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Test Type : MAJOR [EX-ALLEN] Test Pattern : NEET
TEST DATE : 10 - 07 - 2016
TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat
only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
3180720
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
1
7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
OMR
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in NEET- II 2016
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so
Important Instructions /
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along withPaper code and Your Form No.
Correction Paper codeForm No. dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in
Form Number :
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)
ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSETARGET : NEET - II 2016
Paper Code : 0999DM610515006
Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-5156100 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in
1/360999DM610515006
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/NEET-II/10-07-2016
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
1. The dimensional formula [ML0T–3] is more
closely associated with :-
(1) power (2) energy
(3) intensity (4) velocity gradient
2. The length of a rod is (11.05 ± 0.05) cm. What
is the length of two rods ?
(1) (22.1 ± 0.05) cm
(2) (22.1 ± 0.1) cm
(3) (22.10 ± 0.05) cm
(4) (22.10 ± 0.10) cm
3. The displacement x of a particle varies with time
t as x = ae–t + bet, where a, b, and are positive
constants. The velocity of the particle will:-
(1) be independent of
(2) drop to zero when =
(3) go on decreasing with time
(4) go on increasing with time
4. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a
time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of
the particle from O is given by :-
x = 40 + 12t – t3
How long would the particle travel before coming
to rest ?
(1) 16 m (2) 24 m (3) 40 m (4) 56 m
5. Find the torque of a force ˆ ˆ ˆF 3i j 5k
acting
at the point ˆ ˆ ˆr 7i 3 j k
with respect to origin :-
(1) ˆ ˆ ˆ14i 38 j 16k (2) ˆ ˆ ˆ4i 4 j 6k
(3) ˆ ˆ ˆ14i 38 j 16k (4) ˆ ˆ ˆ21i 3 j 5k
6. A ball thrown by one player reaches the other in
2 sec. The maximum height attained by the ball
above the point of projection will be about :-
(1) 2.5 m (2) 5 m (3) 7.5 m (4) 10 m
7. Two stones are projected with the same speed but
making different angles with the horizontal. Their
ranges are equal. If the angle of projection of one
is /3 and its maximum height is h1, then the
maximum height of the other will be :-
(1) 3h1 (2) 2h1 (3) h1/2 (4) h1/3
1. [ML0T–3] (1) (2) (3) (4)
2. (11.05 ± 0.05) cm (1) (22.1 ± 0.05) cm
(2) (22.1 ± 0.1) cm
(3) (22.10 ± 0.05) cm
(4) (22.10 ± 0.10) cm
3. x t : x = ae–t + bet a, b, :-(1) (2) =
(3) (4)
4. OX t ( ) O
x () :-
x = 40 + 12t – t3
(1) 16 m (2) 24 m (3) 40 m (4) 56 m
5. ˆ ˆ ˆF 3i j 5k
ˆ ˆ ˆr 7i 3 j k
:-
(1) ˆ ˆ ˆ14i 38 j 16k (2) ˆ ˆ ˆ4i 4 j 6k
(3) ˆ ˆ ˆ14i 38 j 16k (4) ˆ ˆ ˆ21i 3 j 5k
6. 2 sec :-(1) 2.5 m (2) 5 m (3) 7.5 m (4) 10 m
7.
/3 h1
:-
(1) 3h1
(2) 2h1
(3) h1/2 (4) h
1/3
2/36 0999DM610515006
Major for Target : NEET - II 2016/10-07-2016
8. An object of mass 5 kg is attached to the hook
of a spring balance and the balance is suspended
vertically from the roof of a lift. The reading on
the spring balance when the lift is going up with
an acceleration of 0.25 ms–2 is :-
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 51.25 N (2) 48.75 N
(3) 52.75 N (4) 47.25 N
9. Force required to move a mass of 1 kg at rest on
a horizontal rough plane (µ = 0.1 and g = 9.8 m/s2)
is :-
(1) 0.98 N (2) 0.49 N
(3) 9.8 N (4) 4.9 N
10. System shown in figure is released from rest.
Pulley and spring are massless and the friction is
absent everywhere. The speed of 5 kg block, when
2 kg block leaves the contact with ground is : (take
force constant of the spring K = 40 N/m and
g = 10 m/s2)
5kg
2kg
(1) 2 m / s (2) 2 2 m / s
(3) 2 m/s (4) 4 2 m / s
11. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies
with time as 23t
P2
watt. Here, t is in seconds.
If velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0, the velocity
of particle at time t = 2s will be :-
(1) 1 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(3) 2 m/s (4) 2 2 m / s
8. 5 kg (hook)
0.25 ms–2
:-
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 51.25 N (2) 48.75 N
(3) 52.75 N (4) 47.25 N
9. (µ = 0.1 g = 9.8 m/s2) 1 kg :-
(1) 0.98 N (2) 0.49 N
(3) 9.8 N (4) 4.9 N
10. 2 kg 5 kg : (K = 40 N/m g = 10 m/s2)
5kg
2kg
(1) 2 m / s (2) 2 2 m / s
(3) 2 m/s (4) 4 2 m / s
11. 2 kg t
; 23t
P2
watt, t
t = 0 t = 2 :-
(1) 1 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(3) 2 m/s (4) 2 2 m / s
3/360999DM610515006
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/NEET-II/10-07-2016
12. A ping-pong ball of mass m is floating in air by
a jet of water emerging out of a nozzle. If the water
strikes the ping-pong ball with a speed v and just
after collision water falls dead, the rate of flow
(in kg/s) of water in the nozzle is equal to :-
(1) 2mg
v(2)
mv
g
(3) mg
v(4) none of these
13. A wheel is rotating about an axis through its
centre at 720 rpm. It is acted on by a constant
torque opposing its motion for 8 seconds to
bring it to rest finally. The value of torque
(in N-m) is :-
(Given 224I kg m
)
(1) 48 (2) 72 (3) 96 (4) 120
14. A uniform rod of length L is free to rotate in a
vertical plane about a fixed horizontal axis
through B. The rod begins rotating from rest from
its unstable equilibrium position. When it has
turned through an angle its angular velocity
is given as :-
B B'
A
A'
L
(1) 6g
sinL
(2) 6g
sinL 2
(3) 6g
cosL 2
(4)
6gcos
L
15. Two wheels are connected by a belt. The radius
of larger wheel is three times that of the smaller
one. What is the ratio of the rotational inertia of
larger wheel to the smaller wheel, when both
wheels have same angular momentum ?
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 12
12. m (ping-pong) (nozzle) (jet of water) v (falls dead) (kg/s ) :-
(1) 2mg
v(2)
mv
g
(3) mg
v(4)
13. 720 8 :-
( 224I kg m
)
(1) 48 (2) 72 (3) 96 (4) 120
14. L B :-
B B'
A
A'
L
(1) 6g
sinL
(2) 6g
sinL 2
(3) 6g
cosL 2
(4)
6gcos
L
15.
:-
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 12
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Major for Target : NEET - II 2016/10-07-2016
16. The maximum vertical distance through which a
fully dressed astronaut can jump on the earth is
0.5 m. If mean density of the moon is two-thirds
that of the earth and radius is one quarter that of
the earth, the maximum vertical distance through
which he can jump on the moon and the ratio of
time of duration of jump on the moon to that on
the earth are :-
(1) 3 m, 6 : 1 (2) 6 m, 3 : 1
(3) 3 m, 1 : 6 (4) 6 m, 1 : 6
17. Two equal masses m and m are hung from a
balance whose scale pans differ in vertical height
by 'h'. The error in weighing in terms of density
of the earth is :-
(1) Gmh (2) 1
G mh3
(3) 8
G mh3 (4)
4G mh
3
18. Force constant of a spring (K) is synonymous
to :-
(1) YA
L(2)
YL
A(3)
AL
Y(4) ALY
19. In a capillary rise experiment, the water level rises
to a height of 5 cm. If the same capillary tube is
placed in water such that only 3 cm of the tube
projects outside the water level, then :-
(1) water will begin to overflow through the capillary
(2) angle of contact decreases
(3) angle of contact increases
(4) the meniscus completely vanishes
20. Two circular discs A and B with equal radii
are blackend. They are heated to same
temperature and are cooled under identical
conditions. What inference do you draw from
their cooling curves ?
