MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Plasma is closest in composition to 1) _______ A) sterile water. B) urine. C) CSF. D) interstitial fluid. E) isotonic saline solution. 2) The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the 2) _______ A) differential cell count. B) specific gravity. C) hematocrit. D) viscosity. E) packed volume. 3) Which of the following is a function of the blood? 3) _______ A) defense against toxins and pathogens B) transport of body heat C) transport of nutrients and wastes D) transport of gases E) All of the answers are correct. 4) Which of the following statements about blood is false? 4) _______ A) Blood contains buffers that control pH. B) Cells in blood comprise the formed elements. C) Blood is about 55 percent plasma. D) The normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0. E) Blood is more viscous than water. 5) Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood? 5) _______ A) 30 percent B) 20 percent C) 45 percent D) 60 percent E) 55 percent 6) Consider these results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal? 6) _______ A) hemoglobin–10.7 g/100 ml B) RBCs–5.2 million/µl C) hematocrit–44 percent

D) platelets–280,000/µl E) leukocytes–8600/µl 7) The total volume of blood in the body of a 76-kg man is approximately ________ liters. 7) _______ A) 6 to 8 B) 4.4 C) 10 D) 3.8 E) 5.3 8) The most abundant component of plasma is 8) _______ A) ions. B) nutrients. C) water. D) gases. E) proteins. 9) A person who has a low blood volume is said to be 9) _______ A) hypervolemic. B) normovolemic. C) isovolemic. D) hypovolemic. E) antivolemic. 10) The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the 10) ______ A) concentration of glucose. B) concentration of nitrogen wastes. C) concentration of electrolytes. D) concentration of proteins. E) concentration of water. 11) A typical adult hematocrit is 11) ______ A) 75. B) 85. C) 65. D) 25. E) 45. 12) Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume. 12) ______ A) 92; 55 B) 50; 50 C) 92; 7 D) 55; 92 E) 45; 55 13) Thyroid-binding globulin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? 13) ______ A) apolipoprotein B) transport albumin C) metalloprotein D) hormone-binding E) steroid-binding 14) Transferrin is an example of which kind of

plasma protein? 14) ______ A) hormone-binding protein B) apolipoprotein C) transport albumin D) steroid-binding protein E) metalloprotein 15) Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones? 15) ______ A) translipin B) gamma globulin C) albumin D) steroid-binding protein E) hormone-binding protein 16) Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins? 16) ______ A) pancreas B) heart C) brain D) liver E) kidney 17) The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are 17) ______ A) transport proteins. B) albumins. C) lipoproteins. D) fibrinogens. E) globulins. 18) Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the 18) ______ A) albumins. B) lipoproteins. C) metalloproteins. D) fibrinogens. E) immunoglobulins. 19) A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is 19) ______ A) lipoprotein C. B) fibrinogen. C) metalloprotein D. D) albumin alpha. E) immunoglobulin A. 20) All the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the 20) ______ A) red bone marrow.

B) heart. C) lymph tissue. D) thymus. E) spleen. 21) Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone 21) ______ A) erythropoietin. B) thymosin. C) renin. D) angiotensin. E) M-CSF. 22) The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if 22) ______ A) red blood cells bind too much oxygen. B) the diet is deficient in iron. C) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene. D) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin. E) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal. 23) When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect 23) ______ A) an increase in red blood cell production. B) the release of erythropoietin. C) a drop in oxygen levels. D) a rise in hematocrit. E) All of the answers are correct. 24) Surgical removal of the stomach could cause 24) ______ A) thrombocytopenia. B) jaundice. C) pernicious anemia. D) hemophilia. E) leukocytosis. 25) Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that 25) ______ A) she has fewer red blood cells than normal. B) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia. C) her hemoglobin level is normal. D) she is suffering from anemia. E) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal.

26) The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following, except 26) ______ A) during anemia. B) at high altitudes. C) during periods of fasting. D) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted. E) as a consequence of hemorrhage. 27) The average life span of a red blood cell is 27) ______ A) 4 months. B) many years. C) 1 month. D) about 1 year. E) 24 hours. 28) The function of red blood cells is to 28) ______ A) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells. B) carry oxygen from the cells to the lungs. C) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells. D) defend the body against infectious organisms. E) carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide. 29) Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate? 29) ______ A) vitamin B12 deficiency B) iron deficiency C) vitamin B6 deficiency D) vitamin K deficiency E) lack of intrinsic factor 30) In adults, the only site of red blood cell production, and the primary site of white blood cell formation, is the 30) ______ A) liver. B) thymus. C) spleen. D) yellow bone marrow. E) red bone marrow.

31) Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of 31) ______ A) magnesium. B) sodium. C) calcium. D) copper. E) iron. 32) More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is 32) ______ A) hemoglobin. B) immunoglobulin. C) fibrinogen. D) albumin. E) porphyrin. 33) The function of hemoglobin is to 33) ______ A) stimulate erythropoiesis. B) carry dissolved blood gases. C) aid in the process of blood clotting. D) produce antibodies. E) carry bicarbonate ion. 34) ________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced. 34) ______ A) Leukemia B) Polycythemia C) Anemia D) Leukopenia E) Thrombocytopenia 35) Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by 35) ______ A) blood transfusion. B) injections of iron. C) oral doses of vitamin B12. D) injections of vitamin B12. E) oral doses of iron. 36) A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because 36) ______ A) dead white blood cells accumulate at the site of injury. B) hemoglobin has leaked from the blood into the injury and hemoglobin has a green color.

C) red blood cells are green when they leave circulation. D) bilirubin from hemoglobin recycling has built-up in the bruise. E) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin. 37) Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by macrophages in the 37) ______ A) bone marrow. B) liver. C) spleen. D) digestive tract. E) spleen, liver, and bone marrow. 38) The waste product bilirubin is produced from 38) ______ A) iron found in hemoglobin molecules. B) globin chains of hemoglobin. C) heme molecules plus iron. D) heme molecules lacking iron. E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells. 39) Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is 39) ______ A) recycled to the red bone marrow. B) excreted by the liver. C) excreted by the kidneys. D) excreted by the intestines. E) stored in yellow bone marrow. 40) In adults, red bone marrow is located in the 40) ______ A) sternum and ribs. B) body of vertebrae. C) proximal epiphyses of long bones. D) iliac crest. E) All of the answers are correct. 41) The process of red blood cell production is called 41) ______ A) hematopenia. B) erythrocytosis. C) hemocytosis. D) erythropenia. E) erythropoiesis. 42) ________ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation. 42) ______

A) Myeloblasts B) Erythroblasts C) Band cells D) Reticulocytes E) Normoblasts 43) Each hemoglobin molecule contains 43) ______ A) one heme group. B) one alpha and one beta chain. C) four iron atoms. D) four alpha chains. E) a molecule of oxygen and a molecule of carbon dioxide. 44) The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin in jaundice results from 44) ______ A) the recycling of hemoglobin. B) excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma. C) extensive breakdown of RBCs. D) destruction of hemoglobin. E) All of the answers are correct. 45) Which of the following blood count values would be a sign of anemia? 45) ______ A) 5.5 million RBC B) 400,000 platelets C) 3.5 million RBC D) 10,000 WBC E) A and D taken together 46) Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. This means 46) ______ A) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies. B) Bill could receive type B-negative blood in a transfusion. C) Bill's red blood cells contain the O surface antigen. D) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type O blood. E) Bill is Rh positive. 47) A person's blood type is determined largely by the 47) ______ A) volume of the RBCs.

