ccna 3 part a

CCNA 3 part A (Final exam) 1 After comparing a previous baseline to current network statistics, the network engineer has discovered a significant increase in unwarranted traffic to the extranet. Which two steps simplify administration and control the unwanted traffic? (Choose two.)

define an ACL at the distribution layer to isolate packets

add an ACL at the router in the enterprise edge to block the traffic

deploy a Layer 3 switch to contain broadcasts

connect remote locations directly to the intranet

configure all hosts with the same default gateway to eliminate unnecessary broadcasts

deploy one core ISP router to reduce the delay in path determination 2

What are three correct host addresses in the 172.16.0.0/17 network? (Choose three.) 172.16.0.255

172.16.16.16

172.16.127.127

172.16.128.1

172.17.1.1

172.18.1.1

3 A RIPv2 enabled router has been configured with the redistribute static command. What function does this command serve?

creates a default route

propagates a default route to neighboring routers

allows the default administrative distance for static routes to be altered

establishes a backup static route which can be used if the dynamic routing protocol fails

4 What is a limitation of RIPv1?

RIPv1 cannot run on networks that are using RIPv2.

RIPv1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.

RIPv1 is not widely supported by networking hardware vendors.

RIPv1 requires enhanced router processors and extra RAM to function effectively.

RIPv1 consumes excessive bandwidth by multicasting routing updates using a Class D address.

5 What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a Layer 2 switch?

to allow in-band management

to provide inter-VLAN connectivity

to facilitate election of a root bridge

to configure a default gateway for the network

6 What are two advantages of using dynamic routing protocols in a network? (Choose two.) They adapt to topological changes.

They are more secure than static routes.

They eliminate the need for default routes.

They have lower administrative distances than static routes.

They enable routers to share information about the reachability and status of remote networks.

7 Which two statements correctly describe RSTP? (Choose two.)

It is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

It recalculates the spanning tree in less than 1 second.

It requires the PortFast and UplinkFast features on switch ports.

It supports four states: blocking, listening, learning, and forwarding. It requires a full-duplex, point-to-point connection between switches to achieve the highest recalculation speed.

8 Which action is taken by a switch on untagged frames that are received on a 802.1q trunk interface? They are dropped.

They are associated with the native VLAN.

They are forwarded into the management VLAN.

They are forwarded out all interfaces except the receiving interface.

9 What do companies gain from the services performed at the enterprise edge?

faster communication with server farms

stronger security against malicious attacks

faster communication with Internet destinations

enhanced performance and reliability through VLANs and redundant trunk links

10 What is the function of mutilink PPP?

It allows VLAN ID information to be forwarded between multiple routers on the WAN.

It allows multiple physical links to be used as a single logical link.

It allows multiple remote users to share the same VPN tunnel.

It allows an enterprise to connect to multiple ISPs

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are included in the failure domain of SW2?

SW4, HUB1

HUB1, D, E

SW4, HUB1, C, D, E

RTRA, SW1, SW3, SW4, HUB1, A, B, C, D, E

12 Which subprotocol does PPP use to establish, maintain, test, and terminate a point-to-point link?

LCP

NCP

IPCP

IPXCP

13

Refer to the exhibit. Internet access is crucial for the company network shown. Internet access is provided by two ISPs. ISP1 is the primary provider and ISP2 is the backup provider. The network administrator configures BorderR as the border router so that in normal operations, all Internet traffic goes through ISP1. However, if the link to ISP1 fails, then BorderR will automatically forward Internet traffic to ISP2. The administrator configures two default routes: BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.100.1 200 BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1 However, when the administrator issued the show ip route command to verify the configuration, only the second default route is in the routing table. Why is the first default route not showing?

The first configuration command overwrites the second command. The first default route will be installed into the routing table if there is traffic with an IP address that is destined for the 192.168.100.0 network. This is expected because the link to ISP1 is active. If the link to ISP1 goes down, then the first default route will be installed into the routing table. The first default route cannot be installed into the routing table unless the administrator manually disables the second default route with the no ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1 command.

14 What will allow a LAN switched network to maintain VLAN configuration consistency across the network?

Enable CDP on all switch access ports.

Configure DTP on all trunk ports.

Enable STP on all switches.

Configure VTP on all switches.

15

Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the routing table?

R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1





16 A Frame Relay service provider is reviewing a contract with a potential customer. Which term would be used when referencing the minimum guaranteed bandwidth that is provided on each virtual circuit?

EIR

CIR

Tc

Bc

DE

17

Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address can be assigned to the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to enable host A to access host B?

192.168.1.32/26

192.168.1.64/26

192.168.1.126/26

192.168.1.129/26

18

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wishes to deny Internet access to all R2 LAN hosts, while allowing these hosts to reach all other devices on the company networks. Where should the ACL shown in the exhibit be placed to meet these requirements?

