quest ii final with answer keys compatibility
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Quest II
Instructions
The test is for2.30 hours and carries 180 marks. The Quest II booklet contains 100 (Part A 15 + Part B 50 + Part C 35)Multiple
ChoiceQuestions(MCQs)out of which 70 questions has to be answered.
Part A consists of15 questions on general mental ability, out of which candidate
SHOULD answer ALL the 15 questions. Each question carries 2 marks.
Part B consists of 50 questions, out of which candidate can answer any 35
questions. Each question carries 2 marks. Part C consists of 35 questions, out of which candidate can answer any 20
questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
There will be negative marking @ 25% for each wrong answer.
Answer sheet has been provided separately. Write your name, batch and date on
the answer sheet in the space provided. Also put your signature in the space
identified. Candidates found copying or resorting to any unfair means are liable to be
disqualified from this and future examinations.
Candidates should not write anything anywhere except on the answer
sheet.
Candidate has to answer questions from all the parts. If he/she leaves any part
unanswered, results will not be counted.
Candidate will be declared pass, if he scores minimum 50% marks in all sections
together.
Use of calculator is not permitted.
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Part A (Answer ALL, Compulsory)1. Nikita starts her journey from Delhi to Bhopal and
simultaneously Nishita starts from Bhopal to delhi.After crossing each other they finish theirremaining journey in 49/9 hours and 9 hours,
respectively. What is the Nishitas speed if Nikitasspeed is 36kmph?
A. 30B. 35C. 28D. 25
2. ( ? /18) x (? / 162 ) = 1A. 64B. 34C. 54D. 94
3.A man selling a chocolate at 5% profit. If he hadbought it at 5% less and sold it for Re.1 less, he
would have gained 10%. The cost price of thearticle is
A. Rs. 200B. Rs. 150C. Rs. 250D. Rs. 240
4. The driving wheel of a locomotive engine 2.1 m inradius makes 75 revolutions in one min. Find thespeed of the train in km/h
A. 60 kmphB. 59.4 kmphC. 61.5 kmph
D. None of the above5. You travel from Biotecnika office to electronic cityin 15 min with no traffic problems on Sundays, iftraffic is very thick, then you will need 30 min toreach electronic city. If you start any day fromBiotecnika office, what is the probability that youwill reach electronic city in 15 min?
A. 2/3B. 1/7C. 2/7D. 6/7
6. If the radius of base and height of a cone areincreased by 10%, find the percentage of increase
of its volume.A. 30%B. 33.1%C. 50%D. 10%
7. If log10x = 98 x log 107 find xA. 10B. 12.25C. 15.55D. 12.75
8. (x+5) (x-5) = 39, x = ?A. +/- 4B. +/- 8C. +/- 5
D. +/- 109. Find the common ration in a G.P. whose sum to
is 9/2 and whose 2nd term is 2.A. -1/3B. +1/3C. 2/3D. -2/3
10. How many terms of the series 5 + 7 + 9 + musbe taken in order that the sum may be 480?
A. 10B. 20C. 30D. 40
11. x covers a distance of 60 km in 6 hrs partly onfoot at the rate of 4 km/hr and partly on a cycle a14 km/hr. Find the distance traveled on foot.
A. 2 kmB. 2.4 kmC. 5 kmD. 2.9 km
12.A man left Rs.1750 to be divided among his twodaughters and four sons. Each daughter was toreceive three times as much as a son. How muchdid each son receive?
A. 175/-
B. 275/-C. 523/-D. 525/-
13. In a family, eleven times the number of childrenis greater by 12 than twice the square of thenumber of children. How many children are therein the family?
