class xii subject:- chemistry mcq(chapters:- haloalkanes, … · 2019-10-04 · class xii subject:-...

CLASS XII

SUBJECT:- CHEMISTRY

MCQ(Chapters:- Haloalkanes, Haloarenes, Alcohols,Phenols & Ethers , Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids)

1. Which of the following alcohols will yield the corresponding alkyl chloride on reaction with concentrated HCl at room

temperature?

2. Identify the compound Y in the following reaction.

3. Toluene reacts with a halogen in the presence of iron (III) chloride giving ortho and para halo compounds. The

reaction is

(i) Electrophilic elimination reaction

(ii) Electrophilic substitution reaction

(iii) Free radical addition reaction

(iv) Nucleophilic substitution reaction

4. Which of the following is halogen exchange reaction?

5. Which reagent will you use for the following reaction ?

(i) Cl2/UV light

(ii) NaCl + H2SO4

(iii) Cl2 gas in dark

(iv) Cl2 gas in the presence of iron in dark

6. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their densities.

7. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points

8. In which of the following molecules carbon atom marked with asterisk (*) is asymmetric?

(i) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(ii) (a), (b), (c)

(iii) (b), (c), (d)

(iv) (a), (c), (d)

9. Which of the following structures is enantiomeric with the molecule (A) given below :

10. Which of the following is an example of vic-dihalide?

(i) Dichloromethane

(ii) 1,2-dichloroethane

(iii) Ethylidene chloride

(iv) Allyl chloride

11. The position of –Br in the compound in CH3CH = CHC (Br)(CH3)2 can be classified as ____________.

(i) Allyl

(ii) Aryl

(iii) Vinyl

(iv) Secondary

12. Chlorobenzene is formed by reaction of chlorine with benzene in the presence of AlCl3. Which of the following species

attacks the benzene ring in this reaction ?

(i) Cl–

(ii) Cl+

(iii) AlCl3

(iv) [AlCl4]–

13. Ethylidene chloride is a/an ______________.

(i) vic-dihalide

(ii) gem-dihalide

(iii) allylic halide

(iv) vinylic halide

14. What is ‘A’ in the following reaction?

15. A primary alkyl halide would prefer to undergo _____________.

(i) SN1 reaction

(ii) SN2 reaction

(iii) α–Elimination

(iv) Racemisation

16. Which of the following alkyl halides will undergo SN1 reaction most readily?

(i) (CH3)3C—F

(ii) (CH3)3C—Cl

(iii) (CH3)3C—Br

(iv) (CH3)3C—I

17.

(i) 1-Bromo-2-ethylpropane

(ii) 1-Bromo-2-ethyl-2-methyl ethane

(iii) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane

(iv) 2-Methyl-1-bromobutane

18. What should be the correct IUPAC name for diethyl bromomethane?

(i) 1-Bromo-1,1-diethoxyethane

(ii) 3-Bromopentane

(iii) 1-Bromo-1-ethyl propane

(iv) 1-Bromopentane

19. The reaction of toluene with chlorine in the presence of iron and in the absence of light yields ____________.

20. Chloromethane on treatment with excess of ammonia yields mainly

21. Molecules whose mirror image is non superimposable over them are known as chiral. Which of the following

molecules is chiral in nature?

(i) 2-Bromobutane

(ii) 1-Bromobutane

(iii) 2-Bromopropane

(iv) 2-Bromopropan-2-ol

22. Reaction of C6H5CH2Br with aqueous sodium hydroxide follows ____________.

(i) SN1 mechanism

(ii) SN2 mechanism

(iii) Any of the above two depending upon the temperature of reaction

(iv) Saytzeff rule

23. Which of the carbon atoms present in the molecule given below are asymmetric

(i) a, b, c, d

(ii) b, c

(iii) a, d

(iv) a, b, c

24. Which of the following compounds will give racemic mixture on nucleophilic substitution by OH– ion?

(i) (a)

(ii) (a), (b), (c)

(iii) (b), (c)

(iv) (a), (c)

Note : In the questions 25 to 28 arrange the compounds in increasing order of rate of reaction towards nucleophilic

substitution

25.

