csat test 3

8/2/2019 csat test 3

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1. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following:

1. President can resign by addressing his letter to the Vice-President.

2. The impeachment process for the removal of President can be initiated in Lok Sabha only.

3. The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the election and

impeachment of the President.

Codes:(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) All are correct

2. The Central Zonal Council includes:

1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Uttarakhand

3. Rajasthan

4. Madhya Pradesh

Codes:

(a) 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 4 Only

3. Choose the correct statement(s):

1. Under the provision of article 262, the Parliament has enacted the River Board Act-1956.

2. The Central Government can established River Boards on its own.

3. The Central Government has established ten inter-State water dispute tribunals.

Codes:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3(d) None of the above

4. Which of the following tax(es) has been imposed by the parliament by exercising the residuary power

of taxation:

1. Gift Tax

2. Wealth Tax

3. Expenditure Tax

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3(c) All

(d) None of the above

5. Identify the correct statement(s):

1. Service tax is levied collected and appropriated by the centre.

2. Service tax was added in the Union list by the 88th Amendment Act.

Codes:


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(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


6. Identify the correct statement(s)

1. The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment Act (1951).

2. The tenth schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985.

3. The 92nd Amendment Act of 2003 added Bodo, Maithili, Dongri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule.

Codes:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) All

7. The sixth Schedule includes provisions relating to the administration of tribal area in the states of:

1. Assam 2. Mizoram

3. Manipur 4. Meghalaya

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) All

8. Identify the correct statement(s)

1. An Individual having Person of India Origin (PIO) card can visit India without Visa for Lifelong.

2. An Individual registered as Overseas Citizens of India can visit India without Visa for lifelong.

3. PIO card can be issued to nationals of all countries,except to person from Afghanistan, Bangladesh,China, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) All

9. Which of the following rights have been included under Article 21:

1. Right to live with human dignity.

2. Right to privacy

3. Right to health4. Right to Free Legal Aid.

Codes:

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) All

10. Which of the following is/are correct:


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1. Living wage includes education, health, insurance etc.in addition to minimum wage.

2. A Fair wage is a mean between living wage and minimum wage.

3. Article 43 is having provision for Fair wage.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3(c) All


11. In relation to Constitution Amendment the correct statement(s) is/are

1. It can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either House of the Parliament and also in the state

legislature.

2. A bill for constitution amendment does not require the prior permission of the President.

Codes:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2



1. Adjournment only terminates the sitting of the house, where as prorogation not only terminates a

sitting but also a session of the house.

2. Adjournment is done by the presiding officer of the house whereas prorogation is done by the

President of India.

3. With the Adjournment the bills pending before the house gets lapsed.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2 (d) All


1. For the adoption of Censure motion in the Lok Sabha reason should be provided whereas for the

adoption of No-confidence motion in Lok Sabha the provision of reason is not must.

2. No confidence motion can be moved only against the Council of Ministers.

3. Censure motion can also be moved only against the council of ministers.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3


14. The scope of Judicial review in India is:

(a) Narrower than America because American Constitution provides for due process of law.

(b) Broader than America because Indian Constitution provides for due process of law.

(c) Broader than America because American constitution provides for procedure established by law.

(d) Same as that in America.

15. Identify the difference which exist between Indian Supreme Court and American Supreme Court:


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1. Indian Supreme Court has Advisory Jurisdiction whereas American Supreme Court lacks advisory

jurisdiction.

2. The appellate jurisdiction of Indian Supreme Court is broader than the appellate jurisdiction of

American Supreme Court.

Codes:

(a) 1 only(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


16. The Earth Observation Satellites includes:

1. Resource Sat-2

2. RISAT-2

3. OCEANSAT-2

4. METSAT

Codes:

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4


1. Ordinary bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha whereas Money Bill can be

introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

2. Rajya Sabha can detain ordinary Bill for a maximum period of 6 months whereas Rajya Sabha can

detain Money Bill for a maximum period of only 14 days.