A. 4B. 2C. 3D. 1
14. If Air = cheater; cheater = Water; Water = Sky;sky = stone; stone = tiger then
A. Tiger is animalB. Tiger is non livingC. Tiger is airD. Tiger is water
15. I have a certain number of apples to be dividedequally among 18 children. If the number of applesand the number of children were increased by 2each child would get 5 apples less. How manyapples have to distribute
A. 918
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B. 900C. 818
D. 800
Part B
16. Which one of the following pairs of genes islinked on a single chromosome?
A. V gene for lambda chain and C genefor kappa chain
B. C gene for gamma chain and C genefor kappa chain
C. V gene for lambda chain and V genefor heavy chain
D. C gene for gamma chain and C genefor alpha chain
17.An Rh-negative woman married to aheterozygous Rh-positive man has threechildren. The probability that all three of theirchildren are Rh-positive is
A. 1:2B. 1:4
C. 1:8D. Zero
18. The molecules mediating signal transductionfollowing antigen binding to cell surfaceimmunoglobulin on a B-cell are called:
A. Ig FcB. Ig-alpha and Ig-betaC. MHC class IID. CD4+
19. Facilitated diffusion:
A. Requires a transmembrane proteinB. Requires ATPC. Can move molecules against a
concentration gradientD. Is typically used to transport small
nonpolar molecules
20. The processing of cytosolic protein involves:A. Transport into late endosomes.B. Proteasome-mediated cleavageC. Displacement of invariant chainD. Displacement of beta2-microglobulin
21. For vaccination against mycobacterialdiseases such as tuberculosis, the mostimportant facet of the immune response to bestimulated is:
A. A high titer of antibodyB. Macrophage-activating cell-mediated
immunityC. Cytotoxic T-cells
D. Neutrophils
22. Which of the following procedures or testsallows the identification and collecting of aparticular type of cell that has been recognizedby labeled antibody?
A. Western blotB. ElectrophoresisC. Fluorescence-activated cell sortingD. Immunofluorescence
23.An immunochemist determines the amino acidsequence of the entire light chain of a purifiedmyeloma protein. This sequence:
A. represents the entire Fab fragmentB. is sufficient to determine the class o
the myeloma proteinC. includes all of the structure contributing
to the idiotypeD. is sufficient to determine the light chain
isotype
24. Which of the following penicillins is resistant toStaphylococcus aureus beta lactamases?
A. AmoxicillinB. MethicillinC. Penicillin VD. Penicillin G
25.A bacterium is examined and is found to lacksuperoxide dismutase, catalse and peroxidaseWhich of the following statements besdescribes this bacterium?
A. This bacterium is an aerotolerananaerobe
B. This bacterium does not producesuperoxide radicals
C. This bacterium is an obligate anaerobeD. This bacterium is a microaerophile
26.An abortive infection is one in which:
A. The infected cells are killedB. Progeny virus is not producedC. Transplacental infection of the fetus
occursD. Episodes of virus multiplication
alternate with periods when noinfectious virus is present and nomultiplication occurs
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27. The main target structure damaged inRheumatoid arthritis is:
A. Skin and dendritic cellsB. CartilageC. SynoviumD. Blood vessels
28.An individual was found to be heterologous forIgG1 allotypes 3 and 1 The different possibleIgG1 antibodies produced by this individual will
never haveA. two H chains of allotype 1B. two L chains of either or C. two H chains of allotype 3D. two H chains, one of allotype 3 and one
of allotype 1
29. Cold sterilization isA. Sterilization by Sonic vibrationB. Sterilization by Gamma-irradiationC. Sterilization by -196C temperature in
liquid nitrogen
D. Sterilization by placing the culture in icecrystals
30.An immunologic adjuvant is a substance thatA. Reduces the toxicity of the immunogenB. Enhances the immunogenicity of
haptensC. Enhances immunologic cross-reactivityD. Enhances the immune response
against the immunogen
31. The three-dimensional structure of
macromolecules is formed and maintainedprimarily through noncovalent interactions.Which of the following is not considered anoncovalent interaction?
A. Hydrogen bondB. Van der Waals interactionC. Disulphide bondD. Hydrophobic interaction
32.Among the many molecules of high-energyphosphate compounds formed as a result of thefunctioning of the citric acid cycle, one molecule
is synthesized at the substrate level. In which ofthe following reactions does this occur?
