Basic Principles: Structure of Matter

Elements, compounds and mixtures

A sample of unknown composition was tested in a laboratory. The sample could not be decomposed by physical or chemical means. On the basis of these results, the laboratory reported that the unknown sample was most likely A. a compound B. an element C. a mixture D. a solution The particles of a substance are arranged in a definite geometric pattern and are constantly vibrating. This substance can be in

A. the solid phase, only. B. the liquid phase, only. C. either the liquid or the solid phase. D. neither the liquid nor the solid phase.

Atoms, molecules, and ions

Basic properties of solids, liquids and gasses.

Which statement correctly describes a sample of gas confined in a sealed container? A. It always has a definite volume, and it takes the shape of the container. B. It takes the shape and the volume of any container in which it is confined. C. It has a crystalline structure. D. It consists of particles arranged in a regular geometric pattern

Basic Principles: Basic Structure of the Atom

Atomic models

Atomic Structures including nucleus, electrons, protons and neutrons

Atomic number, atomic mass, isotopes

An atom of a given element has 19 protons and 23 neutrons. What is the name of the element? A. Beryllium B. Potassium C. Vanadium D. Molybdenum The nucleus of an atom of gold-198 contains A. 79 protons and 119 neutrons B. 79 protons and 118 neutrons C.197 protons and 197 neutrons D.198 protons and 198 neutrons

Electron arrangements (e.g. valence electrons)

is the electron configuration for which element? A. aluminum (Al) B. argon (Ar) C. potassium (K) D. sodium (Na) Which group in the periodic table forms ions that have a valence of +1? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Which orbital notation represents a boron atom in the ground state?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Basic Principles: Basic Characteristics of radioactive materials

Radioisotopes

Radioactive decay processes and half-life

The diagram below represents the present number of decayed and undecayed atoms in a sample that was originally 100% radioactive material.

How many half-lives have gone by? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Gold-191 is a radioactive isotope that has a half-life of 12.4 hours. If a lab starts with a 13.2 milligram sample of gold-191, how much will remain after 37.2 hours? A. 6.60 mg B. 4.40 mg C. 1.65 mg D. 0.825 mg

Characteristics of alpha particles, beta particles and gamma radiation

Which of the following radioactive emissions is the largest in size? A. alpha particle B. beta particle C. gamma D. X-ray

Fission and fusion

Fission and fusion are two methods of producing nuclear energy. Which method is used in nuclear power reactors and why? A. Fusion, because it creates less waste. B. Fission, because it produces more energy per atom of fuel than fusion. C. Fusion, because it prodeuces more energy per atom of fuel than fission. D. Fission, because fusion requires a large input of energy in order to occur. The energy emitted by the Sun originates from the process of A. fission B. fusion C. alpha decay D. beta decay Which of the following equations represents a nuclear fusion reaction?

A.

B.

C.

D. Basic Principles: Basic Concepts and Relationships involving Energy and Matter

Conservation of energy (first law of thermodynamics)

Entropy changes (second law of thermodynamics)

Given the change of phase: CO2(g) --> CO2(s)

As CO2(g) changes to CO2(s), the entropy of the system

A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same D. increases, then decreases Which tendencies favor a spontaneous reaction? A. decrasing enthalpy and decreasing entropy B. decreasing enthalpy and increasing entropy C. increasing enthalpy and decreasing entropy D. increasing enthalpy and increasing entropy

Conservation of matter in chemical systems

Kinetic and potential energy

Application of energy and matter relationships respiration])

Chemistry: Periodicity and States of Matter - Periodic Table of the Elements

Elements arranged in groups and periods

Which trends appear as the elements in Period 3 are considered from left to right? A. Metallic character decreases, and the number of protons increases. B. Metallic character decreases, and the number of protons decreases. C. Metallic character increases, and the number of protons increases. D. Metallic character increases, and the number of protons decreases.