O( – ) 0
B
AR
(1) A and B have same specific heats
(2) Specific heat of A is less
(3) Specific heat of B is less
(4) Nothing can be said
16. 0.5 m (1) 3 m, 6 : 1 (2) 6 m, 3 : 1
(3) 3 m, 1 : 6 (4) 6 m, 1 : 6
17. m m 'h'
(1) Gmh (2) 1
G mh3
(3) 8
G mh3 (4)
4G mh
3
18. (K) (synonymous)
(1) YA
L(2)
YL
A(3)
AL
Y(4) ALY
19. (capillary rise) 5 cm 3 cm (level) :-(1) (2) (3) (4) (meniscus)
20. (discs) A B (cooling curves)
O( – ) 0
B
AR
(1) A B (2) A (3) B (4)
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Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/NEET-II/10-07-2016
21. One mole of an ideal gas having initial volume
V, pressure 2P and temperature T undergoes a
cyclic process ABCDA as shown below :
A B
CD
2P
P
T 2T
Pre
ssur
e (P
)
Temperature (T)
The net work done in the complete cycle is :-
(1) zero (2) 1
2RT ln 2
(3) RT ln 2 (4) 3
2RT ln 2
22. A body executes simple harmonic motion under
the action of a force F1 with a time period (4/5) sec.
If the force is changed to F2 it executes SHM with
time period (3/5) sec. If both the forces F1 and
F2 act simultaneously in the same direction on the
body, its time period (in seconds) is :-
(1) 12/25 (2) 24/25 (3) 35/24 (4) 25/12
23. The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass
density 0.04 kgm–1 is given by :
y = 0.02 (m)sint x
20.04(s) 0.50(m)
. The
tension in the string is :-
(1) 4.0 N (2) 12.5 N (3) 0.5 N (4) 6.25 N
24. A light beam is travelling from Region I to Region
IV (refer figure). The refractive index in Region
I, II, III and IV are n0, 0 0n n,
2 6and 0n
8,
respectively. The angle of incidence for which
the beam just misses entering Region IV is :-
Region I Region II Region III Region IV
n0 n2
0—n6
0—n8
0—
0 0.2 m 0.6 m
(1) 1 3sin
4
(2) 1 1sin
8
(3) 1 1sin
4
(4) 1 1sin
3
21. V, 2P T ABCDA :
A B
CD
2P
P
T 2T
(P)
(T)
:-
(1) zero (2) 1
2RT ln 2
(3) RT ln 2 (4) 3
2RT ln 2
22. F1 (4/5) sec F
2 (3/5) sec
F1 F
2
:-(1) 12/25 (2) 24/25 (3) 35/24 (4) 25/12
23. (linear mass density)
0.04 kgm–1 :
y = 0.02 (m)sint x
20.04(s) 0.50(m)
:-(1) 4.0 N (2) 12.5 N (3) 0.5 N (4) 6.25 N
24. (a light beam) I IV
I, II, III IV n0, 0 0n n
,2 6
0n
8 , IV
:-
I II III IV
n0 n2
0—n6
0—n8
0—
0 0.2 m 0.6 m
(1) 1 3sin
4
(2) 1 1sin
8
(3) 1 1sin
4
(4) 1 1sin
3
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Major for Target : NEET - II 2016/10-07-2016
25. A ray of light falls on a transparent glass slab with
refractive index (relative to air) of 1.62. The angle
of incidence for which the reflected and refracted
rays are mutually perpendicular is :-
(1) tan–1(1.62) (2) sin–1(1.62)
(3) cos–1(1.62) (4) none of these
26. The intensity ratio of the two interfering beams
of light is . What is the value of max. min .
max. min .
I I
I I
?
(1) 2 (2) 2
1
(3) 2
1(4)
1
2
27. A semi circular arc of radius a is charged
uniformly and the charge per unit length is . The
electric field at the centre is :-
(1) 02 a
(2)
202 a
(3) 2
04 a
(4)
2
02 a
28. Four charges equal to –Q are placed at the four
corners of a square and a charge q is at its centre.
If the system is in equilibrium, the value of q is:-
(1) (Q / 4)(1 2 2) (2) (Q / 4)(1 2 2)
(3) (Q / 2)(1 2 2) (4) (Q / 2)(1 2 2)
29. Four capacitors with capacitances C1 = 1µF,
C2 = 1.5 µF, C
3 = 2.5 µF and C
4 = 0.5 µF are
connected as shown and are connected to a 30 volt
source. The potential difference between points
B and A is :-
A
B
C2C1
C4C3
30V
(1) 5 V (2) 9 V (3) 10 V (4) 13 V
25. 1.62 ()
(1) tan–1(1.62) (2) sin–1(1.62)
(3) cos–1(1.62) (4)
26.
max. min .
max. min .
I I
I I
(1) 2 (2) 2
1
(3) 2
1(4)
1
2
27. a :-
(1) 02 a
(2)
202 a
(3) 2
04 a
(4)
2
02 a
28. –Q q q :-
(1) (Q / 4)(1 2 2) (2) (Q / 4)(1 2 2)
(3) (Q / 2)(1 2 2) (4) (Q / 2)(1 2 2)
29. C1 = 1µF, C2 = 1.5 µF, C3 = 2.5 µF C
4 = 0.5 µF 30 volt
B A :-
A
B
C2C1
C4C3
30V
(1) 5 V (2) 9 V (3) 10 V (4) 13 V
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Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/NEET-II/10-07-2016
30. In the adjoining figure the emf of the cell is 2 V
and internal resistance is negligible. The
resistance of the voltmeter is 80 ohm. The reading
of voltmeter will be :-
2V+ –
V80
8020
(1) 2.00 volt (2) 1.33 volt
(3) 1.60 volt (4) 0.80 volt
31. In the adjoining circuit, the galvanometer G shows
zero deflection. If the batteries A and B have
negligible internal resistance, the value of the
resistor R will be :-
12V A
500
R
G
B 2V
I2I1
(1) 500 (2) 1000
(3) 200 (4) 100
32. In a metre bridge experiment, resistances are
connected as shown in the following figure. The
balancing length 1 is 55 cm. Now, an unknown
resistance x is connected in series with P and the
new balancing length is found to be 75 cm. The
value of x is :-
P Q
A B1
(100– )1
G
B
P=3
E
( )K
(1) 54
13 (2)
20
11
(3) 48
11 (4)
11
48
30. 2 V 80 :-
2V+ –
V80
8020
(1) 2.00 volt (2) 1.33 volt
(3) 1.60 volt (4) 0.80 volt
31. G A B R :-
12V A
500
R
G
B 2V
I2I1
(1) 500 (2) 1000
(3) 200 (4) 100
32.
1, 55 cm
x P 75 cm x :-
P Q
A B1
(100– )1
G
B
P=3
E
( )K
(1) 54
13 (2)
20
11
(3) 48
11 (4)
11
48
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Major for Target : NEET - II 2016/10-07-2016
33. An electric kettle (rated accurately at 2.5 kW) is
used to heat 3 kg of water from 15°C to boiling
point. It takes 9.5 minute. Then, the amount of
heat that has been lost is :-
(1) 3.5 × 105 J (2) 7 × 106 J
(3) 3.5 × 104 J (4) 7 × 108 J
34. The magnetic induction at the centre O of the
current carrying bent wire shown in the adjoining
figure is :-
(1) 0
1
µ I
4 R
O
II
I
I
(2) 0
2
µ I
4 R
(3) 0
1 2
µ I 1 1
4 R R
(4) 0
1 2
µ I 1 1
4 R R
35. The cyclotron frequency of an electron gyrating
in a magnetic field of 1 T is approximately :-
(1) 28 MHz (2) 280 MHz
(3) 2.8 GHz (4) 28 GHz
36. A current of 3 amp is flowing in a plane circular
coil of radius 4 cm and number of turns 20. The
coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field of
magnetic induction 0.5 tesla. Then, the dipole
moment of the coil is :-
(1) 3000 A-m2 (2) 0.3 A-m2
(3) 75 A-m2 (4) 300 A-m2
37. If the coefficient of mutual induction of the primary
and secondary coils of an induction coil is 5 H and
a current of 10 A is cut off in 5 × 10–4 s, the emf
inducted (in volt) in the secondary coil is :-
(1) 5 × 104 (2) 1 × 105
(3) 25 × 105 (4) 5 × 106
38. A square loop of wire, side length 10 cm is placed
at an angle of 45° with a magnetic field that
changes uniformly from 0.1 T to zero in
0.7 seconds. The induced current in the loop
(its resistance is 1 ) is :-
(1) 1.0 mA (2) 2.5 mA
(3) 3.5 mA (4) 4.0 mA
33. ( 2.5 kW) 3 kg 15°C 9.5 :-
(1) 3.5 × 105 J (2) 7 × 106 J
(3) 3.5 × 104 J (4) 7 × 108 J
34. O :-
(1) 0
1
µ I
4 R
O
II
I
I
(2) 0
2
µ I
4 R
(3) 0
1 2
µ I 1 1
4 R R
(4) 0
1 2
µ I 1 1
4 R R
35. 1 :-
(1) 28 MHz (2) 280 MHz
(3) 2.8 GHz (4) 28 GHz
36. 4 cm 20 3 amp
0.5 tesla
:-
(1) 3000 A-m2 (2) 0.3 A-m2
(3) 75 A-m2 (4) 300 A-m2
37. 5 H 10 A 5 × 10–4 s ( )
(1) 5 × 104 (2) 1 × 105
(3) 25 × 105 (4) 5 × 106
38. 10 cm 45° 0.7 0.1 ( 1 ) :-
(1) 1.0 mA (2) 2.5 mA
(3) 3.5 mA (4) 4.0 mA
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Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/NEET-II/10-07-2016
39. A generator at a utility company produces 100 A
of current at 4000 V. The voltage is stepped upto240000 V by a transformer before it is sent on
a high voltage transmission line. The current intransmission line is :-
(1) 3.67 A (2) 2.67 A(3) 1.67 A (4) 2.40 A
40. If 5 % of the energy supplied to a bulb is irradiatedas visible light, how many quanta are emitted per
sec by a 100 watt lamp ? Assume wavelength ofvisible light as 5.6 × 10–5 cm.