R2: Fa0/0 inbound

R1: S0/1/0 outbound

R1: S0/0/1 inbound

R2: S0/0/1 outbound

R2: Fa0/0 outbound

19 What is a feature of UDP that makes it the preferred transport protocol for VoIP communications?

minimizes delay and latency

prioritizes and sorts traffic into queues

classifies packets by the use of quality of service

uses acknowledgments to guarantee delivery of packets

20

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a Cisco router for inter-VLAN routing. The router is connected to port Fa0/24 on the switch using a straight-through cable and all switchports are configured as access ports. What will be the result of the configuration?

Inter-VLAN traffic will not be routed.

The switch will add VLAN tags and forward them to the router.

The router subinterfaces will add the appropriate VLAN tags and route between VLANs.

The switch port will auto-negotiate to a trunk port and will allow for inter-VLAN routing.

21 What are two characteristics of a static route? (Choose two.) A static route can be used by border routers to provide secure and stable paths to the ISP.

By default, a static route is more secure than dynamic routing.

A static route automatically adapts to topology changes.

A static route can only be used with classful addressing schemes.

A static route creates processing overhead in a large network.

22 Which statement is true about the difference between CHAP and PAP in PPP authentication?

PAP and CHAP provide equivalent protection against replay attacks.

PAP sends the password encrypted and CHAP does not send the password at all.

PAP uses a two-way handshake method and CHAP uses a three-way handshake method. PAP sends the password once and CHAP sends the password repeatedly until acknowledgement of authentication is received.

23 What is the difference between the passive and active route status as displayed in an EIGRP topology table?

Routes that are passive are never updated.

Routes that are active are used to forward data.

Routes that are active are being recalculated by DUAL.

Routes that are passive are waiting for the neighbor adjacency process to complete.

24

Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network. What is the reason for the route in the last line of the routing table to be marked as D EX?

The route is configured as a static route on router R1.

The route is a feasible successor to the destination 192.168.2.0/24 network.

The route is learned from another routing protocol or from outside the EIGRP network.

The route is in the “Active” state and will be removed from the routing table in 4 minutes and 23 seconds.

25

Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.30.20.0/24 network are unable to access any of the servers located on the 192.168.0.0/23 network. Given the network topology and OSPF configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two.)

There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers.

There is a network statement missing.

Network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.

The OSPF area configuration is incorrect.

/23 is an invalid subnet mask for the 192.168.0.0 network.

26

Refer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPF as the routing protocol. A network administrator issues the show ip ospf neighbor command to check the status of operation. Which statement is true?

RB has the lowest priority value.

RC and RD have the lowest router IDs on the network.

RA has established adjacencies with all neighbor routers.

RA and RB can not form an adjacency because they are stuck in the 2-way state.

27

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the address translation configuration for traffic that exits interface s0/0/0?

All hosts on the inside network will have their addresses translated to 172.31.232.182.

All hosts that connect to interface s0/0/0 will have their addresses translated to 172.31.232.0/24 addresses.

All hosts on the 172.31.232.0/24 network will have their addresses translated to 209.165.202.1. All hosts on the inside network will have their addresses translated to any one of the addresses from the 209.165.202.0/24 subnet.

28 Which element of the hierarchical design model provides a connection point for end-user devices to the network?

core layer

edge device

access layer

enterprise edge

distribution layer

29 What are two features of an extended IP ACL? (Choose two.)

It uses numbers 1 through 99 for identification.

It can permit or deny traffic based on source or destination address.

It detects malicious attacks against the network and logs them on a server.

It can filter traffic based on the protocol and port numbers.

It encrypts traffic between hosts.

30

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator sees this error message after entering commands to configure a router interface. Which command could the administrator enter that would avoid the error?

Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.4.0/24

Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.4.1 255.255.255.0



31 Where are EIGRP successor routes stored?

only in the routing table

only in the neighbor table

in the routing table and the topology table

in the routing table and the neighbor table

32

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 cannot communicate. What could be the cause of the problem?

Usernames on both routers R1 and R2 are misconfigured.

The passwords are identical on both routers.

The encapsulation command is entered incorrectly.

The IP addressing scheme has incorrect subnet masks.

33 What is the maximum size of an IEEE 802.1q frame?

4 bytes

64 bytes

1280 bytes

1500 bytes

1522 bytes

65,535 bytes

34

Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the Null0 route for the 128.107.0.0 network?

a child route that is defined

a parent route that is defined and sourced from a physical interface

a summary route for advertising purposes, not an actual path

the result of the no auto-summary command on a router

35 Which two statements describe how the information contained in a BPDU is used by a switch? (Choose two.)

to set the duplex mode of a redundant link

to activate looped paths throughout the network

to determine the root bridge

to prevent loops by sharing routing tables between connected switches

to determine which ports are placed in forwarding mode

36

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has implemented NAT on R1. Which two addresses are valid inside global addresses? (Choose two.)