A. Citrate a-ketoglutarate
B. -ketoglutarate succinate
C. Succinate Fumarate
D. Fumarate Malate
33. The entry point into the citric acid cycle forisoleucine, valine, and the product of odd-chainfatty acids is
A. Succinyl CoAB. FumarateC. PyruvateD. Oxaloacetate
34. When transketolase acts on fructose 6phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, the
products areA. 3-phosphoglycerate and
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
B. 3-phosphoglycerate and two moleculesof glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
C. dihydroxyacetone phosphate andglucose 6-phosphate.
D. xylulose 5-phosphate and erythrose 4-phosphate
35. Which of the following causes pyruvate
dehydrogenase kinase to catalyze thephosphorylation and inactivation of E1 in thepyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
A. elevated concentration of ATP, NADHAcetyl CoA
B. Elevated concentration of NAD+ andADP
C. Ca2+D. Insulin
36. If electron transfer in tightly coupledmitochondria is blocked (with antimycin Abetween cytochrome b and cytochrome c1, thenwhich of the following is likely to occur?
A. ATP synthesis will continue, but theP/O ratio will drop to one.
B. electron transfer from succinate to O2will continue unabated.
C. all ATP synthesis will stopD. energy diverted from the cytochromes
will be used to make ATP, and the P/Oratio will rise.
37. Lipoamide is a disulfhydryl containing cofactorused by certain oxidoreductases. Each moleculeof lipoamide is oxidized by the same molecule ofenzyme that reduces it. This indicates thalipoamide is:
A. Metal cofactorB. Loosely bound cofactorC. Prosthetic groupD. Product
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38. The activity of pyruvate carboxylase isdependent upon the positive allosteric effector?
A. SuccinateB. CitrateC. Aectyl CoAD. Isocitrate
39. Which of the following occurs during prolongedfasting (starvation)?
A. As a fast progresses, tissues relypredominantly on fuels derived fromadipose triacylglycerols
B. Blood ketone levels decreasedramatically after 3-5 days of fasting
C. Tissues use the same amount ofglucose that they use during a brief fast
D. After 3-5 days of fasting, the brainincreases its utilization of glucose andthe rate of gluconeogenesis and theproduction of urea increases
40.Antimycin A blocks electron transfer betweencytochrome b and c1. If intact mitochondria wereincubated with antimycin A, excess NADH, anadequate supply of oxygen, which of thefollowing would be found in the oxidized state?
A. Cytochrome a3B. Coenzyme QC. Cytochrome bD. Cytochrome e
41.Asians and Native Americans may flush andfeel ill after drinking small amounts of ethanol in
alcoholic beverages. This reaction is due togenetic variation in an enzyme that metabolizesthe liver metabolite of alcohol, which is:
A. MethanolB. AcetoneC. AcetaldehydeD. Glycerol
42. Familial fructokinase deficiency causes nosymptoms because
A. Hexokinase can phosphorylate fructoseB. Most tissues will utilize fructose
C. Excess fructose does not escape in theurine
D. Excess fructose spills into the boweland is eliminated in feces
43.After a well-rounded breakfast, which of thefollowing would be expected to occur?
A. Increased activity of pyruvatecarboxylase
B. Decreased activity of acetyl CoAcarboxylase
C. Decreased rate of glycogenolysisD. Increased activity o
phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
44. Which of the following statements concerningthe b oxidation of fatty acids is true?
A. About 1,200 ATP molecules are
ultimately produced per 20-carbon fattyacid oxidized.
B. One FADH2 and two NADH areproduced for each acetyl-CoA.
C. The free fatty acid must becarboxylated in the b position by abiotin-dependent reaction before theprocess of b oxidation commences.
D. The free fatty acid must be convertedto a thioester before the process of boxidation commences.
45. Before traveling to the rest of the body, alabsorbed nutrients or toxins must pass throughthe
A. LiverB. PancreasC. Gall bladderD. Colon
46. Dynein hydrolyzes molecules of ATP and canconvert the released chemical energy into themechanical energy that propels the sperm. Theindividuals lack dynein, makes the sperm
immotile. Such individuals with the geneticsyndrome are called
A. Kartagener triadB. Drown syndrowC. Dappled metaphysis syndromeD. Cystic fibrosis
47. The mammalian egg is surrounded bya layer of ovarian follicularcells that werenurturing the egg at the time of its release fromthe ovary are called
A. the vitelline envelope
B. the zona pellucidC. the cumulusD. the corona radiate
48. Mammalian sperm bind to the zona pellucidabefore undergoing the acrosome reaction. In themouse, this binding is mediated by
____________ and one or many sperm proteinsthat recognize it.
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A. ZP3 (zona protein 3)B. ZP2 (zona protein 2)C. ZP1 (zona protein 1)D. ZP4 (zona protein 4)
49. Hans Spemann and colleagues developed theconcept of the primary organizer in amphibianembryos while studying the
A. medial cells between the optic cups.B. anterior terminus of the notochord.C. posterior edge of the dorsal ectoderm.D. dorsal lip of the blastopore.