(1) 1.4 × 1019 (2) 2.0 × 10–4
(3) 1.4 × 10–19 (4) 2.0 × 104
41. The ratio of de Broglie wavelength of moleculesof hydrogen and helium in two gas jars kept
separately at temperatures of 27° C and 127°Crespectively is :-
(1) 2 / 3 (2) 2/3 (3) 3 / 4 (4) 8 /3
42. The radius of the smallest electron orbit in
hydrogen-like ion is (0.51 × 10–10/4) metre; thenit is :-
(1) hydrogen atom (2) He+
(3) Li2+ (4) Be3+
43. The half-life of a radioactive substance against
-decay is 1.2 × 107 s. What is the decay rate for
4.0 × 1015 atoms of the substance ?
(1) 4.6 × 1012 atoms/s (2) 2.3 × 1011 atoms/s
(3) 4.6 × 1010 atoms/s (4) 2.3 × 108 atoms/s
44. A silicon diode has a forward voltage drop of
1.2 V for a forward DC current of 100 mA.
It has a reverse current of 1 × 10–6 A for a
reverse voltage of 10 V. The bulk and reverse
resistances of diode are :-
(1) 5 , 10 M (2) 6 , 6 M
(3) 7 , 70 M (4) 5 , 1 M
45. The circuit diagram shows a logic combination
with the states of outputs X, Y and Z given for
inputs P, Q, R and S all at state 1. When inputs
P and R change to state 0 with inputs Q and S
still at 1, the states of outputs X, Y and Z change
to :-
Z
X
Y
P(1)
Q(1)
R(1)
S(1)
(1) 1, 0, 0 (2) 1, 1, 1
(3) 0, 1, 0 (4) 0, 0, 1
39. 4000 V 100 A 240000 V :-
(1) 3.67 A (2) 2.67 A(3) 1.67 A (4) 2.40 A
40. 5 % 100 watt (5.6 × 10–5 cm ):-(1) 1.4 × 1019 (2) 2.0 × 10–4
(3) 1.4 × 10–19 (4) 2.0 × 104
41. ( 27° C 127°C ) :-
(1) 2 / 3 (2) 2/3 (3) 3 / 4 (4) 8 /3
42.
(0.51 × 10–10/4) ; :-
(1) (2) He+
(3) Li2+ (4) Be3+
43. -1.2 × 107 s 4.0 × 1015 (1) 4.6 × 1012 atoms/s (2) 2.3 × 1011 atoms/s
(3) 4.6 × 1010 atoms/s (4) 2.3 × 108 atoms/s
44. 100 mA 1.2 V 10 V 1 × 10–6 A
(bulk) (reverse)
:-
(1) 5 , 10 M (2) 6 , 6 M
(3) 7 , 70 M (4) 5 , 1 M
45. (inputs) P, Q, R S X, Y Z [(1) ] (logic combination) P R 0 Q S 1 X,
Y Z
Z
X
Y
P(1)
Q(1)
R(1)
S(1)
(1) 1, 0, 0 (2) 1, 1, 1
(3) 0, 1, 0 (4) 0, 0, 1
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Major for Target : NEET - II 2016/10-07-2016
46. In which of the following process least energy
required :-
(1) ( g) (g)F F e (2)
(g) (g)P P e
(3) (g) (g)S S e (4)
(g) (g)Cl Cl e
47. Which of the following is not correctly matched:-
(1) KCl + H2O Dipole-Dipole attraction
(2)CH C CH3 3— —
O
+CH3–CNKessome attraction
(3) Xe + H2O Debye attraction
(4) CF4 + CF4 London force
48. Which of the following order is incorrect :-
(1) Ionic character MCl < MCl2 < MCl
3
(2) Polarizibility F– < Cl– < Br– < I–
(3) Polarising power Ca+2 < Mg+2 < Al+3
(4) Covalent character LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI
49. Select the incorrect order of solubility :-
(1) LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI
(2) Li2CO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3 < Rb2CO3
(3) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2
(4) BeF2 < MgF
2 < CaF
2 < SrF
2
50. The decomposition temperature is maximum for:-
(1) BeCO3(2) Na
2CO
3
(3) CaCO3
(4) Li2CO
3
51. Pick out the correct statement :-
(1) SiC is a covalent carbide, on hydrolysis it's
give Si(OH)4 & O
2
(2) Al4C
3 is a ionic carbide, on hydrolysis it's give
C3H
4
(3) Be2C is a ionic carbide, on hydrolysis it's give
methane gas
(4) (2) & (3) both
52. Which of the following form dimer by
H-bond :-
(1) CH3COOH (2) H2SO4
(3) AlCl3 (4) o-nitrophenol
53. Which of the following have same shape :-
(i) ICl2– (ii) SO2 (iii) SnCl2 (iv) XeF2
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii)
54. Which of the following pair of species have same
no. of unpaired electron but bond order is different:-
(1) CO, CN– (2) O2+, O
2
(3) O2, B
2(4) NO+, N
2
46. :-
(1) ( g) (g)F F e (2)
(g) (g)P P e
(3) (g) (g)S S e (4)
(g) (g)Cl Cl e
47. :-(1) KCl + H
2O
(2)CH C CH3 3— —
O
+CH3–CN
(3) Xe + H2O (4) CF4 + CF4
48. :-(1) MCl < MCl
2 < MCl
3
(2) F– < Cl– < Br– < I–
(3) Ca+2 < Mg+2 < Al+3
(4) LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI
49. :-(1) LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI
(2) Li2CO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3 < Rb2CO3
(3) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2
(4) BeF2 < MgF
2 < CaF
2 < SrF
2
50. :-(1) BeCO3
(2) Na2CO
3
(3) CaCO3
(4) Li2CO
3
51. :-(1) SiC
Si(OH)4 O2
(2) Al
4C
3
C3H
4
(3) Be2C
(4) (2) (3) 52. H-
:-
(1) CH3COOH (2) H2SO4
(3) AlCl3 (4) o-53. :-
(i) ICl2– (ii) SO2 (iii) SnCl2 (iv) XeF2
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii)
54. :-(1) CO, CN– (2) O
2+, O
2
(3) O2, B
2(4) NO+, N
2
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55. Optical & geometrical isomerism exhibited by :-
(a) [Co(en)2Cl2]Br (b) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2Br2]
(c) [Co(en)3]Cl3 (d) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]
(e) [Pt(NH3)2Cl
2]
(1) Only a, b, c, d (2) Only a, b, c
(3) Only a, b (4) Only a, b, c, d, e
56. Select incorrect match :-
(1) [Cu(CN)4]–3 Colourless, tetrahadral,
diamagnetic
(2) [Cu(NH3)4]+2 Coloured, square planar
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] Diamagnetic, Square planar,
show geometrical isomer
(4) [Ni(dmg)2] Coloured, tetrahedral, H-bond
present
57. In which of the following reaction, product are
not correctly matched :-
(1) HNO3 + P4O10 N2O5
(2) P4(s)
+ SO2Cl
2 PCl
3
(3) Ca3P
2 + HCl PH
3
(4) NH4Cl + NaNO
2 N
2
58. What is true about H2S
nO
6 (Polythionic acid) :-
(1) Total s-s bond = n
(2) No. of 's' with zero O.S = n – 1
(3) No of 's' with + 5 O.S. = n – 1
(4) No of 's' with +5 O.S. = 2
59. The process of the extraction of copper from
copper pyrites involves:-
(I) Froth floatation (II) Calcination
(III) Roasting (IV) Self reduction
(V) Smelting (VI) Liquation
(VII) Electrorefining
(1) I, III, IV, V (2) I, III, IV, VII
(3) I, III, IV, V, VII (4) I, II, IV, V, VII
60. K2Cr2O7 + H2O2 H
:-
(1) K2CrO4 (2) CrO5
(3) Cr2(SO4)3 (4) None
61. Incorrect match is :-
(1) Br
2-Bromobut-3-ene
(2) OMe 1-methoxyprop-2-ene
(3) CH –C–OH3
CH3
CH3
1,1-Dimethylethanol
(4) All
55. :-(a) [Co(en)2Cl2]Br (b) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2Br2]
(c) [Co(en)3]Cl3 (d) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]
(e) [Pt(NH3)2Cl
2]
(1) a, b, c, d (2) a, b, c
(3) a, b (4) a, b, c, d, e
56. :-
(1) [Cu(CN)4]–3
(2) [Cu(NH3)4]+2
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl
2]
(4) [Ni(dmg)2] H-57.