Atomic number, Atomic mass, and isotopic abundance

The relative atomic mass of Boron is approximately 10.8, and two isotopes of Boron occur naturally on Earth, Boron-10 and Boron-11. Based on this information, which isotope of Boron is more abundant on Earth? A. Boron-10 B. Boron-11 C. they are both equally abundant D. there is no way to tell

What is the molar mass of O 2?

A. 8.0 g B. 16.0 g C. 24.0 g D. 32.0 g

Symbols of the elements

What is the total number of protons in an atom of 5726Fe?

A. 26 B. 31 C. 57 D. 83

Trends in physical properties based on position of elements on the periodic table (e.g. atomic radius, ionization energy)

Compared to lithium, fluorine is A. more electronegative and has a higher ionization energy B. more electronegative and has a lower ionization energy C. less electronegative and has a higher ionization energy D. less electronegative and has a lower ionization energy The atom of which element has an ionic radius smaller than its atomic radius? A. N B. S C. Br D. Rb

Trends in chemical reactivity based on position of elements on the periodic table (e.g. metals, nonmetals, noble gases)

Chemistry: Periodicity and States of Matter - States of Matter and Factors that Affect Phase Changes

Basic assumptions of the kinetic theory of matter (e.g. particles in constant motion, average speed of gas particles related to temperature)

Ideal gas laws (e.g. volume is proportional to temperature, pressure is inversely related to volume)

As the pressure on an unconfined gas decreases, the volume of the gas will

A. increase B. decrease C. remain the same D. increase or decrease depending on the type of gas Outside of a sealed container, as the temperature of a gas increases, its volume

A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same D. can either increase or decrease depending on the type of gas Use Charles’ law, as shown by the formula below, to answer the question.

2

2

1

1

T

V

T

V=

A gas occupies a volume of 100 mL at 300 K. At what temperature will the gas have a volume of 200 mL? A. 100 K B. 310 K C. 600 K D. 900 K Use Boyle’s law, as shown by the formula below, to answer the question.

2211 VpVp =

The pressure on a gas sample is increased from 50 kPa to 100 kPa. If the initial volume of the gas is 150 mL, what is the final volume of the gas? A. 33 mL B. 75 mL C. 300 mL D. 5,000 mL

Phase transitions and energy changes (e.g. heat of vaporization, heat of sublimination, phase diagrams, heating curves)

As ice cream melts, its molecules

A. absorb heat energy and move further apart B. absorb heat energy and move closer together C. release heat energy and move farther apart D. release heat energy and move closer together The graph shown represents the relationship between temperature and time as heat is added uniformly to a substance, starting when the substance is a solid below its melting point.

What is happening during the time represented by the portion of the line labeled B? A. The substance is melting as heat is added and temperature remains constant B. The substance is melting as heat is added and temperature increases C. The substance is evaporating as heat is added and temperature remains constant D. The substance is evaporating as heat is added and temperature increases Which portions of the graph represent times when heat is absorbed and potential energy increases while kinetic energy remains constant?

A. A and B B. B and D C. A and C D. C and D Given the constants in the table below:

Approximately how many joules are released when a 5.00-gram sample of water changes from liquid to solid at 0oC? A. 334 J B. 1670 J C. 2260 J D. 11,300 J A 0.0150 kg cylinder of zinc cooled from 100.0ºC to 20.0ºC. The metal lost 466 J of heat energy. What is the specific heat capacity of the zinc?

A. 311 CKg

J

°⋅

B. 388 CKg

J

°⋅

C. 559 CKg

J

°⋅

D. 1550 CKg

J

°⋅

Chemistry: Chemical

Interpreting chemical formulas

Which of the following compounds contains the MOST atoms?

Nomenclature, Composition, and Bonding - Name of simple compounds and Their Chemical Formulas

A. K2MnO7 B. Al2(SO4)3 C. C4H4F4Cl2 D. Hg2(NO3)2

What is the correct formula for the compound formed when lithium and oxygen combine?