50. Which is the most commonly used constitutivepromoter for high levels of gene expression indicot plants
A. Cauliflower mosaic virus promoterB. 35S, opine promoterC. ubiquitin promoterD. alcohol dehydrogenase 1 promoter
51. Differential centrifugation is a process that:A. separates different components of the
cell that function differently.B. separates components of the cell that
have a different chemical makeup.C. analyzes the chemical components of
the cell.D. separates components of the cell that
have different densities.
52. Particular RNAs that are important for
development are located in distinct regions ofthe Drosophila embryo. This is most directlydemonstrated by using
A. western blottingB. northern blottingC. in situ hybridizationD. in vitro translation
53. When separating proteins using gel filtrationchromatography, the first proteins to be elutedwill be ________________.
A. smallest
B. largestC. negatively chargedD. positively charged
54. Edman reagent cleaves polypeptides_________________.
A. after lysin residuesB. after positively charged residuesC. at the C-terminus
D. at the N-terminus
55.Among existing technologies, which of thefollowing vector system would you prefer to usefor generating a library for 140kb eukaryoticgenomic DNA fragments, while giving dueconsideration to size as well as stability of theinsert?
A. Phage
B. CosmidC. Bacterial artificial chromosomeD. Yeast artificial chromosome
56. ELISA assay usesA. an enzyme which can react with
secondary antibody.B. an enzyme which can react with the
antigen.C. a substrate which gets converted into a
colored product.D. a radiolabelled secondary antibody
57. Defective alleles are eliminated rapidly from apopulation if they are
A. Recessive.B. dominant.C. co dominant.D. in multiple copies.
58. The movement of a single cell was required tobe continually monitored during developmentThe cell was marked with a reporter gene. Tovisualize this movement one would use
A. Phase contrast microscopyB. Bright field microscopyC. Fluorescence microscopyD. Atomic force microscopy
59. If the GC content of an organisms genome is28%, this means that, in the organisms genomicDNA,
A. 28% of one strand of DNA is C and28% of the same strand is G
B. 28% of one strand of DNA is C and28% of the other strand is G
C. the total number of Cs and Gs in onestrand is 28% of the total number ofnucleotides in both strands
D. 28% of all the base-pairs are GC or CGbase-pairs
60. When a PCR reaction is performed usinggenomic DNA as a template, a 1.5-kb product isamplified. When the same reaction is set up
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using cDNA as a template, a 0.8-kb product isamplified. A likely explanation for the different-sized products is that
A. primers always bind to differentsequences in different templates.
B. there is a mutation in the genomicDNA.
C. there is an intron in the gene.D. the cDNA is degraded.
61. ForAgrobacterium tumefaciens to be used tointroduce foreign DNA into a plant cell, that DNAmust first be:
A. Inserted into the T-DNA region of the Tiplasmid of A. tumefaciens.
B. Inserted into the main chromosome ofA. tumefaciens.
C. Inserted in an A. tumefaciens plasmidother than the Ti plasmid.
D. Isolated from the crown gall using theappropriate restriction enzyme.
62. Detect the mode of inheritance in the followingpedigree chart is most convincing
A. Autosomal recessive and the individual2 is homozygous dominant
B. Autosomal dominant and the individual2 is homozygous recessive
C. Autosomal recessive and the individual1 is homozygous dominant
D. Autosomal recessive and the individual2 is homozygous recessive
63. In messelson and stall experiment, what was
the clue which led to the discovery of semiconservative mode of replication?