B) shape of the RBCs. C) chemical character of the hemoglobin. D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane. E) size of the RBCs. 48) People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because 48) ______ A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens. B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins. C) they are usually Rh negative. D) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins. E) they usually have very strong immune systems. 49) Blood type is identified primarily by 49) ______ A) the Rh blood group. B) the Kahn blood group. C) the ABO blood group. D) both the ABO and Rh blood groups. E) the HB blood system. 50) Type AB blood has which of the following characteristics: 50) ______ A) RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti-D plasma antibodies. B) RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the anti-B antibody. C) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies. D) RBCs have the A and the B surface antigens and the plasma has anti-A and anti-B antibodies. E) RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. 51) Anti-D antibodies are present in the blood of 51) ______ A) all individuals with type AB blood. B) all Rh negative individuals. C) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. D) all Rh positive individuals. E) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. 52) Antigens of the surface of red blood cells

are also called ________ and antibodies in the blood plasma are also called ________. 52) ______ A) T-cells; B-cells B) serum; plasma C) erythrogens; antibiotics D) agglutinogens; agglutinins E) agglutinins; agglutinogens 53) Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn: 53) ______ A) mother type A+, baby type O+ B) mother Rh negative, baby Rh negative C) mother Rh positive, baby Rh negative D) mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive E) None of the answers are correct. 54) Granulocytes form in 54) ______ A) the spleen. B) red bone marrow. C) the thymus. D) the intestines. E) yellow bone marrow. 55) All of the following are true of neutrophils, except that they are 55) ______ A) also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes. B) important in coagulation. C) phagocytic. D) active in fighting bacterial infections. E) granular leukocytes. 56) The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the 56) ______ A) lymphocytes. B) neutrophils. C) basophils. D) monocytes. E) eosinophils. 57) White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are 57) ______ A) lymphocytes. B) basophils. C) eosinophils. D) neutrophils. E) monocytes.

58) ________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. 58) ______ A) Eosinophils B) Monocytes C) Lymphocytes D) Neutrophils E) Basophils 59) White blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the 59) ______ A) monocytes. B) neutrophils. C) eosinophils. D) lymphocytes. E) basophils. 60) The most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual are 60) ______ A) monocytes. B) basophils. C) leukocytes. D) neutrophils. E) lymphocytes. 61) Which of the following is not true of neutrophils? 61) ______ A) can make hydrogen peroxide B) attracted to complement-coated bacteria C) can exit capillaries D) can destroy bacteria E) less abundant than lymphocytes 62) Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes? 62) ______ A) helper cells are one type B) produce antibodies in response to antigens C) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium D) often elevated in allergic individuals E) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide 63) Which of the following is true of basophils? 63) ______ A) granules contain heparin B) granules contain histamine C) constitute about 1 percent of WBCs D) attract other defense cells E) All of the answers are correct. 64) Which of these descriptions best matches

the term T lymphocytes? 64) ______ A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) are involved in cell mediated immunity C) often elevated in allergic individuals D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) produce antibodies in response to antigens 65) An infected wound contains typically contains 65) ______ A) tissue fluids. B) pus. C) cellular debris. D) dead neutrophils. E) All of the answers are correct. 66) Which of the following is not true of monocytes? 66) ______ A) can phagocytize bacteria B) enter tissues and wander C) about same size as basophils D) become macrophages E) are long lived 67) During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of 67) ______ A) eosinophils. B) neutrophils. C) basophils. D) thrombocytes. E) reticulocytes. 68) The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the: 68) ______ A) monocytes B) neutrophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) erythrocytes 69) Non-specific immunity, such as phagocytosis, is a function of which blood cells? 69) ______ A) lymphocytes and monocytes B) basophils and eosinophils C) lymphocytes D) neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes E) platelets 70) Which of the following is true of eosinophils? 70) ______

A) allergic patients have many B) have bilobed nucleus C) granules stain with eosin dyes D) constitute about 2 to 4 percent of WBCs E) All of the answers are correct. 71) A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count? 71) ______ A) eosinophils B) basophils C) lymphocytes D) neutrophils E) monocytes

Figure 19-1 The Origins and Differentiation of Formed ElementsUse Figure 19-1 to answer the following questions 72) Identify the cell labeled "5." 72) ______ A) eosinophil B) monocyte C) basophil D) lymphocyte E) erythrocyte 73) Identify the cell labeled "6." 73) ______ A) lymphocyte B) eosinophil C) monocyte D) basophil E) erythrocyte 74) Identify the cell labeled "4." 74) ______ A) monocyte B) neutrophil C) platelet D) basophil E) lymphocyte 75) Identify the cell labeled "3." 75) ______ A) monocyte B) erythrocyte C) basophil D) lymphocyte E) eosinophil 76) Identify the cell labeled "2." 76) ______ A) lymphocyte

B) neutrophil C) eosinophil D) monocyte E) basophil 77) The function of platelets is to assist in the 77) ______ A) transport of blood gases such as oxygen. B) destruction of bacteria. C) process called hemostasis. D) removal of worn out red blood cells. E) immune response during an infection. 78) Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called 78) ______ A) myeloblasts. B) megakaryocytes. C) normoblasts. D) lymphoblasts. E) erythroblasts. 79) Platelets are 79) ______ A) large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus. B) blue cells that have a nucleus. C) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells. D) tiny cells with a polynucleus. E) red cells that lack a nucleus. 80) In case of hemorrhage, platelets are stored as a reserve in 80) ______ A) bone marrow. B) the kidneys. C) the thymus gland. D) the heart. E) the spleen. 81) Which of these descriptions best matches the function of platelets? 81) ______ A) helper cells are one type B) produce antibodies in response to antigens C) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide D) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium E) often elevated in allergic individuals 82) A person whose platelet count is 40,000/µl is suffering from 82) ______ A) thrombocytosis. B) hemocytosis.

C) leukocytosis. D) leukopenia. E) thrombocytopenia. 83) ________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. 83) ______ A) Fibrinolysis B) Vascular spasm C) Retraction D) Coagulation E) The platelet phase 84) Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by 84) ______ A) platelets. B) megakaryocytes. C) the liver. D) the spleen. E) the kidneys. 85) The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the 85) ______ A) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen. B) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. C) release of heparin from the liver. D) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. E) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. 86) The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the 86) ______ A) release of heparin from the liver. B) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. C) activation of Factor XII exposed to collagen. D) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. E) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. 87) The common pathway of coagulation begins with the 87) ______ A) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. C) conversion of Factor X to prothrombinase. D) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. E) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.

