class: sz2 jee-adv(2014-p2) model date: 26-12-2020 time: … · 2020. 12. 27. · class: sz2...

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Corporate Office: 10th Floor, Melange Tower; No.80-84, Pathrika Nagar; Hitech-City, Madhapur, Hyderabad. Telangana - 500 081. : 040-45009999(360/341) : [email protected] : http://www.narayanagroup.com Class: SZ2 JEE-ADV(2014-P2) MODEL Date: 26-12-2020 Time: 3hrs WAT-14 Max. Marks: 180 IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS PHYSICS Section Question Type +Ve Marks - Ve Marks No.of Qs Total marks Sec – I(Q.N : 1 – 10) Questions with Single Correct Choice 3 -1 10 30 Sec – II(Q.N : 11 – 16) Questions with Comprehension Type (3 Comprehensions – 2 +2+2 = 6Q) 3 -1 6 18 Sec – III(Q.N : 17 – 20) Matrix Matching Type 3 -1 4 12 Total 20 60 CHEMISTRY Section Question Type +Ve Marks - Ve Marks No.of Qs Total marks Sec – I(Q.N : 21 – 30) Questions with Single Correct Choice 3 -1 10 30 Sec – II(Q.N : 31 – 36) Questions with Comprehension Type (3 Comprehensions – 2 +2+2 = 6Q) 3 -1 6 18 Sec – III(Q.N : 37 – 40) Matrix Matching Type 3 -1 4 12 Total 20 60 MATHEMATICS Section Question Type +Ve Marks - Ve Marks No.of Qs Total marks Sec – I(Q.N : 41 – 50) Questions with Single Correct Choice 3 -1 10 30 Sec – II(Q.N : 51 – 56) Questions with Comprehension Type (3 Comprehensions – 2 +2+2 = 6Q) 3 -1 6 18 Sec – III(Q.N : 57 – 60) Matrix Matching Type 3 -1 4 12 Total 20 60

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  • Corporate Office: 10th Floor, Melange Tower; No.80-84, Pathrika Nagar; Hitech-City, Madhapur, Hyderabad. Telangana - 500 081.

    : 040-45009999(360/341) : [email protected] : http://www.narayanagroup.com

    Class: SZ2 JEE-ADV(2014-P2) MODEL Date: 26-12-2020

    Time: 3hrs WAT-14 Max. Marks: 180

    IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

    PHYSICS Section Question Type

    +Ve Marks

    - Ve Marks

    No.of Qs

    Total marks

    Sec – I(Q.N : 1 – 10) Questions with Single Correct Choice 3 -1 10 30

    Sec – II(Q.N : 11 – 16) Questions with Comprehension Type

    (3 Comprehensions – 2 +2+2 = 6Q) 3 -1 6 18

    Sec – III(Q.N : 17 – 20) Matrix Matching Type 3 -1 4 12

    Total 20 60

    CHEMISTRY Section Question Type

    +Ve Marks

    - Ve Marks

    No.of Qs

    Total marks

    Sec – I(Q.N : 21 – 30) Questions with Single Correct Choice 3 -1 10 30

    Sec – II(Q.N : 31 – 36) Questions with Comprehension Type

    (3 Comprehensions – 2 +2+2 = 6Q) 3 -1 6 18

    Sec – III(Q.N : 37 – 40) Matrix Matching Type 3 -1 4 12

    Total 20 60

    MATHEMATICS Section Question Type

    +Ve Marks

    - Ve Marks

    No.of Qs

    Total marks

    Sec – I(Q.N : 41 – 50) Questions with Single Correct Choice 3 -1 10 30

    Sec – II(Q.N : 51 – 56) Questions with Comprehension Type

    (3 Comprehensions – 2 +2+2 = 6Q) 3 -1 6 18

    Sec – III(Q.N : 57 – 60) Matrix Matching Type 3 -1 4 12

    Total 20 60

    mailto:[email protected]://www.narayanagroup.com/

  • SZ2_JEE-ADV(2014-P2)_WAT-14_QP_Exam.Dt.26-12-2020

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    2

    SECTION –I (01 TO 10) (ONLY ONE OPTION CORRECT TYPE)

    This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only one option is correct. Marking scheme: +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.

