2005 pilotnbde (part i)
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8/16/2019 2005 PilotNBDE (Part I)
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1
WhQt Qre
pre omimnt
linkages in glycogen
between glucose units?
A
Alpha-1,4
B.
Alpha-1,6
C. Beta-1,3
D
Beta-1,4
E.
8eta-1,6
2 In
fermentation, the final electron acceptor is
A
water.
B.
oxygen.
C. carbon dioxide.
D
an organic compound.
E.
an inorganic compound.
3
Which of the following primary teeth
is MOST
likely to have
an
oblique ridge?
A
Maxillary canine
B. Maxillary first molar
C.
Maxillary second molar
D Mandibular first molar
E.
Mandibular second molar
4 Each of the following structures is found in the
infratemporal fossae EXCEPT one. Which one
is this EXCEPTION?
A
Lingual nerve
B.
Medial pterygoid muscle
C. Inferior alveolar nerve
D
Pterygopalatine ganglion
E.
Pterygoid venous plexus
5 Each of the following cranial nerves is
associated with the cavernous sinus EXCEPT
one. Which one
is
this EXCEf / ION?
6
A
Facial
B.
Abducens
C. Trochlear
D. Trigeminal
E.
Oculomotor
Calcium dipicolinate is present in 18I ge amounts
in
A.
B.
C
D
E.
spores.
flagella.
mesosomes.
ribosomes.
mitochondria.
7. When compared to the
primary
mandibular first
molar, the primary mandibular second molar
normally exhibits a
GREA
TER number of which
of the following?
A. Oblique ridges
B. Roots
C
Cusps
D
Cervical ridges
E.
Transverse ridges
8 Which
of
the following describes the movement
of glycine molecules in an electric field at a pH of
6.06 (the isoelectric
pH
for glycine)? The glycine
molecules will
A. not move.
B. move to the anode.
C.
move to the cathode.
D. move to both anode and cathode.
9
Zinc is an essential component of which of the
following?
A. Pepsin
B. Amylase
C Hexokinase
D.
Adenylate cyclase
E Carbonic anhydrase
10
Which of the following cancers typically arises
in
teenagers and young adults?
A
Wilms tumor
B. Angiosarcoma
C.
Ewing s sarcoma
D Multiple myeloma
E.
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
11 Each of the following muscles usually appears
in
the floor of the posterior triangle EX EPT
one. hich one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Sternohyoid
B. Medius scalene
C. Splenius capitis
D. Levator scapulae
E.
Anterior belly
of
omohyoid
12 In
an
ideal intercuspal relation, the mesiofacial
cusp of the maxillary first molar opposes which
morphologic entity of the mandibular first molar?
A Central fossa
B. Lingual groove
C. Distofacial groove
D. Mesiofacial groove
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13. Three days ago, a patient received her third
immunization with tetanus toxoid. What class of
antibodies specific for tetanus t?xoid would one
expect
to
find in her serum?
A
Similar concentrations of IgM and IgG
B
High concentrations of both IgM and IgD
C Low concentration of IgM; high
concentration of IgE
D
Low concentration of IgM; high
concentration of IgG
E
High concentration of IgM; low
concentration of IgG
14. Facilitated diffusion
DIFFERS
from active
transport in that net transport by facilitated
diffusion
A
has a transport maximum.
B
uses ATP as an energy source.
C
requires a concentration gradient.
D
occurs
as
an endergonic (positive
f\..G
process.
15. Mucosa of the anterior two-thirds
of
the tongue
develops
primarily
from
A Rathke s pouch.
B. tuberculum impar.
C
foregut endoderm.
D. hypobranchial eminence.
E. lateral lingual swellings.
16. Each of the following statements regarding
aldosterone
is
correct
EX EPT
one. Which one
is this
EXCEPTION
A
Is
a mineralocorticoid.
B
Increases Na+ uptake from the kidneys.
C
Production
is
stimulated by angiotensin II.
D
Is produced in the zona fasciculata of the
adrenal cortex.
17. Interstitial pulmonary inflammation is
MOST
characteristic of
A
viral pneumonia.
B
bacterial pneumonia.
C
lung abscess.
D
bronchial asthma.
E
bronchopneumonia.
18. The occlusal outline of a mandibular first molar
is
similar to a
A
circle.
B
square.
C. hexagon.
D pentagon
E
rhomboid.
19. Which
of
the following statements
is
correct w
respect to mastication of food?
A
Food
is
masticated primarily
in
a border
movement.
B. Food is masticated primarily in lateral
contacting movement.
C.
An
ideal occlusion is a requisite for
masticatory efficiency.
D. Proper incisor contact
is
a requisite for
masticatory efficiency.
E. Indigestion is generally related to
inadequate mastication of food.
20. Human papillomaviruses
16
and 18 are strong
correlated with the appearance of
A
genital warts.
B. plantar warts.
C. cutaneous warts.
D. uterine cancer.
E. cervical cancer.
21. The sensory receptors serving the stretch refle
are classified as
A
nociceptors.