88) The process of fibrinolysis 88) ______ A) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together. B) forms thrombi. C) activates fibrinogen. D) forms emboli. E) dissolves clots. 89) The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is 89) ______ A) phosphokinase. B) thrombin. C) plasmin. D) heparin. E) fibrinase. 90) Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________ pathway. 90) ______ A) intrinsic B) common C) extrinsic D) fibrinolytic E) retraction 91) Plasma thromboplastin is a factor in the ________ pathway. 91) ______ A) retraction B) extrinsic C) fibrinolytic D) intrinsic E) common 92) A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to 92) ______ A) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster. B) initiate clot formation. C) cause clots to form faster. D) mimic heparin. E) recruit neutrophils to an infection. 93) How would removal of calcium ions from a blood sample affect coagulation? 93) ______ A) more blood cells would be produced B) coagulation would be prevented C) the coagulation pathway would be more sensitive to activation D) coagulation would occur only in Rh positive individuals E) no important effect because magnesium can substitute for calcium

94) Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors? 94) ______ A) vitamin E B) vitamin B C) vitamin A D) vitamin K E) vitamin D 95) A moving blood clot is called a(n) 95) ______ A) procoagulant. B) thrombus. C) embolus. D) plaque. E) platelet plug. 96) Areas in a vessel wall where large quantities of lipid accumulate are called 96) ______ A) clots. B) emboli. C) thrombi. D) occlusions. E) plaques. 97) People who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional Factor VIII; as a result 97) ______ A) they lack a functional intrinsic pathway. B) they lack a functional extrinsic pathway. C) their coagulation times are much longer than normal. D) their coagulation times are too quick. E) they lack a functional common pathway. 98) What are common sources of vitamin K? 98) ______ A) whole grains B) green vegetables C) organ meats D) intestinal bacteria E) All of answers are correct. 99) The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme 99) ______ A) thrombin. B) plasmin. C) fibrinogen-converting enzyme.

D) factor VIII. E) prothrombinase. 100) A digestive disorder that impairs a person's ability to absorb vitamin K will result in 100) _____ A) low levels of Factor X. B) prolonged bleeding. C) low levels of thromboplastin. D) low levels of prothrombin. E) All of the answers are correct. 101) The heart beats approximately ________ times each day. 101) _____ A) 100,000 B) 10,000 C) 10,000,000 D) 1,000 E) 1,000,000 102) The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is the 102) _____ A) fossa ovalis. B) foramen ovale. C) coronary sinus. D) ligamentum arteriosus. E) interatrial septum. 103) Blood leaves the right ventricle by passing through the 103) _____ A) aortic valve. B) mitral valve. C) bicuspid valve. D) tricuspid valve. E) pulmonary valve. 104) Intercalated discs serve to transfer ________ from cell to cell. 104) _____ A) the force of contraction B) ionic currents C) action potentials D) electrical signals E) All of the answers are correct. 105) The atrioventricular valves permit blood flow 105) _____ A) in one direction only. B) in opposite directions on the right and left. C) from a ventricle to an atrium.

D) in both directions. E) in many directions. 106) Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the 106) _____ A) right atrium. B) right ventricle. C) left atrium. D) conus arteriosus. E) left ventricle. 107) Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the 107) _____ A) left atrium. B) conus arteriosus. C) right ventricle. D) right atrium. E) left ventricle. 108) The earlike extension of the atrium is the 108) _____ A) coronary sinus. B) auricle. C) atricle. D) coronary sulcus. E) ventricle. 109) In the middle of the thoracic cavity is a region occupied by the heart, great vessels, thymus, esophagus, and trachea called the 109) _____ A) pleural space. B) pericardial space. C) ventral cavity. D) mediastinum. E) cardiac notch. 110) The cusps (leaflets) of atrioventricular valves attach directly to 110) _____ A) papillary muscles. B) chordae tendineae. C) interatrial septa. D) trabeculae carneae. E) coronary sulci. 111) Contractions of the papillary muscles 111) _____ A) close the atrioventricular valves. B) prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria.

C) eject blood from the ventricles. D) close the semilunar valves. E) eject blood from the atria into the ventricles. 112) The visceral pericardium is the same as the 112) _____ A) mediastinum. B) epicardium. C) myocardium. D) parietal pericardium. E) endocardium. 113) Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is composed of 113) _____ A) cardiac muscle cells. B) fibrocytes. C) smooth muscle cells. D) chondrocytes. E) epitheliocytes. 114) The left ventricle pumps blood to the 114) _____ A) right ventricle. B) aorta. C) pulmonary circuit. D) lungs. E) right atrium. 115) The right ventricle pumps blood to the 115) _____ A) right and left lungs. B) aorta. C) right atrium. D) left atrium. E) left ventricle. 116) The right atrium receives blood from the 116) _____ A) systemic circuit. B) superior vena cava. C) inferior vena cava. D) coronary sinus. E) All of the answers are correct. 117) When a blood clot forms on a ruptured plaque in a coronary artery, the condition is referred to as a(n) 117) _____ A) coronary thrombosis. B) angina pectoris.

C) coronary spasm. D) myocardial infarction. E) pulmonary embolism. 118) Cardiac cells damaged by infarction will show which of the following? 118) _____ A) release of enzymes into the circulation B) release of CK-MB into the circulation C) release of troponin T and I into the circulation D) switch to anaerobic metabolism E) All of the answers are correct. 119) Blood flowing into the heart from the venae cavae flows next through the ________ valve. 119) _____ A) aortic semilunar B) mitral C) bicuspid D) pulmonary semilunar E) tricuspid 120) Coronary veins empty into the 120) _____ A) left ventricle. B) conus arteriosus. C) left atrium. D) right ventricle. E) right atrium. 121) There are ________ pulmonary veins. 121) _____ A) 6 B) 2 C) 12 D) 8 E) 4 122) When the semilunar valves close, the AV valves then 122) _____ A) close. B) make the third heart sound. C) contract. D) open. E) prolapse. 123) The ________ deliver(s) blood to the myocardium. 123) _____ A) cardiac veins B) superior vena cava C) coronary sinus D) carotid arteries E) coronary arteries 124) Blood is supplied to the left atrium by the

124) _____ A) brachiocephalic artery. B) pulmonary arteries. C) left coronary artery. D) phrenic arteries. E) right coronary artery. 125) The pulmonary semilunar valve prevents backward flow into the 125) _____ A) pulmonary trunk. B) aorta. C) left atrium. D) pulmonary veins. E) right ventricle. 126) The bicuspid or mitral valve is located 126) _____ A) where the venae cavae join the right atrium. B) between the right atrium and right ventricle. C) between the left atrium and left ventricle. D) in the opening of the pulmonary trunk. E) in the opening of the aorta. 127) The ________ valve prevents backward flow into the left atrium. 127) _____ A) tricuspid B) bicuspid C) pulmonic D) semilunar E) semicaval 128) The function of an atrium is to 128) _____ A) pump blood into the systemic circuit. B) collect blood then pump it to the ventricle. C) collect blood. D) pump blood to the lungs. E) pump blood to the ventricle. 129) Compared to the right ventricle, the left ventricle has all the following characteristics, except that it 129) _____ A) has a thicker wall. B) produces about four to six times more pressure when it contracts. C) works harder. D) pumps a greater volume. E) is round in cross section.