    01. Gravitational potential energy of a point mass m0 and a thin

    uniform rod of mass m0 and length l , if they are located along a

    straight line at a distance d measured from the Centre of the rod is

    A) 2

    0 logeGm d r

    l d r

    + −

    − B)

    2 2log

    2e

    Gm d l

    l d l

    + −

    C) 2

    0 2log2

    e

    Gm d l

    l d l

    + −

    − D) All of these

    02. A straight smooth tunnel is dug through a spherical planet whose

    mass density 0 is constant. The tunnel passes through the centre

    of the planet and is perpendicular to the planet’s axis of rotation,

    which is fixed in space. The planet rotates with the angular velocity

    so that objects in the tunnel have no acceleration relative to the

    tunnel, the value of is

    A) 04

    3G B) 0

    2

    3G C) 0

    1

    3G D) 2 0

    2

    3G

    03. Gravitational field intensity at the centre of the semi-circle formed

    by a thin wire AB of mass m and length L is

    A) 2

    2( )

    Gmi

    L B) ( )

    2

    2

    Gmj

    L C)

    2

    2( )

    Gmi

    L

    D)

    2

    2( )

    Gmj

    L

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    3

    04. There is a concentric hole of radius R in a solid sphere of radius

    2R. Mass of remaining portion is M, then gravitational potential at

    centre is

    A)3

    7

    GM

    R

    B)

    3

    14

    GM

    R− C)

    9

    14

    GM

    R− D)

    15

    14

    GM

    R−

    05. The density of the core of a planet is 1 and that of the outer shell

    is 2 . The Radii of the core and that of the planet are R and 2R,

    respectively. If the acceleration due to gravity at the surface is same

    as at a depth R, then ratio 1

    2

    is

    A) 5

    3 B)

    7

    3 C)

    7

    5 D) 3

    06. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R, a spherical portion of

    radius R/2 is removed, as shown in the figure. Taking gravitational

    potential V=0 at r = , the potential at the Centre of the cavity thus

    formed is (G = gravitational constant)

    A) 2

    GM

    R

    − B)

    GM

    R

    − C)

    2

    3

    GM

    R

    − D)

    2GM

    R

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    4

    07. A spherically symmetric gravitational system of particles has a

    mass density0 for r R

    0 for r >R

    =

    where0 is a constant. A test mass can

    undergo circular motion under the influence of the gravitational

    field of particles. Its speed V as a function of distance r(0

  • SZ2_JEE-ADV(2014-P2)_WAT-14_QP_Exam.Dt.26-12-2020

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    5

    09. Consider a spherical gaseous cloud of mass density ( )r in a free

    space where r is the radical distance from its center. The gaseous

    cloud is made of particles of equal mass m moving in circular orbits

    about their common centre with the same kinetic energy K. The

    force acting on the particles is their mutual gravitational force. If

    ( )r is constant in time. The particle number density is ( ) ( ) /n r r m=

    [ G is universal gravitational constant]

    A)2 2

    3K

    r m G B)

    2 22

    K

    r m G C)

    2 2

    K

    r m G D)

    2 26

    K

    r m G

    10. Consider two solid spheres of radii1 21 , 2R m R m= = and masses 1M

    and 2M respectively. The gravitational field due to sphere (1) and (2)

    are shown. The value of 1

    2

    M

    Mis

    A)1

    3 B)

    1

    2 C)

    1

    6 D)

    2

    3

    SECTION – II (11 TO 16) (COMPREHENSION TYPE)

    This section contains 3 paragraphs each describing theory, experiments, data etc. Six questions relate to the three paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question has only one correct answer among the four given options (A), (B), (C) and (D). Marking scheme: +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.