B chemoreceptors.
C proprioceptors.
D exteroceptors.
22. Which of the following muscles participates
flexion at the gleno-humeral and the humero
ulnar joints?
A Deltoid
B. Brachialis
C
Biceps brachii
D. Triceps brachii
E. Coracobrachialis
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23. During fetal development, blood is shunted from
the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch by means
of the
A. foramen ovale.
B. sinus venosus.
C. ductus venosus.
D. ductus arteriosus.
E foramen secundum.
24. Which of the following factors MOST influences
the lingual concavity of the maxillary anterior
teeth and groove direction of the posterior teeth?
A Anterior guidance
B. Angle of the eminence
C. Curve of the occlusion
D. Sideshift of the mandible (Bennett
movement)
E
Direction of movement of the rotating
condyle
25. Rough pneumococci grown in the presence of
DNA from dead smooth pneumococci develop
capsules. This is an
example of bacterial
A. mutation.
B. dominance.
C.
conjugation.
D. transduction.
E
transformation.
26. Which of the following base pairs promotes helix
stabilization in DNA but does
NOT
do
so
in RNA?
A.
G C
B. A-T
C. G-U
D. C-T
E. A-U
27.
Blood from the cephalic vein drains into which
of the following veins?
A Basilic
B. Brachiocephalic
C. Axillary
D.
Internal thoracic
E. Superior vena cava
28. The junction between the tooth surface and the
crevicular epithelium is composed of which of
the following?
A.
Cementoid
B. Tight junction
C. Intermediate filaments
D.
Basal lamina-like structure
E Interstitial crevicular fluid
29. If the anticodon on transfer-RNA is 5 ACG3 ,
then which of the following is its corresponding
codon on messenger-RNA?
A
5 CGT 3
B 5 CGU 3
C. 5 TGC 3
D 5 UAG 3
E 5 UGC 3
30. On the crown of the
primary
maxillary first
molar, the mesial surface normally
A. is larger than the distal surface of the
same tooth.
B.
exhibits a concave lingual outline.
C. is wider occlusocervically than
buccolingually.
D.
exhibits a straight cervical line.
E.
is wider buccolingually at the occlusal
table than at the cervical third.
31 Staphylococcus aureus
OST
commonly
causes
A. skin infections.
B. septicemia.
C
sore throat.
D chronic infections.
E.
exogenous infections.
32. Each of the following is characteristic of herpes
zoster EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION
A Unilateral
B, Usually involves 1-3 dermatomes.
C. Occurs repeatedly in immunocompetent
patients.
D Only occurs in an individual having a
latent
VZV
infection.
E
More common in individuals who are
immunocompromised.
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33. Which of the following describes the contact
relationship between a maxillary central incisor
and a maxillary lateral incisor?
A
Contact
is
offset
to
the lingual.
B. Contact is centered incisocervically.
C. Lingual embrasure is larger than the facial
embrasure.
D.
Incisal embrasure is the largest of all the
embrasures.
34. Which
of
the following shows a relative
INCREASE
as
the dental pulp ages?
A
Number of fibroblasts
B.
Number of odontoblasts
C. Number of blood vessels
D. Size of the pulp chamber
E.
Amount of fibrous connective tissue
35. The rapid emergence of new strains of human
immunodeficiency virus is primarily the result of
A. the frequent genomic recombination
between human immunodeficiency virus
and other retroviruses.
S.
frequent errors in
the
translation of viral
proteins.
C. the lack of immune response to the viral
envelope glycoprotein.
D. frequent errors introduced by viral reverse
transcriptase.
E. the imprecision of protein cleavage by viral
protease.
36. Mesial
and
distal pulp horns are MORE likely to
be
found
in
which of the following teeth?
A Maxillary central incisors
B. Mandibular central incisors
C Mandibular canines
D. Maxillary first premolars
E. Mandibular first premolars
3 7. The major sensory nerve
to
the parietal
pericardium branches
from
which of the
following nerves?
A
Vagus
B.
Musculophrenic
C. Intercostal
D. Phrenic
E. Internal thoracic
38. Which of the following muscles
is MOST
concerned
in
quiet respiration?
A Rhomboid
B.
Diaphragm
C. Subclavius
D. Sacrospinalis
E.
Pectoralis major
39. Before swallowing can be initiated, afferent
information must be received
A.
B
C.
D.
from muscle spindles, indicating the
consistency of a soft bolus of food.
in
a lesser amount from nociceptors,
indicating a soft bolus of food.
from mucosal mechanoreceptors, indica
the consistency of a soft bolus of food.
from pharyngeal taste receptors, indicat
the consistency of a soft bolus of food.
40. When the mandible moves to the right, the
mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary right first
molar passes through which groove of the
mandibular right first molar?
A. Mesiomarginal
B.
Distofacial
C. Mesiofacial
D. Lingual
E.
Central
41. The antigenic component of which of the
following vaccines is a capsular antigen?
A. Influenza
B.
