. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Evidence-based psychotherapeutic treatments for children and adolescents with major depressive disorder include the following:

Interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) Behavior therapy (BT)

14. What are the indication for electroconvulsive therapy which is a highly effective treatment for depression ? I. Need for a rapid antidepressant response II. Less expensive treatment III. Failure of drug therapies A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a highly effective treatment for depression. The indications for ECT include the following:

Need for a rapid antidepressant response Failure of drug therapies

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15. What are the indication for electroconvulsive therapy which is a highly effective treatment for depression ? I. Less expensive treatment II. History of good response to ECT III. Patient preference A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a highly effective treatment for depression. The indications for ECT include the following:

History of good response to ECT Patient preference

16. What are the indication for electroconvulsive therapy which is a highly effective treatment for depression ? I. High risk of suicide II. High risk of medical morbidity and mortality III. Less expensive treatment A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a highly effective treatment for depression. The indications for ECT include the following:

High risk of suicide High risk of medical morbidity and mortality

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17. What are the common features of the depressive disorders ? I. Presence of sad II. Presence of empty, or irritable mood III. Presence of empty stomach A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

The common feature of the depressive disorders is the presence of sad, empty, or irritable mood, accompanied by somatic and cognitive changes that significantly affect the individual’s capacity to function

18. What are the common features of the depressive disorders ? I. Mutational changes II. Somatic and cognitive changes III. Affect the individual’s capacity to function A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

The common feature of the depressive disorders is the presence of sad, empty, or irritable mood, accompanied by somatic and cognitive changes that significantly affect the individual’s capacity to function

19. Which of the following tests can be used to screen for depression and bipolar disorder ? I. Depression screening tests II. Cosyntropin (ACTH) stimulation test III. Liver function tests (LFTs) A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: A

Depression screening tests can be used to screen for depression and bipolar disorder

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20. What is the important factor of pathophysiology underlying the major depressive disorder ? I. Disturbance in central nervous system Somatostatin activity II. Disturbance in central nervous system serotonin (5-HT) activity III. Disturbance in central nervous system Cholinesterase activity A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: B

Clinical and preclinical trials suggest a disturbance in central nervous system serotonin (5-HT) activity as an important factor.

21. Which of the following triggered the seasonal affective disorder which is mediated by alterations in CNS level of 5- HT ? I. Alteration in pulse rate II. Alterations in circadian rhythm III. Alterations in sunlight exposure. A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Studies suggest that seasonal affective disorder is also mediated by alterations in CNS levels of 5-HT and appears to be triggered by alterations in circadian rhythm and sunlight exposure.

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22. Which of the following link the fronto striatal pathways which involve in emotion regulation ? I. The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex II. The cerebellum cortex III. The orbitofrontal cortex A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Vascular lesions may contribute to depression by disrupting the neural networks involved in emotion regulation—in particular, fronto striatal pathways that link the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex, orbitofrontal cortex, anterior cingulate, and dorsal cingulate.[8] Other components of limbic circuitry, in particular the hippocampus and amygdala, have been implicated in depression.

23. Which of the following link the fronto striatal pathways which involve in emotion regulation ? I. The cerebellum cingulate II. The anterior cingulate III. The dorsal cingulate A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Vascular lesions may contribute to depression by disrupting the neural networks involved in emotion regulation—in particular, fronto striatal pathways that link the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex, orbitofrontal cortex, anterior cingulate, and dorsal cingulate.[8] Other components of limbic circuitry, in particular the hippocampus and amygdala, have been implicated in depression.

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24. Where are these serotonergic neurons found which implicated in affective depression disorder? I. The endocrine system II. The dorsal raphe nucleus III. The limbic system A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Serotonergic neurons implicated in affective disorders are found in the dorsal raphe nucleus, the limbic system, and the left prefrontal cortex.

25. Where are these serotonergic neurons found which implicated in affective depression disorder? I. The dorsal raphe nucleus II. The right postfrontal cortex III. The left prefrontal cortex A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Serotonergic neurons implicated in affective disorders are found in the dorsal raphe nucleus, the limbic system, and the left prefrontal cortex.