Codes:

(a) 1 only(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


18. Which of the following is not correctly matched:

Items List

(a) Post Office Savings Union List

Bank

(b) Taxes on Mineral State ListRights

(c) Drugs and Poisons Concurrent List

(d) Population Control State List

and Family Planning

19. A party is recognized as a national party if:

1. It secures 6% of valid votes in a state in general election of Lok Sabha and also if it wins four seats in

Lok Sabha from a single state.


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2. It wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election and these candidates are elected from

three states.

3. It is recognised as a state party in four states.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 3(c) 1 and 2


20. Which of the following is/are true for administrative tribunals:

1. They are established under article 323A.

2. An aggrieved Public Servant can directly approach the Supreme Court against an order of Central

Administrative Tribunal (CAT).

3. The CAT was set up in 1985.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

21. Which of the following is/are correct for Lokpal:

1. The Administrate Reforms Commission of India (1966-70) recommended the setting of Lokpal.

2. The ARC kept the Judiciary outside the purview of Lokpal as in Sweeden

3. According to the ARC Lokpal should be appointed by the President after consultation with Chief

Justice of India, the speaker of Lok Sabha and the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) All

22. The committee which recommends the appointment of Central Information Commission includes:

1. Prime Minister

2. Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha.

3. Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

4. Union Cabinet Minister nominated by PM.

Codes:

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) All


1. Under article 312 Parliament can create new All India Service if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution for

it.

2. In 1948, Indian Forest Service was created as the 3rd All India Service.

Codes:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only


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(c) Both 1 and 2


24. Fundamental Duties were made a part of the constitution on the recommendation.

(a) Santhanam Committee

(b) Krishnamenon Committee(c) John Mathai Committee

(d) Sawaran Singh Committee


1. Article 31A saves five categories of laws from being challenged on the grounds of the violation of

Fundamental Rights.

2. Those laws which cannot be challenged are related to agricultural land reforms, industry and

commerce, mining lease.

Codes:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


26. Which of the following is/are the features of Parliamentary government in India.

1. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha

2. Membership of the ministers in the legislation.

3. Collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the legislature.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3(c) 1 and 2 (d) All

27. The Chief Commissioner Provinces prior to the Independence of India, were categorised as UT's by

which Constitutional Amendment:

(a) 1st Amendment Act 1951.

(b) 7th Amendment Act 1956

(c) 15th Amendment Act 1963

(d) 25th Amendment Act 1971

28. For the removal of a Supreme Court Judge, the correct statement(s) is/are:

1. A removal motion signed by 100 members each from Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha is given to the

Speaker/Chairman.

2. Speaker/Chairman constitutes a 3 member committee from Parliament to investigate the charges.

Codes:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above

29. Which of the following is/are correct for the bills when Lok Sabha is dissolved:

1. A bill for which President has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha

does not lapses.


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2. A bill passed by both the Houses but returned by the President for reconsideration of Houses does

not lapse.

Codes:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2(d) None of the above

30. Which of the following is/are true for Ordinance:

1. The decision of the President to issue an ordinance cannot be questioned in a court.

2. An ordinance cannot abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights.

Codes:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


31. Arrange the following in the correct order of Precedence:

1. Chief Justice of India

2. Cabinet Secretary

3. Chief Election Commission

Codes:

(a) 1 - 2 - 3

(b) 3 - 1 - 2

(c) 1 - 3 - 2


32. Which of the following is/are recognised by the Constitution of India:1. Religious Minorities

2. Linguistic Minorities

3. Ethnic Minorities

Codes:

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only

33. At present the National Integration Council includes:

1. Prime Minister

2. Chairperson of National Commissions

3. Women and Labour Representatives

Codes:(a) All

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1 only

34. Of the following, the Constitutional Bodies are:

1. National Commission for ST's


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2. National Commission for SC's

3. National Human Rights Commission

4. National Commission for Backward Classes

Codes:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4(c) 1 and 2

(d) All

35. In relation to the charged expenditure, the correct statements is/are:

1. Parliament can only discuss it but cannot vote on it.

2. In contains the debt charges for which Government of India is liable only.

3. It contains only pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 only

36. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following:

1. An Official Language Commission was appointed under the Chairmanship of B.G. Kher.

2. The Official Language Act (1963) lays down that English should be the medium of communication

between the Union and the Non-Hindi States.