130) Which of the following are involved in the pulmonary circuit? 130) _____ A) right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, left atrium B) left ventricle, pulmonary veins, right atrium C) right ventricle, pulmonary veins, aorta D) inferior vena cava, right atrium, aorta E) superior vena cava, right atrium, left ventricle 131) The right pulmonary veins carry ________ blood to the ________ . 131) _____ A) deoxygenated; right atrium B) deoxygenated; superior vena cava C) deoxygenated; left atrium D) oxygenated; right lung E) oxygenated; left atrium 132) The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart.

1. right atrium2. left atrium3. right ventricle4. left ventricle5. venae cavae6. aorta7. pulmonary trunk8. pulmonary veins

What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering from the systemic circulation? 132) _____ A) 5, 3, 1, 7, 8, 4, 2, 6 B) 1, 7, 3, 8, 2, 4, 6, 5 C) 5, 1, 3, 8, 7, 2, 4, 6 D) 1, 2, 7, 8, 3, 4, 6, 5 E) 5, 1, 3, 7, 8, 2, 4, 6 133) The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the 133) _____ A) intestines. B) liver. C) lungs. D) brain. E) heart. 134) The pulmonary veins carry blood to the 134) _____ A) heart. B) lungs.

C) intestines. D) liver. E) brain. 135) The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the 135) _____ A) left atrium. B) right ventricle. C) left ventricle. D) interatrial septum. E) right atrium. 136) Blood is supplied to the myocardium by 136) _____ A) the coronary arteries. B) the coronary sinus. C) contact with blood in the pumping chambers. D) arteries that branch from the pulmonary arteries. E) arteries that branch off the subclavian arteries. 137) The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the ________ arteries. 137) _____ A) subclavian B) pulmonary C) circumflex D) coronary E) carotid 138) The marginal branch and posterior interventricular branch are branches of the 138) _____ A) coronary sinus. B) left coronary artery. C) circumflex artery. D) right coronary artery. E) aorta. 139) The circumflex branch and the anterior interventricular artery are branches of the 139) _____ A) right coronary artery. B) coronary sinus. C) interventricular artery. D) aorta. E) left coronary artery. 140) The great and middle cardiac veins drain

blood into the 140) _____ A) coronary sinus. B) aorta. C) coronary sulcus. D) inferior vena cava. E) superior vena cava. 141) In cardiac muscle, the fast depolarization phase of the action potential is the result of 141) _____ A) increased membrane permeability to potassium ions. B) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions. C) increased membrane permeability to chloride ions. D) decreased membrane permeability to calcium ions. E) decreased membrane permeability to sodium ions. 142) The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to 142) _____ A) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions. B) movement of fewer sodium ions across the cell membrane. C) calcium channels remaining open. D) increased membrane permeability to potassium ion. E) decrease in the amount of calcium diffusing across the membrane. 143) In cardiac muscle 143) _____ A) about 20 percent of the calcium ion required for contraction comes from outside the cell. B) calcium ions play an important role in repolarizing the membrane after the depolarization phase. C) calcium ions do not bind to troponin molecules. D) calcium ions play no role in the process of contraction. E) calcium ions are not released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Figure 20-1 The HeartUse Figure 20-1 to answer the following questions:

144) Identify the structure labeled "19." 144) _____ A) bicuspid valve B) ligamentum arteriosum C) aortic semilunar valve D) pulmonary semilunar valve E) tricuspid valve 145) Identify the structure labeled "8." 145) _____ A) moderator band B) trabeculae carneae C) pectinate muscles D) papillary muscles E) chordae tendineae 146) Identify the structure labeled "6." 146) _____ A) pulmonary semilunar valve B) bicuspid valve C) aortic semilunar valve D) cusp of tricuspid valve E) ligamentum arteriosum 147) Which chamber receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circuit? 147) _____ A) 5 B) 16 C) 13 D) 10 E) both 5 and 16 148) Identify the structure labeled "21." 148) _____ A) bicuspid valve B) ligamentum arteriosum C) aortic semilunar valve D) tricuspid valve E) pulmonary semilunar valve 149) Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing. 149) _____ A) P-R interval B) QRS complex C) R-T interval D) T wave E) P wave

150) If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, the 150) _____ A) heart rate will decrease. B) cells will hyperpolarize. C) cells will depolarize. D) heart rate will increase. E) heart rate will decrease and cells will hyperpolarize. 151) If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked, 151) _____ A) cardiac output will increase. B) the ventricular beat will remain unchanged. C) the atria will contract more forcefully. D) the ventricles will beat faster. E) the ventricles will beat more slowly. 152) The following are structural components of the conducting system of the heart.

1. Purkinje fibers2. AV bundle3. AV node4. SA node5. bundle branches

The sequence in which excitation would move through this system is 152) _____ A) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1. B) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1. C) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1. D) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5. E) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1. 153) The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from 153) _____ A) depolarization of the SA node. B) depolarization of the AV node. C) depolarization of the atria. D) depolarization of the ventricles. E) repolarization of the atria. 154) If there is a complete block between the SA node and the AV node, how would the ECG be affected? 154) _____ A) The P-R interval will be shorter. B) There will be much bigger P waves. C) The rate of P waves will be faster than the rate of QRS complexes.

D) The QRS duration will be longer. E) The ventricles will stop beating. 155) Depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the 155) _____ A) P wave. B) PR complex. C) T wave. D) QRS complex. E) S wave. 156) Pacemaker cells in the SA node 156) _____ A) have a well-defined resting potential. B) also contract with the rest of the cells in the heart wall. C) are special neurons that convey signals from the brain to the heart. D) can spontaneously depolarize. E) All of the answers are correct. 157) Put in correct order the sequence in which excitation would move through the conducting system of the heart:

1. Purkinje fibers2. AV bundle

branches3. AV node 157) _____

A) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1. B) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1. C) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1. D) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5. E) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1. 158) A heart murmur might be caused by 158) _____ A) aortic valve insufficiency. B) swirling of blood in the ventricle. C) mitral valve insufficiency. D) pulmonic valve insufficiency. E) All of the answers are correct. 159) The systolic part (both atrial and ventricular) of a cardiac cycle lasts on average 159) _____ A) 3 seconds. B) 800 msec. C) 370 msec. D) 100 msec.