:-(1) HNO3 + P4O10 N2O5
(2) P4(s) + SO2Cl2 PCl3
(3) Ca3P
2 + HCl PH
3
(4) NH4Cl + NaNO
2 N
2
58. H2S
nO
6 :-
(1) s-s = n
(2) s = n – 1
(3) + 5 's' = n – 1
(4) +5 's' = 2
59. :-(I) (II) (III) (IV) (V) (VI) (VII) (1) I, III, IV, V (2) I, III, IV, VII
(3) I, III, IV, V, VII (4) I, II, IV, V, VII
60. K2Cr2O7 + H2O2 H
:-
(1) K2CrO4 (2) CrO5
(3) Cr2(SO4)3 (4) 61. :-
(1) Br
2-Bromobut-3-ene
(2) OMe 1-methoxyprop-2-ene
(3) CH –C–OH3
CH3
CH3
1,1-Dimethylethanol
(4)
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62. Which of the following polymer has strongest
intermolecular forces of attraction :-
(1) PVC (2) Decron
(3) Neoprene (4) Buna-N
63. Which has maximum dipole moment and can
show optical isomerism :-
(1) Cl O
(2) OH
(3)
O
OHMe
(4)
Cl
64.
O
O
NH(1) KOH
(2) Cl
(3) H O/2
XCHCl , KOH3
Y; Y is :-
(1) OH (2) NH2
(3) NC (4) CH=O
65. Which is least basic :-
(1) NH2
(2) O
NH2
(3)
Me
MeN
Me(4) CH
2 = CH–NH
2
66. Which of the following does not respond to
Fehling solution test and haloform reaction but
show Cannizzaro's reaction :-
(1) Cl3C–CH=O (2) H
2C=O
(3) C H –C–C H2 5 2 5
O
(4) C6H
5–CH=O
67.(1) O3
(2) H O/Zn2X + Y
(C H O)2 4 (C H O)3 6
(1) LiAlH4
(2) H O2
X P
(1) LiAlH4
(2) H O2
Y Q
Incorrect statement for X, Y, P and Q is :-
(1) X & Y give positve iodoform test
(2) P and Q can be distinguished by victor meyer
test
(3) P and Q are homologues
(4) X show cannizzaro's reaction but Y doesnot
62. (Intermolecular)
:-(1) PVC (2) Decron
(3) Neoprene (4) Buna-N
63. :-
(1) Cl O
(2) OH
(3)
O
OHMe
(4)
Cl
64.
O
O
NH(1) KOH
(2) Cl
(3) H O/2
XCHCl , KOH3
Y; Y :-
(1) OH (2) NH2
(3) NC (4) CH=O
65. :-
(1) NH2
(2) O
NH2
(3)
Me
MeN
Me(4) CH
2 = CH–NH
2
66. :-
(1) Cl3C–CH=O (2) H
2C=O
(3) C H –C–C H2 5 2 5
O
(4) C6H
5–CH=O
67.(1) O3
(2) H O/Zn2X + Y
(C H O)2 4 (C H O)3 6
(1) LiAlH4
(2) H O2
X P
(1) LiAlH4
(2) H O2
Y Q
X, Y, P Q :-(1) X Y (2) P Q
(3) P Q (4) X Y
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68. Most reactive for SN
1 reaction is :-
(1)
Cl
(2)
Cl
(3)
Cl
(4)
Cl
69.
CH3
(1) CrO Cl2 2
(2) H O3
PR
CH3
P and R respectively are :-
(1)
COOH
and (P + HI)
(2)
CH=O
and (H2 + Pd)
(3)
COOH
and (H2 + Pd)
(4)
CH=O
and Zn-Hg/HCl
70. Which can show metamerism :-
(1) O
Et Et(2)
OEt Ph
(3) O
H OEt(4) All
71. But-1-yne and But-2-yne can be distinguished
by :-
(1) (AgNO3 + NH
4OH)
(2) Br2|CC
4
(3) Baeyer's reagent
(4) HCl
68. SN
1 :-
(1)
Cl
(2)
Cl
(3)
Cl
(4)
Cl
69.
CH3
(1) CrO Cl2 2
(2) H O3
PR
CH3
P R :-
(1)
COOH
and (P + HI)
(2)
CH=O
and (H2 + Pd)
(3)
COOH
and (H2 + Pd)
(4)
CH=O
and Zn-Hg/HCl
70. :-
(1) O
Et Et(2)
OEt Ph
(3) O
H OEt(4)
71. -1--2-
:-
(1) (AgNO3 + NH
4OH)
(2) Br2|CC
4
(3) Baeyer's reagent
(4) HCl
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72.
H COOK
H COOK(aq.)
electrolysis Product is :-
(1)
H H
H H
(2) H–CC–H
(3) (4)
H CH3
H CH3
73. MgBr + OH X; X is :-
(1) O
(2) O OH
(3)
(4)
74. Decarboxylation is observed to be fastest in :-
(1) O
OH
O
(2)
OOH
O
(3)
OOH
OH
(4) OH
OH
75. Strongest nucleophile is :-
(1) O
(2) S
(3) CH2
(4) CH –C–CH3 2
O
76. The number of moles of sodium sulphite
(Na2SO
3) needed to react with one mole of
KMnO4 in acidic solution :-
(1) 4/5 (2) 5/2 (3) 1 (4) 3/5
72.
H COOK
H COOK(aq.)
electrolysis :-
(1)
H H
H H
(2) H–CC–H
(3) (4)
H CH3
H CH3
73. MgBr + OH X; X :-
(1) O
(2) O OH
(3)
(4)
74. :-
(1) O
OH
O
(2)
OOH
O
(3)
OOH
OH
(4) OH
OH
75. :-
(1) O
(2) S
(3) CH2
(4) CH –C–CH3 2
O
76. 1 KMnO4 Na2SO3
:-
(1) 4/5 (2) 5/2 (3) 1 (4) 3/5
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77. The enthalpies of formation of N2O and NO are 28
and 90 kJ mol–1 respectively. The enthalpy of the
reaction, 2N2O(g) + O
2(g) 4NO(g) is equal to:
(1) 8 kJ (2) 88 kJ
(3) –16 kJ (4) 304 kJ
78. 0.1 mole of CH3NH2 (Kb = 5 × 10–4) is mixed with
0.08 mole of HCl and diluted to one litre. The [H+]
in solution is :-
(1) 8 × 10–2 M
(2) 1.3 × 10–10 M
(3) 1.6 × 10–11M
(4) 8 × 10–5 M
79. Calculate the maximum work done in expanding
16 g of oxygen at 300 K and occupying a volume
of 5 dm3 isothermally until the volume becomes
25 dm3 :-
(1) 2010 J (2) –2010 J
(3) 20.10 J (4) –20.10 J
80. CaCO3 + 2HCl CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O ;
In this chemical reaction what will be the amountof calcium chloride when 10g calcium carbonate
and 400 mL 0.25 M HCl is used :-(1) 4.05 g (2) 5.55 g
(3) 11.1 g (4) 16.65 g
81. The difference in wavelength of first and second
spectral lines of lyman series in Li+2 ion spectrum
is :-
(1) 190 Å (2) 182.1 Å
(3) 27 Å (4) 21.1 Å
82. At equilibrium on increasing pressurre boiling
point of H2O :-
(1) Boiling point of water increases
(2) Boiling point of water decreases
(3) Boiling point of water remains unchanged
(4) Nothing can be assumed
83. An element has 2.03 × 1024 atoms in 135g. If the
element crystalises in face centred cubic lattice
structure with the arm length 150 pm then density
of element is :-
(1) 19.7 g cm–3 (2) 39.4 g cm–3
(3) 78.8 g cm–3 (4) 118.2 g cm–3
84. At which temperature average velocity of
ammonia molecules will be identical with average
velocity of nitric oxide molecules at 327°C
temperature :-
(1) 127°C (2) 340°C
(3) 67°C (4) 190.6°C
77. N2O NO 28
90 kJ mol–1 2N
2O(g) + O
2(g) 4NO(g) :-
(1) 8 kJ (2) 88 kJ
(3) –16 kJ (4) 304 kJ
78. 0.1 CH3NH2 (Kb = 5 × 10–4) 0.08 HCl
1 [H+] :-(1) 8 × 10–2 M
(2) 1.3 × 10–10 M
(3) 1.6 × 10–11M
(4) 8 × 10–5 M
79. 300 K 16 g O2 5 dm3 25 dm3 :-
(1) 2010 J (2) –2010 J
(3) 20.10 J (4) –20.10 J
80. CaCO3
+ 2HCl CaCl2
+ CO2
+ H2O ;
10 400 0.25 M HCl :-(1) 4.05 g (2) 5.55 g
(3) 11.1 g (4) 16.65 g
81. Li+2
:-
(1) 190 Å (2) 182.1 Å
(3) 27 Å (4) 21.1 Å
82. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
83. 1352.03 × 1024 150 pm :-(1) 19.7 g cm–3 (2) 39.4 g cm–3
(3) 78.8 g cm–3 (4) 118.2 g cm–3
84.