(i) (a) < (b) < (c)

(ii) (c) < (b) < (a)

(iii) (a) < (c) < (b)

(iv) (c) < (a) < (b)

26. (i) (a) < (b) < (c)

(ii) (a) < (c) < (b)

(iii) (c) < (b) < (a)

(iv) (b) < (c) < (a)

27. (i) (c) < (b) < (a)

(ii) (b) < (c) < (a)

(iii) (a) < (c) < (b)

(iv) (a) < (b) < (c)

28. (i) (a) < (b) < (c)

(ii) (b) < (a) < (c)

(iii) (c) < (b) < (a)

(iv) (a) < (c) < (b)

29. Which is the correct increasing order of boiling points of the following compounds?

1-Iodobutane, 1-Bromobutane, 1-Chlorobutane, Butane

(i) Butane < 1-Chlorobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Iodobutane

(ii) 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Chlorobutane < Butane

(iii) Butane < 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Chlorobutane

(iv) Butane < 1-Chlorobutane < 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane

30. Which is the correct increasing order of boiling points of the following compounds?

1-Bromoethane, 1-Bromopropane, 1-Bromobutane, Bromobenzene

(i) Bromobenzene < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Bromopropane < 1-Bromoethane

(ii) Bromobenzene < 1-Bromoethane < 1-Bromopropane < 1-Bromobutane

(iii) 1-Bromopropane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Bromoethane < Bromobenzene

(iv) 1-Bromoethane < 1-Bromopropane < 1-Bromobutane < Bromobenzene

31. The process of converting alkyl halides into alcohols involves_____________.

(i) addition reaction

(ii) substitution reaction

(iii) dehydrohalogenation reaction

(iv) rearrangement reaction

32. Which of the following compounds is aromatic alcohol?

(i) A, B, C, D

(ii) A, D

(iii) B, C

(iv) A

33. Give IUPAC name of the compound given below.

(i) 2-Chloro-5-hydroxyhexane

(ii) 2-Hydroxy-5-chlorohexane

(iii) 5-Chlorohexan-2-ol

(iv) 2-Chlorohexan-5-ol

34. IUPAC name of m-cresol is ___________.

(i) 3-methylphenol

(ii) 3-chlorophenol

(iii) 3-methoxyphenol

(iv) benzene-1,3-diol

35. (i) 1-methoxy-1-methylethane

(ii) 2-methoxy-2-methylethane

(iii) 2-methoxypropane

(iv) isopropylmethyl ether

36. Which of the following species can act as the strongest base?

37. Which of the following compounds will react with sodium hydroxide solution in water?

(i) C6H5OH

(ii) C6H5CH2OH

(iii) (CH3)3COH

(iv) C2H5OH

38. Phenol is less acidic than ______________.

(i) ethanol

(ii) o-nitrophenol

(iii) o-methylphenol

(iv) o-methoxyphenol

39. Which of the following is most acidic?

(i) Benzyl alcohol

(ii) Cyclohexanol

(iii) Phenol

(iv) m-Chlorophenol

40. Mark the correct order of decreasing acid strength of the following compounds.

(i)e > d > b > a > c

(ii)b > d > a > c > e

(iii)d > e > c > b > a

(iv)e > d > c > b > a

41. Mark the correct increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds with HBr/HCl.

42. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of boiling point. Propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1-

ol

(i)Propan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol, pentan-1-ol

(ii)Propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1-ol

(iii)Pentan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol, propan-1-ol

(iv)Pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, propan-1-ol

Multiple Choice Questions(Type-II)

Note : In the following questions two or more options may be correct.

43. Which of the following are used to convert RCHO into RCH2OH?

(i) H2/Pd

(ii) LiAlH4

(iii) NaBH4

(iv) Reaction with RMgX followed by hydrolysis

44. Which of the following reactions will yield phenol?

45. Which of the following reagents can be used to oxidise primary alcohols to aldehydes?

(i)CrO3 in anhydrous medium.

(ii)KMnO4 in acidic medium.

(iii)Pyridinium chlorochromate.