E) 5 seconds. 160) At a heart rate of 60 beats/minute, a cardiac cycle lasts 160) _____ A) 630 milliseconds. B) 60 seconds. C) 370 milliseconds. D) 1 second. E) 60 milliseconds. 161) The first heart sound is heard when the 161) _____ A) semilunar valves close. B) AV valves close. C) blood enters the aorta. D) AV valves open. E) atria contract. 162) The first heart sound ("lub") 162) _____ A) is associated with atrial systole. B) is associated with opening of the aortic valve. C) is associated with closing of the aortic valve. D) is associated with closing of the mitral valve. E) is associated with opening of the mitral valve. 163) The phase in the cardiac cycle when the mitral valve is closed and the aortic valve is open is the 163) _____ A) atrial systole. B) dicrotic phase. C) late diastolic filling phase. D) systolic ejection phase. E) early diastolic filling phase. 164) Pacemaker cells isolated from the SA node generate action potentials at ________ beats per minute. 164) _____ A) 80–100 B) 20–40 C) 100–140 D) 40–60 E) 140–180 165) ________ is to slow heart rate as ________ is to fast heart rate. 165) _____ A) Tachycardia; bradycardia B) Cardiac tamponade; bradycardia C) Bradycardia; tachycardia D) Bradycardia; cardiomyopathy

E) Angina; infarction 166) Depolarization of the atria corresponds to the EKG's 166) _____ A) P wave. B) S-T segment. C) T wave. D) QRS complex. E) QT interval. 167) The T wave on an ECG tracing represents 167) _____ A) atrial repolarization. B) ventricular contraction. C) ventricular repolarization. D) atrial depolarization. E) ventricular depolarization. 168) Analysis of the electrocardiogram can reveal all of the following, except the 168) _____ A) effects of drugs and poisons. B) heart rate. C) stroke volume. D) condition of the conducting system. E) duration of the ventricular action potential. 169) During the T wave of the electrocardiogram, the ventricles are 169) _____ A) repolarizing. B) depolarizing. C) contracting. D) relaxing. E) both repolarizing and relaxing.

Figure 20-2 Cardiac CycleUse Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions: 170) What occurs at the area labeled "D" on the graph? 170) _____ A) AV valve opens B) diastolic filling begins C) semilunar valve opens D) AV valve opens and diastolic filling begins E) ventricle contracts 171) With each ventricular systole, 171) _____ A) blood pressure remains steady.

B) cardiac output decreases. C) blood pressure increases. D) the ventricles fill with blood. E) blood pressure decreases. 172) An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to 172) _____ A) decrease in blood pressure. B) decrease in heart rate. C) increase in heart rate. D) both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure. E) both increase heart rate and increase pressure. 173) The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the 173) _____ A) end-diastolic volume. B) end-systolic volume. C) cardiac reserve. D) cardiac output. E) stroke volume. 174) Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output, except 174) _____ A) increased sympathetic stimulation. B) increased venous return. C) increased heart rate. D) increased parasympathetic stimulation. E) increased force of contraction. 175) Cardiac output can be increased by all of the following except one. Choose the exception. 175) _____ A) increasing ejection fraction B) decreasing ejection fraction C) increasing heart rate D) increasing stroke volume E) decreasing end systolic volume 176) Which of these is true about the atrial reflex? 176) _____ A) triggered by atrial mechanoreceptors B) triggered by increasing venous return C) also called Bainbridge reflex D) depends on sympathetic innervation E) All of the answers are correct.

177) If the force of ventricular contraction increases, what will happen to the end-systolic volume? 177) _____ A) reduced to zero B) decrease C) increase D) fluctuate rapidly E) remain the same 178) Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with a heart rate of 100 beats/minute and a stroke volume of 75 ml. 178) _____ A) 7500 ml / min B) 0.75 ml / min C) 25 ml / min D) 750 ml / min E) 175 ml / min 179) The muscular layer in the wall of a blood vessel is the 179) _____ A) tunica interna. B) tunica externa. C) tunica intima. D) tunica media. E) tunica adventitia. 180) Compared to arteries, veins 180) _____ A) have more smooth muscle in their tunica media. B) hold their shape better when cut. C) are more elastic. D) have thinner walls. E) have a pleated endothelium. 181) Arrange the structures in the following list in the order that blood will encounter as it flows from the output side to the input side of the cardiovascular flow circuit.

1. venules2. arterioles3. capillaries4. elastic arteries5. medium veins6. large veins7. muscular arteries 181) _____ A) 7, 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6 B) 5, 6, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4 C) 6, 5, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4

D) 4, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6 E) 2, 7, 6, 3, 1, 5, 6 182) End-systolic volume is defined as the: 182) _____ A) amount of blood a ventricle ejects per cycle B) amount of blood remaining in an atrium after atrial systole C) amount of blood which backflows into a ventricle D) amount of blood remaining in a ventricle after contraction E) stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate 183) A patient has an end-diastolic volume of 125 ml. A heart attack has weakened her left ventricle so it can pump a stroke volume of only 40 ml. Calculate her end-systolic volume. 183) _____ A) 5000 ml B) 165 ml C) 3.1 ml D) 85 ml E) not enough data given to calculate the end-systolic volume 184) Calculate cardiac output if the heart rate is 125 beats/minute, the end-diastolic volume is 130 ml, and the end-systolic volume is 40 ml. 184) _____ A) 11,250 ml / min B) 21,250 ml / min C) 16,250 ml / min D) 200 ml / min E) 195 ml / min 185) Which of these would cause stroke volume to increase? 185) _____ A) when diastolic blood pressure is decreased B) decrease in heart rate C) when venous return is decreased D) when ventricular contraction is reduced E) All of the answers are correct. 186) Cardiac output is increased by 186) _____ A) inhibiting the atrial reflex. B) sympathetic stimulation. C) decreased venous return. D) decreased end diastolic volume.

E) increased end systolic volume. 187) Activation of which kind of receptor causes heart rate to increase? 187) _____ A) beta-two receptor B) muscarinic receptor C) alpha-one receptor D) preganglionic E) beta-one receptor 188) Drugs that block the beta-one adrenergic receptors will 188) _____ A) decrease heart rate. B) increase heart rate. C) increase contractility. D) decrease the end-systolic volume. E) increase cardiac output. 189) Drugs known as calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine can be used to 189) _____ A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction. B) produce a negative inotropic effect. C) decrease blood pressure. D) dilate the coronary arteries. E) All of the answers are correct. 190) Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the 190) _____ A) hypothalamus. B) higher centers. C) medulla oblongata. D) thalamus. E) pons. 191) The cardioacceleratory center activates sympathetic neurons and the cardioinhibitory center controls parasympathetic neurons. 191) _____ A) Both parts of the statement are true. B) Both parts of the statement are true and relate to brainstem control of heart rate. C) The first part of the statement is false but the second part is true. D) Both parts of the statement are false. E) The first part of the statement is true but the second part is false. 192) "An increase in end-diastolic volume increases the stroke volume" is a way of

stating 192) _____ A) Finch's law of the heart. B) Sparrow's law of the heart. C) Starling's law of the heart. D) Hawking's law of the heart. E) Robin's law of the heart. 193) Which of the following would increase heart rate? 193) _____ A) increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node B) increased levels of epinephrine C) faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential D) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers E) All of the answers are correct. 194) The heart is innervated by ________ nerves. 194) _____ A) somatomotor B) both parasympathetic and sympathetic C) sympathetic D) parasympathetic E) neither parasympathetic nor sympathetic 195) Stroke volume depends on 195) _____ A) the pressure required to pump blood into the aorta. B) the contractility of the ventricle. C) end diastolic volume. D) venous return of blood to the heart. E) All of the answers are correct.