327°C
:-
(1) 127°C (2) 340°C
(3) 67°C (4) 190.6°C
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85. For the cell reaction, 2Ce4+ + Co 2Ce3+ + Co2+
E°cell
is 1.89V and 2
0
Co / CoE = +0.28. If 4 3
0
Ce / CeE
(1) – 1.61 V (2) + 1.61 V
(3) – 2.08 V (4) + 2.17 V
86. The decomposition of N2O5 is a first order
reaction represented by N2O
5 N
2O
4 +
1
2O
2.
After 15 minutes the volume of O2 produced is
9ml and at the end of the reaction 35ml. The rate
cosntant is equal to :-
(1) 1 35
n15 44
(2) 1 44
n15 26
(3) 1 44
n15 35
(4) 1 35
n15 26
87. Which of the following statements is incorrect
regarding physisorption ?
(1) It occurs because of vander Waal's forces
(2) More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed
readily.
(3) Under high pressure it results into multi
molecular layer on adsorbent surface
(4) Enthalpy of adsorption (Hadsorption) is low and
positive
88. In a first-order reaction of the type :
A(g) 2B(g), the initial and at time 't' pressures
are p1 and p respectively. The rate constant can
be expressed by -
(1) 1
1
p1k ln
t 2p p
(2) 1
1
p1k ln
t p p
(3) 1
1
p1k ln
t p p
(4) 1p1
k lnt p
89. The molality of the solution prepared by dissolving
125 mL of pure methanol (d = 0.8 gmL–1) in
375 g of ethanol is :
(1) 10.8 (2) 11.2 (3) 8.33 (4) 10.4
90. 17.4% (W/V) of potassium sulphate
(mol. wt. = 174) is isotonic with 4% (W/V)
aqueous solution of NaOH. If NaOH is 100%
ionised, the degree of ionisation of potassium
sulphate is
(1) 50% (2) 75%
(3) 40% (4) 60%
85. 2Ce4+ + Co 2Ce3+ + Co2+
E° 1.89V 2
0
Co / CoE = +0.28 4 3
0
Ce / CeE
(1) – 1.61 V (2) + 1.61 V
(3) – 2.08 V (4) + 2.17 V
86. N2O5
N2O
5 N
2O
4 +
1
2O
2,
15 O2 9
O2 35
:-
(1) 1 35
n15 44
(2) 1 44
n15 26
(3) 1 44
n15 35
(4) 1 35
n15 26
87. (1) (2)
(3)
(4) (H)
88. A(g) 2B(g)
tp1p
(1) 1
1
p1k ln
t 2p p
(2) 1
1
p1k ln
t p p
(3) 1
1
p1k ln
t p p
(4) 1
p1k ln
t p
89. 375 g (d = 0.8 gmL–1)
125 mL -
(1) 10.8 (2) 11.2 (3) 8.33 (4) 10.4
90. (= 174) 17.4% (W/V)
NaOH4% (W/V)
NaOH 100%
(1) 50% (2) 75%
(3) 40% (4) 60%
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91. Read the following statements. Find out which
one is incorrect ?
(1) Virus takes over the machinery of the host cell
to replicate themself
(2) Virus contains both RNA and DNA
(3) AIDS in human is caused by a virus
(4) Generally in plant viruses, ss RNA is present
92. Which of the following is not a function of
mesosome?
(1) Help in DNA replicaton
(2) Help in cell wall synthesis
(3) ATP synthesis
(4) Storage of food
93.(A)
(B)
(C)
In the labelled figure of Marchantia, what are A,
B and C?
(1) Archegoniophore, Gemma cup, Rhizoids
(2) Rhizoids, Archegoniophore, Gemma cup
(3) Gemma cup, Archegoniophore, Rhizoids
(4) Rhizoids, Antheridiophore, Gemma cup
94. Read the following statements & select the correct
option :
(A) Gymnosperms include all types of plants like
medium size tree, tall trees, shrubs and herbs.
(B) In Cycas coralloid roots are associated with
mycorrhiza
(C) In conifers needle like leaves reduce the
surface area.
(D) All gymnosperms are heterosporous
How many above statements are correct &
incorrect?
(1) 2 - correct, 2 - incorrect
(2) 3 - correct, 1 - incorrect
(3) 1 - correct, 3 - incorrect
(4) 0 - correct, 4 - incorrect
91. ?(1)
(2) RNA DNA (3) AIDS(4) ss RNA
92. :-
(1) DNA
(2)
(3) ATP
(4)
93.(A)
(B)
(C)
A, B C
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 94.
:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) 2 - , 2 - (2) 3 - , 1 -
(3) 1 - , 3 -
(4) 0 - , 4 -
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95. "" (1) (2) (3) (4)
96. :-(A) -(B) -(C) -(D) - (E) - :-(1) A, B, C, D (2) B, C, D, E
(3) B, C, D (4) A, C, D, E
97. :-(1) Karyogamy, plasmogamy and meiosis
(2) Meiosis, plasmogamy and karyogamy
(3) Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis
(4) Meiosis, karyogamy and plasmogamy
98. :-(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
99. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 100. :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
101. DNA :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
95. Who wrote "Systema Naturae" and provided a
basis for nomenclature of animals ?
(1) Carolus Linnaeus (2) Charles Darwin
(3) Aristotle (4) Leeuwenhoek
96. Read the following pair :-
(A) Diatoms-haploid body
(B) Dinoflagellates-water bloom
(C) Slime moulds -decomposer nature
(D) Euglenoids-some time behave like predator
(E) Protozoa-Unicellular prokaryotes
Choose the correct option :-
(1) A, B, C, D (2) B, C, D, E
(3) B, C, D (4) A, C, D, E
97. Select the correct sequence of events with respect
to the fungal sexual cycle. :-
(1) Karyogamy, plasmogamy and meiosis
(2) Meiosis, plasmogamy and karyogamy
(3) Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis
(4) Meiosis, karyogamy and plasmogamy
98. Choose the correct statement :-
(1) Algal cell wall is made up of cellulose,
galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium
carbonate.
(2) Most of gymnosperms are homosporous.
(3) Most of pteridophytes are heterosporous and
some are homosporous.
(4) Water is not required for fertilisation in seed
plants like, Selaginella and Salvinia.
99. Read the following statement and select out
wrong one :-
(1) RER is frequently observed in the cell, actively
involved in protein synthesis and secretion
(2) In animal cells lipid-like steroidal hormones
are synthesised in SER
(3) Chloroplast contains enzymes required for the
synthesis of only proteins
(4) Centriole form basal body of cilia or flagella
100. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs in:-
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
101. An organelle which unless specifically stained, isnot easily visible under the microscope and
surrounded by double membrane structure containsmall circular DNA molecule, ribosome and also
having the site for oxidative phosphorylation is :-
(1) Chloroplast (2) Ribosome
(3) Mesosome (4) Mitochondria
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102. The following graphs (A and B) depicts changes
in DNA Content during cell cycle. Identify the
cell division from A and B :-
Cell cycle(A)
Cell cycle(B)
(1) A Meiosis–II, B Meiosis–I
(2) A Mitosis, B Meiosis–I
(3) A Meiosis–I, B Mitosis
(4) A Mitosis, B Meiosis
103. Which of the following pair of cellular structures
have similar number of membrane ?
(1) Ribosome, mitochondria
(2) Golgi body, centriole
(3) Nucleus, peroxisome
(4) Nucleus, chloroplast
104. In the given diagram identify the coelomic
condition in the animals :-
(A) (B)
(C)
(1) (A) Tapeworm
(B) Ascaris
(C) Earthworm
(2) (A) Cockroach
(B) Ascaris
(C) Tapeworm
(3) (A) Ascaris
(B) Tapeworm
(C) Earthworm
(4) (A) Earthworm
(B) Cockroach
(C) Ascaris
102. (A B) DNA
A B :-
Cell cycle(A)
Cell cycle(B)
(1) A II, B I(2) A , B I(3) A I B (4) A , B
103.
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 104.