A. LiO B. Li2O C. LiO2 D. Li2O2

Naming compounds based on formula

The compound formed from the elements calcium and chlorine is known as A. calcium calcide B. calcite C. calcium chloride D. calcium chlorate When a fluoride ion (F-) combines with a hydrogen ion (H+) they form the acid: HF. HF is known as A. hydrochloric acid B. hydroflouric acid C. hydroflourous acid D. hydrogen fluoride acid

Writing forumlas based on name

Carbon tetrachloride is represented by the chemical formula A. CCl4 B. C4Cl C. CCl5 D. C5Cl

Structural formulas (e.g. electron dot, Lewis structures)

How many valence electrons does an atom of Beryllium have? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

Chemistry: Chemical Nomenclature, Composition, and Bonding - Types of Chemical Bonding

Covalent and ionic

Compared to ionic bonds, covalent bonds A. involve the transfer of electrons and generally produce compounds with high boiling points B. involve the transfer of electrons and generally produce compounds with low boiling points. C. involve the sharing of electrons and generally produce compounds with high boiling points D. involve the sharing of electrons and generally produce compounds with low boiling points Which pair of elements will form an ionic compound? A. Na and Cu B. K and Cl C. Ne and O D. Li and Mg

Chemistry: Chemical Nomenclature, Composition, and Bonding - Mole concept and its applications

Avogadro's number

Molar mass and percent composition

Chemistry: Chemical Reactions - Basic Concepts involved in chemical reactions

Use and balance equations of simple chemical reactions (balance equations; simple stoichiometric calculations based on balanced equations)

Which combustion reaction is correctly balanced? A. CH4 + O2 → CO2 + H2O B. CH4 + O2 → CO2 + 2H2O C. CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O D. CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 3H2O

Endothermic and exothermic reactions

Given the balanced equation representing a reaction:

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → 2H2O(g) + CO2(g) + heat

Which statement is true about energy in this reaction? A. The reaction is exothermic because it releases heat. B. The reaction is exothermic because it absorbs heat. C. The reaction is endothermic because it releases heat. D. The reaction is endothermic because it absorbs heat.

Factors that affect reaction rates (e.g. concentration, temperature, pressure, catalysts/enzymes, activation energy)

Base your answer on the potential energy diagram of a chemical reaction shown.

Which arrow represents the activation energy for the forward reaction? A. A B. B C. C D. D In each of the four beakers shown in the accompanying image, a 2.0-centimeter strip of magnesium ribbon reacts with 100 milliliters of HCl(aq) under the conditions shown.

In which beaker will the reaction occur at the fastest rate? A. A B. B C. C D. D

At standard temperature and pressure, a 5 gram sample of powdered iron will react more quickly with dilute hydrochloric acid than a 5 gram sheet of hammered iron. Why is this? A. Because the iron sheet is denser than the iron powder. B. Because the iron powder has more surface area exposed to the acid than the iron sheet. C. Because the iron sheet has more surface area exposed to the acid than the iron powder.

D. Because the iron sheet is less dense than the Factors that affect reaction equilibrium (e.g. Le Chatelier's principle)

Which statement best describes a chemical reaction when it reaches equilibrium? A. The concentrations of reactants and products are the same. B. The concentrations of the reactants decrease to zero. C. The forward and reverse reaction rates are the same. D. The forward reaction rate decreases to zero.

Types of reactions (e.g. combustion, single or double replacement)

Which equation is an example of a synthesis reaction?

A. 8Fe + S8 → 8FeS B. 2 H2O → 2H2 + O2 C. Mg + 2H2O →Mg(OH)2 + H2 D. Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI → PbI2 + 2KNO3

Look at the reaction below. H2CO3 → H2O + CO2

What type of reaction is represented by this equation? A. synthesis B. decomposition C. combustion D. single replacement Look at the reaction below:

AgNO 3 + NaCl ���� AgCl + NaNO 3

What type of reaction is represented by this equation?