Figure 20-2 Cardiac CycleUse Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions: 196) What volume is labeled "G" on the graph? 196) _____ A) stroke volume B) end-systolic volume C) ejection fraction D) end-diastolic volume E) cardiac output 197) What occurs at "A" on the graph? 197) _____ A) end systolic volume B) AV valve closes

C) semilunar valve opens D) AV valve opens E) semilunar valve closes 198) What volume is labeled "E" on the graph? 198) _____ A) end-systolic volume B) end-diastolic volume C) total cardiac volume D) stroke volume E) cardiac output 199) What occurs at the circled label "5" on the graph? 199) _____ A) isovolumetric contraction B) isovolumetric systole C) ventricular refilling D) increased heart rate E) peak systolic pressure 200) What occurs at the area labeled "B" on the graph? 200) _____ A) semilunar valve opens B) AV valve closes C) ventricular ejection occurs D) semilunar valve closes E) AV valve opens 201) What occurs at the circled label "4" on the graph? 201) _____ A) isovolumetric ventricular contraction B) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation C) ventricular filling D) ventricular ejection E) sympathetic stimulation 202) What occurs at the circled label "7" on the graph? 202) _____ A) ventricular filling B) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation C) ventricular ejection D) sympathetic stimulation E) isovolumetric ventricular contraction 203) What volume is labeled "F" on the graph? 203) _____ A) end-diastolic volume B) end-systolic volume C) total cardiac volume D) stroke volume

E) cardiac output 204) What occurs at the area labeled "C" on the graph? 204) _____ A) semilunar valve closes B) ventricular filling begins C) semilunar valve opens D) AV valve closes E) AV valve opens 205) What is occurring in the left atrium at the circle labeled "2" on the graph? 205) _____ A) left atrium is in systole B) left atrial pressure is decreasing C) left atrium is pressurizing the left ventricle D) left atrium is in diastole E) left atrium is receiving pressure from the left ventricle 206) Which of the following layers of a vessel contains collagen fibers with scattered bands of elastic fibers? 206) _____ A) internal elastic membrane B) tunica externa C) external elastic membrane D) tunica intima E) tunica media 207) Which of the following is the innermost layer of a blood vessel? 207) _____ A) external elastic membrane B) tunica externa C) tunica media D) tunica intima E) internal elastic membrane 208) Venae cavae are the largest of what type of vessel? 208) _____ A) arteriole B) artery C) vein D) capillary E) venule 209) Factors that increase the risk of atherosclerosis include which of the following? 209) _____ A) lack of exercise B) smoking C) obesity D) high cholesterol E) All of the answers are correct.

210) Exchange between a blood vessel and the cells that surround it can occur only in 210) _____ A) capillaries. B) arteries. C) venules. D) veins. E) arterioles. 211) Venoconstriction reduces the diameter of which vessel? 211) _____ A) artery B) vein C) arteriole D) venule E) capillary 212) What vessels contain elastic fibers in the walls that are stretched during systole? 212) _____ A) veins B) arteries C) venules D) capillaries E) arterioles 213) Complications related to arteriosclerosis account for roughly ________ percent of deaths in the United States. 213) _____ A) 50 B) 20 C) 30 D) 60 E) 25 214) Blood moves forward through veins because of all of the following, except 214) _____ A) the respiratory pump. B) the pressure in the veins is lower than in the arteries. C) pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein. D) muscular compression. E) valves in the veins preventing the backward flow of blood. 215) Metabolites exchange by diffusion with tissue cells in which of the following locations? 215) _____ A) venule B) arteriole C) vein D) capillary E) artery 216) List in correct order the sequence of blood vessels that blood would travel in the systemic circuit starting at the aorta.

1. venules5. medium veins

2. arterioles6. large veins

3. capillariesmuscular arteries

4. elastic arteries 216) _____ A) 5, 6, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4 B) 4, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6 C) 2, 7, 6, 3, 1, 5, 6 D) 6, 5, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4 E) 7, 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6 217) The main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the 217) _____ A) venules. B) capillaries. C) arteries. D) veins. E) arterioles. 218) The small vessels that capillaries drain into are called 218) _____ A) veins. B) venules. C) arteries. D) arterioles. E) capillaries. 219) Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following, except the 219) _____ A) osmolarity of interstitial fluids. B) length of a blood vessel. C) turbulence. D) blood vessel diameter. E) blood viscosity. 220) In what vessel is blood pressure the highest? 220) _____ A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) vein E) venule 221) The main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the 221) _____ A) artery. B) venule. C) capillary. D) arteriole. E) vein. 222) Clinically, the term blood pressure usually refers to 222) _____ A) pulse pressure. B) arteriovenous pressure. C) capillary hydrostatic pressure. D) peripheral pressure. E) arterial pressure.

223) Blood pressure is lowest in the 223) _____ A) venules. B) capillaries. C) arterioles. D) veins. E) arteries. 224) Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance, except 224) _____ A) elevated hematocrit. B) increased sympathetic stimulation. C) vasodilation. D) elevated levels of epinephrine. E) irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques. 225) If a person has a blood pressure of 120/90, his mean arterial pressure would be ________ mm Hg. 225) _____ A) 90 B) 210 C) 100 D) 93 E) 105 226) Edema may occur when 226) _____ A) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced. B) blood pressure is high. C) endothelial permeability goes up. D) capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated. E) All of the answers are correct. 227) When a person rises quickly from a sitting position, 227) _____ A) venous return is decreased. B) heart rate is reflexively elevated. C) the carotid baroreceptors become less active. D) reflex vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels occurs. E) All of the answers are correct. 228) When renin is released from the kidney, 228) _____ A) angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II. B) angiotensin I increases salt reabsorption at the kidneys. C) blood flow to the kidneys decreases. D) blood pressure goes down. E) angiotensinogen is converted into angiotensin I.

229) In comparison to a vessel with a large diameter, a vessel with a small diameter has 229) _____ A) a higher blood pressure. B) less resistance to blood flow. C) a greater blood flow. D) the same amount of pressure as resistance. E) a greater resistance to blood flow. 230) Which of the following equations shows the correct relation between blood flow (F), pressure (P), and resistance (R)? 230) _____ A) F=P+R B) P=(F×R) × 4 C) F=P/R D) F=P-R E) F=R/P 231) Which of the following is normally the greatest source acting against blood flow? 231) _____ A) viscosity of blood B) vessel length C) venous pressure D) vascular resistance E) turbulence 232) Some of the fluid that is forced out of capillaries is returned to the blood by the: 232) _____ A) muscular arteries B) hepatic portal vein C) liver D) lymphatic system E) venules 233) As blood travels from arteries to veins, 233) _____ A) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller. B) pressure decreases. C) viscosity of blood changes. D) flow becomes turbulent. E) pressure increases. 234) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the ________ pressure. 234) _____ A) pulse