:-
(A) (B)
(C)
(1) (A) Tapeworm
(B) Ascaris
(C) Earthworm
(2) (A) Cockroach
(B) Ascaris
(C) Tapeworm
(3) (A) Ascaris
(B) Tapeworm
(C) Earthworm
(4) (A) Earthworm
(B) Cockroach
(C) Ascaris
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105. Here some informations are given about
Arthropoda :-
– Bilateral symmetry
– Incomplete digestive system
– Organ system level of organisation
– Coelomate
– Open type circulatory system
– Triploblastic
– Unsegmented
How many informations are correct ?
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Seven
106. Which one of the statement hold true when we
discuss about Physalia?
(1) Member of ctenophora
(2) Have internal shell
(3) Body asymmetric
(4) Marine habitat
107. Identify the symmetry shown below as well as the
related explanation and select the right option for
the two together :-
Symmetry Explanation
(1) Asymmetrical Any plane that passesthrough the centre doesnot divide them equalhalves
(2) Radial The body can bedivided into identicalleft and right halves inonly one plane
(3) Bilateral Any plane pass throughthe central axis of thebody divides theorganism into twoidentical halves
(4) Bilateral The body can bedivided into identicalleft and right helves inonly one plane
105. :-– –
– – –
–
–
?(1) (2) (3) (4)
106. (1) (2) (3) (4)
107.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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108. The living differentiated cell which has lost the
capacity to divide, can regain capacity of division
under certain condition. This phenomenon is
called :-
(1) Dedifferentiation (2) Differentiation
(3) Redifferentiation (4) Maturation
109. If there is more than one tunica layers in the stem
apex, then which among the following is most
likely to happen :-
(1) All the layers will develop into cortical cells
(2) All the layers will develop into the epidermal
cells
(3) The outer layer will develop into epidermal
and cortical cells
(4) The outer most layer forms the epidermis and
remaining layers, form another type of tissues
with the association of corpus
110. Match of the following column-I and II, and
choose correct option :-
Column-I Column-II
(A) Siliqua (i) Apple
(B) Drupe (ii) Pea
(C) Legume (iii) Mustard
(D) Pome (iv) Mango
A B C D
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
111. How many plant in the list given below axile
placentation?
Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Sunhemp, Chilli,
Colchicum, Tomato, Lemon, Argemone, China
rose, Dianthus, Sunflower.
(1) Six (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five
112. Which of the following statement is not true?
(1) Tendril is a modified structure
(2) Stipule is lateral outgrowth of leaf base
(3) Arrangement of flowers in racemose
inflorescence is basipetal order
(4) In racemose inflorescence floral axis has
unlimited growth
108.
:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 109.
:-(1) (2) (3)
(4)
110. I II
-I -II
(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (iii)
(D) (iv)
A B C D
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
111.
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 112.
(1) (2) (3)
(4)
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113. What is common to viola, oxalis and commelina
plants ?
(1) All are xerophytes
(2) All are aquatic plants
(3) All are polyploids
(4) All of them produced two types of flowers
chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers.
114. Development of a sporophyte directly from the
gametophytic tissue is called :-
(1) Apospory (2) Apogamy
(3) Parthenogenesis (4) Parthenocarpy
115. Choose the correct sequence in artificial
hybridisation/pollination
(1) Selection of parent plant, bagging,
emasculation, pollen dusting, rebagged
(2) Selection of parent plant, emasculation,
bagging, pollen dusting, rebagged
(3) Selection of parent plant, pollen dusting,
bagging, emasculation, rebagged
(4) Selection of parent plant, bagging,
emasculation, rebagged, pollen dusting
116. Which tissue is associated with filtration and
diffusion?
(1) Simple squamous epithelium
(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple columnar epithelium
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium
117. Which of the following statements is/are
incorrect about the given diagram ?
(a) This epithelium is made up of a single thick
layer of flattened cells with irregular
boundaries.
(b) This epithelium is found in the walls of blood
vessels and air sacs of lungs.
(c) This epithelium is involved in forming a
diffusion boundary.
(d) Free surfaces are absent in this epithelium.
(1) a, d only
(2) b, d only
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) d only
113. (1) (2) (3) (4)
114. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
115. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
116. (1) (2) (3) (4)
117.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) a, d
(2) b, d (3) a, b, c, d
(4) d
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118. Read the following statements regarding
Periplaneta americana ?
(A) Head holds a bit of nervous system while the
rest is situated along the ventral part of its body
(B) The next to last nymphal stage has wing pads
but only adult cockroach have wings.
(C) Blood enters into heart chambers through ostia
during diastolic stage and is pumped anteriorly
during systolic stage
(D) Maximum digestion takes place in crop but
it gets completed in mesenteron.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) A and B only (2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and D only (4) A, B, C and D
119. How many compounds in the list given below are
hexose sugar ?
Glycerol, Glyceride, DHAP, Glucose, Rhamnose,
Galactose, Mannose, Ribose, PGAL,
Sedoheptalose, Ricin.
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
120. Identify the molecule (a) and (b) shown below and
select the right option giving their name and
occurrence :-
(a) R —C—O—CH2
CH —O—C—R2 1
CH —O—P—O2 —CH —CH2 2
H N+
CH3CH3
CH3
O
O
O
(b)
OHOH
HOCH2 uracil
(1) (a) = Lecithin Cell membrane
(2) (b) = Uridylic acid RNA
(3) (a) = Triglyceride DNA
(4) (b) = Uracil RNA
121. A nucleotide has three chemically distinct
components. One is a ......‘A’........ the second is
a ......‘B’....... and the third a phosphoric acid or
phosphate.
(1) A = nitrogen base, B = hexose sugar
(2) A = heterocyclic compound,
B = monosaccharide
(3) A = nucleic acid, B = pentose sugar
(4) A = nitrogen base, B = glucose
118. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) A B (2) B, C D(3) A, B, C E (4) A, B, C D
119. ?
DHAP
PGAL,
(1) (2) (3) (4)
120. (a) (b) :-
(a) R —C—O—CH2
CH —O—C—R2 1
CH —O—P—O2 —CH —CH2 2
H N+
CH3CH3
CH3
O
O
O
(b)
OHOH
HOCH2 uracil
(1) (a) =
(2) (b) = RNA
(3) (a) = DNA
(4) (b) = RNA
121.
......‘A’........ ......‘B’.......
(1) A = , B =
(2) A = , B =
(3) A = , B =
(4) A = , B =
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122. Which is possible for fully turgid cell?
(1) DPD = 10 atm, OP = 15 atm, TP = 5 atm
(2) DPD = 0.2 atm, OP = 0.7 atm, TP = 0.5 atm
(3) DPD = 0.0 atm, OP = 15 atm, TP = 15 atm
(4) DPD = 5 atm, OP = 15 atm, TP = 7 atm
123. A wooden peg inserted in a rock cause its breaking
during the rainy season. It is due to development of:-
(1) TP
(2) OP
(3) Imbibition pressure
(4) Plasmolysis
124. The end product of oxidative phosphorylation is
(1) NADH
(2) Oxygen
(3) ADP
(4) ATP + H2O
125. Substrate level phosphorylation occur during
which step of kreb's cycle?
(1) Succinyl CoA Succinic acid
(2) Isocitric acid oxalo succinic acid
(3) Oxalosuccinic acid a-keto glutaric acid
(4) Malic acid OAA
126. Which phase of calvin cycle do not use any energy
rich compound?
(1) Carboxylation
(2) Carboxylation & Reduction
(3) Reduction
(4) Regeneration
127. How many turn of Calvin cycle yield one
molecule of sucrose?
(1) 6 (2) 12
(3) 24 (4) 28
128. The reaction given below is related to which
process?
R –C–COO + R –C–COO R –C–COO + R –C–COO1 2 1 2
– – – –
H
NH3
+ O O NH3
+
H H
(1) Nitrogen fixation
(2) Amino acid synthesis by reductive amination
(3) Nitrification
(4) Amino acid synthesis by transmination
129. Dieback and little leaf disease are caused due to
deficiency of ______ and ______ respectively :-
(1) Cu, Zn (2) Zn, Si
(3) Mo, Fe (4) N, K
122. (1) DPD = 10 atm, OP = 15 atm, TP = 5 atm
(2) DPD = 0.2 atm, OP = 0.7 atm, TP = 0.5 atm
(3) DPD = 0.0 atm, OP = 15 atm, TP = 15 atm
(4) DPD = 5 atm, OP = 15 atm, TP = 7 atm
123. (1) TP
(2) OP
(3) (4)
124. (1) NADH
(2) (3) ADP
(4) ATP + H2O
125. (1) Succinyl CoA Succinic acid
(2) Isocitric acid oxalo succinic acid
(3) Oxalosuccinic acid a-keto glutaric acid
(4) Malic acid OAA
126. (1) (2) (3) (4)
127. (1) 6 (2) 12
(3) 24 (4) 28
128.