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26. What are observed in meta-analysis of comparing brain structures in patients with major depression, in healthy controls, and in patients with bipolar disorder ? I. Increased lateral ventricle size II. larger cerebrospinal fluid volume III. Decreased cerebrospinal fluid volume A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

A meta-analysis comparing brain structures in patients with major depression, in healthy controls, and in patients with bipolar disorder demonstrated associations between depression and increased lateral ventricle size, larger cerebrospinal fluid volume, and smaller volumes of the basal ganglia, thalamus, hippocampus, frontal lobe, orbitofrontal cortex, and gyrus rectus. Patients experiencing a depressive episode had smaller hippocampal volume than those in remission.

27. What are observed in meta-analysis of comparing brain structures in patients with major depression, in healthy controls, and in patients with bipolar disorder ? I. Smaller volumes of the basal ganglia II. Larger volumes of the basal ganglia III. Smaller volumes of the basal ganglia, thalamus A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

A meta-analysis comparing brain structures in patients with major depression, in healthy controls, and in patients with bipolar disorder demonstrated associations between depression and increased lateral ventricle size, larger cerebrospinal fluid volume, and smaller volumes of the basal ganglia, thalamus, hippocampus, frontal lobe, orbitofrontal cortex, and gyrus rectus. Patients experiencing a depressive episode had smaller hippocampal volume than those in remission.

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28. What are observed in meta-analysis of comparing brain structures in patients with major depression, in healthy controls, and in patients with bipolar disorder ? I. Larger volumes of the hippocampus II. Smaller volumes of the hippocampus III. Smaller volumes of the frontal lobe A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

A meta-analysis comparing brain structures in patients with major depression, in healthy controls, and in patients with bipolar disorder demonstrated associations between depression and increased lateral ventricle size, larger cerebrospinal fluid volume, and smaller volumes of the basal ganglia, thalamus, hippocampus, frontal lobe, orbitofrontal cortex, and gyrus rectus. Patients experiencing a depressive episode had smaller hippocampal volume than those in remission.

29. What are observed in meta-analysis of comparing brain structures in patients with major depression, in healthy controls, and in patients with bipolar disorder ? I. Smaller volumes of the orbitofrontal cortex II. Smaller volumes of the gyrus rectus III. Larger volumes of the gyrus rectus A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

A meta-analysis comparing brain structures in patients with major depression, in healthy controls, and in patients with bipolar disorder demonstrated associations between depression and increased lateral ventricle size, larger cerebrospinal fluid volume, and smaller volumes of the basal ganglia, thalamus, hippocampus, frontal lobe, orbitofrontal cortex, and gyrus rectus. Patients experiencing a depressive episode had smaller hippocampal volume than those in remission.

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30. Which of the following is most strongly linked to major depression in males ? I. MDD1 locus located at 12q22-q23.2 II. MDD1 locus located at 15q25.2-q26.2 III. MDD2 locus located at 15q25.2-q26.2 A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: A

The MDD1 locus is located at 12q22-q23.2 and is most strongly linked to major depression in males.

31. Which of the following gene has been associated with early onset or recurrent episodes of depression ? I. MDD1 locus located at 12q22-q23.2 II. MDD1 locus located at 15q25.2-q26.2 III. MDD2 locus located at 15q25.2-q26.2 A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: C

The MDD2 locus is located at 15q25.2-q26.2 and has been associated with early onset or recurrent episodes of depression.

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32. Which of the following gene encodes a serotonin transporter that is responsible for actively clearing serotonin from the synaptic space ? I. MDD1 locus located at 12q22-q23.2 II. SLC6A4 gene, located at 17q11.2 III. MDD2 locus located at 15q25.2-q26.2 A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: B

The SLC6A4 gene, which is located at 17q11.2, encodes a serotonin transporter (also known as 5-hydroxytryptamine transporter) that is responsible for actively clearing serotonin from the synaptic space.

