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Williams Obstetrics Study Guide -Antepartum 03Question 251 of 499 < Previous question Next question >

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Which of the following chromosomes is generally NOT involved in Robertsonian translocation?

A. 1B. 13C. 14D. 21

Robertsonian Translocation

Question 252 of 499 < Previous question Next question >


In the event of a 14/21 translocation in the father, what is the chance of having a child with

Down syndrome?

A. 1 to 2%B. 5%C. 15%D. 50%

Robertsonian Translocation



Which specific deletion is associated with Wolf-Hirschorn syndrome?

A. 2qB. 4pC. 6qD. 8p

Deletion 4p



What is the mechanism by which some autosomal dominant diseases appear to occur at

earlier ages with subsequent generations?

A. penetranceB. imprintingC. variable expressivityD. anticipation

Anticipation



Which of the following X-linked conditions is an example of a trinucleotide repeat disorder?

A. myotonic dystrophyB. hemophilia AC. hemophilia BD. Hunter syndrome

Myotonic Dystrophy



Which of the following is NOT an autosomal recessive disease?

A. Tay-Sachs diseaseB. congenital adrenal hyperplasiaC. myotonic dystrophyD. sickle-cell anemia

Table 12-6



Approximately what percentage of the genome encodes genes?

A.

D. 50

Organization of the Genome



Which of the following is an X-linked disease?

A. von Willebrand diseaseB. neurofibromatosisC. Fabry disease D. Tay-Sachs disease

Table 12-6



Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome) occurs in how many newborns?

A. 1 in 1000B. 1 in 8000C. 1 in 16,000D. 1 in 24,000

Trisomy 18



What is the approximate number of base pairs in the human genome?

A. 1 millionB. 3 millionC. 1 billionD. 3 billion

Molecular Genetics



What is the best method for detection of both the size of the trinucleotide expansion and

methylation of the fragile X gene?

A. fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) B. cytogenetic analysis C. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) D. restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot

Fragile X Syndrome



Which of the following characteristics is NOT a usual manifestation of the fragile X syndrome in

affected males?

A. autismB. macro-orchidismC. mental retardationD. short stature

Fragile X Syndrome



What is the mechanism by which the expression of a particular disease is dependent on

whether the mutant gene was of paternal or maternal origin?

A. penetranceB. imprintingC. uniparental disomyD. anticipation

Imprinting



Which of the following is a mitochondrial genetic disease?

A. myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers B. Leigh syndrome C. pigmentary retinopathy D. all of the above

Mitochondrial Inheritance



The gene that contains the unstable trinucleotide repeat (ACG) and is responsible for myotonic

dystrophy is located on what chromosome?

A. X B. Y C. 9D. 21

Myotonic Dystrophy



Which of the following is NOT currently used for fetal therapy?

A. cordocentesisB. fetal tissue biopsyC. stem cell transplantationD. vesicoamnionic shunting

Percutaneous Umbilical Cord Blood Sampling/

Fetal Tissue Biopsy/

Fetal Surgery/

Stem Cell Transplantation



Folic acid and 5,10-methylene tetra-hydrofolate reductase (MTHFR) 677 C T mutations are

associated with neural-tube defects AND

A. renal abnormalitiesB. gastrointestinal defects C. cardiac disease D. musculoskeletal defects

Neural-Tube Defects/

Cardiac Defects



What is the approximate recurrence risk of structural abnormalities that are multifactorial in

etiology?

A. 0.5%B. 1%C. 2 to 3%D. 10 to 15%

Isolated Structural Anomalies



Approximately how many mutations have been shown to cause cystic fibrosis?

A. 9B. 90C. 900D. 9000

DNA Chips



Angelman and Prader-Willi syndromes are due to imprinting of which chromosome?

A. 5B. 10C. 15D. 20

Imprinting



What is the recurrence risk of trisomy, either the same involved chromosome or different, in a

young mother who had a previous pregnancy complicated by an autosomal trisomy?

A. 1%B. 3%C. 5%D. 10%

Fetal Aneuploidy



What are the multiple coding sequences within a gene called?

A. exonsB. intronsC. promotersD. demoters

Coding DNA: Genes



Which of the following is transmitted via multifactorial inheritance?

A. Marfan syndrome B. Fabry syndrome C. neurofibromatosis D. neural-tube defect

Examples of Multifactorial or Polygenic Defects



In women with no obstetrical or family history of aneuploidy, which of the following is the

most powerful maternal predictor of aneuploidy?