A. Formation of thick heavy band in CsClcentrifuge
B. Formation of faint heavy band insubsequent generation in CsClcentrifuge
C. Formation of intermediate band in CsClcentrifuge
D. Formation of thick light band in CsCcentrifuge
64. In a dsDNA , we have 100 hydrogen bondsand GC content is 50%. Find the no. ophosphodiester bonds in the dsDNA molecule?A. 39B. 38C. 78
D. 79
65. Barney is an alien. On his ship, hidden in theStata building, you find alien bacteria thametabolize wood. You call this species A.termiticus, and call your original strain BLT (forBarneys little termiticus). You subject asample of BLT to mutagens, and isolate a newstrain that no longer metabolizes wood. Youconclude that you have succeeded in disruptingat least one gene necessary to metabolizewood. You call the mutant strain M. You mix a
sample of M with a sample of heat-killed wildtype BLT, and the resulting strain metabolizeswood. You summarize your data in the followingtable
Strains Metabolizeswood?
BLT Yes
Heat-killed BLT No
M No
Heat-killed BLT+M
Yes
A. What do you conclude about the geneticsof the bacteria?
B. The heat killed + M bacteria underwenmutation
C. The heat killed +M bacteria acquired genesby transformation
D. The heat killed +M bacteria acquired genesby conjugation
Part C
66. The major reason that antiparallel -strandedprotein structures are more stable than paralle-stranded structures is that the latter
A. Are in a slightly less extendedconfiguration than antiparallel strands
B. Have weaker hydrogen bonds laterallybetween adjacent strands
C. Do not have many disulphide crosslinks between adjacent strands
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D. Have fewer lateral hydrogen bondsthan antiparallel strands
67. In the disease sprue, vitamin B12 (cobalamin)is poorly absorbed in the intestine, resulting in Bdeficiency. If each of the following fatty acidswere in the diet, for which one would theprocess of fatty acid oxidation be most affectedin a patient with sprue?
A. CH3(CH2)10COOHB. CH3(CH2)11COOHC. CH3(CH2)14COOHD. CH3(CH2)18COOH
68. The first step in two-dimensional gelelectrophoresis generates a series of proteinbands by isoelectric focusing. In a second step,a strip of this gel is turned 90 degrees, placedon another gel containing SDS, and electriccurrent is again applied. In this second step:
A. Proteins with similar isoelectric points
become further separated according totheir molecular weight
B. The individual bands become stainedso that the isoelectric focus pattern canbe visualized
C. The individual bands becomevisualized by interacting with protein-specific antibodies in the second gel
D. The proteins in the band separate morecompletely because the secondisoelectric current is in the oppositepolarity to the first current
69. CYTKAVMWEFRDGMQKPNS You exposedthe polypeptide to cyanogen bromide. You alsoexposed the polypeptide to trypsin. Whatfragments would you expect to find?
A. AVMWEFR, CY, CYTK, DGMQK,DGMQKPNS, EF, R, PNS, TKAVMW
B. CY, CYTKAVM, DGMQKPNS, EF, R,QKPNS, TKAVMW, WEFRDGM
C. AVMWEFR, CYTK, CYTKAVM,DGMQK, PNS, QKPNS, WEFRDGM
D. CY, DGMQKPNS, EF, R, RDGM, M,
QKPNS, TKAV, TKAVMW, W
70. The term ______________ describe the logphase of a culture during which the soleproducts of metabolism like ethanol, acetoneand butanol are produced. The metabolitesproduced during this phase is refered as-
_____________.A. Idiophase, Primary metabolites
B. Idiophase, Secondary metabolitesC. Trophophase, Primary metabolitesD. Trophophase, Secondary metabolite
71. The unequal division of the cytoplasm amongfrog embryo cells during early cleavage, asshown in the diagram, results fromA. gastrulation of the embryoB. formation of the blastulaC. segregation of the maternal and paterna
cellsD. uneven distribution of yolk
72. Which of the following is (are) true of theoxidation of 1 mol of palmitate (a 16-carbonsaturated fatty acid; 16:0) by the -oxidationpathway, beginning with the free fatty acid in thecytoplasm?1. Activation of the free fatty acid requires the
equivalent of two ATPs2. Inorganic pyrophosphate (PPi) is produced.3. Carnitine functions as an electron acceptor.