A. synthesis B. decomposition C. single replacement D. double replacement

Simple oxidation-reduction reactions

Chemistry: Acid-Based Chemistry - Simple acid-base chemistry

Chemical and physical properties of acids and bases

Compared to bases, acids are more likely to A. become slippery when reacting with water. B. react with metals to release hydrogen gas. C. produce salts when mixed with an acid. D. become more acidic when mixed with a base. Potassium hydroxide (KOH) is A. a base because it increases the concentration of hydroxide ions in solution B. a base because it increases the concentration of hydronium ions in solution C. an acid because it increases the concentration of hydroxide ions in solution D. an acid because it increases the concentration of hydronium ions in solution

pH scale

Which relationship is present in a basic solution? A. [H3O+] = [OH-] B. [H3O+] > [OH-] C. [H3O+] < [OH-] D. [H3O+] + [OH-] Which relationship is present in a solution that has a pH of 9? A. [H3O

+] = [OH-] B. [H3O

+] > [OH-] C. [H3O

+] < [OH-] D. [H3O

+] + [OH-]

Neutralization Which equation represents a neutralization reaction? A. 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s) B. 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l ) C. HNO3(aq) + KOH(aq) → KNO3(aq) + H2O(l ) D. AgNO3(aq) + KCl(aq) → KNO3(aq) + AgCl(s) An an acid solution is added to neutralize a base solution, the OH- concentration of the base solution A. decreases B. increases

C. remains the same D. decreases then increases

Acid-base indicators (e.g. phenolphthalein, pH paper, litmus paper)

The table below shows the color changes that take place when solutions of specific pHs are tested with the given indicators.

A solution of unknown pH is tested with methyl orange and bromersol green. In the solution, the methyl orange was red and the bromeresol green was blue. Which of the following could describe the unknown solution? A. a basic solution with a pH of 3.5 B. a basic solution with a pH of 4.0 C. an acidic solution with a pH of 3.5 D. an acidic solution with a pH of 4.0

Chemistry: Solutions and Solubility - Different Types of Solutions

Dilute and concentrated

saturate, unsaturate, supersaturated

solvent and solute

concentration terms (e.g. molarity, parts per million (ppm))

Preparation of solutions of varying concentrations

Which preparation produces a 2.0 M solution of C6H12O6? [molecular mass = 180.0] A. 90.0 g of C6H12O6 dissolved in 500.0 mL of solution B. 90.0 g of C6H12O6 dissolved in 1000. mL of solution C. 180.0 g of C6H12O6 dissolved in 500.0 mL of solution D. 180.0 g of C6H12O6 dissolved in 1000. mL of solution

Chemistry: Solutions and Solubility - Factors affecting the solubility of substances and the dissolving process

Effect of temperature, pressure, particle size, and agitation on the rate of dissolving

Effect of temperature and pressure on solubility (e.g. solubility curves)

Polar vs. nonpolar solvents and solutes

Dissociation of ionic compounds such as salts in water (e.g. ionization, electrolytes)

Which dissolution reaction below will yield a solution that is not conductive?

A. HCl(g) H+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

B. NaCl(s) Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

C. C2H5OH(l) C2H5OH(aq)

D. Na2SO4(s) 2 Na+(aq) + SO42-(aq)

Precipitation Freezing point depression

Physics: Mechanics - Descriptions of motion in one and two dimensions

Speed, velocity, acceleration

A Boeing 747 was flying at 150 m/s and then slows to 110 m/s in 100 seconds as it circles the airport. What was its acceleration?

A. – 15 m/s2 B. – 0.4 m/s2 C. 0.4 m/s2 D. 2.6 m/s2

Displacement

Linear momentum

A meteoroid with a mass of 1,000 kg enters Earth’s atmosphere with a velocity of 4,400 m/s. What is the magnitude of the meteoroid’s momentum at that instant?