33. Which of the following gene encodes tryptophan hydroxylase which is the rate-limiting enzyme in the synthesis of serotonin ? I. SLC6A4 gene II. TXHD7 gene III. TPH2 gene A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: C

The TPH2 gene encodes tryptophan hydroxylase, which is the rate-limiting enzyme in the synthesis of serotonin. An in vitro study of a TPH2 polymorphism, R441H, found an approximately 80% loss in serotonin production.

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34. Which of the following gene encode serotonin receptors and associated with major depression in both European and Japanese populations ? I. The MDD1 locus located at 12q22-q23.2 II. The MDD1 locus located at 15q25.2-q26.2 III. The HTR3A and HTR3B regions located at chromosome 11q23.2 A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: C

The HTR3A and HTR3B regions, which encode serotonin receptors and are located at chromosome 11q23.2, are also known to be associated with major depression in both European and Japanese populations

35. Which of the following gene was associated with depression in females ? I. The MDD1 locus located at 12q22-q23.2 II. The MDD1 locus located at 15q25.2-q26.2 III. The HTR3A and HTR3B genes and found a single-nucleotide polymorphism A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: C

Yamada e al surveyed 29 polymorphisms located within the HTR3A and HTR3B genes and found a single-nucleotide polymorphism that was associated with depression in females.

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36. Which of the following pharmacological functions are encode by ABCB1 gene ? I. A transporter of glycoprotein II. A transporter of fatty acids III. Functions as an active efflux pump for a number of drugs across the blood-brain barrier A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

A study of the drug transporter gene ABCB1 (which encodes a transporter glycoprotein and functions as an active efflux pump for a number of drugs across the blood-brain barrier

37. Which of the following stressors play a role in major depressive disorder ? I. Accidental injury II. Chronic pain III. Medical illness A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Chronic pain, medical illness, and psychosocial stress can also play a role in major depressive disorder.Chronic aversive symptoms such as pain associated with chronic medical illness may disrupt sleep and other biorhythms leading to depression.

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38. Which of the following stressors play a role in major depressive disorder ? I. Psychosocial stress II. Chronic medical illness III. Behavioural attitude A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Chronic pain, medical illness, and psychosocial stress can also play a role in major depressive disorder.Chronic aversive symptoms such as pain associated with chronic medical illness may disrupt sleep and other biorhythms leading to depression

39. Which of the following are the psychosocial risk factor for depression in late life ? I. Low standard life style II. Impaired social supports III. Caregiver burden A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Other psychosocial risk factors for depression in late life include the following[31] : Impaired social supports Caregiver burden

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40. Which of the following are the psychosocial risk factor for depression in late life ? I. Low standard life style II. Loneliness III. Bereavement A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Other psychosocial risk factors for depression in late life include the following[31] : Loneliness Bereavement

41. Which of the following are the psychosocial risk factor for depression in late life ? I. Negative life events II. Low standard life style III. Bereavement A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Other psychosocial risk factors for depression in late life include the following[31] : Negative life events Bereavement

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42. Which of the following pharmacologic agents increase the risk of depression ? I. Reserpine II. Beta-blockers III. Tricyclic antidepressants A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Exposure to certain pharmacologic agents increases the risk of depression, such as reserpine, beta-blockers, and steroids such as cortisol.

43. Which of the following pharmacologic steroids increase the risk of depression ? I. Estradiol II. Cortisol III. Dexedrine A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: B

Exposure to certain pharmacologic agents increases the risk of depression, such as reserpine, beta-blockers, and steroids such as cortisol.

44. Which of the following abused substances can also increase risk of major depressive disorder ? I. Dexedrine II. Cocaine III. Amphetamine A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Abused substances can also increase risk of major depressive disorder, such as cocaine, amphetamine, narcotics, and alcohol.

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45. Which of the following abused substances can also increase risk of major depressive disorder ? I. Narcotics II. Dexedrine III. Alcohol A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Abused substances can also increase risk of major depressive disorder, such as cocaine, amphetamine, narcotics, and alcohol.