Codes:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the

above

37. Of the following committee those associated with Panchayati Raj is/ are:

1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee.

2. Ashok Mehta Committee3. GVK Rao Committee

4. Abid Hussain Committee

Codes:

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

38. Choose the correct statement:

1. Supreme Court has Original Exclusive Jurisdiction

2. High Court is not Court of record.3. India adopted a parellel Judicial System.

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 1

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3


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39. Match the following:

A. Art. 243-A 1. Finance Commission

B. Art. 243-I 2. Election Commission

C. Art. 243-K 3. Metropolitan Planning Committee

D. Art. 243-ZG 4. Gram Sabha

Codes:A B C D

(a) 4 1 2 4

(b) 1 2 3 4

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 4 3 2 1

40. What are the sources of Judicial Review in our Constitution:

1. Art. 13

2. Art. 137

3. Written Constitution

4. Division of Power

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 3

41. Choose the correct statement:

1. Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in any house.

2. Rajya Sabha can reject Money Bill.

3. President can use suspensive veto in case of a Money Bill.

Code:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 3(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

42. Municipalities are:

(a) Tier of Local Government

(b) Level of Local Self Government

(c) Types of Local Self government

(d) Organs of Local Self Government

43. The 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 transferred the following subjects to concurrent list from state list.1. Education

2. Forests

3. Weight and measuring

4. Protection of wild animals

Choose the correct option/options from the list given below: Codes:

(a) 1 and 2 are correct

(b) 1 and 3 are correct

(c) Only 1 is correct


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(d) All are correct

44. National Emergency under Article 352 include:

1. The Emergency is declared by the President

2. During the emergency the State can suspend the fundamental rights conferred in Part III of theIndian Constitution.

3. Any proclamation by the President is valid only for one months unless it is approved by both houses

of the Parliament

4. An emergency provision, unless revoked, ceases to operate on the expiration of a period of six

month.

Choose the correct option/options from the list given below:

Codes:


(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct


(d) All are correct

45. The most significant aspects of the Supreme Court.

1. Final Interpreter and Guardian of the Constitution

2. Guardian of the Fundamental Rights of the people.

3. Highest and Final Interpreter of the general law of the country.

4. Highest Court of Appeal in both Civil and criminal cases.


Codes:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct


(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct(d) All are correct

46. The Lok Sabha cannot do which of the following:

(a) Dismiss the council of ministers by passing a vote of no-confidence against any individual

minister.

(b) Dismiss the council of ministers by passing a vote of No confidence against them.

(c) Dismiss the council of ministers by moving an adjournment motion.

(d) Express its no-confidence in the council of ministers by rejecting the budget as money bill.

47. During the recess of the Parliament, the president can promulgate ordinance:

(a) After consulting with the Chief Justice of India(b) With the prior approval of Supreme Court of India

(c) With the consent of the council of ministers

(d) On his own

48. The Maximum Duration of the Zero Hour is

(a) One Hour

(b) Two Hour

(c) Till lunch break

(d) Not specified


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49. Which of the following statement is true?

1. A resolution passed by Parliament, by special majority that it is in National Interest that it should

make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State list, remains in force for a period of one

year or as may be specified in the resolution.2. Whether a matter is of National Interest is decided by the President in consultation with Supreme

Court of India.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

50. Which of the following statements refers to epistolary jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

(a) Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131.

(b) Dealing with PILs through letters addressed to the Court under Art. 32.

(c) Advisory jurisdiction under Article 143.