A.

B.

C.

D.

The momentum of an object in space is

A. dependent on its mass.

B. independent of its inertia.

C. independent of its velocity.

D. dependent on its potential energy.

Vector and scalar quantities

Physics: Mechanics - Mass, Weight & Gravity

First law: inertia A soccer player kicks a soccer ball on a field on Earth. The soccer ball eventually rolls to stop on its own. Why? A. An object in motion will always eventually slow to a stop. B. Friction acted as an outside force on the soccer ball, causing it to stop. C. The soccer ball had a lot of inertia. D. The soccer ball had very little inertia.

Second Law: Net Force = mass*acceleration

Four race cars are equipped with equally powerful engines. Which one of the race cars described below will need the most force in order to accelerate at a rate of 4 m/s2? A. the race car with the mass of 1000 kg B. the race car with the mass of 900 kg C. the race car with the mass of 800 kg D. the race car with the mass of 700 kg

Third Law: Action-reaction forces

Physics: Mechanics - Analysis of Motion and Forces

Projectile motion

*Need projectile motion in addition to free fall. *Be familiar w/ free fall and the fact that mass does not impact acceleration/velocity (though outside of a vacuum, air resistance does).

Inclined planes An inclined plane is used to move a heavy box from the ground into the bed of a truck.

If 100 N of force is required to move the load up the ramp, how much work is done? Disregard any force of friction. A. 100 J B. 300 J C. 400 J D. 500 J

Friction

A force (F1) is required to pull a 20-kg box across a carpeted floor. What is typically true about the force (F2) required to pull the box across the ice at a rink? A. F1 is greater than F2 B. F1 is less than F2 C. F1 equals F2 D. If the box starts at rest, F2 is 0 N. A student pushes a book across a classroom table. Which of the following statementsbest explains the difference between the amount of force needed to start the book moving and the amount of force needed to keep it moving?

A. Less force is needed to start the book moving, because there is less friction than when it is already moving.

B. Less force is needed to start the book moving, because there is less potential energy in the table than in the book.

C. More force is needed to start the book moving, because there is more potential energy in the table than in the book.

D. More force is needed to start the book moving, because there is more friction than when it is already moving.

Collisions (e.g. elastic, inelastic) & conservation of linear momentum

Two toy carts are about to collide, as shown in the diagram below.

Cart 1 has a mass of 15 kg and is moving right at a speed of 2 m/s. Cart 2 has a mass of 5 kg and is moving left at a speed of 3 m/s. When they collide, the carts will stick together.Neglecting friction, what will be the velocity of the carts after the

collision?

A. 0.75 m/s left

B. 0.75 m/s right

C. 15 m/s left

D. 15 m/s right

Circular motion (e.g. centripetal acceleration, centripetal force)

Center of Mass Periodic motion (e.g. pendulums, oscillating springs, planetary orbits, satellites)

A change in which of the following would most likely result in a change to the period of a pendulum? a) Amplitude (angle from which the pendulum is released) b) The mass of the pendulum c) The material the pendulum is made out of d) The length of the pendulum

Conservation of energy

Which of the following situations violates the law of conservation of energy? A. A ball dropped from the top of a building increases in speed until it hits the ground. B. A block sliding freely on level ice increases in speed until it hits the wall. C. A child playing on a swing moves fastest at the bottom of the swing’s path. D. The height a ball bounces decreases with each bounce.

Work, Energy & Power

A fixed pulley lifts a 450 N load 5 meters into the air. How much work is done? A. 90 J B. 450 J

C. 455 J D. 2250 J Which of the following is the best example of work being done on an object?

A. holding a 50 kg barbell

B. lifting a bag of groceries

C. keeping a board in place

D. pushing on a car that will not move

Basic fluid mechanics (E.g. buoyancy, density, pressure)

Physics: Mechanics -

Mechanical Advantage A box with weight, W, is lifted by a force, F, using the lever shown below.