46. What are the potential biological risk factors which have been identified for depression in the elderly ? I. Neurodegenerative diseases II. Multiple sclerosis III. Elevated blood ammonia level A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Potential biological risk factors have been identified for depression in the elderly. Neurodegenerative diseases (especially Alzheimer disease and Parkinson disease), stroke, multiple sclerosis, seizure disorders, cancer, macular degeneration, and chronic pain have been associated with higher rates of depression

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47. What are the potential biological risk factors which have been identified for depression in the elderly ? I. Vaginal flora II. Seizure disorders III. Cancer A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Potential biological risk factors have been identified for depression in the elderly. Neurodegenerative diseases (especially Alzheimer disease and Parkinson disease), stroke, multiple sclerosis, seizure disorders, cancer, macular degeneration, and chronic pain have been associated with higher rates of depression

48. What are the potential biological risk factors which have been identified for depression in the elderly ? I. Macular degeneration II. Elevated blood ammonia level III. Chronic pain A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Potential biological risk factors have been identified for depression in the elderly. Neurodegenerative diseases (especially Alzheimer disease and Parkinson disease), stroke, multiple sclerosis, seizure disorders, cancer, macular degeneration, and chronic pain have been associated with higher rates of depression

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49. How the parent child relation lead to effective illness of depression in adults ? I. Low paternal involvement during early childhood II. High maternal overprotection during early childhood III. High maternal overprotection during late period of life A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

The parent-child relation model conceptualizes depression as the result of poor parent-child interaction. Adults with depression report low paternal involvement and high maternal overprotection during early childhood. Troubled relationships with parents, siblings, and peers are common in children and adolescents with affective illness.

50. Which of the following evidences support the hypothesis that cerebrovascular disease may cause or contribute to late-life depression ? I. High maternal overprotection during late period of life II. Higher incidence of depression following a left-sided stroke III. Higher prevalence of ischemic white-matter changes in older adults with depression A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

The vascular depression hypothesis posits that cerebrovascular disease may cause or contribute to late-life depression. Various lines of evidence support this hypothesis, including the following[43] :

Higher incidence of depression following a left-sided stroke Higher prevalence of ischemic white-matter changes in older adults with depression than

those without

Drugs and pharmacology( questions-100) 1. Which of the following drugs are used treatment of depression ? I. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors II. Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors III. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II

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E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Drugs used for treatment of depression include the following: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (ssris) Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (snris)

2. Which of the following drugs are used treatment of depression ? I. Mercurial diuretics II. .Atypical antidepressants III. Serotonin-Dopamine Activity Modulators A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Drugs used for treatment of depression include the following: Atypical antidepressants Serotonin-Dopamine Activity Modulators (sdams)

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3. Which of the following drugs are used treatment of depression ? I. Tricyclic antidepressants II. Prostaglandin analogs III. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Drugs used for treatment of depression include the following: Tricyclic antidepressants (tcas) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (maois)

4. Which of the following drugs are used treatment of depression ? I. St. John's wort II. Serotonin-Dopamine Activity Modulators III. Gonadotrophins and gonadotrophin secretion stimulating drugs A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Drugs used for treatment of depression include the following: Serotonin-Dopamine Activity Modulators (sdams) St. John's wort

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5. Which of the following drugs falls in the category selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors used for the treatment of depression ? I. Trazodone II. Citalopram (Celexa) III. Escitalopram (Lexapro) A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors Citalopram (Celexa) Escitalopram (Lexapro)

6. Which of the following drugs falls in the category selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors used for the treatment of depression ? I. Fluoxetine II. Trazodone III. Fluvoxamine A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors Fluoxetine (Prozac) Fluvoxamine (Luvox)

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7. Which of the following drugs falls in the category selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors used for the treatment of depression ? I. Paroxetine II. Sertraline III. Trazodone A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors Paroxetine (Paxil) Sertraline (Zoloft)

8. Which of the following drugs falls in the category selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors used for the treatment of depression ? I. Aripiprazole II. Vilazodone III. Vortioxetine A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors Vilazodone (Viibryd) Vortioxetine (Brintellix)

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9. What are the adverse effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors used for the treatment of depression ? I. Gastrointestinal upset II. Sexual dysfunction III. Drowsiness A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