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    Comprehension – I:

    A non-homogeneous sphere of radius R has the following density

    variation

    0 = for /3r R

    0

    2

    = for

    3

    3 4

    R Rr and

    0

    8

    = for

    3

    4

    Rr R

    11. The gravitational field due to the sphere at r=2

    Ris

    A) 043

    50

    GR B) 0

    23

    100

    GR

    C) 035

    81

    GR D) None of these

    12. The gravitational field due to the sphere at r= 5

    6

    Ris

    A)0.98 0GR B) 0.48 0GR

    C) 0.23 0GR D) 0.68 0GR

    Comprehension – II:

    Infinite numbers of masses, each of mass m, are placed along a straight

    line at a distance of r, 2r, 4r, 8r etc. From a reference point O. Then

    13. The gravitational field intensity at point 0 is

    A) 2

    4

    3

    Gm

    r B)

    2

    3

    4

    Gm

    r C)

    2

    5

    8

    Gm

    r D)

    2

    8Gm

    r

    14. The magnitude of the gravitation potential at point 0 is

    A) Gm

    r B)

    2Gm

    r C)

    4Gm

    r D)

    6Gm

    r

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    7

    Comprehension – III:

    A solid sphere of uniform density and radius 4 m is located with its centre

    at the origin O of coordinates. Two spheres of equal radius 1m with their

    cavities at A (-2, 0, 0) m and B (2, 0, 0) m, respectively are taken out

    leaving behind spherical cavities. The mass of each sphere taken out is

    M.

    15. The gravitational potential at any point on the circle 2 2 36Y Z+ = is

    A) 10 32

    10 3GM

    B)

    5 32

    100 3GM

    C) 10 32

    50 3GM

    D) None of these

    16. The gravitation potential at any points on the circle 2 2 4Y Z+ = is

    A) 2

    222

    GM

    B) 2

    112

    GM

    C) 2

    222

    GM

    +

    D) 6

    222

    GM

    SECTION – III (17 TO 20) (MATCHING LIST TYPE)

    This section contains four questions, each having two matching lists. Choices for the correct combination of elements from Column-I and Column-II are given as options (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which one is correct. Marking scheme: +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.

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    17. Match the following.

    Column-I Column-II

    A)

    The gravitational field at some point in

    space is ˆ ˆ3 4 /E i jN kg= + .The force

    exerted on a 2kg mass placed at that

    point is

    P) 3

    3Gm

    a

    B) Three particles each of mass ‘m’ are

    located at the three vertices of an

    equilateral triangle of side ‘a’. If the

    system is revolving in a uniform circle

    due to their mutual force of attraction,

    then the angular velocity of each

    particle is

    Q)

    10N, 53 with x-

    axis

    C)

    A uniform spherical shell gradually

    shrinks maintaining its shape. The

    gravitational potential at the Centre

    R)

    Reduced 1

    4th

    D)

    If the distance between the earth and

    moon were doubled, The gravitation

    force between them will be

    S)

    Decreases

    A) , , ,A Q B P C S D RS→ → → →

    B) , , ,A P B Q C R D PS→ → → →

    C) , , ,A S B R C P D QS→ → → →

    D) , , ,A R B Q C S D QR→ → → →

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    9

    18. Match the following

    Column-I Column-II

    A) The unit of the quantity g/G in SI

    system will be

    P) X = 2h

    B)

    If the change in the value of ‘g’ at a

    height ‘h’ above the surface of the

    earth is the same as at a depth x

    below it, and when both x and h are

    much smaller than the radius of the

    earth

    Q)

    Kg 2m−

    C)

    If the mass of a planet is 10% less

    than that of the earth and the radius

    is 20% greater than that of the earth,

    the acceleration due to gravity on the

    planet will be

    R)

    2

    23

    4

    Gm

    r

    D)