Simple Machines

What is the mechanical advantage of the lever? A. ½ B. 2 C. 3 D. 6 A ramp with a mechanical advantage of 8 lifts objects to a height of 1.5 meters. How long is the ramp

Types of simple machines (e.g wedge, screw, lever)

Concept of torque Physics: Electricity & Magnetism - Electrcal nature of common materials

Electric charges

Electrostatic force (attraction & repulsion, Coulomb's law)

In a television set with a cathode ray tube display, a beam of negatively charged particles called cathode rays passes by a

positively charged plate. The beam is deflected before it hits the television screen to produce an image.Which of the following changes would result in the greatest increase in the attraction between the negatively charged particles in the beam and the positively charged plate?

A. increasing the distance between the plate and the particles and increasing the charge on the plate

B. increasing the distance between the plate and the particles and decreasing the charge on the plate

C. decreasing the distance between the plate and the particles and increasing the charge on the plate

D. decreasing the distance between the plate and the particles and decreasing the charge on the plate

Conductivity, conductors and insulators

Electric charges can move most easily on which of the following objects?

A. glass tubes

B. metal plates

C. plastic cups

D. rubber tires

Physics: Electricity & Magnetism - Basic Electrical Concepts

DC & AC current What is the main difference between an alternating and a direct current? A. In an alternating current, current flows in one direction. B. In an alternating current, the direction of current flow is reversed on a regular basis. C. The current is always stronger in an alternating current. D. The current is always stronger in a direct current. A DC to AC inverter allows people to use AC devices in a car. This inverter converts 12 V DC from a car outlet to 110 V AC.Which of the following graphs best represents the output signal of the inverter?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Current, resistance, voltage and power

If 105 J of energy is used in 103 s, what is the average power consumption in watts?

A. 102 W

B. 108 W

C. 1011 W

D. 1015 W

Ohm's law

Based on Ohm’s law, which of the following statements explains what must happen when the voltage across a resistor is decreased?

A. The resistance of the resistor increases.

B. The resistance of the resistor decreases.

C. The current through the resistor increases.

D. The current through the resistor decreases.

Analyze basic series and parallel circuits

The diagram below shows a circuit with a battery and four resistors.

This circuit is A. a series circuit where electrons have one possible path to flow around the circuit B. a series circuit where electrons have multiple possible paths to flow around the circuit C. a parallel circuit where electrons have one possible path to flow around the circuit D. a parallel circuit where electrons have multiple possible paths to flow around the circuit Four identical light bulbs are connected in a circuit shown below.

The current is greatest through which of the light bulbs? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3

D. 4 Two identical light bulbs are connected to a battery as shown below.

What will happen if light bulb X goes out? A. light bulb Y will go out B. light bulb Y will remain on and get dimmer C. light bulb Y will remain on and get brighter D. the switch will open

Voltage sources (e.g. batteries, generators)

The stored energy in a battery can best be described as

A. thermal B. chemical C. light D. kinetic A student is turning the handle of a generator. Another student connects a bulb to the generator. The bulb lights up. The first student continues to turn the handle of the generator at the same speed, but finds it harder to turn.Which of the following best explains this?

A. Less mechanical energy is required when the bulb is lit.

B. More energy is put into the generator when the bulb is lit.

C. Less mechanical energy is required the longer the generator is turned and the bulb is lit.

D. The energy requirement of the generator is the same at any speed whether or not the bulb is lit.

Physics: Electricity & Magnetism - Basic Properties of Magnetic Fields and Forces

Magnetic materials

Magnetic forces and fields (e.g. magnetic poles, attractive and repulsive forces) Electromagnets Which two things will Mark need to add to his design, in order to convert his electromagnet to a simple motor?