The adverse-effect profile of ssris is less prominent than that of some other agents, which promotes better compliance. Common adverse effects include gastrointestinal upset, sexual dysfunction, and changes in energy level (ie, fatigue, restlessness)

10. What are the adverse effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors used for the treatment of depression ? I. Drowsiness II. Fatigue III. Restlessness A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

The adverse-effect profile of ssris is less prominent than that of some other agents, which promotes better compliance. Common adverse effects include gastrointestinal upset, sexual dysfunction, and changes in energy level (ie, fatigue, restlessness)

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11. Which of the following drugs falls in the category serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors used for the treatment of depression ? I. Venlafaxine II. Desvenlafaxine III. Amitriptyline A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors Snris, which include venlafaxine (Effexor), desvenlafaxine (Pristiq), duloxetine (Cymbalta), and Levo milnacipran (Fetzima)

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12. Which of the following drugs falls in the category serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors used for the treatment of depression ? I. Duloxetine II. Amitriptyline III. Levomilnacipran A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors Snris, which include venlafaxine (Effexor), desvenlafaxine (Pristiq), duloxetine (Cymbalta), and levomilnacipran (Fetzima)

13. Which of the following drugs falls in the categoryatypical antidepressants used for the treatment of depression ? I. Bupropion II. Mirtazapine III. Levomilnacipran A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Atypical antidepressants include bupropion (Wellbutrin), mirtazapine (Remeron), nefazodone, and Trazodone (Desyrel).

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14. Which of the following drugs falls in the categoryatypical antidepressants used for the treatment of depression ? I. Paroxetine II. Nefazodone III. Trazodone A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Atypical antidepressants include bupropion (Wellbutrin), mirtazapine (Remeron), nefazodone, and Trazodone (Desyrel).

15. Which of the following drugs falls in the category Serotonin-Dopamine Activity Modulators used for the treatment of depression ? I. Brexpiprazole II. Paroxetine III. Aripiprazole A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Serotonin-dopamine activity modulators Sdams include brexpiprazole (rexulti) and aripiprazole (abilify)

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16. Which of the following drugs falls in the category tricyclic antidepressants used for the treatment of depression ? I. Amitriptyline II. Clomipramine III. Levomilnacipran A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Tricyclic antidepressants Amitriptyline (Elavil) Clomipramine (Anafranil)

17. Which of the following drugs falls in the category tricyclic antidepressants used for the treatment of depression ? I. Levomilnacipran II. Desipramine III. Doxepin A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Tricyclic antidepressants Desipramine (Norpramin) Doxepin (Sinequan)

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18. Which of the following drugs falls in the category tricyclic antidepressants used for the treatment of depression ? I. Imipramine II. Levomilnacipran III. Nortriptyline A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Tricyclic antidepressants Imipramine (Tofranil) Nortriptyline (Pamelor)

19. Which of the following drugs falls in the category tricyclic antidepressants used for the treatment of depression ? I. Protriptyline II. Trimipramine III. Levomilnacipran A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Tricyclic antidepressants Protriptyline (Vivactil) Trimipramine (Surmontil)

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20. Which of the following drugs falls in the category monoamine oxidase inhibitors used for the treatment of depression ? I. Isocarboxazid II. Phenelzine III. Protriptyline A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors---maois include isocarboxazid (Marplan), phenelzine (Nardil), selegiline (Emsam), and tranylcypromine (Parnate).

21. Which of the following drugs falls in the category monoamine oxidase inhibitors used for the treatment of depression ? I. Protriptyline II. Selegiline III. Tranylcypromine A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors---maois include isocarboxazid (Marplan), phenelzine (Nardil), selegiline (Emsam), and tranylcypromine (Parnate).

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22. What are the adverse effect of monoamine oxidase inhibitors used for the treatment of depression ? I. Hypertensive crisis II. Hypersomnia III. Insomnia A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Because of the risk of hypertensive crisis, patients on these medications must follow a low-tyramine diet. Other adverse effects can include insomnia, anxiety, orthostasis, weight gain, and sexual dysfunction.