(iv)Heat in the presence of Cu at 573K.

46. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the reactions with _________.

(i) Br2/water

(ii) Na

(iii) Neutral FeCl3

(iv) All the above

47. Which of the following are benzylic alcohols?

48. Addition of water to alkynes occurs in acidic medium and in the presence of Hg2+

ions as a catalyst. Which of the

following products will be formed on addition of water to but-1-yne under these conditions.

49. Which of the following compounds is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reactions?

50. The correct order of increasing acidic strength is _____________.

(i) Phenol < Ethanol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid

(ii) Ethanol < Phenol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid

(iii) Ethanol < Phenol < Acetic acid < Chloroacetic acid

(iv) Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid < Phenol < Ethanol

51.

(i) Phenol and benzoic acid in the presence of NaOH

(ii) Phenol and benzoyl chloride in the presence of pyridine

(iii) Phenol and benzoyl chloride in the presence of ZnCl2

(iv) Phenol and benzaldehyde in the presence of palladium

52. The reagent which does not react with both, acetone and benzaldehyde.

(i) Sodium hydrogensulphite

(ii) Phenyl hydrazine

(iii) Fehling’s solution

(iv) Grignard reagent

53. Cannizzaro’s reaction is not given by _____________.

54.

55. Structure of ‘A’ and type of isomerism in the above reaction are respectively.

(i) Prop–1–en–2–ol, metamerism

(ii) Prop-1-en-1-ol, tautomerism

(iii) Prop-2-en-2-ol, geometrical isomerism

(iv) Prop-1-en-2-ol, tautomerism

56. Compounds A and C in the following reaction are __________.

(i) identical

(ii) positional isomers

(iii) functional isomers

(iv) optical isomers

57. Which is the most suitable reagent for the following conversion?

(i) Tollen’s reagent

(ii) Benzoyl peroxide

(iii) I2 and NaOH solution

(iv) Sn and NaOH solution

58. Which of the following compounds will give butanone on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 solution?

(i) Butan-1-ol

(ii) Butan-2-ol

(iii) Both of these

(iv) None of these

59. In Clemmensen Reduction carbonyl compound is treated with _____________.

(i) Zinc amalgam + HCl

(ii) Sodium amalgam + HCl

(iii) Zinc amalgam + nitric acid

(iv) Sodium amalgam + HNO3

Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

Note : In the following questions two or more options may be correct.

60. Which of the following compounds do not undergo aldol condensation?

61.

(i) Phenol

(ii) Sodium phenoxide

(iii) Sodium benzoate

(iv) Benzophenone

62. Which of the following conversions can be carried out by Clemmensen Reduction?

(i) Benzaldehyde into benzyl alcohol

(ii) Cyclohexanone into cyclohexane

(iii) Benzoyl chloride into benzaldehyde

(iv) Benzophenone into diphenyl methane

63. Through which of the following reactions number of carbon atoms can be increased in the chain?

(i) Grignard reaction

(ii) Cannizaro’s reaction

(iii) Aldol condensation

(iv) HVZ reaction

64. Benzophenone can be obtained by ____________.

(i) Benzoyl chloride + Benzene + AlCl3

(ii) Benzoyl chloride + Diphenyl cadmium

(iii) Benzoyl chloride + Phenyl magnesium chloride

(iv) Benzene + Carbon monoxide + ZnCl2

65.

Q.1 The solubility of silver chromate is 8.25 x 10-5. What will be the solubility product (Ksp) of the

salt?