A. ageB. raceC. parityD. socioeconomic status

Fetal Aneuploidy



Additionally, you counsel the patient in Question 14 that fetal ultrasonography and

echocardiography should be performed in future pregnancies at what gestational age?

A. 6 to 8 weeksB. 10 to 12 weeksC. 20 to 22 weeksD. 26 to 28 weeks

Congenital Heart Defects



What in vitro technique is used to synthesize large amounts of specific DNA sequences over a

relatively short period of time?

A. Southern blottingB. restriction endonuclease reactionC. polymerase chain reaction D. allele-specific oligonucleotide reaction

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)



The fetal death rate following amniocentesis approximates which of the following?

A. 1:100B. 1:200C. 1:400

D. 1:500

Fetal Aneuploidy



What is the risk of having anomalous children result from incest (brother-sister or parent-

child)?

A. 1 to 5%B. 10 to 15%C. 25 to 30%D. 35 to 40%

Consanguinity



Which of the following diseases is caused by a single mutation?

A. cystic fibrosisB. myotonic dystrophyC. diabetes mellitusD. sickle-cell anemia

Coding DNA: Genes



Which of the following conditions is NOT inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion?

A. achondroplasiaB. adult polycystic kidney diseaseC. Marfan syndromeD. cystic fibrosis

Table 12-6



At term, what is the risk of delivering an aneuploid fetus in a 35-year-old woman?

A. 1:50B. 1:100C. 1:200D. 1:400

Fetal Aneuploidy



Your newly pregnant patient informs you that her sister was born with spina bifida. You

counsel her which of the following regarding her fetus' risk for this abnormality?

A. risk is 10 to 15%B. risk equals that of the general populationC. warrants maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) level measurementD. warrants MSAFP level measurement plus fetal ultrasonographic examination

Neural-Tube Defects



What percentage of stillbirths and neonatal deaths are attributable to chromosomal

abnormalities?

A. 1 to 3B. 5 to 7C. 10 to 12D. 15 to 20

Fetal Aneuploidy



Your patient's first child had an atrioventricular defect. You counsel her that the risk of

recurrence of the same defect in future pregnancies is which of the following?

A. 20%B. 40%C. 60%D. 80%




In which of the following chromosomal inversion types does the inverted segment contain

material from only one arm and does not contain the centromere?

A. pericentricB. paracentricC. unicentricD. monocentric

Chromosomal Inversion



Women with which of the following characteristics should be offered amniocentesis for fetal

karyotyping?

A. previous child was 47,XYYB. twin gestation regardless of maternal ageC. will be 35 years or older at time of deliveryD. prior history of 3 first-trimester spontaneous abortions

Table 13-1



Your patient has just spontaneously aborted a 7-week gestation. You counsel her that

aneuploidy accounts for approximately what percentage of first-trimester abortion?

A. 30B. 50C. 70D. 90

Fetal Aneuploidy



Isolated fetal structural defects are most commonly found in which of the following organs?

A. liver B. heartC. bladderD. neural tube




The most common hemoglobinopathy in the U.S. is found among persons belonging to which

ethnic or geographic background?

A. MediterraneanB. Middle EasternC. Southeast AsianD. African American

Ethnic Groups at High Risk



AFP can be found in which of the following body fluids?

A. fetal urineB. fetal serumC. maternal serumD. all of the above

Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP)



Your 25-year-old newly pregnant patient informs you that her cousin was born with

anencephaly, which has a multifactorial etiology. How do you counsel her regarding her fetus'

risk for this abnormality?

A. is greater than that of the general populationB. warrants pregnancy terminationC. warrants amniocentesis at 14 to 16 weeksD. warrants MSAFP level measurement at 16 weeks

Isolated Structural Anomalies



Which of the following has NOT been associated with an increased risk of fetal neural-tube

defects?

A. concurrent trisomy 13B. poorly controlled diabetesC. first-trimester acetaminophen useD. high maternal fever early in gestation

Neural-Tube Defects



In screening your patient's fetus for neural-tube defects at 16 weeks gestation, you obtain an

MSAFP result that is 4.0 MoM. Your patient has no history indicating an increased risk for this

defect. Which of the following is the next best step in her management?