23. What are the adverse effect of monoamine oxidase inhibitors used for the treatment of depression ? I. Anxiety II. Orthostasis III. Hypersomnia A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Because of the risk of hypertensive crisis, patients on these medications must follow a low-tyramine diet. Other adverse effects can include insomnia, anxiety, orthostasis, weight gain, and sexual dysfunction.

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24. What are the adverse effect of monoamine oxidase inhibitors used for the treatment of depression ? I. Hypersomnia II. Weight gain III. Sexual dysfunction A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Because of the risk of hypertensive crisis, patients on these medications must follow a low-tyramine diet. Other adverse effects can include insomnia, anxiety, orthostasis, weight gain, and sexual dysfunction.

25. Which of the following statement is /are correct for the St. John wort ? I. It is an herbal remedy available over the counter II. It is considered a first-line antidepressant in many European countries III. It is considered a second-line antidepressant in many European countries A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

St. John's wort (Hypericum perforatum) is an herbal remedy available over the counter. Although St. John's wort is considered a first-line antidepressant in many European countries, it has only recently gained popularity in the United States.

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26. What are the common dosage of St. John wort used for the treatment of depression ? I. 300 mg 3 times a day with meals to prevent GI upset II. 600 mg 3 times a day with meals to prevent GI upset III. 600 mg 1 times a day with meals to prevent GI upset A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: A

St. John’s wort may act as an SSRI. The common dosage is 300 mg 3 times a day with meals to prevent GI upset.

27. Which of the following statement is /are correct for cognitive-behavioral therapy ? I. It is directed and time limited, usually involving between 10 and 20 treatments II. Specific areas of emphasis include grief, interpersonal disputes, role transitions, and interpersonal deficits III. It includes behavioral strategies and cognitive restructuring for the purpose of changing negative automatic thoughts and addressing maladaptive schemas A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

CBT is directed and time limited, usually involving between 10 and 20 treatments. CBT for depression typically includes behavioral strategies (i.e., activity scheduling), as well as cognitive restructuring for the purpose of changing negative automatic thoughts and addressing maladaptive schemas

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28. Which of the following statement is /are correct for interpersonal therapy ? I. It is a time-limited (typically 56 sessions) treatment for major depressive disorder II. It is a time-limited (typically 16 sessions) treatment for major depressive disorder III. It draws from attachment theory and emphasizes the role of interpersonal relationships and focus on current interpersonal difficulties A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a time-limited (typically 16 sessions) treatment for major depressive disorder. While more structured than dynamic treatments, IPT has less structure than cognitive and behavioral approaches. IPT draws from attachment theory and emphasizes the role of interpersonal relationships,[130] focusing on current interpersonal difficulties.

29. What occurs in the initial phase (sessions 1-4) of interpersonal therapy used for treatment of major depressive disorder ? I. It focuses on building a working alliance as well as identifying an area of primary interpersonal focus II. Patients are encouraged to assume the “sick role”, allowing them time to address their symptoms and have a brief respite from some responsibilities III. It is a structured program that includes eight weekly, 2-hour group sessions A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Specific areas of emphasis include grief, interpersonal disputes, role transitions, and interpersonal deficits.[131] The initial phase of treatment (sessions 1-4) focuses on building a working alliance as well as identifying an area of primary interpersonal focus based on the four areas previously mentioned, although other areas may be addressed as well. Patients are encouraged to assume the “sick role”, allowing them time to address their symptoms and have a brief respite from some responsibilities.

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30. What occurs in the middle phase (sessions 4-12) of interpersonal therapy used for treatment of major depressive disorder ? I. Specific interventions are used to address the area of focus in this phase II. It is a structured program that includes eight weekly, 2-hour group sessions III. This includes providing validation and support, improving communication skills, and working to solve interpersonal problems A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

During the middle phase of treatment (sessions 4-12), specific interventions are used to address the area of focus. This includes providing validation and support, improving communication skills, and working to solve interpersonal problems.