B) critical closing C) blood D) mean arterial E) circulatory 235) Edema may occur (only) when 235) _____ A) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced and capillary endothelium permeability goes up. B) capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated. C) capillary endothelium permeability goes up. D) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced, capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated, and the capillary endothelium permeability goes up. E) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced. 236) Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexively results in 236) _____ A) stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center in the brain. B) increased heart rate. C) increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart. D) increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system. E) stimulation of the vasoconstrictive center. 237) Which of the following changes doesn't occur during exercise compared to rest? 237) _____ A) cardiac output is higher B) heart blood flow is higher C) abdominal viscera blood flow is lower D) skin blood flow is lower E) kidney blood flow is lower 238) ADH and aldosterone secretion are part of the body's long-term compensation for 238) _____ A) a serious hemorrhage. B) prolonged exercise. C) hypertension. D) a heavy meal. E) a heart attack. 239) During exercise 239) _____ A) both cardiac output and stroke volume

increase. B) tissue perfusion to the digestive system decreases. C) vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles. D) venous return increases. E) All of the answers are correct. 240) During exercise 240) _____ A) vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles. B) both cardiac output and stroke volume increase. C) venous return increases. D) venous return increases and vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles. E) All of the answers are correct. 241) Pulmonary arteries carry blood to the ________. 241) _____ A) aorta. B) left atrium. C) systemic circuit. D) lungs. E) right atrium. 242) Pulmonary veins carry blood to the 242) _____ A) right atrium. B) lungs. C) left atrium. D) pulmonary circuit. E) aorta. 243) Branches off the aortic arch include the 243) _____ A) brachiocephalic trunk. B) left common carotid artery. C) left subclavian artery and left common carotid artery D) left subclavian artery. E) brachiocephalic trunk, left subclavian artery, and left common carotid artery 244) After passing the first rib, the subclavian artery becomes the ________ artery. 244) _____ A) brachial B) radial C) digital D) axillary E) ulnar 245) The ________ carries nutrient-rich blood

into the liver. 245) _____ A) hepatic portal vein B) myenteric capillaries C) gastric vein D) hepatic artery E) superior mesenteric vein 246) Near the level of vertebra L4, the aorta branches to form the ________ arteries. 246) _____ A) common iliac B) popliteal C) tibial D) common carotid E) femoral 247) The vessel that receives blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is the 247) _____ A) inferior vena cava. B) external jugular vein. C) superior vena cava. D) internal jugular vein. E) coronary sinus. 248) Veins of the upper arm include the ________ vein(s). 248) _____ A) ulnar B) brachial C) basilic D) cephalic E) All of the answers are correct. 249) The radial and ulnar veins fuse to form the ________ vein. 249) _____ A) basilic B) axillary C) brachial D) hemiazygos E) azygos 250) The vein that is formed from the fusion of the subclavian with the internal and external jugulars is the ________ vein. 250) _____ A) iliac B) azygos C) hemiazygos D) brachiocephalic E) axillary

251) An important artery that supplies blood to the brain is the ________ artery. 251) _____ A) maxillary B) external carotid C) azygos D) internal carotid E) mental 252) When the popliteal vein reaches the femur, it becomes the ________ vein. 252) _____ A) internal iliac B) external iliac C) femoral D) deep femoral E) lumbar 253) The two common iliac veins form the 253) _____ A) hepatic portal vein. B) innominate vein. C) femoral vein. D) greater saphenous vein. E) inferior vena cava.

Figure 21-1 ArteriesUse Figure 21-1 to answer the following questions: 254) Identify the artery labeled "16." 254) _____ A) celiac B) axillary C) inferior mesenteric D) splenic E) superior mesenteric 255) The lymphatic system does all of the following, except that it 255) _____ A) eliminates variations in the composition of interstitial fluid. B) fights infection. C) transports lipids from the digestive tract. D) transports gases to and away from lymph nodes. E) helps maintain normal blood volume. 256) Compared to blood capillaries, lymph capillaries exhibit all of the following, except that they 256) _____ A) are smaller in diameter.

B) are frequently irregular in shape. C) have no basement membrane. D) are larger in diameter. E) have walls of endothelial cells that overlap like shingles. 257) Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the 257) _____ A) right lymphatic duct. B) dural sinus. C) cisterna chyli. D) thoracic duct. E) hepatic portal vein. 258) ________ are large lymphatic nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx. 258) _____ A) Tonsils B) Spleens C) Lymph nodes D) Peyer patches E) Immune complexes 259) Lymphatic capillaries are known for 259) _____ A) being the smallest lymphatic vessels. B) having larger diameters and looser walls than blood capillaries. C) shingle-like endothelial cells. D) being the starting point of the lymphatic circulation. E) All of the answers are correct. 260) Lymphatic vessels commonly occur in association with 260) _____ A) adipose tissue. B) hyaline cartilage. C) blood vessels. D) sensory nerve endings. E) both blood vessels and adipose tissue. 261) ________ are clusters of lymphatic nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine. 261) _____ A) Immune complexes B) Adenoids C) Peyer patches D) Tonsils E) Lymph glands

262) The thoracic duct drains lymph from all of the following regions, except the 262) _____ A) pelvic viscera. B) left side of neck. C) right breast. D) left breast. E) left arm and shoulder. 263) Lymph nodes do all of the following, except that they 263) _____ A) monitor the contents of lymph. B) remove debris and pathogens from the lymph. C) produce antibodies. D) accumulate cancer cells. E) remove excess nutrients from the lymph. 264) All of the following are true of the thymus gland, except that it 264) _____ A) lies in the anterior mediastinum. B) involutes after puberty. C) produces T cells. D) reaches its greatest relative size during the second year of life. E) activates B cells. 265) The lymphatic system is composed of all of the following, except 265) _____ A) the venae cavae. B) lymphatic vessels. C) the spleen. D) lymph. E) lymph nodes.

Figure 21-1 ArteriesUse Figure 21-1 to answer the following questions: 266) Identify the artery labeled "12." 266) _____ A) splenic B) celiac trunk C) superior mesenteric D) inferior mesenteric E) axillary 267) Identify the artery labeled "1." 267) _____ A) brachial

B) brachiocephalic C) common carotid D) aorta E) axillary 268) Identify the arteries labeled "9." 268) _____ A) aorta B) common carotid C) brachiocephalic D) brachial E) axillary 269) Identify the artery labeled "6." 269) _____ A) abdominal aorta B) femoral C) internal iliac D) external iliac E) common iliac

Figure 21-2 VeinsUse Figure 21-2 to answer the following questions: 270) Identify the vein labeled "9." 270) _____ A) axillary B) brachial C) basilic D) median cubital E) cephalic 271) Identify the vein labeled "15." 271) _____ A) axillary B) radial C) basilic D) brachial E) ulnar 272) Identify the vein labeled "10." 272) _____ A) thoracic B) pulmonary C) aorta D) inferior vena cava E) superior vena cava 273) Identify the vein labeled "8." 273) _____ A) axillary B) external jugular C) brachiocephalic D) subclavian E) superior vena cava