192.168.1.1

192.168.1.2

198.133.219.1

198.133.219.102

198.133.219.103

37

Refer to the exhibit. Which Telnet session will be blocked as a result of the displayed commands?

the session from host A to host B

the session from host B to hosts C and D

the session from host B to hosts E and F

the session from host E and host F to host A and host B

38

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF has been configured as a routing protocol on all routers in OSPF area 0. Based on the cost value of the links, which path will be selected by the SPF algorithm to forward traffic from router R4 to network A?

R4-R2-R1

R4-R3-R1

R4-R2-R3-R1 R4-R3-R2-R1 (because it has 25 cost, it use for select the shortest path to each destination and the total cost of each path Answer key chapter 6 part 6.1.2.2 )

39 In order for a VLAN to be created on a switch, what configuration parameter is required?

VTP domain name

VLAN number

VLAN IP address

VLAN database name

40

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF has been configured on all routers. What is the DR/BDR status immediately after all routers have converged?

R1 is the DR. R3 is the BDR.



R4 is the DR. R5 is the BDR. R5 is the DR. R2 is the BDR. (base on priority number of R5 =250 and loopback ip address interface are bigger than R2)

41 How can a network administrator determine if network traffic has matched an ACL if there is no syslog server configured on the network?

Issue the show access-lists command.

Delete the ACL and add it back, noting changes in traffic flow.

Remove the ACL from any configured interface and note traffic changes.

Verify the counters on the router interface and see if they are incrementing.

42

Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 is configured in the network shown. Hosts in the network have access to all internal networks but do not have Internet access. On which router should the commands, shown in the exhibit, be added to provide Internet access for all hosts in the network?

R1 R2 (because R2 is connected to internet (border router) we use default route or static route on the router that connect to ISP) R3

ISP

43 How does CHAP secure connectivity on a PPP link?

It uses a two-way handshake to send the username and password.

It encrypts user data that is sent across the link.

It designates the remote node to control the frequency and timing of the login attempts. It authenticates the username and password during initial link establishment and repeatedly during the time the link is active.

44 A network administrator is creating an addressing scheme and has determined that the company network 192.168.1.0/24 will require 8 subnets with at least 25 hosts on each subnet. Which subnet mask will meet these requirements?

/25

/26

/27

/28

/29

45 Which routing protocol uses RTP for reliable route update delivery?

RIPv1

RIPv2

OSPF

EIGRP

46

Refer to the exhibit. An enterprise web server has a private IP address. To allow access to the web server

from external users, a static NAT statement is configured on the Border router. In an attempt to manage traffic that is bound for the server, the network administrator creates an inbound ACL on the outside NAT interface of the router. What address will be used in the ACL as the destination IP address?

the inside interface address of the router

the external interface address of the router

the private address of the web server

the translated public address of the web server

47

Refer to the exhibit. In what sequence (from first to last) does an OSPF router check the parameters listed when selecting the DR?

C, B, A, D

D, C, B, A

A, B, C, D

A, C, B, D

B, C, A, D

48

Refer to the exhibit. Which route will be added to the routing table of R1 as a result of running the commands displayed?

D 192.168.0.0/24 is a summary, Null0

D 192.168.0.0/22 is a summary, Null0

D 192.168.0.0/24 [90/203010] via 10.1.1.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0

D 192.168.0.0/22 [90/203010] via 10.1.1.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0

49

Refer to the exhibit. A router has learned the six routes that are shown in the exhibit. Which two routes will be installed in the routing table? (Choose two.)

1

2

3

4

5

6

50 Which routing protocol is unable to support discontiguous networks?

RIPv1

RIPv2

EIGRP

OSPF Answer Key chapter 5 part 5.2.2.1 :

51 What should be considered when designing an addressing scheme that uses private IP address space? Private IP addresses are globally routable.

Address summarization is not recommended.

Hierarchical design principles should be utilized.

Discontiguous networks are no longer problematic.

52 A network administrator at headquarters is configuring an ACL for a remote router in the branch office. The administrator issues the command reload in 20 before the ACL is placed for testing. What is the purpose of this command?

If remote access to the router is blocked, the router will reload in 20 seconds.

The router will automatically reload in 20 minutes even if remote connectivity is lost. If a remote connection to the router lasts for 20 minutes, the router will save the configuration to NVRAM and reload. If a packet from a denied source attempts to enter an interface where the ACL is applied, the router will reload in 20 seconds.