31. What occurs in the final phase (sessions 13-16) of interpersonal therapy used for treatment of major depressive disorder ? I. It is a structured program that includes eight weekly, 2-hour group sessions II. The final phase of treatment focuses on termination of therapy III. This includes reviewing progress, developing relapse prevention strategies, and addressing emotions that come with ending the therapy relationship A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

The final phase of treatment (sessions 13-16) focuses on termination of therapy. This includes reviewing progress, developing relapse prevention strategies, and addressing emotions that come with ending the therapy relationship.[

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32. Which of the following statement is /are correct formindfulness based cognitive therapy ? I. It is a structured program that includes eight weekly, 2-hour group sessions II. It reduced risk of relapse or recurrence among patients who completed treatment with medications for depression III. It is a time-limited (typically 16 sessions) treatment for major depressive disorder A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

MBCT is a structured program that includes eight weekly, 2-hour group sessions. Patients are assigned homework on a daily basis. Research indicated that MBCT reduced risk of relapse or recurrence among patients who completed treatment with medications for depression.

33. Which of the following statement is /are correct formindfulness based cognitive therapy ? I. It is a time-limited (typically 16 sessions) treatment for major depressive disorder II. This includes awareness and acceptance of uncomfortable feelings and sensations rather than efforts to avoid contact with such experiences III. Patients are encouraged to incorporate mindfulness into their daily activities as well as to practice specific mindfulness exercises A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

MBCT is a structured program that includes eight weekly, 2-hour group sessions. This includes awareness and acceptance of uncomfortable feelings and sensations rather than efforts to avoid contact with such experiences. Patients are encouraged to incorporate mindfulness into their daily activities as well as to practice specific mindfulness exercises.

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34. Which of the following statement is /are correct formindfulness based cognitive therapy ? I. It aims to improve individuals’ problem-solving attitudes and behaviours in order to decrease distress and improve quality of life II. It is a time-limited (typically 16 sessions) treatment for major depressive disorder III. It is based on a model characterizing social problem solving as a mediator and moderator of the relationship between stress and depression A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Problem-solving therapy (PST) aims to improve individuals’ problem-solving attitudes and behaviours in order to decrease distress and improve quality of life.[137, 139] The use of PST for the treatment of major depressive disorder is based on a model characterizing social problem solving as a mediator (e.g., Nezu& Ronan[140] ) and moderator (e.g., Nezu, Nezu, Saraydarian, Kalmar, & Ronan[141] ) of the relationship between stress and depression

35. Which of the following statement is /are correct forsocial problem solving ? I. It is a time-limited (typically 16 sessions) treatment for major depressive disorder II. It is defined as a cognitive-behavioral process that involves directing efforts to cope with a problem toward changing the nature of the situation III. is defined as a cognitive-behavioral process that involves directing efforts to cope with a problem toward changing one’s reaction to the problem A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Social problem solving is defined as a cognitive-behavioral process that involves directing efforts to cope with a problem toward changing the nature of the situation, changing one’s reaction to the problem, or both. This includes the ability to identify and select a variety of coping responses to address the features of a specific stressful situation.

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36. Which of the following skills are applied systematically to effectively solve a problem in adaptive problem-solving style ? I. Defining a problem II. Determining alternative solutions III. Escaping the problem A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

An adaptive problem-solving style is referred to as rational problem-solving, which includes systematically applying skills to effectively solve a problem. These skills include: (a) defining a problem, (b) determining alternative solutions, (c) decision making regarding different solution strategies, and (d) implementing and evaluating a particular solution strategy.

37. Which of the following skills are applied systematically to effectively solve a problem in adaptive problem-solving style ? I. Escaping the problem II. Decision making regarding different solution strategies III. Implementing and evaluating a particular solution strategy A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

An adaptive problem-solving style is referred to as rational problem-solving, which includes systematically applying skills to effectively solve a problem. These skills include: (a) defining a problem, (b) determining alternative solutions, (c) decision making regarding different solution strategies, and (d) implementing and evaluating a particular solution strategy.