R –C–COO + R –C–COO R –C–COO + R –C–COO1 2 1 2
– – – –
H
NH3
+ O O NH3
+
H H
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 129. ______ ______
:-(1) Cu, Zn (2) Zn, Si
(3) Mo, Fe (4) N, K
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130. Read the following statement (a–d) and answer
as asked next to them :-
(a) The water we drink plays an important role in
metabolic processes and also prevents
dehydration of the body.
(b) Digestion is carried out by our digestive system
by mechanical and biochemical methods.
(c) Oral cavity has a number of teeth and a
muscular tongue
(d) Most mammals including human beings have
two set of teeth during their life.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Four (2) Two (3) Three (4) One
131. Match the column I with column II, and choose
the correct option given below ?
Column-I Column-II
(A) Secretin (1) Stimulate the secretion
from gastric glands
(B) Gastrin (2) Stimulate the secretion
of water &
bicarbonates in
pancrentic Juice
(C) CCK (3) Inhibit gastric
secretion & motility
(D) GIP (4) stimulate the secretion
of pancreatic enzymes
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(4) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
132. In above figure which points are related with
excited stage
+30
0
–40–55
–70
–90
A C
D
E
B
Mem
bra
ne
po
tent
ial
(mv
)
Time (ms)
(1) A–B (2) B–C
(3) C–D (4) D–E
130. (a–d) :-(a)
(b)
(c) (d)
?(1) (2) (3) (4)
131. I II
?
-I -II
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) CCK (3)
(D) GIP (4)
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4(2) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3(3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3(4) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
132.
+30
0
–40–55
–70
–90
A C
D
E
B
Mem
bra
ne
pote
ntia
l (m
v)
Time (ms)
(1) A–B (2) B–C
(3) C–D (4) D–E
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133. If we consider F as sympathetic nervous system
then B would be :-
CNS B
A C F
D E
(1) Para sympathetic nervous system
(2) Autonomic nervous system
(3) Peripheral nervous system
(4) Somatic nervous system
134. Find out the correct match from the following
table.
Hormone Sourceorgan
Function
(i) Calcitonin Thyroid Stimulatesmineralisation ofbones
(ii) Gonadotrophins Testis/ovary
Spermatogenesis/Folliculogenesis
(iii) Oxytocin Hypoth-alamus
Stimulatescontraction insmooth musclesof body
(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (ii)
135. Which of the following is correct ?
(a) Hypercalcemic hormone is thyrocalcitonin
(TCT)
(b) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases the
Ca+2 levels in the blood
(c) Thymosins play a major role in the
differentiation of T-lymphocytes
(d) Parathyroid glands are present on back side
of the thyroid gland
(1) b, c, d (2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, d (4) a, b, c, d
136. Read the following statements (A-D)
(A) Photoreceptor cells are not present at blind
spot
(B) The photopic vision is function of rods.
(C) Opsin is an aldehyde of vitamin A.
(D) Action potential is generated in ganglion cells
of retina
How many of the above statements are true?
(1)4 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2
133. F B :-
CNS B
A C F
D E
(1) (2) (3) (4)
134.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(1) (i) (2) (i) (iii)(3) (ii) (iii) (4) (i) (ii)
135. (a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) b, c, d (2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, d (4) a, b, c, d
136. (A-D)
(A)
(B) (C) A (D)
(1)4 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2
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137. Read the following statements :-
(A) It is a chronic disorder
(B) Major cause of it is cigarette smoking
(C) It is an Allergy
(D) Alveolar walls are damaged
(E) Respiratory surface is decreased
(F) It is due to inflammation of bronchi and
bronchioles.
How many of the above statements are correct
about Emphysema disorder?
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) One
138. In which the following group blood is pumped by
heart passes through large vessels in to open
spaces or body cavities.
(1) Amphibia (2) Annelida
(3) Mollusca (4) Birds
139. Which statement is wrong about partial pressure
of oxygen?
(1) 2OP more in atmospheric air than alveoli
(2) 2OP more in alveoli than tissue
(3) 2OP more in oxygenated blood than
deoxygenated blood
(4) 2OP more in alveoli than expired air
140. The correct route through which impulse travel
in the heart is :-
(1) S.A. node Purkinje fibres Bundle of His
A.V. node Heart muscles
(2) A.V. Node S.A. Node Purkinje fibres
Bundle of His Heart muscles
(3) S.A. Node A.V. Node Bundle of His
Purkinje fibres Heart muscles
(4) A.V. Node Bundle of His S.A.Node
Purkinje fibres
141. Which one of the following options is incorrect?
(1) Hinge joint – between Humerus and
Pectoral girdle
(2) Pivot joint – between atlas and axis
(3) Gliding joint – between the carpals
(4) Saddle joint – between carpel and
metacarpals of thumb
137. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
138.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
139. (1)
2OP
(2) 2OP
(3)
2OP
(4) 2OP expired air
140. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
141.
(1) –
(2) –
(3) –
(4) –
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142. Cardiac muscle fibres are -
(1) Stariated and voluntary
(2) Unstariated and voluntary
(3) Stariated and involuntary
(4) Unstariated and involuntary
143. Which of the following are actively secreted into
filtrate by tubular cells of nephron?
(1) Na+, K, NH3
(2) K, NH3, H
(3) H, HCO3 , K (4) H, NH3, Na+
144. Match the columns
Column-I Column-II
(A) Glycosuria (i) Inflammation ofglomeruli of kidney
(B) Ketonuria (ii) Presence of glucosein urine
(C) Glmerulonephritis (iii) Excess of urea inblood
(D) Uremia (iv) Presence of ketonebodies of urine
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
145. Read the following statements about
hybridization technique of mendel and findout the
correct statement :-
(A) Emasculation of both male and female parents
is required.
(B) Emasculation of only male parent is required.
(C) Emasculation of female parent is required.
(D) Emasculation is not necessary.
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) All correct
146. Read the following statements and find out
incorrect one :-
(I) Flower colour in Mirabilis shows
overdominance.
(II) Coat colour in cattles shows codominance.
(III) Starch grain size in garden pea shown
incomplete dominanc.
(IV) Round shape is dominant over the wrinkled
shape in garden pea seeds.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Only III (4) I and IV both
142. (1) (2) (3) (4)
143.
(1) Na+, K, NH3
(2) K, NH3, H
(3) H, HCO3 , K (4) H, NH3, Na+
144.
-I -II
(A) Glycosuria (i) glomeruli
(B) Ketonuria (ii)
(C) Glmerulonephritis (iii)
(D) Uremia (iv)
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
145.
:-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) 146. :-
(I)
(II)
(III)
(IV) (1) I (2) II
(3) III (4) I IV
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147. Match the following :-
I II
(A) Colourblindness (i) Autosomal recessive
(B) Haemophilia 'C' (ii) Nutritional deficiency
(C) Night blindness (iii) Point mutation
(D) Sickle cell anaemia (iv) X-linked recessive
(1) A – i, B – iv, C – ii, D – iii
(2) A – i, B – ii, C – iv, D – iii
(3) A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii
(4) A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D – iii
148. Match the following.
(i) (A) Monozygotictwins
(B) Carrier for srecessive
disease
exlinked
(C) Carrier forautosomalrecessive disease
(D) Normal female
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(1) (i) – A, (ii) – B, (iii) – C, (iv) – D
(2) (i) – D, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – B
(3) (i) – C, (ii) – D, (iii) – B, (iv) – A
(4) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – D, (iv) – A
149. Which statement is not true for base ratio of
DNA?
(1) Base ratio is constant for given species.
(2) Base ratio is variable for different species
(3) Base ratio does not depends on age of
organism
(4) Base ratio is different for different tissues of
an organism
150. Which of the following m–RNA contains
7–methyl guanosine at 5' end and polyadenine
base at the 3' end :-
(1) Prokaryotic mRNA (2) Eukaryotic mRNA
(3) Transfer RNA (4) Small nuclear RNA
151. Transcription begins when one of the following
enzyme binds to a promotor site :-
(1) Helicase (2) RNA polymerase
(3) Gyrase (4) Genetic code
147. :-
I II
(A) (i)
(B) 'C' (ii)
(C) (iii)
(D) (iv) X-
(1) A – i, B – iv, C – ii, D – iii
(2) A – i, B – ii, C – iv, D – iii
(3) A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii
(4) A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D – iii
148.
(i) (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(1) (i) – A, (ii) – B, (iii) – C, (iv) – D
(2) (i) – D, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – B
(3) (i) – C, (ii) – D, (iii) – B, (iv) – A
(4) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – D, (iv) – A
149. DNA (1)
(2)
(3) (4)
150. m–RNA 5' 7–methyl
guanosine 3' :-(1) Prokaryotic mRNA (2) Eukaryotic mRNA
(3) Transfer RNA (4) Small nuclear RNA
151. :-(1) (2) RNA (3) (4)
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152. How many statements are correct for mutation?