(d) Enforcement of decrees and orders of Supreme Court under Article 142.

51. Consider the following statements:

1. The first Jain Council was held at Patliputra to codify the teachings of Jain Saints

2. The first Buddhist Council was held at Valabhi to codify the teachings of Gautam Buddha.

Codes:

(a) Only 1 is correct

(b) Only 2 is correct(c) Both are correct

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct


1. Mudrarakshasha of Vishakhadatta is a contemporary work of Mauryan Dynasty

2. Indica of Megasthenese provide elaborate account of City Administration during Mauryan times.

Codes:


(b) Only 2 is correct

(c) Both are correct



1. Alauddin Khalji started his market reforms to counter the Mongol invasions.

2. There were six Mongol invasions during the reign of Alauddin Khalji

Codes:




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Religious policies Yearof Akbar

A. Ibadat Khana 1. 1562

B. Issue of Mahzar 2. 1582

C. Din-e-Elahi 3. 1579

D. Abolition of forcible 4. 1575

conversion to Islam

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 3 1 4 2

(d) 4 3 2 1

55. Consider the following statements about Money Bill:

1. It can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President.

2. It can be introduced in either House of Parliament.

3. The provision of Money Bill is mentioned under Article 108 of the Indian Constitution.

Codes:




(d) All are correct

56. Match the following:Article Provision

A. Art. 262 1. Grants-in-aid by the Centre to the States.

B. Art. 263 2. Inter-State water dispute tribunal.

C. Art. 275 3. Inter-State Council

D. Art. 280 4. Finance Commission.

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 2 1 3 4


1. The Lower House of Indian Parliament is a permanent body.

2. All the members of the Lower House are elected through and indirect elections.

3. According to Constitutional Provision there are 250 members in the Lower House.

Codes:

(a) Only 1 is incorrect

(b) Only 2 is incorrect


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(c) Only 3 is incorrect

(d) All are incorrect


1. It is mandatory for the Governor of any State to reserve a bill that affects the existence of the High

Court, for the consideration of the President.2. It is the discretionary power of the Governor to suggest the President for the imposition of the

President Rule in the State in case the Constitutional machinery has become dysfunctional.

Codes:



(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct



Article Provision

A. Art. 15 1. Participation of workers in the Management of Industry.

B. Art. 21 2. Uniform Civil Code

C. Art. 44 3. Right to Life and Liberty.

D. Art. 43A 4. Prohibition of discrimination on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex and place of

birth.

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 4 3 2

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 4 3 2 1

60. Consider the following statements:1. The province of Sindh was annexed by the British East India Company during the Governor

Generalship of Lord Dalhousie

2. The province of Punjab was annexed during the Governor Generalship of Lord Ellenborough.

Codes:






1. The Congres-Swaraj Party was established at the Gaya Session of the Indian National Congress in1922.

2. The Congress-Swaraj Party elected Vallabh Bhai Patel as the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in

1925.

Codes:






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62. Arrange the following trial of the British against the Communist Leaders and Groups in

Chronological order:

1. The Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case

2. The Peshawar Conspiracy Case.3. The Meerut Conspiracy Case.

Codes:

(a) 1 - 2 - 3

(b) 3 - 2 - 1

(c) 2 - 1 - 3

(d) 3 - 1 - 2


Wars Governor

General

A. First Anglo-Maratha 1. Lord Hastings

War

B. Second Anglo-Maratha 2. Lord Wellesly

War

C. Third Anglo-Maratha 3. Warren

War Hasting

D. Second Anglo-Sikh 4. Lord Dalhousie

War

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 1 4 3(c) 3 1 4 2

(d) 3 2 1 4


Social Reform Legislation

A. Abolition of Sati 1. Regulation XV of

1856

B. Legalization of Widow 2. Regulation V of

re-marriage 1843

C. Abolition of Slavery 3. Regulation XVII

of 1829Codes:

A B C

(a) 1 2 3

(b) 2 1 3

(c) 3 1 2

(d) 3 2 1



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1. Dadabhai Naoroji is considered as the first economic thinker of India.