A. ultrasonographic examinationB. repeat MSAFP measurementC. amniocentesis for fetal karyotyping D. amniocentesis for amnionic fluid AFP level measurement

Maternal Serum AFP Screening



Exposure to which of the following drugs is associated with an increased risk of fetal neural-

tube defects?

A. carbamazepineB. isotretinoinC. valproic acidD. all of the above

Neural-Tube Defects



At which gestational age is the highest level of amnionic fluid AFP observed?

A. 7 weeksB. 11 weeksC. 13 weeksD. 17 weeks




What is the mechanism by which both members of one chromosome pair are inherited from

the same parent?

A. imprintingB. variable expressivityC. uniparental disomyD. anticipation

Uniparental Disomy




MSAFP result which is 3.0 MoM. Your patient has no history indicating an increased risk for this

defect. Which of the following is the next best step in her management?

A. repeat MSAFP level measurementB. amniocentesis for fetal karyotyping C. amniocentesis for amnionic fluid AFP level measurementD. ultrasonography and amniocentesis for amnionic AFP level measurement





MSAFP result of 5.0 MoM. Your patient has no history that points to an increased risk for this

defect. Ultrasonography reveals a viable singleton gestation with no structural anomalies,

normal amnionic fluid index, and fetal measurements consistent with gestational age. Which

of the following is the next best step in her management?

A. reassuranceB. repeat MSAFP level measurementC. amniocentesis for fetal karyotypingD. amniocentesis for amnionic fluid AFP level measurement

Amniocentesis



Which of the following maternal serum analytes is NOT included in the "triple screen" for Down

syndrome?

A. AFPB. placental lactogenC. unconjugated estriolD. chorionic gonadotropin

Multiple-Marker Screening



Unexplained elevated abnormal AFP levels are associated with which of the following

complications?

A. fetal deathB. low birthweightC. preterm rupture of membranesD. all of the above

Unexplained Elevated Abnormal Maternal Serum AFP Levels



Open spine defects are associated with specific cranial lesions in what percentage of cases?

A. 5B. 33C. 67D. 99

Ultrasonographic Examination



Which of the following is a maternal serum marker used in first-trimester Down syndrome

screening?

A. placental lactogenB. acetylcholinesteraseC. pregnancy-associated plasma protein AD. all of the above




Which of the following is the most common cause of familial mental retardation?

A. trisomy 13B. Down syndromeC. 47,XXY genotypeD. fragile X syndrome

Fragile X Syndrome



Southern blotting is a technique used to identify which of the following?

A. histonesB. deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)C. ribonucleic acid (RNA)D. proteins

Southern Blotting



Levels of MSAFP are influenced by which of the following maternal factors?

A. raceB. diabetic statusC. maternal weightD. all of the above




Cystic fibrosis is inherited via which genetic transmission pattern?

A. imprintingB. X-linked C. autosomal recessive D. autosomal dominant

Cystic Fibrosis



Which of the following accounts for the largest portion of elevated MSAFP levels in the absence

of fetal anomaly?

A. fetal deathB. maternal obesityC. multiple gestationD. incorrect gestational dating




Which of the following fetal cranial ultrasonographic findings is NOT associated with neural-

tube defects?

A. lemon signB. banana signC. cabbage signD. ventriculomegaly

Ultrasonographic Examination



Approximately what percentage of couples with recurrent pregnancy loss will have either a

balanced Robertsonian or reciprocal translocation?

A.


Increased risk of which of the following is associated with chorionic villous sampling performed

after 9 weeks gestation?

A. fetal deathB. limb-reduction defectsC. oromandibular defectsD. cavernous hemangiomas

Chorionic Villus Sampling



Which of the following conditions may be prevented by preconceptional folic acid

supplementation?

A. urogenital defectsB. cleft lipC. fragile X syndromeD. neural-tube defects

Neural-Tube Defects



Antenatal cystic fibrosis screening should be offered when both members of a couple are from

which of the following ethnic groups?

A. Southeast AsianB. Ashkenazi JewishC. African AmericanD. Hispanic American

Carrier Screening



Which of the following patients need NOT be offered screening for fragile X syndrome?

A. males with unexplained mental retardationB. females with unexplained mental retardationC. first-degree relative of patients with known fragile X syndromeD. first-degree relatives of patients with unexplained mental retardation

Carrier Screening



Ultrasonographic measurement of which of the following is commonly used in first-trimester

Down syndrome screening protocols?