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38. Which of the following conditions indicates the patient to electroconvulsive therapy for the treatment of depression ? I. Need for a rapid antidepressant response II. Failure of drug therapies III. Less expensive treatment A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Thus, the indications for the use of ECT include the following: Need for a rapid antidepressant response Failure of drug therapies

39. Which of the following conditions indicates the patient to electroconvulsive therapy for the treatment of depression ? I. Less expensive treatment II. History of good response to ECT III. Patient preference A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Thus, the indications for the use of ECT include the following: History of good response to ECT Patient preference

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40. Which of the following conditions indicates the patient to electroconvulsive therapy for the treatment of depression ? I. High risk of suicide II. Less expensive treatment III. High risk of medical morbidity and mortality A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Thus, the indications for the use of ECT include the following: High risk of suicide High risk of medical morbidity and mortality

41. What are the common adverse effect of bright –light therapy ? I. Eye irritation II. Restlessness III. Diarrhoea A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

BLT has the potential to precipitate a hypomanic or manic episode in susceptible individuals. Other common adverse effects include eye irritation, restlessness, and transient headaches.

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42. What are the common adverse effect of bright –light therapy ? I. Diarrhoea II. Hypomanic III. Transient headaches A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

BLT has the potential to precipitate a hypomanic or manic episode in susceptible individuals. Other common adverse effects include eye irritation, restlessness, and transient headaches.

43. What are the other additional therapies may be used for the treatment of depression ? I. Transdermal magnetic stimulation II. Transcranial magnetic stimulation III. Vagus nerve stimulation A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Additional Therapies for Depression

Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

Vagus nerve stimulation (VNS)

Deep brain stimulation (DBS)

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44. What are the other additional therapies may be used for the treatment of depression ? I. Transcranial magnetic stimulation II. Transdermal magnetic stimulation III. Deep brain stimulation A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Additional Therapies for Depression

Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

Vagus nerve stimulation (VNS)

Deep brain stimulation (DBS)

45. Which of the following medication is only currently approved by the FDA for the treatment of depression in children ? I. Fluoxetine II. Cimetidine III. Phenelzine A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: A

Fluoxetine is the only medication currently approved by the FDA for the treatment of depression in children

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46. Which diet should restricted on prescription of monoamine oxidase inhibitors in depressed patient ? I. Aged cheese II. Aged chicken or beef liver III. Aged milk A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Dietary restrictions are necessary only when prescribing monoamine oxidase inhibitors (maois). Foods high in tyramine, which can produce a hypertensive crisis in the presence of maois, should be avoided. These foods include the following:

Aged cheese Aged chicken or beef liver

47. Which diet should restricted on prescription of monoamine oxidase inhibitors in depressed patient ? I. Green vegetables II. Air-dried sausage and similar meats III. Avocados A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Dietary restrictions are necessary only when prescribing monoamine oxidase inhibitors (maois). Foods high in tyramine, which can produce a hypertensive crisis in the presence of maois, should be avoided. These foods include the following:

Air-dried sausage and similar meats Avocados

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48. Which diet should restricted on prescription of monoamine oxidase inhibitors in depressed patient ? I. Beer and wine II. Green vegetables III. Canned figs A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: F

Dietary restrictions are necessary only when prescribing monoamine oxidase inhibitors (maois). Foods high in tyramine, which can produce a hypertensive crisis in the presence of maois, should be avoided. These foods include the following:

Beer and wine (in particular, red wine) Canned figs

49. Which diet should restricted on prescription of monoamine oxidase inhibitors in depressed patient ? I. Caviar II. Fava beans III. Green vegetables A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: D

Dietary restrictions are necessary only when prescribing monoamine oxidase inhibitors (maois). Foods high in tyramine, which can produce a hypertensive crisis in the presence of maois, should be avoided. These foods include the following:

Caviar Fava beans

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50. Which diet should restricted on prescription of monoamine oxidase inhibitors in depressed patient ? I. Green vegetables II. Meat tenderizer III. Overripe fruit A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) II and III F) I and III Answer: E

Dietary restrictions are necessary only when prescribing monoamine oxidase inhibitors (maois). Foods high in tyramine, which can produce a hypertensive crisis in the presence of maois, should be avoided. These foods include the following:

Meat tenderizer Overripe fruit