2. Dadabhai Naoroji highlighted the drain of wealth from India to Britain in his book The Economic

History of India.

Codes:


(b) Only 2 is correct(c) Both are correct



List-I List-II

A. National Commission 1. 89th Amendment

for Scheduled Castes 2003

B. National Commission 2. 65th Amendment

for Scheduled Tribes 1990

C. J &K Preventive 3. 1967

Detention (Amendment)

Act

Codes:

A B C

(a) 2 1 3

(b) 1 2 3

(c) 3 1 2

67. President may order remove from office the Chairman or any member of UPSC on the ground of:1. Is adjudged an insolvent.

2. Engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office.

3. Is in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind and body.

Correct statement(s) is/are:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) All

68. Consider the following statement:

1. The power of parliament to amend the constitution is derived from Articles 245, 246 and 368.

2. Parliament will have power from the date of decision to amend any of the provision of Part III of the

Constitution.

Correct statement(s) is/are:

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


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Assertion (A): India is secular country.

Reason (R): Only there shall be no State Religion in India.Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(d) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct


Assertion (A): India has federal system.

Reason (R): India has opted Single Constitution.

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(d) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.


List-A List-B

A. MISA 1. 1974

B. COFEPOSA 2. 1971

C. NSA 3. 1950

D. Preventive Detention 4. 1980

ActCodes:

A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 3 4 1 2

(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 4 2 3 1

72. Consider the following statement regarding to J & K state.

1. The provisions of Article 238 shall not apply in relation to the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

2. The provision of Article 1 shall apply in relation to J & K state.Correct statement(s) is/are:

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


73. Consider the following statement regarding to special leave to appeal:


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(a) When the judgement is tainted with serious legal infirmities.

(b) When the petition would mean multiple claim on the same cause of action.

(c) Notice was not given to the injustice.

(d) The petitioner has suffered injustice

74. Consider the following statements:1. The Provision of Preventive Detention is mentioned under Article 23 of the Indian Constitution.

2. The concept of Preventive Detention is based on anticipation of any anti-social or anti-national

activities.

Codes:





75. Answer the following statements:

1. Naxalism has emerged as the greatest threat to internal security of India.

2. The Red Corridor Area extends from Tirupati in Nepal to Pashupati in Andhra Pradesh.

3. Grey Hounds are special military force to tackle naxal menace in Chhattisgarh.

4. Naxalism emerged from the Naxalbari Village in Bihar.

5. The Naxal Movement was started by Charu Majumdar and Kanu Sanyal.

Codes:

(a) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(b) Only 3, 4 and 5 are correct

(c) Only 1, 2 and 5 are correct

(d) Only 1, 3 and 5 are correct


1. The President can appoint a Governor of a State to look after another State as a Common Governor.

2. The State Legislative Council has been established in all the States and UTs.

3. The State Legislative Council is mentioned under Article 167 of the Indian Constitution.

Codes:




(d) All are correct


(A). The Supreme Court is apex Judicial Body of India.

(R). The Supreme Court has got the appellate power to hear cases after the verdicts of Lower Judiciary.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A are R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is correct but R is incorrect.

(d) A is incorrect but R is correct.


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78. Consider the following statements about Public Accounts Committee (PAC).

1. It comprises of 30 members, 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 Members from Rajya Sabha.

2. The Chairman of PAC submit its report to the President of India.

Codes:(a) Only 1 is correct




79. Consider the following statements about the Estimate Committee.

1. It comprises of 22 members, 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.

2. It suggests measures to maintain efficiency and economy in Administration of India.

Codes:






1. The Joint Sitting of the two Houses of Parliament is called by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

2. The Joint Sitting of the two Houses is presided by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

3. In case of the Constitution Amendment Bill there is no provision for the Joint Sitting of the two

Houses.