A) 3.246 x 10-11 B) 2.246 x 10-11 C) 3.246 x 10-12 D) 2.246 x 10-12

Q.2 The solubility product of lead bromide is 8.0 x 10-5. Find the solubility of the salt if it is 80%

dissociated in saturated solution in gm / L is (molecular weight of lead bromide = 367u)

A) 7.349 B) 6.899 C) 7.899 D) 6.349

Q.3 The change in pH if 0.02 mole of HCl is added to a buffer solution that was made by

dissolving 0.12 mole of NH3 and 0.095 mole of NH4Cl in 250ml of water.( Kb=1.8 x 10-5 ) is -

A) 0.25 B) 1.1 C) 0.8 D) 0.16

Q.4 What is the pH of 0.15M solution of phenol in water. ( Ka= 1.3 x 10-10 )

A) 6.1 B) 4.95 C) 5.1 D) 5.36

Q.5 At certain temperature KC = 4.5 for the reaction N2O4(G) 2NO2(G). If 0.3 mole of N2O4 is

placed in a 2.0 L container at that temperature the equilibrium concentration of N2O4 and

NO2 gases respectively are -

A) 0.019 and 0.268 B) 0.016 and 0.342 C) 0.019 and 0.342 D) 0.016 and 0.268

Q.6 Analysis of 0.3 gm of an organic compound containing Sulphur gave 0.4gm of BaSO4 when

analyzed using Carius tube. The percentage of Sulphur in the compound is - (BaSO4 =

233u)

A) 18.3 B) 19.8 C) 17.2 D) 20.5

Q.7 In estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound (0.35gm) by Kjeldahl’s method. The

ammonia evolved is neutralized by passing through 60 ml of 0.2M H2SO4. The excess of

acid required 22ml of 0.2M NaOH for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the

organic compound is -

A) 28.9 B) 30.4 C) 32.5 D) 33.5

Q.8 0.21gm of an organic compound on complete combustion gave 0.307gm of CO2 and

0.127gm of H2O. The percentage of C and H in the organic compound

respectively are ___ & ___

A) 39.87 and 6.72 B) 45.21 and 5.2 C) 45.21 and 6.27 D) 39.27 and 5.2

Q.9 Which of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic attack?

A) C6H5 – OH B) C6H5 – Cl C) C6H5 – CH2 – OH D) C6H5 NO2

Q.10 The relative rate of addition of –

(CH3)2 C = C(CH3)2 (CH3)2 C = CH(CH3) CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2

(1) (2) (3)

CH2 = CH2 CH2 = CH – COOH

(4) (5)

A) 1>2>3>4>5 B) 5>4>3>2>1 C) 2>3>1>4>5 D) 4>3>2>5>1

Q.11 Which of the following structures correspond to the product expected, when excess of C6H6

reacts with CH2Cl2 in presence of anhydrous AlCl3

A) Cl B) C6H5 – CH – Cl C) Cl D) C6H5 – CH2 – C6H5

| | | C6H5 – CH – C6H5 Cl C6H5 – C – C6H5

| Cl

Q.12 The relative stabilities of the following carbocations is in the order

H3C – O – – CH2+

– CH2+

H3C – – CH2+

CH3 – CH2+

(1) (2) (3) (4)

A) 1<2<3<4 B) 4<3<2<1 C) 4<2<3<1 D) 2<4<3<1

Q.13 Electricity is passed through a colloidal solution then it is called as

A) Brownian movement B) cataphoresis C) electroosmosis D) tyndall effect

Q.14 The shrinking of gel on standing for a long time is known as

A) Weeping gel B) Synresis C) Both A and B D) None of these

Q.15 An aerosol is a

A) Dispersion of solid or liquid in gas B) Dispersion solid in a liquid

C) Dispersion liquid in a liquid D) Solid solution

Q.16 Which of the following will be most effective in coagulation of Fe(OH)3 sol containing little

excess quantity of FeCl3

A) KCN B) BaCl2 C) NaCl D) Mg3(PO4)2

Q.17 Alum is added to muddy water because

A) It act as a disinfectant B) It results in coagulation of clay and sand

C) Clay is soluble in alum hence removes it D) It makes water alkaline which is good for health

Q.18 Which of the following act as a protective colloid ?