    If three uniform spheres, each having

    mass m and radius r, are kept in such

    a way that each touches that other

    two. The magnitude of the

    gravitational force on any sphere due

    to the other two is

    S)

    5/8 times that on

    the surface of the

    earth

    A) , , ,A P B Q C R D S→ → → →

    B) , , ,A Q B P C S D R→ → → →

    C) , , ,A S B R C P D Q→ → → →

    D) , , ,A R B S C Q D P→ → → →

  • SZ2_JEE-ADV(2014-P2)_WAT-14_QP_Exam.Dt.26-12-2020

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    10

    19. Density of a planet is two times the density of earth and radius of

    this planet is half the radius of earth. Match, the following (as

    compared to earth)

    Column-I Column-II

    A) Gravitational strength at the surface

    of this planet

    P) Half

    B) Gravitational potential on the surface Q) Same

    C) Gravitational potential at centre R) Two times

    D) Gravitational strength at centre S) Four times

    A) , , ,A P B Q C R D S→ → → → B) , , ,A R B P C S D Q→ → → →

    C) , , ,A Q B P C P D Q→ → → → D) , , ,A S B R C Q D R→ → → →

    20. Match the following

    Column-I Column-II

    A)

    The gravitational field due to a uniform rod

    of length(L) and mass(M) at a point on its

    perpendicular bisector at a distance (d) from

    the centre is

    P)

    2( 2) 1

    4

    GM

    R

    +

    B)

    Four particles of equal masses (M) move

    along a circle of radius(R) under the action of

    their mutual gravitational attraction. Then

    the speed of each particle is

    Q)

    2 2

    2

    4

    GM

    d L d+

    C)

    The value of acceleration due to gravity at a

    point 5km below the earth’s surface is (The

    radius of the earth is 6400km, acceleration

    due to gravity at the surface of the earth is

    9.8m/ 2s

    R)

    h=R

    D)

    The height at which the gravitational field of

    the earth becomes one fourth(1

    4th ) the field

    at the surface is

    S)

    9.79m/ 2s

    A) , , ,A Q B P C S D R→ → → →

    B) , , ,A P B Q C R D S→ → → →

    C) , , ,A S B R C Q D P→ → → →

    D) , , ,A R B S C P D Q→ → → →

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    11

    SECTION –I (21 TO 30) (ONLY ONE OPTION CORRECT TYPE)

    This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only one option is correct. Marking scheme: +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.

    21. The colloidal system of a solid dispersed in liquid medium is called:

    A) aerosol B) sol C) gel D) foam

    22. Sulphur sol contains:

    A) discrete sulphur atoms B) discrete sulphur molecules

    C) water dispersed in solid sulphur

    D) large aggregates of sulphur molecules

    23. Which of the following statements is correct

    A) Metal sulphides are examples of negatively charged sols

    B) Emulsion can be broken into constituent liquids by heating,

    freezing and centrifugation

    C) Milk of magnesia, an emulsion is used for stomach disorders

    D) All the above

    24. The movement of colloidal particles under an applied electric

    potential is called:

    A) electro-osmosis B) peptization

    C) electrophoresis D) electro-dispersion

    25. An emulsifier is a substance which:

    A) helps in the dispersion of liquid in liquid

    B) stabilizes the emulsion

    C) coagulates the emulsion

    D) purifies the emulsion

    26. Froth floatation process is based on:

    A) specific gravity of the ore particles

    B) magnetic properties of the ore particles

    C) wetting properties of the ore particles

    D) electrical properties of the ore particles

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    12

    27. Heating of pyrites in presence of air to remove sulphur is called as:

    A) roasting B) calcination

    C) smelting D) leaching

    28. Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by froth-

    flotation method?