Codes:

(a) Only 1 is correct(b) Only 2 is correct


(d) All are correct


(A). The Planning Commission of India is an extra- Constitutional Body

(R). It was not established under the provision of Indian Constitution.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A are R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.(c) A is correct but R is incorrect.

(d) A is incorrect but R is correct.

82. High Court has no power:

(a) to issued writs where breach of Fundamental Right.

(b) To issue writs in case where breach of right, is alleged.

(c) To issue writs to compel the government to change its policy unvolving expenditure.

(d) To issue Public Interest Litigation writ.


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83. Mandamus can be issued:

(a) Against Tribunal has refused to carry out the intravires directions of its supernor Tribunal.(b) If the concerned officer in exercises of his duty exercises, discretion or power against Constitution

Power

(c) Directing a subordinate Legislative authority to enact or not to enact a rule which is competent to

enact.

(d) Directing the Principle to fix the necessary number for admission to Post Graduate.

84. High Court does not have power of uperintendence over which Court:

(a) District Court

(b) D.M.

(c) Sale Tax Officer

(d) Panchayat Raj

85. Consider the following statement Regarding to Money Bill:

(a) The imposition, aboilition remission of any tax.

(b) The appropriation of Money out the consolidated fund of India.

(c) The regulation of the borrowing of money.

(d) The emoluments and allowances of President.

86. Article 32 is confined to enforce upto right:

(a) Fundamental rights given by the constitution.(b) Constitutional rights, not having the status of fundamental rights.

(c) Statutory rights

(d) Contractual rights

87. In a case it was decided that President is not bound to hear the petitioner on his mercey Petition.

(a) Nanawati Vs. State of Bombay AIR 1961 SC, 122

(b) Rao Vs Union of India AIR 1971 SC, 1002.

(c) Sanjeev Vs. State of Madras AIR 1969 SC, 783

(d) Magan Bhai Vs. UOI AIR 1969 SC, 122


Article Provision

A. 4th Schedule 1. Allocation of the number of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States-the

upper house of Parliament) per States or Union Territory.

B. 6th Schedule 2. Provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam.

C. 7th Schedule 3. The Union (Central Government) ,States, and Concurrent (dual) lists of

responsibilities.


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D. 11th Schedule 4. Panchayt Raj (Rural Development.

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 3 2 1 4(d) 4 3 2 1

89. Fundamental Duties is incorporated as part IV A of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act,

1976.

1. to abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem.

2. to defend the country

3. to preserve heritage of our composite culture;

4. to safeguard public property


Codes:


(b) 1,2 and 4 are correct

(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

(d) All are correct

90. The powers of the Governor are:

1. He/She appoints the Chief Minister and the council of Ministers, the Advocate-

General and the members of the State Public Service Commission.

2. The Governor nominates one member of the Anglo-Indian community to the Legislative Assembly

of his State.

3. The Governor can promulgate ordinances during the period, when the State Legislature is not

meeting.4. The Governor has the power to grant pardon, reprieves, respites or remission of punishments. But

he has no power to pardon death sentence.

Choose the correct option /options from the list given below: Codes:

(a) 1, 2 is correct



(d) All are correct

91. Which of the following is incorrect about Supreme Court?(a) It has the power to punish by fine and imprisonment any person guilty of contempt of its authority.

(b) It is a court of record and has all the power of such court including the power to punish for

contempt of itself.

(c) It is bound by its earlier decision and cannot depart from them.

(d) Its records are admitted in evidence and cannot be questioned when produced in any court of

law.


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92. Which of the following/is not an automatic consequence of proclamation of emergency?

(a) Extension of Unions executive power to issue the direction to any state as to the manner in which

its executive power has to be exercised(b) Extension of the power of Parliament to the making of legislation in regard to items of State list.

(c) Suspension of the enforcement of fundamental right except those conferred by

Article 20 and 21.

(d) Suspension of Article 19 under the provisions of Article 358.