A) Silica gel B) Gelatin C) Sodium acetate D) AgI

Q.19 Which of the following represent a auto catalytic reaction ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.20 Tyndall effect is more pronounced in

A) Lyophilic sol B) Lyophobic sol C) Starch sol D) Both A and B

Q.21 H3BO3 is -

A) Monobasic and weak lewis acid B) Monobasic and weak bronsted acid

C) Monobasic and strong lewis acid D) Tribasic and

weak bronsted acid

Q.22 The main factor for shorter B—F bond in BF3 is -

A) Ionic colvalent resonance in BF3 B) Large electronegativity of fluorine

C) Pπ - Pπ back bonding D) dπ - pπ back bonding

Q.23 Which of the following oxide is amphoteric in character

A) CaO B) CO2 C) SiO2 D) SnO2

Q.24 SiF4 get hydrolysed giving ------------

A) SiO2 B) Si(OH)2F2 C) H2SiF6 D) Si(OH)4

Q.25 The number of P—O sigma bond in P4O10 is -

A) 17 B) 16 C) 15 D) 06

Q.26 The primary standard solution for the estimation of Na2S2O3 is -

A) I2 solution B) KMnO4 C) K2Cr2O7 D) Oxalic acid

Q.27 Asthama patient used a mixture of ----------- for respiration

A) O2 and N2O B) O2 and He C) O2 and NH3 D) O2 and CO

Q.28 The bond dissociation enthalpy of X—X bond follows the order ( X= halogen )

A) F2> Cl2>Br2>I2 B) I2 > Br2>Cl2>F2 C) F2>Cl2>I2>Br2 D) Cl2>Br2> F2>I2

Q.29 Which of the following is the most important factor in making fluorine as the strongest

oxidizing agent -

A) Electron affinity B) Bond dissociation enthalpy

C) Hydration enthalpy D) Ionization enthalpy

Q.30 The structure of XeO3 is

A) Linear B) Trigonal Planar C) Pyramidal D) T-shaped

Q.31 Calculate the enthalpy of vaporization of SO2 at – 25°C , if the same at its boiling point

(-10°C ) be 5950 cal/ mole . Given the molar heat capacities, CP(l) = 20.6cal/mole and

Cp(g)= 9.3 cal/mole.

a) 6119.5 cal/mole b) 5780.5 cal/mole c) 5950ccal/ mole d) 5011 cal /mole

Q.32 One mole of an ideal gas undergoes change in state ( 2.0 atm, 3.0L, 95K ) → ( 4.0atm, 5.0

L , 245 K) with the change in internal energy , ∆U= 30.0 L atm. The change in enthalpy in

the process in L atm. is

a) 40.0 b) 42.3 c) 44 d) 45

Q.33 A gas can expand from 100ml to 250ml under a constant pressure of 2 atm. The work

done by the ideal gas in joule is

a) 30.38 b) 25 c) 5000 d) 16

Q.34 The ∆fH° for CO2, CO and H2O in gaseous states are -393.5, -110 and -241.8 KJ/mole

respectively . the standard enthalpy change for the reaction CO2(g) + H2(g) → CO(g) +H2O(g)

in kJ/mole is

a) 524.1 b) 41.2 c) -262.5 d) -41.2

Q.35 Which of the following is correct for the reaction ∆H = +ve , and ∆S =+ve

a) Spontaneous at high temperature b) Spontaneous at low temperature

c) Spontaneous at all temperature d) Non-Spontaneous at all temperature

Q.36 The catalyst used for the polymerization of olefin is

a) Zeigler Natta catalyst b) Wilkinson catalyst

c) Pd catalyst d) Zeolite

Q.37 Which of the following contains only thermoplastics?

a) Polythene , Bakelite , Nylon 6 b) Glyptal, Melamac, PAN

c) PVC, PMMA, Polystyrene d) Polypropelene, urea-

formaldehyde,Teflon

Q.38 Of the following which is not a homo-polymer

a) Bakelite b) Polythene c) Teflon d) PVC

Q.39 The manufacture of Nylon 6,6 involves condensation of

a) Phenol and formaldehyde b) Urea and formaldehyde

c) Adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine d) Ethylene glycol and phthalic acid

Q.40 Fe+2 ion is distinguished from Fe+3 ion by

a) BaCl2 b) KCN c) NaNO3 d) NH4SCN

Q.41. Which of the following metal is correctly matched with its ore?