    A) Sulphide ores B) Oxide ores

    C) Carbonate ores D) All

    29. ( ) 2 2 2Ag S NaCN H O O Air A OH−+ + + → +

    A Zn B+ →

    [B] is a metal, Hence, [A] and [B] are:

    A) ( )2 4 ,Na Zn CN Zn B) ( )2 ,Na Ag CN Ag

    C) ( )2 4 ,Na Ag CN Ag D) ( )3 4 ,Na Ag CN Ag

    30. Oxidation states of the metal in the minerals haematite and

    magnetite, respectively are:

    A) II, III in haematite and III in magnetite

    B) II, III in haematite and II in magnetite

    C) II in haematite and II, III in magnetite

    D) III in haematite and II, III in magnetite

    SECTION – II (31 TO 36)

    (COMPREHENSION TYPE)

    This section contains 3 paragraphs each describing theory, experiments,

    data etc. Six questions relate to the three paragraphs with two

    questions on each paragraph. Each question has only one correct

    answer among the four given options (A), (B), (C) and (D). Marking

    scheme: +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other

    cases.

  • SZ2_JEE-ADV(2014-P2)_WAT-14_QP_Exam.Dt.26-12-2020

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    13

    Comprehension – I:

    There are certain substances which behave as normal, strong electrolytes

    at low concentration but at higher concentration they behave as colloidal

    solutions due to the formation of aggregated particles. Such colloids are

    called associated colloids and the aggregated particles are called micelles.

    Soaps and detergents are the examples of associated colloids. Teh

    formation of micelles takes place above certain concentration called

    critical micellization concentration (CMC) and a characteristic

    temperature.

    31. Micelles are:

    A) Emulsion B) associated colloids

    C) adsorbed catalysts D) ideal solutions

    32 Micelles are formed only:

    A) below the CMC and the Kraft temperature

    B) above the CMC and below the Kraft temperature

    C) above the CMC and above the Kraft temperature

    D) below the CMC and above the Kraft temperature

    Comprehension – II:

    Emulsions are also the colloidal solutions in which dispersed phase as

    well as dispersion medium are liquids. It may be oil in water or water in

    oil type. Bancroft proposed that the phase in which is the emulsifier is

    more soluble becomes the outer phase of the solution. Emulsifiers can be

    used to stabilize the emulsion. Soaps, detergents, proteins and gum, etc.,

    are used as emulsifiers.

    33. Which of the following examples is oil in water type emulsion?

    A) Butter B) Detergent C) Soap D) Milk

    34. Milk is an emulsion in which:

    A) liquid fat is dispersed in water

    B) oil is dispersed in oil

    C) a gas is dispersed in water

    D) water dispersed in oil

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    Comprehension – III:

    To extract metal from concentration ore, it must be converted to a form

    which is suitable for reduction to metal usually sulphide ores are

    converted to oxide before reduction because oxides are easier to reduce .

    Thus isolation of metals from concentrated ore involves two major steps

    viz.

    a) conversion of oxide and b) reduction of the oxide to metal.

    35. Which of the following is/are belongs to Calcination

    A) ( ) ( ) ( )2 3 2 2 23s s gFe O xH O Fe O xH O⎯⎯→ +

    B) ( ) ( ) ( )3 2s s gZnCO ZnO CO⎯⎯→ +

    C) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )3 3 2. 2S S gSCaCO MgCO CaO MgO CO⎯⎯→ + +

    D) All the above

    36. Which of the following is/are reducing agents in the reduction of

    oxide to the metal

    A) C B) CO

    C) Both (A) and (B) D) 2N

    SECTION – III (37 TO 40) (MATCHING LIST TYPE)

    This section contains four questions, each having two matching lists. Choices for the correct combination of elements from Column-I and Column-II are given as options (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which one is correct. Marking scheme: +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.

    37.

    Column-I Column-II

    I. Coagulation p. Scattering of light

    II. Negatively charged sols q. Purification of colloidal solution

    III. Tyndall effect r. Electrophoresis

    IV. Dialysis s. 2 3As S

    A) I-p; II-q; III-r; IV-s B) I-r; II-s; III-p; IV-q

    C) I-p; II-q; III-s; IV-r D) I-r; II-s; III-q, IV-p

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    38.