4. 8 mol of acetyl-CoA are formed.A. 1 and 4 onlyB. 1, 2 and 4C. 1, 2 and 3D. 1, 3 and 4
73. Match the following with correct type ocleavage.I. Amphibian- a)holoblastic rotational
II. Reptiles - b) superficial holoblasticIII. Mammals- c) Radial HoloblasticIV. Drosophila - d) discoidal meroblastic
A. I C, II D, III A, IV BB. I A, II C, III D, IV BC. I A, II D, III C, IV BD. I D, II A, III C, IV B
74. Youve immunized a rabbit with a humanIgG4 myeloma protein and collected its serumIf you want to prepare an absorbed antiserumthat is class-specific, you would begin bypassing it over column bearing:A. IgA2B. IgG4
C. IgG4D. IgM
75. How far along the DNA would the transcription
bubble formed by RNA polymerase move in
60 seconds?
A. 3000
B. 10,000
C. 3000 5400
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D. 2000 4500
76.An Rh-negative mother had an anti-Rhresponse following the birth of her Rh-positivechild. The second fetus was also Rh+ so thematernal anti-Rh antibodies coated the fetus'serythrocytes with antibody. The isotype of theseantibodies isA. IgAB. IgGC. IgED. IgM
77. Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenol(DNP) are inhibitors of mitochondrial aerobichosphorylation. Which of the followingstatements correctly describes the mode ofaction of the three inhibitors?
A. Cyanide and 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibit therespiratory chain, and oligomycin inhibits thesynthesis of ATP
B. Cyanide inhibits the respiratory chain,whereas oligomycin and 2,4-dinitrophenolinhibit the synthesis of ATP
C. Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenolcompete with O2 for cytochrome oxidase(complex IV)
D. Oligomycin and cyanide inhibit synthesis ofATP; 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibits therespiratory chain
78.A new compound isolated from mitochondria isclaimed to represent a previously unrecognized
carrier in the electron transfer chain. It is giventhe name coenzyme Z. Which line of evidencedo you feel is the least conclusive in assigningthis compound a position in the electron transferchain?
A. Removal of coenzyme Z from themitochondria results in a decreased rate ofoxygen consumption
B. The rate of oxidation and reduction ofmitochondrion-bound coenzyme is of thesame order of magnitude as the overall rateof electron transfer in mitochondria as
measured by oxygen consumptionC. When added to a mitochondrial suspension,
coenzyme Z is taken up very rapidly andspecifically by the mitochondria
D. The reduction potential of Z is between thatof two compounds known to participate inthe electron transport chain
79. During the cell interactions involved ingenerating a cytotoxic T-cell response, theThelper cell receives the necessary Signal 2from an antigen-presenting cell through which ofthe following interactions?A. IL-2 with IL-2RB. B7 with CD28C. TCR with MHC Class I
D. IgD with antigen
80. Experiments on denaturation and renaturationafter the reduction and reoxidation of the S-S-bonds in the enzyme ribonuclease (RNasehave shown that:A. folding of denatured RNase into the native
active conformation requires the input oenergy in the form of heat
B. the completely unfolded enzyme, with all S-S- bonds broken, is still enzymaticallyactive
C. the enzyme, dissolved in water, isthermodynamically stable relative to themixture of amino acids whose residues arecontained in RNase
D. the primary sequence of RNase issufficient to determine its specificsecondary and tertiary structure
81. Which of the following represents tyrosine at apH = 12?
A. AB. BC. CD. D
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82.A temperature-sensitive mutation can cause
cell death at high temperature (restrictive
condition), but might have no deleterious
consequences at a lower temperature
(permissive condition). This is an example of
A. Temperature sensitive mutation
B. Point mutation
C. Conditional mutation
D. Complementation
83.A biochemist purifies a new protein and wishesto learn something about its quaternarystructure. Treatment of this protein with thereagents listed below gives the following bandsupon SDS-PAGE electrophoresis:
The protein has:A. one polypeptide chain with at least two
disulfide (-S-S-) bonds.B. two separate polypeptide chains linked by
at least two disulfide bonds.C. three polypeptide chains linked by two or
more disulfide bonds.D. three polypeptide chains and no disulfide
bonds.
84. Hoechst 33342 is a membrane-permeant dyethatfluoresceswhen it bindsto DNAthrough anintercalatingprocess. If apopulation ofcells isincubated
briefly with Hoechst dye and sorted in a flowcytometer, the cells display various levels offluorescence in different phases of cell cycles asshown in figure below (marked as X, Y and Z).