Metal Ore

A. Zinc Calamine

B. Silver Limenite

C. Magnesium Cassiterite

D. Tin Azurite

Q.42 In the process of extraction of gold

Roasted gold ore +CN- + H2O → 2O

[X] + OH-

[X] + Zn → [Y] + Au

a) [X] = [Au(CN)2]- , [Y] = [Zn(CN)4]

-2 b) [X] = [Au(CN)4]

-3 , [Y] = [Zn(CN)4]

-2

c) [X] = [Au(CN)2]- , [Y] = [Zn(CN)6]

-4 d) [X] = [Au(CN)4]

- , [Y] = [Zn(CN)4]

-2

Q.43 An aqueous solution of a substance gives a white precipitate on treatment with dilute

hydrochloric acid, which dissolves on heating. When hydrogen sulphide is passed

through the hot acidic solution, a black precipitate is obtained. The

substance is a –

a) Hg22+ salt b) Cu2+ salt c) Ag+ salt d) Pb2+ salt

Q44. Identify the correct matching from the codes gives below.

a AgNO3 + NaCNS 1. Yellow

b AgNO3 + Na3PO4 2. White

c AgNO3 + K2CrO4 3. Black

d AgNO3 + Na2 S 4 Brick red

a b c d

a) 2 1 4 3

b) 2 1 3 4

c) 2 4 3 1

d) 2 3 4 1

Q.45 Ferric chloride is used for etching copper and silver metals. This is due to

a) Oxidising action of Fe3+ ions

b) Reducing action of Fe3+ ions

c) Both oxidizing and reducing action of Fe3+ ions

d) Reducing action of Fe2+ ion

Q.46 A catalyst

a) lowers the activation energy b) change the rate constant

c) change the product d) itself destroys in the reaction

Q.47 Consider a reaction aG + bH → products. When concentration of both the reactants G

and H is doubled, the rate increases by eight times. However, when concentration of G is

doubled keeping the concentration of H fixed, the rate is doubled. The order of the

reaction with respect to G and H respectively is -

a) 0, 3 b) 0.5, 2.5 c) 2, 1 d) 1, 2

Q48 A substance undergoes first order decomposition. The decomposition follows two

parallel first order reaction as –

k1 = 1.2 x 10-4 s-1 and k2 = 3.8 x 10-5 s-1

The percentage distribution of Y and Z are –

a) 80% Y and 20% Z b) 76.83% Y and 23.17% Z

c) 90% Y and 10% Z d) 60% Y and 40% Z

Q49 Select the rate law that corresponds to the data shown for the following reaction :

A + B → Products

Expt. [A] [B] Initial rate

1 0.012 0.035 0.1

2 0.024 0.070 0.8

3 0.024 0.035 0.1

4 0.012 0.070 0.8

a) rate = k[B]3 b) rate = k[B]4 c) rate = k[A] [B] d) rate = k [A]2 [B]2

Q.50 The rate constants for forward and backward reactions of hydrolysis of ethyl acetate are

1.1 x 10-2 and 1.5 x 10-3 minute-1 respectively. The equilibrium constant for the reaction

is –

a) 7.33 b) 0.733 c) 73.3 d) 733

Q.51 The activation energy for a reaction is 9.0 kcal/mol. The increase in the rate constant

when its temperature is increased from 298 K to 308 K is –

a) 10% b) 100% c) 50% d) 63%

Q.52 The half life of a reaction is halved as the initial concentration is doubled. The order of

reaction is –

a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 2 d) 0

Q53. During electrolysis of water the volume of O2 liberated is 2.24 dm3. The volume of

hydrogen liberated, under same conditions will be –

a) 2.24 dm3 b) 1.12 dm3 c) 4.48 dm3 d) 0.56 dm3

Q54. In acidic medium MnO4- is converted to Mn2+. The quantity of electricity in faraday

required to reduce 0.5 mole of MnO4- to Mn2+ would be

a) 2.5 b) 5 c) 1 d) 0.5

Q.55 Calculate the volume of H2 gas at NTP obtained by passing 4 amperes through acidified

H2O for 30 minutes is –

a) 0.0836 L b) 0.0432 L c) 0.1672 L d) 0.836 L

Q.56 Which of the following acts as an oxidizing as well as reducing agent ?

a) Na2O b) Na2O2 c) NaNO3 d) NaNO2

Q57 On the basis of the information available from the reaction .