    Column-I Column-II

    I. Malachite p. Aluminium

    II. Siderite q. Copper

    III. Sphalerite r. Zinc

    IV. Bauxite s. Iron

    A) I-q; II-s; III-r; IV-p

    B) I-q; II-s; III-p; IV-r

    C) I-p; II-q; III-r; IV-s

    D) I-p; II-q; III-s; IV-r

    39.

    Column-I Column-II

    I. Calcination P. 2 2 2 22 3 2 2Cu S O Cu O SO+ ⎯⎯→ +

    II. Roasting Q. ( ) ( ) ( )2 3 2 2 23. s s gFe O nH O Fe O nH O⎯⎯→ +

    III. Flux R. x yM O yc xM yco+ ⎯⎯→ +

    IV. Reduction of oxide to the metal S. 2 3SiO Feo FeSiO+ ⎯⎯→

    A) I-p; II-q; III-r; IV-s

    B) I-p; II-q; III-s; IV-r

    C) I-q; II-p; III-s; IV-r

    D) I-q; II-p; III-r; IV-s

    40

    Column-I Column-II

    I. ( ) ( )3 2 33 3FeCl H O Fe OH sol HCl+ ⎯⎯→ + P. Oxidation

    II. ( )2 2 22 3 2SO H S S Sol H O+ ⎯⎯→ + Q. Reduction

    III. ( )3 22 3 3 2 3 6AuCl HCHO H O Au sol HCOOH HCl+ + ⎯⎯→ + + R. Hydrolysis

    IV. ( )2 3 2 2 3 23 3AS O H S AS S sol H O+ ⎯⎯→ + S. Double

    decomposition

    A) I-r; II-p; III-q; IV-s

    B) I-p; II-q; III-r; IV-s

    C) I-p; II-q; III-s; IV-r

    D) I-q; II-p; III-r; IV-s

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    16

    SECTION –I (41 TO 50) (ONLY ONE OPTION CORRECT TYPE)

    This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only one option is correct. Marking scheme: +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.

    41. A circle of constant radius a passes through the origin O and cuts

    the axes of coordinates at point P and Q. Then the equation of the

    locus of the foot of perpendicular from O to PQ is

    A) ( )2 2 22 21 1

    4x y ax y

    + + =

    B) ( )

    22 2 2

    2 2

    1 1x y a

    x y

    + + =

    C) ( )2

    2 2 2

    2 2

    1 14x y a

    x y

    + + =

    D) ( )2 2 22 2

    1 1x y a

    x y

    + + =

    42. The difference between the radii of the largest and the smallest

    circles which have their center on the circumference of the circle

    2 2 2 4 4 0y x yx + + + − = and pass through the point (a, b) lying outside

    the given circle is

    A) 6 B) ( ) ( )2 2

    1 2a b+ + +

    C) 3 D) ( ) ( )2 2

    1 2 3a b+ + + −

    43. An isosceles triangle ABC is inscribed in a circle 2 2 2y ax + = with

    the vertex A at (a,0) and the base angle B and C each equal to 075

    . Then the coordinates of an endpoint of the base are

    A) 3

    ,2 2

    a a −

    B) 3

    ,2

    aa

    C) 3

    ,2 2

    a a

    D) 3

    ,2 2

    a a −

    44. A circle passing through origin O cuts two straight lines x-y=0 and

    x+y=0 in points A and B respectively. If abscissae of A and B are

    roots of the equation 2 0x ax b+ + = , then the equation of the given

    circle is :

    A) 2 2 0x y ax by+ + − = B) 2 2 24 0x y x b a yb+ − − + =

    C) 2 2 2 4 0x y ax y a b+ + − = D) 2 2 2 4 0x y ax y a b+ − − =

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    45. Let PQR be a right angled isosceles triangles, right angled at P(2,1).