Which of the following is correct?A. X is G1, Y is G2 + M and Z is SB. X is G1, Y is S and Z is G2 + MC. X is S, Y is G2 + M and Z is G1D. X is S, Y is G1 and Z is G2 + M
85. Four different receptors viz, A, B, C and D bindto the same lignad X.In order to determine whichreceptor has the highest ligand binding affinityfollowing experiment was carried out. Cells weretransected with green fluorescence protein(GFP)-tagged receptors (A,B,C and D)individually, then incubated with redfluorescence protein (RFP)-tagged X andsubjected to FACS analysis. Following are the
results
Which receptor has the highest ligand bindingaffinity?
A. AB. BC. CD. D
86. You have purified a new peptide hormone. Todetermine its amino acid sequence you havedigested the polypeptide with trypsin and in aseparate reaction you have cleaved thepolypeptide with cyanogen bromide.
Cleavage with trypsin yielded 5 peptides thatwere sequenced by Edman degradation asshown in the following.
1. SerLeu2. AspValArg3. ValMetGluLys4. SerGlnMetHisLys5. IlePheMetLeuCysArg
Cleavage with cyanogen bromide yielded 4peptides that were sequenced by Edmandegradation:
1. HisLysSerLeu2. AspValArgValMet3. GluLysIlePheMet4. LeuCysArgSerGlnMet
Determine the identity of the N-terminal aminoacid after reconstructing the intact protein.
A. AspB. Ser C. HisD. Glu
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87. In a double-stranded DNA molecule of randomsequence, which of the following restrictionendonucleases will cut the molecule LEASToften? (In the sequence of bases for eachrecognition site, N=any base, R=purine, andY=pyrimidine.)
A. IB. IIC. IIID. IV
88.At pH 7.0, in what order would the followingthree peptides be eluted from a column filledwith a cation-exchange polymer? Their aminoacid compositions are:
I. Protein A: Ala 10%, Glu 5%, Ser 5%, Leu10%, Arg 10%, His 5%, Ile 10%, Phe 5%,Tyr 5%, Lys 10%,Gly 10%, Pro 5%, and Trp10%.
II. Protein B: Ala 5%, Val 5%, Gly 10%, Asp5%, Leu 5%, Arg 5%, Ile 5%, Phe 5%, Tyr5%, Lys 5%,Trp 5%, Ser 5%, Thr 5%, Glu5%, Asn 5%, Pro 10%, Met 5%, and Cys5%.
III. Protein C: Ala 10%, Glu 10%, Gly 5%, Leu5%, Asp 10%, Arg 5%, Met 5%, Cys 5%, Tyr5%, Phe 5%,His 5%, Val 5%, Pro 5%, Thr5%, Ser 5%, Asn 5%, and Gln 5%.
A. Protein C, Protein B and protein AB. Protein A, Protein C and protein BC. Protein A, Protein B and protein CD. No sufficient Information
89. Two dissimilar inbred strain of mice withdifferent MHC haplotypes, H-2b and H-2k, arecrossed to yield F1 hybrid strain (H-2b/k). If a skingraft is transplanted from the F1 progeny to theH-2b parent and H-2k parent separately, which ofthe following results are seen?A. Both H-2b and H-2k parents will accept
graftsB. H-2b parent will accept the graft whereas
H-2k will reject the graftC. H-2k parent will accept the graft whereas
H-2b will reject the graftD. Neither H-2b nor H-2k parent will accept
the graft
90. Role of NER is majorly for
A. Mis matches
B. Base pair errors
C. Modifed bases
D. DNA helical distorts
91.An individual who is heterozygous for Gmallotypes contains two allelic forms of IgG in
serum, but individual lymphocytes produce onlyone of the two forms. This phenomenon, knownas "allelic exclusion," is consistent withA. Rearrangement of a heavy-chain gene on
only one chromosome in a lymphocyteB. Rearrangements of heavy-chain genes on
both chromosomes in a lymphocyteC. Rearrangement of a light-chain gene on
only one chromosome in a lymphocyteD. Rearrangements of light-chain genes on
both chromosomes in a lymphocyte
92. Uniporters and ion channels support facilitateddiffusion across biomembranes. Although bothare examples of facilitated diffusion, the rate ofion movement via a channel are roughly 104 to105 fold faster than that of molecules via auniporter. What key mechanistic differenceresults in this large difference in this largedifference in transport rates?A. Uniporters are saturable; channels are no
saturable.B. Uniporters utilize ATP; ion channels do no
require ATP.