4/3 Al+O2 → 2/3 Al2O3; ∆G = -827 kJ/mol-1 the minimum emf required to carry the

electrolysis of Al2O3 is (F = 96500 C mol-1).

a) 2.14 V b) 4.28V c) 6.42 V d) 8.56 V

Q.58 Specific conductance of 0.01 N KCl solution is x ohm-1 cm-1 having conductance y ohm-1

Spefic conductance of 0.01 N NaCl having conductance z ohm-1 is –

a) xy/z b) xz/y c) z/xy d) none of these

Q.59 Electrochemical equivalent of a divalent metal is 3x10-4. The approx. atomic mass of the

metal is –

a) 107.8 b) 63.8 c) 58 d) 55.8

Q60 The coefficients of I-, IO3

- and H

+ in the redox reaction

I- + IO3

- + H

+ → I2 + H2O in the balanced form respectively are :

a) 5, 1, 6 b) 1, 5, 6 c) 6, 1, 5 d) 5, 6, 1

Q.31 The bond energies of C – C, C = C, H – H and C – H linkages are 350, 600, 400 and 410 kJ per

mole respectively. The heat of hydrogenation of ethylene is -

a) -170 kJ mol-1

b) -260 kJ mol-1

c) -400 kJ mol-1

d) -450 kJ mol-1

Q.32 An ideal gas expands in volume from 1×10-3

m3

to 1×10-2

m3 at 300K against a constant

pressure of 1×105 Nm

-2. The work done is -

a) -900 J b) -900 kJ c) 270 kJ d) 900 kJ

Q.33 When one mole of a monoatomic ideal gas at initial temperature T K expands adiabatically

from 1 litre to 2 litre, the final temperature in Kelvin would be -

a) T b) T/2

2/3 c) T -

0821.03

2

× d) T +

0821.03

2

×

Q.34 Which of the following indicates the heat of reaction equal to heat of formation ?

a) C(graphite) + O2 (1 atm) → CO2 (1 atm) b) C(diamond) + O2 (1 atm) → CO2 (2 atm)

c) C(graphite) + O2 (1 atm) → CO2 (2 atm) d) C(diamond) + O2 (1 atm) → CO2 (1 atm)

Q.35 The value of ∆H – ∆U for the following reaction at 270C will be 2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g)

a) 8.314×273×(-2) b) 8.314×300×2 c) 8.314 × 27 × 2 d) 8.314 × 300 × 1

Q.36 What would be the heat released when an aqueous solution containing 0.5 mol of HNO3 is

mixed with 0.3 mol of OH- (enthalpy of neutralization is -57.1 kJ) ?

a) 28.5 kJ b) 17.1 kJ c) 45.7 kJ d) 1.7 kJ

Q.37 For the reaction A(g) + 2B(g) → 2C(g) + 3D(g) the change of enthalpy at 270C is 19 kcal. The

value of ∆U is -

a) 21.2 k cal b) 17.8 k cal c) 18.4 k cal d) 20.6 k cal

Q.38 If an endothermic reaction is non-spontaneous at freezing point of water and becomes

feasible at its boiling point then :

a) ∆H is –ve, ∆S is +ve b) ∆H and ∆S both are +ve

c) ∆H and ∆S both are –ve d) ∆H is +ve, ∆S is -ve

Q.39 The latent heat of vaporization of water is 9700 cal/mole and if the b.p. is 1000C, the

ebullioscopic constant of water is -

a) 0.5160

b) 1.0260

c) 1.8320

d) 10.260

Q.40 If liquids A and B form an ideal solution

a) the enthalpy of mixing is zero b) the entropy of mixing is zero

c) the free energy of mixing is zero d) the free energy as well as the entropy of

mixing are each zero

Q.41 Which of the following liquid pairs will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law?