    If the equation of the line QR is 2x+y=3, then the equation

    representing the pair of lines PQ and PR is :

    A) 2 23 8 20 10 25 03 y xy x yx − + + + + =

    B) 2 23 8 20 10 25 03 y xy x yx − + − − + =

    C) 2 23 8 10 15 20 03 y xy x yx − + + + + =

    D) 2 23 8 10 15 20 03 y xy x yx − − − − − =

    46. There exists two ordered triplets ( )1 1 1, ,a b c and ( )2 2 2, ,a b c for (a,b,c)

    for which the equation 2 24 1 04 xy ay bx cyx − + + + + = represents a pair

    of identical straight lines in x-y plane. Find the value of

    1 1 1 2 2 2b c a b ca + + + + + .

    A) 3 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4

    47. The lines 1L and 2L denoted by 2 23 10 8 14 22 15 0x xy y x y+ + + + + =

    intersects at the point P and having slopes 1m and 2m respectively.

    The acute angle between them is . Which of the following relations

    hold good.

    A) 1 25

    4m m+ = B) 1 2

    2

    8m m = C) 1

    1sin

    5 5

    − =

    D) Sum of abscissa and ordinate of point P is 1−

    48. Area of the triangle formed by the line x+y=3 and angle bisector of

    the pair of straigh t lines 2 2 2 1 0x y y− + − = is :

    A) 2 sq.units B) 4 sq. units

    C) 6 sq.units D) 8 sq.units

    49. The orthocentre of a triangle formed by the line 3x y+ = and pair of

    lines 2 26 5 6 5 1 0x xy y x y− − + + − = is

    A) 13 65

    ,169 169

    B) 13 65

    ,169 169

    C) 13 65

    ,169 169

    − −

    D) 13 65

    ,169 169

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    50. If 1x y

    a b+ = intersects 2 25 5 5 5 9 0x y bx ay ab+ + + − = at P and Q,

    2POQ

    = then the relation between a and b is

    A) a b= B) 2 2a b or b a= =

    C) 3 3a b or b a= = D) 5a b+ =

    SECTION – II (51 TO 56)

    (COMPREHENSION TYPE)

    This section contains 3 paragraphs each describing theory, experiments, data etc. Six questions relate to the three paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question has only one correct answer among the four given options (A), (B), (C) and (D). Marking scheme: +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.

    Comprehension – I:

    Consider a Circle 2 2 2y ax + = . Let A(a,0) and ( ),D be the given interior

    points of the circle. BC be an arbitrary chord of the circle through point

    D inclined at an angle with the positive x-axis. Also, 1DB r= and

    2DC r= .

    51. The harmonic mean of BD and DC is

    A) ( )

    2 2 2

    2 cos sin

    a

    + −

    + B)

    ( )

    2 2 2

    cos sin

    a

    + −−

    +

    C) 2 2 2

    sin cos

    a

    + −

    + D)

    ( )2 2 22cos sin

    a

    + −

    +

    52. The locus of the centroid of ABC is

    A) ( )2

    2 1 2

    3 3

    a r rx y

    − − + =

    B) ( )

    22 1 2

    3 3

    a r rx y

    + + + =

    C) ( )2

    2 1 2

    3 3

    a r ry x

    + − + =

    D) ( )

    22 1 2

    3 3

    a r rx y

    + − + =

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    Comprehension – II:

    If 2 2 0g f c+ − , then the equation 2 2 2 2 0x y gx fy c+ + + + = represents a

    circle with centre ( ),g f− − and radius 2 2g f c+ −

    53. If 2 2 2 2 9 0x y gx fy+ + + + = represents a circle with centre ( )1, 3− , then

    radius is

    A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) –1

    54. The length of the diameter of the circle 2 2 6 8 0x y x y+ − − = is

    A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20

    Comprehension – III:

    Consider a pair of perpendicular straight lines

    2 23 2 5 5 0xy y x y cax + − − + + =

    55. The value of c is

    A) -3 B) 3 C) -1 D) 1

    56. Distance between the orthocenter and the circumcenter of triangle

    ABC is

    A) 4 B) 9/2 C) 8/3 D) 7/4

    SECTION – III (57 TO 60)

    (MATCHING LIST TYPE)

    This section contains four questions, each having two matching lists. Choices

    for the correct combination of elements from Column-I and Column-II are given as options (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which one is correct. Marking

    scheme: +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.