C. Uniporters cannot transport 2 solutessimultaneously whereas ion channels can.
D. Uniporters are commonly monomericwhereas ion channels are commonlyoligomeric.
93.A saturated suspension of starch is enclosedin a bag formed from dialysis, a material throughwhich water can pass, but starch cannot. Thebag with the starch is placed into a beaker ofdistilled water. All of the following are expectedto occur except:
A. There will be a net movement of watefrom a region of higher water potential to aregion of lower water potential
B. There will be a net movement of waterfrom hypotonic region to hypertonic region
C. There will be net movement of solute fromhypertonic region to hypotonic region
D. The dialysis bag with its contents will gainweight
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7/28/2019 Quest II Final With Answer Keys Compatibility
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Quest II April 16, 2013
94. The results of a FACS analysis of cells from ahuman blood sample are shown below. In whichof the quadrantswould Tc cellfraction of thehuman bloodsample fall?A. AB. B
C. CD. D
95. In a diagnostic laboratory a technicianprepared plastic assay plates for ELISA bycoating a solution of the antigen, gp120 (aglycoprotein derived from the humanimmunodeficiency virus, the etiologic agent of
AIDS), to the plastic surface. Several samples ofserum from suspected infected individuals were
tested for the presence of antibodies to gp120.When the assay was performed, all the testsamples were positive, including controlsamples that were known not to contain anti-gp120 antibodies. What explanation best fits thefacts?A. The technician forgot to "block" the plates
with a control protein.B. The technician put too much antigen on the
plates.C. The developing labeled anti-
immunoglobulin was not added.
D. The fluorescent labeling compounddissociated from the labeled antibody.
96. If an IgG antibody preparation specific for henegg lysosome (HEL) is treated with papain togenerate Fab fragments, which of the followingstatements concerning the avidity of suchfragments is true:A. They will have a lower avidity for HEL as
compared with the intact IgG.B. They will have a higher avidity for HEL as
compared with the intact IgG
C. There will have the same avidity for HELas the intact IgG.
D. They will have lost their ability to bind toHEL.
97. You want to genetically engineer a plant with
Alpha aminitin gene. The protein has a
molecular weight of 100 kDa. What should be
your minimum estimate of the length gene to be
engineered in the genome of host?
A. 3.3 x 10^5 bases
B. 3.3 x 10^3 bases
C. 3.3 x 10^2 bases
D. 3.3 x 10^6 bases
98. During activation of amino acids in
transcription ,
A. Attach of alpha phosphate occurs on
carboxy terminal of amino acid
B. Attach of beta phosphate occurs on
carboxy terminal of amino acid
C. Attach of alpha phosphate occurs on
amino terminal of amino acid
D. Attach of beta phosphate occurs on aminoterminal of amino acid
99.A child presents with low blood glucose(hypoglycemia), enlarged liver (hepatomegaly)and excess fat deposition in the cheeks(cherubic facies). A liver biopsy reveals excessglycogen in hepatocytes. Deficiency of which ofthe following enzymes might explain thisphenotype?
A. -1,1-glucosidaseB. -1,1-galactosidase
C. -1,4-glucosidaseD. -1,4-galactosidase
100.Match each features of the plasmid pBR322
I ampR
sequence
a permits selection of bacteria
containing the plasmid
II ori sequence b a sequence required invitro packin
III tetR c origin of replication
IV BamHI
sequence
d cleavage of the plasmid here
doesnt affect antibiotic resistance
V pstI
sequence
e insertion of foreign DNA here
permits identification of
recombinants
a. I. a , II c, III a, IV e, IV e
b. I. a , II c, III a, IV d, IV e
c. I. a , II e, III c, IV b, IV d
d. I. a , II b, III c, IV d, IV e
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