a) Water-

hydrochloric acid

b) Water-nitric

acid

c) Acetone-

chloroform

d) Benzene-

methanol

Q.42 A 0.004 M solution of Na2SO4 is isotonic with a 0.010 M glucose solution at same

temperature. The apparent degree of dissociation of Na2SO4 is :

a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 85%

Q.43 What is the effect of the addition of sugar on the boiling and freezing points of water?

a) Both boiling and freezing points increase b) Both boiling and freezing points decrease

c) Boiling point decreases and freezing

point increases

d) Boiling point increases and freezing point

decreases

Q.44 100 mL of 0.04 N HCl aqueous solution is mixed with 100 mL of 0.02 N NaOH solution. The

pH of the resulting solution is :

a) 1.0 b) 1.7 c) 2.0 d) 2.3

Q.45 Which has the minimum freezing point ?

a) One molal NaCl

aq. solution

b) One molal CaCl2

aq. solution

c) One molal KCl

aq. solution

d) One molal Urea

aq. solution

Q.46 Depression in freezing point is 6K for NaCl solution if Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol-1

, number

of moles of NaCl dissolved in 1kg water is :

a) 3.42 b) 1.62 c) 3.24 d) 1.71

Q.47 Each of three metals X, Y and Z were put in turn into aqueous solution of the other two. e.g.,

X + salt of Y (or Z) → Y or (Z) + salt of X. Which observation is incorrect?

a) Y + salt of X → No

action observed

b) Y + salt of Z → Z

+ salt of Y

c) Z + salt of X → X

+ salt of Z

d) Z + salt of Y→ No

action observed

Q.48 CH3COOH is neutralized by NaOH. Conductometric titration curve will be of the type

a)

b)

c)

d)

Q.49 Zn / Zn2+

(C1) || Zn2+

(C2) / Zn. For this cell ∆G is –ve if

a) C1 = C2 b) C1 > C2 c) C2 > C1 d) none of these

Q.50 When a lead storage battery is discharged

a) SO2 is evolved b) lead sulphate is

consumed

c) lead is formed d) sulphuric acid is

consumed

Q.51 In the balanced chemical equation :

IO3- + aI

- + bH

+ → cH2O + dI2

a, b, c and d respectively correspond to -

a) 5,6,3,3 b) 5,3,6,3 c) 3,5,3,6 d) 5,6,5,3

Q.52 The potential of hydrogen electrode having a pH = 10 is

a) 0.59 V b) - 0.59 V c) 0 V d) - 0.059 V

Q.53 The charge in coulombs on 1 g ion of N3-

is -

a) 96500 b) 2.89×105

c) 1.45×106

d) 6×1023

Q.54 Which has maximum conductivity -

a) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] b) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl c) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 d) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3

Q.55 In a first order reaction the concentration of reactant decreases from 800 mol/dm3

to 50

mol/dm3 in 2×10

4 sec. The rate constant of reaction in sec

-1 is -

a) 2×104

b) 3.45×10-5

c) 1.386×10-4

d) 2×10-4

Q.56 The minimum energy required for the reactant molecules to undergo reaction is -

a) potential energy b) kinetic energy c) thermal energy d) activation energy

Q.57 The phenomenon of emission of visible light as a result of chemical change is known as :

a) chemiluminescene b) fluorescene c) phosphorescence d) photosensitization

Q.58 For the reaction : 2A + B → C + D, measurement of the rate of the reaction at varying

concentrations are given below :

Trial No. [A] [B] rate (in mol L-1

s-1

)

1

2

3

0.010

0.010

0.030

0.010

0.020

0.020

2.5

5.0

45.0

The rate law is therefore

a) rate = k [A]2 [B] b) rate = k [A]

[B]2

c) rate = k [A] [B] d) rate = k [A]2 [B]

2

Q.59 The rate constant is doubled when temperature increases from 270C to 37

0C. Activation

energy in kJ is -

a) 34 b) 54 c) 100 d) 50

Q.60 For a reaction of the type :

aA + bB → Products : dt

Ad ][−is equal to

a)

dt

Bd ][−

b)

d

b−

dt

Bd ][

c)

b

a− ×

dt

Bd ][

d)

a

b− ×

dt

Bd ][