93. On receipt of the report from the Governor of a state that the government of the state cannot

be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution, the president of India under Article

356.

(a) Has to dismiss the state government and dissolve state assembly.

(b) May refuse to impose Presidents rule in the state.

(c) Has to dismiss the government but keep the Legislative Assembly in the state under suspended

animation.

(d) Has to impose presidents rule in the state.

94. Which of the following statement is correct:

(a) Whether a situation exists for the proclamation of emergency, is a matter to be

decided as per the subjective satisfaction of executive

(b) Whether the situation requires proclamation of emergency, is to decided by the parliament

(c) Whether a situation exists for the proclamation of emergency, can be challenged before the court

of law(d) All of the above

95. The state law on a subject in the concurrent list were have precedence over the Union law

(a) If it was passed earlier.

(b) If the bill was reserved for President's assent before the enactment of law on same subject by

Parliament.

(c) If the state law has a bigger significance as compared to the law of Parliament.

(d) If the state law was drafted much better than the Union law.

96. Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers in the Constitution of India are

corrects:

1. Residuary Powers have been given to the Union Parliament.

2. In the matter of residuary powers the Australia.

3. The final authority to decide whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is


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decided by parliament.

4. The government of India Act 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of Governor Generals.

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

97 Legal Services Day is observed on:

(a) November 9

(b) December 9

(c) August 9

(d) None of these

98. The Legislative Council consists of:

1. 1/3 members elected by Legislative Assembly.

2. 1/3 members elected by Local Bodies.

3. 1/12 members elected by University Graduates.

4. 1/12 members elected by Teachers. Choose the correct option /options from the list given

below: Codes:



(c) 1,3 and 4 are correct

(d) All are correct

99. Indicate the provisions of Indian Constitu tion relating to secularism? They are:1. Preamble

2. Right to Equality (Art. 14-18)

3. 1/12 members elected by University Graduates.

4. Cultural and Educational Righls (Art. 29-30) Choose the correct option /options from the list given

below: Codes;




(d) All are correct

100. There are certain spheres where the Rajya Sabha alone has the authority. What are they?

1. Initiating the process of removal of Vice-President [Art. 67(b)]

2. Initiating the creation of New All-India Service [Art. 312(1)]

3. Authorising the Parliament to make temporary Union Legislation with respect to matters in the

States List [Art. 249(1)].


Codes:



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(b) 1 and 3 are correct

(c) All are correct

(d) None of these

Test 02 - Answers

1. (c)

2. (b)3. (a)

4. (c)

5. (b)

6. (b)

7. (c)

8. (b)

9. (d)

10. (a)

11. (b)

12. (c)

13. (a)

14. (a)

15. (c)

16. (c)

17. (c)

18. (d)

19. (b)

20. (c)

21. (b)

22. (b)

23. (a)

24. (d)

25. (c)26. (d)

27. (b)

28. (d)

29. (c)

30. (b)

31. (a)

32. (b)

33. (a)

34. (c)

35. (a)

36. (c)37. (c)

38. (b)

39. (a)

40. (c)

41. (d)

42. (c)

43. (d)

44. (d)


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45. (d)

46. (c)

47. (c)

48. (d)

49. (d)

50. (b)51. (a)

52. (b)

53. (c)

54. (d)

55. (a)

56. (b)

57. (d)

58. (c)

59. (d)

60. (d)

61. (d)

62. (c)

63. (d)

64. (c)

65. (a)

66. (a)

67. (d)

68. (d)

69. (c)

70. (d)

71. (a)

72. (c)

73. (a)74. (b)

75. (b)

76. (a)

77. (a)

78. (d)

79. (b)

80. (c)

81. (a)

82. (c)

83. (a)

84. (c)85. (d)

86. (a)

87. (a)

88. (a)

89. (d)

90. (d)

91. (c)

92. (c)


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93. (b)

94. (a)

95. (b)

96. (a)

97 (a)

98. (d)99. (d)

100. (c)

csat test 3

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