A. femur lengthB. intraorbital distanceC. nuchal translucencyD. placental sonolucencies

First-Trimester Down Syndrome Screening



At which gestational age is the highest level of MSAFP observed?

A. 10 weeksB. 14 weeksC. 18 weeksD. 22 weeks

Figure 13-2



In a woman with an elevated MSAFP level and elevated amnionic fluid AFP, what further

testing should be performed on the amnionic fluid?

A. OD 450B. fetal fibronectin assayC. C-reactive protein assayD. acetylcholinesterase assay

Amniocentesis



What percentage of fetuses with Down syndrome can be detected in women older than 35

years using the triple screen?

A. 50 to 55B. 65 to 70C. 75 to 80D. 90 to 95




Which of the following is a risk associated with second-trimester amniocentesis?

A. chorioamnionitisB. amnionic fluid leakageC. fetal needle stick injuryD. all of the above

Second-Trimester Amniocentesis



In which of the following situations would cordocentesis be appropriate?

A. red cell alloimmunizationB. nonimmune fetal hydropsC. suspected primary fetal CMV infection D. all of the above

Percutaneous Umbilical Cord Blood Sampling (PUBS)



Which of the following trinucleotide repeats is associated with the fragile X gene (FMR-1)?

A. CGGB. CAGC. GCTD. GGG

Fragile X Syndrome



What percentage of females with full mutations for fragile X syndrome will have some form of

mental retardation?

A. 5B. 25C. 50D. 100

Fragile X Syndrome



Which of the following has NOT been shown to be an effective method for administering

medications for fetal medical therapy?

A. injection into fetal buttockB. injection into amnionic fluidC. injection into the umbilical cordD. oral administration to the mother

Fetal Medical Therapy



In assessing the usefulness of fetal surgery to correct or ameliorate major malformations,

which of the following should be considered?

A. maternal risksB. natural history and prognosis of the malformationC. associated high incidence of genetic abnormalitiesD. all of the above

Fetal Surgery



Which of the following changes in the fetal nasal bone have been used as a marker for Down

syndrome?

A. absenceB. increased sizeC. decreased sizeD. increased opacification

Nasal Bone



What percentage of children in the United States are born with a major structural

malformation detectable at birth?

A. 1B. 3C. 5D. 7

Teratology, Drugs, and Other Medications



Higher rates of which of the following is a disadvantage of early amniocentesis compared with

second-trimester amniocentesis?

A. fetal deathB. foot deformitiesC. membrane ruptureD. all of the above

Early Amniocentesis



Preimplantation genetic analysis techniques can use genetic material from which of the

following?

A. blastocystB. first polar bodyC. second polar bodyD. all of the above

Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis



What are identical defects with different etiologies called?

A. hadegensB. parallel dysmorphismsC. phenocopiesD. polymorphisms

The Defect Must Be Completely Characterized



Of the following conditions, which cannot be ameliorated by antepartum vesicoamnionic

shunting?

A. urethral atresiaB. renal cystic dysplasiaC. posterior urethral valvesD. ureteropelvic junction obstruction

Urinary Shunts



Approximately what percentage of children have birth defects identified by their teen years?

A. 5%B. 10%C. 15%D. 25%




What percentage of congenital anomalies (structural or functional) are caused by teratogens?

A. 10B. 25C. 50

D. 75




Which of the following represents the fetal period?

A. implantation through week 8B. implantation through week 12C. week 9 until termD. week 12 until term

Exposure Must Occur During a Critical Developmental Period



Damage to a large number of cells during the preimplantation period of development will likely

result in which of the following?

A. cell division to compensate for lost cellsB. death of the embryoC. major structural malformationsD. none of the above




Which of the following statements in advocacy of antenatal repair of congenital diaphragmatic

hernia is true?

A. Less than 30% of neonates survive postnatal hernia repair.B. Antenatal surgery is associated with only a 15% incidence of preterm birth.C. Several antenatal repair procedures are associated with improved neonatal survival.D. None of the above are true.

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia



Fetal medical therapy is LEAST likely to show beneficial effects in which of the following fetal

conditions?

A. cardiac arrhythmiasB. maternalfetal infectionC. posterior urethral valvesD. congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Fetal Medical Therapy/

Fetal Surgery



What proportion of patients seeking counseling for birth defects have a genetic condition?