A. a wheel and axle B. a permanent magnet and an axle C. another battery and a permanent magnet D. two more coils of copper wire around the nail. Which of the following would strengthen an electromagnet? A. increasing the electric current B. increasing the number of coils C. increasing the voltage of the circuit D. all of the above

How can a magnet generate an electric current? A. by wrapping a wire around the magnet B. by moving a magnet through a wire coil C. by placing a magnet next to a battery D. all of the above

Physics: Optics & Waves - Electromagnetic Spectrum

Nature of light (e.g. wave properties, photons)

Visible spectrum and color

A system of filters gradually turns a beam of orange light into green light, while the light simultaneously gets brighter. Which of the following properties experience an increase during the color and brightness change? A. wavelength and speed of the wave B. wavelength and amplitude of the wave C. amplitude and speed of the wave D. amplitude only Which of the following observations demonstrates that visible light waves are electromagnetic and not mechanical?

A. Sunlight can pass through gas.

B. Sunlight can pass through solids.

C. Sunlight can pass through liquids.

D. Sunlight can pass through a vacuum.

Electromagnetic spectrum (e.g. ultraviolet, microwave, gamma)

Which of the following carries the most energy? A. a gamma ray B. an infrared wave C. a microwave D. an ultraviolet ray

Physics: Optics & Waves - Basic Characteristcis and types of waves

Transverse and longitudinal

Wave characteristics and relationships between them (e.g. frequency, amplitude, wavelength, speed, energy)

The diagram below shows a wave with four numbered parts.

Which numbered part of the diagram represents the wavelength?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Physics: Optics & Waves - Basic Wave Phenomena

Reflection, refraction, diffraction and dispersion

Which sequence below pairs the correct wave process with each image above? A. 1. refraction 2. reflection 3. diffraction 4. interference B. 1. interference 2. reflection 3. refraction 4. diffraction C. 1. diffraction 2. reflection 3. refraction 4. interference D. 1. diffraction 2. interference 3. refraction 4. reflection

Absorption and transmission

Interference, scattering and polarization One reason why the sky appears blue is because:

(A) Much more red light than blue light is absorbed by air atoms.

(B) Red light is reflected by the atmosphere.

(C) Blue light is scattered to a greater extent than red light.

(D) Higher energy light waves have more penetration through the atmosphere.

Total internal reflection

Which of the following diagrams best represents the path of a light signal inside the core of a fiberoptic cable?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Doppler effect (e.g. apparent frequency, moving source or observation, red/blue shift)

Physics: Optics & Waves - Basic Optics

Mirrors

For a concave mirror of focal length 5 centimeters, the image of an object placed 7 centimeters from the mirror will be:

(A) Real, inverted and magnified.

(B) Real, upright and magnified.

(C) Virtual, upright and diminished.

(D) Virtual, inverted and magnfied.

Lenses & their applications (e.g. the human eye, microscope, telescope)

To form a diminished image with a convex lens, the object must be placed:

(A) Less than one focal length from the mirror.

(B) Exactly at the focus.

(C) Between one and two focal lengths away.

(D) Further than 2 focal lengths away.

Which of the following is true for all lenses:

(A) All magnified images are inverted.

(B) All virtual images are inverted.

(C) All real images are inverted.

(D) All diminished images are inverted.

Prisms

The spectrum observed when white light is shone through a prism is best explained by:

(A) Diffraction

(B) Dichroism

(C) Distortion

(D) Dispersion

Physics: Optics & Waves - Sound

Pitch/Frequency and Loudness/Intensity

As an opera singer finishes her solo, she gets quieter, and the pitch of her voice goes up. Which statement best describes the sound waves produced by her voice? A. both the amplitude and frequency of the waves increase B. both the amplitude an frequency of the waves decrease C. the amplitude of the waves increases, and the frequency decreases D. the amplitude of the waves decreases, and the frequency increases

Sound wave production, air vibrations, and resonance (e.g. turning forks)

Application of the doppler effect to sound