274) Identify the vein labeled "6." 274) _____ A) external iliac B) common iliac C) inferior vena cava D) internal iliac E) femoral 275) Elderly individuals are more prone than are younger individuals to have all of the following, except 275) _____ A) hypertension. B) increased elasticity of vessel walls. C) problems with the conducting system of the heart. D) venous thrombosis. E) arteriosclerosis. 276) The ________ vein is formed by the fusion of the greater saphenous vein, femoral vein, and deep femoral vein. 276) _____ A) common iliac B) azygous C) internal iliac D) inferior vena cava E) external iliac 277) Blood from the brain returns to the heart through the ________ vein. 277) _____ A) azygos B) internal jugular C) vertebral D) external jugular E) innominate 278) The fusion of the brachiocephalic veins forms the 278) _____ A) inferior vena cava. B) subclavian vein. C) azygos vein. D) superior vena cava. E) innominate vein. 279) At the level of the first rib, the axillary vein becomes the ________ vein. 279) _____ A) subclavian B) external jugular C) cephalic D) innominate E) azygos

280) The external iliac artery branches to form the ________ arteries. 280) _____ A) tibial and popliteal B) femoral and popliteal C) femoral and tibial D) radial and ulnar E) femoral and deep femoral 281) At the knee, the femoral artery becomes the ________ artery. 281) _____ A) deep femoral B) iliac C) peroneal D) popliteal E) tibial 282) The internal carotids and the basilar artery are interconnected by an anastomosis called the 282) _____ A) external carotid artery. B) basal ring. C) common carotid artery. D) arterial bypass E) cerebral arterial circle. 283) Near the carotid sinus, 283) _____ A) the external carotid forms the internal carotid. B) the internal carotids fuse with the vertebral arteries. C) veins and arteries anastomose. D) the aorta gives rise to the common carotids. E) the common carotid divides into an internal and an external branch. 284) The ________ divides the aorta into the thoracic aorta and the abdominal aorta. 284) _____ A) pericardium B) pleura C) diaphragm D) peritoneum E) mediastinum 285) After entering the arm, the axillary artery becomes the ________ artery. 285) _____ A) digital B) subclavian C) brachial D) ulnar

E) radial 286) The brachial artery branches to form the radial and ________ arteries. 286) _____ A) axillary B) subclavian C) ulnar D) brachiocephalic E) digital 287) Homeostatic mechanisms in response to blood loss include all of the following, except 287) _____ A) uptake of interstitial fluid due to reduced capillary pressure. B) activation of ADH secretion. C) inhibition of EPO secretion. D) increased thirst and water intake. E) activation of aldosterone secretion. 288) Fear can result in 288) _____ A) increased stimulation of the cardioinhibitory center by higher brain centers. B) decreased blood pressure. C) increased stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center by higher brain centers. D) parasympathetic stimulation. E) decreased heart rate. 289) Elevated levels of the hormones ANP and BNP will produce increased 289) _____ A) blood volume. B) salt and water loss through the kidneys. C) blood pressure. D) sodium ion levels in blood. E) venous return and preload. 290) When carotid and aortic baroreceptors slow their discharge, 290) _____ A) both heart rate and stroke volume increase. B) heart rate increases. C) heart rate decreases. D) stroke volume increases. E) the heart rate will decrease to lower blood pressure. 291) Each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure, except 291)

_____ A) release of renin. B) decreased levels of aldosterone. C) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). D) decreased peripheral resistance. E) decrease in blood volume. 292) Each of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure, except 292) _____ A) increased blood volume. B) increased levels of angiotensin II. C) increased levels of ADH (antidiuretic hormone). D) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). E) increased levels of aldosterone. 293) Each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue, except 293) _____ A) relaxation of precapillary sphincters. B) increased hematocrit. C) increased blood pressure. D) decreased peripheral resistance. E) increased vessel diameter. 294) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the ________ pressure. 294) _____ A) mean arterial B) critical closing C) circulatory D) pulse E) blood 295) The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the 295) _____ A) concentration of plasma sodium ions. B) concentration of plasma proteins. C) concentration of plasma waste products. D) concentration of plasma glucose. E) number of red blood cells. 296) Each of the following factors would increase cardiac output, except 296) _____ A) increased blood concentration of glucose. B) increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart. C) increased venous return.

D) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart. E) stimulation of the heart by epinephrine. 297) Blood pressure increases with all of the following, except increased 297) _____ A) parasympathetic innervation. B) blood volume. C) cardiac output. D) force of cardiac contraction. E) peripheral resistance. 298) As blood travels from arteries to veins, 298) _____ A) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller. B) pressure builds. C) viscosity increases. D) pressure drops. E) flow becomes turbulent. 299) Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the 299) _____ A) veins constrict. B) arterioles constrict. C) arterioles dilate. D) level of oxygen at the tissue increases. E) level of carbon dioxide at the tissue decreases. 300) Blood pressure is determined by 300) _____ A) measuring the size of the pulse. B) estimating the degree of turbulence in a partly closed vessel. C) measuring the force of contraction of the left ventricle. D) listening carefully to the pulse. E) estimating the pressure needed to close off an artery with an external pressure cuff. 301) Resistance is a force that 301) _____ A) never changes in a blood vessel. B) acts with pressure to move blood along a vessel. C) is always higher than blood pressure. D) increases blood flow. E) decreases blood flow. 302) Which part of the vascular system

functions as a blood reservoir and contains over 60% of the body's blood? 302) _____ A) pulmonary arteries B) systemic arterioles C) veins D) capillaries E) arteries 303) What vessels hold the largest percentage of the blood supply? 303) _____ A) arteriole B) vein C) artery D) venule E) capillary 304) Arteriosclerosis can lead to 304) _____ A) coronary artery disease. B) stroke. C) myocardial infarction. D) hypertension. E) All of the answers are correct. 305) Which kind of vessel is also called a resistance vessel? 305) _____ A) artery B) capillary C) vein D) arteriole E) venule 306) Blood flow through a capillary is controlled by the 306) _____ A) vasa vasorum. B) precapillary sphincter. C) plexus. D) thoroughfare channel. E) venule. 307) These vessels may be continuous or fenestrated. 307) _____ A) veins B) venules C) arterioles D) capillaries E) arteries 308) What structure do RBCs move through single file? 308) _____ A) vein B) artery C) capillary D) arteriole E) venule 309) The layer of the arteriole wall that can produce vasoconstriction is the 309) _____ A) tunica externa. B) tunica media. C) tunica adventitia. D) tunica mater. E) tunica intima.

310) Venoconstriction ________ the amount of blood within the venous system, which ________ the volume in the arterial and capillary systems. 310) _____ A) reduces; increases B) reduces; reduces C) decreases; doubles D) increases; reduces E) doubles; decreases 311) Venous valves are responsible for 311) _____ A) preventing blood from re-entering a ventricle. B) channeling blood toward the heart. C) channeling blood away from the heart. D) preventing anterograde flow. E) regulating blood pressure in veins. 312) After blood leaves the capillaries, it enters the 312) _____ A) venules. B) veins. C) arterioles. D) arteries. E) capillaries. 313) Which layer of a blood vessel contains concentric sheets of smooth muscle tissue? 313) _____ A) tunica externa B) external elastic membrane C) tunica intima D) internal elastic membrane E) tunica media