A. < one thirdB. one halfC. two thirdsD. three fourths




Antenatal repair of spina bifida has been shown to be associated with which of the following?

A. minimal maternal morbidityB. improved lower extremity mobilityC. reduced need for ventriculoperitoneal shunt placementD. none of the above

Neural-Tube Defects



To establish teratogenicity, which of the following criteria must be met?

A. agent must cross the placentaB. biologically plausible cause and effectC. consistent findings between epidemiological studiesD. all of the above

Evaluation of Potential Teratogens



Which of the following approximates the incidence of major structural or functional

abnormalities found in neonates?

A.


Thoracoamnionic shunting is performed to prevent which of the following?

A. pectus carinatumB. congenital scoliosisC. pulmonary hypoplasiaD. left ventricular hypertrophy

Thoracic Shunts



Which of the following procedures has the highest fetal death rate?

A. second-trimester amniocentesisB. transcervical chorionic villus samplingC. transabdominal chorionic villus samplingD. all have approximately equivalent rates




Pulmonary sequestration and congenital cystic adenomatoid does NOT result in which of the

following?

A. fetal hydropsB. pleural effusionC. oligohydramniosD. pulmonary hypoplasia

Congenital Cystic Adenomatoid...



By how many weeks of gestation is formation of the heart complete?

A. 8B. 10C. 12D. 14

Figure 14-1



Which are the special genes that play an essential role in the establishment of positional

identity of structures along the body axis?

A. chronomorphic genesB. homeobox genesC. sequential transcription genesD. vertebrate morphometric genes

Homeobox Genes



Disruption of metabolic pathways requiring folic acid cause birth defects in all of the following

structural areas EXCEPT

A. heartB. neural tubeC. lip and palateD. reproductive tract

Disruption of Folic Acid Metabolism



Which of the following fetal structures is NOT involved in the synthesis of alpha-fetoprotein

(AFP)?

A. liverB. yolk sacC. bone marrowD. gastrointestinal tract




Which of the following enzymes is needed to detoxify the oxidative intermediates of several

potentially teratogenic drugs?

A. areneoxidaseB. aromataseC. epoxide hydrolaseD. folate dehydrogenase

Oxidative Intermediates



What is the average number of prescriptions, other than for vitamins, received by women

during pregnancy in the United States?

A. 1B. 3

C. 5D. 7

Teratology



Individuals of Jewish ancestry are at increased risk for which of the following diseases?

A. CanavanB. GaucherC. Tay-SachsD. all of the above

Jewish Ancestry



Which of the following represents the embryonic period?

A. fertilization through week 6B. fertilization through week 10C. week 2 through week 8D. week 1 through week 12




Periconceptual folate supplementation lowers the rate of birth defects in mothers taking which

type of medication?

A. anticonvulsantsB. corticosteroidsC. hypoglycemics including insulinD. phenothiazines

Disruption of Folic Acid Metabolism



What is the safe daily threshold dose of alcohol during pregnancy?

A. 1 ozB. 3 ozC. 5 ozD. not established

Dose Effect



What is the most rational initial approach when a major fetal malformation is discovered using

ultrasonography?

A. MSAFP testingB. fetal karyotypingC. parental karyotypingD. serial ultrasonographic examinations

Incidental Findings of a Major Structural Defect



Which of the following is associated with mental retardation, cardiac defects, joint defects, and

craniofacial anomalies?

A. alcoholB. amphetaminesC. lysergic acidD. heroin

Alcohol



Which of the following periods is most critical with regard to structural malformations?

A. prefertilizationB. zygote (ovum)C. embryonicD. fetal




Anticonvulsant medications are teratogens via what mechanism(s)?

A. accumulation of free oxide radicals in fetal tissuesB. lowered fetal folate levelsC. both of the aboveD. unknown

Anticonvulsant Medications



Which of the following abnormalities is NOT an effect of fetal warfarin exposure?

A. midfacial hypoplasiaB. stippled bone epiphysesC. ventral wall defects D. cerebral malformations

Warfarin Compounds



Which of the following antihypertensives is associated with congenital hypocalvaria, renal

tubular dysgenesis, oligohydramnios, and neonatal hypotension?

A. sodium nitroprussideB. enalapril C. clonidineD. labetalol

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors



During what period of gestation can exposure of a female fetus to exogenous androgens cause

complete masculinization?