(a) Mutations are discontinuous source for variations
(b) Smallest part of DNA which undergoes
mutation is called hot spot
(c) Muton is one nucleotide
(d) Mostly mutations are harmful
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
153. pBR322, which is frequently used as a vector for
cloning gene in E.coli is a/an :-
(1) Original bacterial plasmid
(2) Modified bacterial plasmid
(3) Viral genome
(4) Transposon
154. Recombinant DNA is forced to enter the
host cells by incubating the cells with rDNA first :-
(1) On ice followed by heat shock and then again
on ice
(2) In ethidium bromide followed by calcium
salts
(3) Into chilled ethanol followed by ice and then
into CsCl
(4) All of the above
155. What is true for Bt-toxin?
(1) Bt-toxin protein exist as active toxin in
bacterium
(2) Bt-toxin is converted into an active toxin due
to acidic pH of gut of insect
(3) Bt-toxin is converted into an active toxin due
to alkaline pH of gut of insects
(4) Bt-toxin is formed by RNA interference
156. Name the blank space A, B, C and D given in the
following table ?
Microbe name Commercial product
A Lactic acid
B Cyclosporin–A
Monascus purpureus C
Penicillium notatum D
(1)A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma,
C – Penicillin, D – Statins
(2)A – Trichoderma, B – Lactobacillus,
C – Statins, D – Penicillin
(3)A – Lactobacillus, B – Aspergillus,
C – TPA, D – Penicillin
(4)A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma,
C – Statins, D – Penicillin
152. :-(a) (b) DNA hot spot
(c) (d) (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
153. pBR322 :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
154. DNA rDNA :-(1)
(2)
(3) CsCl
(4) 155. Bt-
(1) Bt-
(2) pH Bt-
(3) pH Bt-
(4) Bt-156. A, B, C D
?
A Lactic acid
B Cyclosporin–A
Monascus purpureus C
Penicillium notatum D
(1)A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma,
C – Penicillin, D – Statins
(2)A – Trichoderma, B – Lactobacillus,
C – Statins, D – Penicillin
(3)A – Lactobacillus, B – Aspergillus,
C – TPA, D – Penicillin
(4)A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma,
C – Statins, D – Penicillin
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157. 'Marsupial mole' and Kangaroo are the
example of :-
(1) Divergent evolution
(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Both (1) and (3)
158. The eyes of octopus and eyes of mammals show:-
(a) Convergent evolution
(b) Analogous structures
(c) Different structures evolving for the same
function
(d) Divergent evolution
(1) a and b (2) c and d
(3) a, b and c (4) a, c
159. Adaptive similarities in different animals living
in the same habitat is called :–
(1) Retrogressive evolution
(2) Parallel evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Convergent evolution
160. Cleavage are repeated mitotic division which start
in zygote at :-
(1) Infundibulum (2) Isthmus
(3) Uterus (4) Fimbrae
161. Which of the following is correct match?
Column-I Column-II
(1) Tubectomy Ovarian changeswill occur bututerine changeswill not occur
(2) Hysterectomy Ovarian changeswill not occur butfertilization ispossible
(3) Both ovaryoophorectomy
Ovarian changeswill not occur bututerine changeswill occur
(4) One ovary oophorectomy(One ovary functional)
Fertilizationpossible but
initialy menstrualcycle will beirregular
157. ' ' :-(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (3)
158.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) a b (2) c d
(3) a, b c (4) a, c
159. :–(1) (2) (3) (4)
160. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
161.
–I –II
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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162. The region outside the seminiferous tubule which
contain small blood vessels, interstitial cells and
immunologically competent cells is present
called:-
(1) Perivitelline space
(2) Peritesticular space
(3) Interstitial space
(4) Inguinal space
163. Functional characters of community, which
change during succession :-(a) Energy use efficiency
(b) Nutrient conservation(c) Complexity of food web
(d) species diversity(1) a, b and c (2) b, c and d
(3) only d (4) a and d only
164. Which of the following option give the correct
categorisation of examples according to the type
of species Interaction (A, B, C) :-
AMutualism
BParasitism
CCommensalism
1Barnacle &Whale
Loranthus &Mango
Yucca plant &Pronuba Moth
2Leech onCattle
Orchid &Bee
Pilot fish &shark
3Fig Tree &Wasp
Viscum &Oak
Clown fish &Sea Anemone
4Sucker fish &Shark
Lichen Ticks on Dog
165. K-selected species has :-
(1) High stability & low biotic potential
(2) Low stability & high biotic potential
(3) Short life time & high growth rate
(4) Long life time & high growth rate
166. The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by
plants like :
(1) Vallisneria (2) Typha
(3) Azolla (4) BGA
167. Which of the following is not a characteristics of
a community ?
(1) Dominance
(2) Species diversity
(3) Natality
(4) Stratification
162.
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 163.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) a, b c (2) b, c d(3) d (4) a d
164. :-
A
B
C
1
2
3
Clown fish Sea Anemone
4
165. K-selected :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
166. (1) (2) (3) (4) BGA
167. (1) (2) (3) (4)
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168. Match the column I with column II :-
I II
(i) Water Act (a) 1986
(ii) Wild life Act (b) 1981
(iii) Air Act (c) 1972
(iv) NEPA (d) 1974
i ii iii iv
(1) c b a d
(2) d c b a
(3) a c b d
(4) a b c d
169. Most lethal ultra violet radiation is :
(1) U.V.-A (2) U.V.-B (3) U.V.-C (4) U.V.-D
170. Ecological apporaches to conservation biology
emphasize –
(1) Protection of particularly important species
(2) Protection of habitats with high species
diversity
(3) Creation of new kinds of species
(4) All the above
171. Which of the following is not recycled in an
ecosystem ?
(1) Water (2) Carbon (3) Energy (4) Nitrogen
172. What fraction of assimilated energy is used in
respiration by the herbivore ?
(1) 20 percent (2) 30 percent
(3) 40 percent (4) 60 Percent
173.
A
B
C
Which of the following option correctly represent
A, B and C about thermal stratification in Lakes?
A B C
(1) Littoral zone Limneticzone
Profundal zone
(2) Hypolimnion Metalimnion Epilimnion
(3) Limnetic zone Littoral zone Profundal zone
(4) Epilimnion Metalimnion Hypolimnion
168. I II :-
I II
(i) (a) 1986
(ii) (b) 1981
(iii) (c) 1972
(iv) NEPA (d) 1974
i ii iii iv
(1) c b a d
(2) d c b a
(3) a c b d
(4) a b c d
169. (1) U.V.-A (2) U.V.-B (3) U.V.-C (4) U.V.-D
170.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 171.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
172. (1) 20 percent (2) 30 percent
(3) 40 percent (4) 60 Percent
173.
A
B
C
A, B C ?
A B C
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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174.
(A) (B)
Choose the correct option about given above :-
(A) (B)
(1) Hallucinogen Bhang
(2) Morphine Datura
(3) Heroin Bhang
(4) Datura Morphine
175. Which of the following statement is false for the
structure labelled as "A" in the figure given
below?
A
(1) Here maturation of T-lymphocytes takes place
(2) Here immature lymphocytes differentiate into
antigen-sensitive lymphocytes
(3) Here lymphocytes interact with antigen and
become effector cells
(4) It is an example of primary lymphoid organ.
176. In full blown AIDS, oppurtunistic infections are
caused by :-
(1) Mycobacterium
(2) Toxoplasma
(3) Viruses and fungi
(4) All of these
174.
(A) (B)
:-
(A) (B)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 175. 'A"
:-
A
(1) T-
(2)
(3)
(4)
176.
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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177. Auto immune disorder affecting neuromuscular
junction leading to fatigue, weakening and
paralysis of skeletal muscle is -
(1) Muscular dystrophy
(2) Tetany
(3) Gout
(4) Myasthenia gravis
178. India's wheat yield was improved in the 1960, due
to :-
(1) Introduction of wild varieties
(2) Selection in between local varieties
(3) Eradication of weed plants
(4) Sowing the seeds of high yielding and disease
resistant varieties
179. Read the following statements carefully :-
(A) Genetic variability is the root of any breeding
programme
(B) Ginkgo biloba, a cultivated plant in U.S is the
example of in-situ conservation
(C) Cross-hybridization step in a breeding
programme is a very time consuming and
tedius process
(D) Sonalika and Kalyan Sona in high yielding
rice varieties
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) C and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) A, C and D
(4) A and C
180. Among the following how many are the milch
breed of the cattle ?
Gir, Sahiwal, Nageri, Haryana, Thaparkar, Deoni,
Malvi
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
177.
-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
178. 1960
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
179. :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
?
(1) C D
(2) A, B C
(3) A, C D
(4) A C
180. ?
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
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