    57. Match the following

    Let 1C and 2C be two circles whose equations are 2 2 2 0y xx + − = and

    2 2 2 0y xx + + = . ( ),P is a variable point. Then match the

    following.

    Column-I Column –II

    P) P lies inside 1C but outside 2C . 1) ( ) ( ), 1 0, − −

    Q) P lies inside 2C but outside 1C 2) ( ) ( ), 1 1, − −

    R) P lies outside 1C but outside 2C . 3) ( )1,0 −

    S) P does not lie inside 2C 4) ( )0,1

    A) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4 B) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

    C) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1 D) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-4

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    58.

    Column-I Column –II

    P) The pair of lines joining the origin to the

    points of intersection of the curve

    2 29 16 144x y+ = by the line 2 2 0x y+ + = are

    coincident, then is divisible by

    1) 2

    Q) If the straight lines joining the origin to the

    points of intersection of the straight line

    4 3 24x y+ = and the curve

    ( ) ( )2 2 23 4 ,x y− + − = are at right angles,

    then is divisible by

    2) 3

    R) The two line pairs 2 4 3 0y y− + = and

    2 24 4 5 10 4 0x xy y x y+ + − − + = enclose a

    4sided convex polygon, if area of polygon

    is sq units, then is divisible by

    3) 5

    S) If the pairs of lines 2 23 2 3 0x pxy y− − = and

    2 25 2 5 0x qxy y− − = are such that each pair

    bisects the angle between the other pair. If

    ,pq = then is divisible by

    4) 6

    A) P-1,3; Q-3; R-1,2,4; S-2,3

    B) P-2; Q-3,2; R-4;S-1

    C) P-2,3;Q-2; R-3; S-1,3

    D) P-1,2,4; Q-4;R-2; S-3

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    59. Let ( ) ( )1 1 2 2 3 3, , ( , ), ,A x y B x y C x y be 3 distinct points lying on circle

    2 2 1: yS x + = , such that 1 2 1 2 2 3 2 3 3 1 3 13

    2x y y x x y y x x y yx + + + + + = −

    Column-I Column –II

    P) Let P be any arbitrary point lying on S, then

    ( ) ( ) ( )2 2 2

    PA PB PC+ + =

    1) 3

    Q) Let the perpendicular dropped from point ‘A’

    to BC meets S at Q and k

    OBQ =

    , where ‘O’

    is origin, then k=

    2) 4

    C) Let R be the point lying on line x+y=2 at the

    minimum distance from S and the square of

    maximum distance of R from S is ba b+ ,

    then a+b=

    3) 5

    D) Let I and G represent incenter and centroid of

    ABC respectively, then

    IA IB IC GA GB GC+ + + + + =

    4) 6

    A) P-1; Q-2; R-3;S-4 B) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

    C) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3 D) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4

    60. Match the loci given in the column II with the equations given in

    the column I

    Column-I Column –II

    P) 3 3 0x y+ = 1) No real line

    Q) 2 2 32 0x y xy y+ + = 2) One real line

    R) ( ) ( )2 2

    2 21 4 0x y− + − = 3) Two distinct real lines

    S) ( )( ) ( ) ( )22 2 21 1 1 1 0x x x y y x− − + − + = 4) Four distinct real lines

    T) 5) Four points

    A) P-2; Q-3; R-1,5; S-2,5 B) P-1,2; Q-4,3; R-2,3; S-1,4

    C) P-3; Q- 1,2; R-3,4; S -1,3 D) P-2; Q-3,4; R-4; S-1