A. 2 to 5 weeksB. 7 to 12 weeksC. 14 to 18 weeksD. 22 to 24 weeks

Hormones



Which of the following is true of high doses of vitamin A ingested during pregnancy?

A. It is a potent teratogen.B. Supplementation of greater than the recommended daily allowance is not advised.C. It increases the early pregnancy loss rate.D. It should be given at high doses only to treat related maternal diseases.

Vitamin A



Which of the following compounds is highly teratogenic and has been detected in serum

almost 3 years after cessation of therapy?

A. isotretinoinB. etretinateC. tretinoinD. vitamin A

Etretinate



What is the risk of developing vaginal clear-cell adenocarcinoma following in utero exposure to

diethylstilbestrol (DES)?

A. 1 in 10B. 1 in 100C. 1 in 1000D. 1 in 10,000

Diethylstilbestrol



Which of the following is NOT a condition associated with an elevated MSAFP level?

A. omphalocoeleB. cloacal extrophyC. oligohydramniosD. complete molar pregnancy

Table 13-7



Which antineoplastic agent is associated with severe cranial and limb abnormalities?

A. bleomycinB. tamoxifen citrateC. methotrexateD. platinum

Methotrexate and Aminopterin



Which group of defects are seen in infants of epileptic mothers at a rate almost 10 times that

of the general population?

A. facial cleftsB. digital abnormalitiesC. cardiac anomalies

D. gastrointestinal strictures

Anticonvulsant Medications



Approximately how many drugs or substances are suspected or proven teratogens?

A. 30B. 60C. 300D. 600

Table 14-1



Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) is used to detect which of the following?

A. new mutationsB. aneuploidyC. polyploidyD. fragile X syndrome

Fluorescence In Situ Hybrid (FISH)



Which of the following antimicrobials is a folate antagonist but not associated with adverse

fetal effects?

A. trimethoprimB. nitrofurantoinC. tetracyclineD. erythromycin

Sulfonamides



Fetal tissue biopsy has been used for antenatal diagnosis of which of the following diseases?

A. muscular dystrophyB. epidermolysis bullosaC. mitochondrial myopathyD. all of the above

Fetal Tissue Biopsy



In utero exposure to DES causes which of the following?

A. male infertilityB. testicular cancerC. uterine malformationsD. vaginal duplication

Diethylstilbestrol



What is an advantage of transcervical chorionic villous sampling compared with second-

trimester amniocentesis?

A. lower fetal death rate B. test results received at an earlier gestational ageC. able to perform even if vaginal bleeding is present D. able to perform on an extremely anteverted or retroverted uterus




Which craniofacial defect is most strongly associated with use of isotretinoin?

A. malformed or absent earsB. hypotelorismC. hypoplastic upper lip

D. microphthalmia

Isotretinoin



Which of the following antiviral drugs, used as an aerosol inhalation agent in intensive care

nurseries, consistently produces hydrocephalus and limb abnormalities in rodents?

A. acyclovirB. amantadineC. famciclovirD. ribavirin

Antivirals



Approximately what percentage of fetuses exposed in utero to isotretinoin will have at least

one major malformation?

A. 5B. 20C. 30D. 50

Isotretinoin



According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), what proportion of

pregnancies involve cocaine use?

A. 1 in 500B. 1 in 200C. 1 in 50D. 1 in 20

Cocaine



What is the most typical problem seen with tetracycline ingestion during the fetal period of

gestation?

A. alopeciaB. stained deciduous teethC. hypoplastic fingernails and toenailsD. peeling and discolored skin

Tetracyclines



Fetuses carrying an allele for a rare polymorphism in the transforming growth factor gene are

at increased risk of which of the following congenital malformations if their mothers smoke?

A. cardiac anomaliesB. cleft lip and/or palateC. limb deformitiesD. spina bifida

Tobacco



What is the most rational initial approach when two minor structural abnormalities are

discovered using ultrasonography?

A. MSAFP testingB. fetal karyotypingC. parental karyotypingD. serial ultrasonographic examinations

Incidental Findings of a Major Structural Defect



Which of the following antimicrobials given to the mother near delivery may result in

significant hyperbilirubinemia in the preterm neonate?

A. penicillinsB. cephalosporinsC. macrolidesD. sulfonamides

Sulfonamides



Exposure to which of the following hormones is most likely to cause virilization of the female

fetus?

A. danazolB. medroxyprogesterone acetateC. norethindroneD. norgestimate

Danazol

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