Poliovirus
C. Hepatitis B
D Haemophilus influenzae
42. Coupled respiration requires each
of
the
following EXCEPT one. Which one
is
this
EXCEPTION
A.
ADP
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Electron donor
E. Inorganic phosphate
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43 As
the severity of periodontal disease
progresses, there is an increase in plasma cells
that produce which of the following'
A. slgA
B IgD
C IgE
0,
IgG
E IgM
44 Which of the following is a complication of
cirrhosis?
A. Splenic atrophy
B Hepatic angioma formation
C Obstruction of portal circulation
0,
Increased plasma protein formation
E
Decreased central venous pressure
45 Which of the following is produced when a
mutation occurs in an enzyme controlling a
signal pathway involved in cell growth
processes?
A. Epigene
B Antigene
C. Oncogene
D. Monogene
E. Transgene
46 DNA that is complementary to mRNA can be
made using which of the following?
A.
A plasmid
B DNA ligase
C
A retrovirus
D. RNA polymerase
E Reverse transcriptase
47 Which of the following groups of organs is
retroperitoneal?
A
Pancreas, transverse colon, and
descending colon
B Pancreas, stomach, and ovary
C Kidney, transverse colon, and ovary
D.
Ureter, gallbladder, and transverse colon
E Kidney, adrenal, and rectum
48. Each of the following derives from a phar
pouch EXCEPT one, Which one
is
this
EXCEPTION
A Thymus
B Parathyroid
C Parotid gland
D.
Auditory tube
E. Palatine tonsil
49 The arrow in the illustration below indica
path taken by opposing cusps. The ma
movement indicated is
A. protrusive.
B
right lateral; laterotrusive.
C left lateral; laterotrusive.
D. right lateral; mediotrusive.
E. left lateral; mediotrusive.
50 Which of the following is caused by vitam
deficiency in adults?
A. Rickets
B. Myxedema
C Acromegaly
D.
Osteomalacia
E
Osteitis fibrosa cystica
51 In
unilateral balanced occlusion, contact b
lower buccal cusps and upper buccal cusp
along with simultaneous contact between
lingual cusps and upper lingual cusps, wil
likely occur
in
which of the following types
mandibular movements?
A. Laterotrusive
B. Mediotrusive
C. Straight retrusive
D. Straight protrusive
52 The buccal mucosa typically has which o
following epithelia?
A. Simple columnar
B Pseudostratified columnar
C Non-keratinized, stratified squamous
0, Parakeratinized, stratified squamous
E.
Orthokeratinized, stratified squamou
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74. Following eruption and initial occlusal contact in
the oral cavity, a tooth will continue to erupt in
order to compensate for occlusal wear. In
response to this continuous eruption, which o
the following is deposited at the apex
o
the root?
A
Primary dentin
B Secondary dentin
C Reparative dentin
D Cellular cementum
E
Acellular cementum
75
Which of the following would produce the greatest
DECREASE in
resistance in a single artery
2
mm
long and with a radius of
1 2
mm?
A A halving in length
B A doubling in length
C
An increase
in
radius by a factor of
2
D
A decrease in blood viscosity by a factor
of 2
76. Which of the following
BEST
describes a centric
holding cusp of a mandibular left second molar?
A
B
C
D
It is the distofacial cusp and occludes in the
embrasure between maxillary first and
second molars.
It is the distofacial cusp and occludes
in
the
central fossa of a maxillary second molar.
It is the distolingual cusp and occludes in
the embrasure between maxillary first and
second rnolars.
It is the distolingual cusp and occludes in
the central fossa of a maxillary second
molar.
77. Oral streptococci are usually
A gamma-hemolytic.
B alpha-hemolytic.
C beta-hemolytic.
D
non-hemolytic.
78. The cell membrane is LE ST permeable to
which of the following substances?
A
02
B
CO2
C
H2O
D
Sodium
E
Ethanol
79
Which of the following types of dentin
is
the
MOST
highly mineralized?
A Carious
B Predentin
C
Intertubular
D
Interglobular
E Intra peri)tubular
80 Each of the following can be found in the dent
pulp EX EPT one. Which one
is
this
EXCEPTION
A Nerve tissue
B. Blood vessels
C. Cernentoblasts
D. Lyrnph vessels
81
According to the Spaulding Classification
System for contaminated items and surfaces,
semi-critical items should be reprocessed by
A exposure to ethylene oxide.
B
a spray-wipe-spray technique.
C imersion in a tuberculocidal disinfectant.
D washing with a chlorhexidine gluconate
disinfectant.
E
heat stabilization if the material is heat
stable.
82.
In
the contractile cycle, the dissociation of the
actomyosin complex results
MOST
immediatel
from
A
A TP hydrolysis.
B release of ATP hydrolysis products.
C ATP replacing ADP on the myosin heads
D
tilting of the myosin heads crossbridges)
83. Which of the following represents the
consequence of the fact that DNA strands are
complementary?
A Hairpin loop structures can
be
generated
B They will always have identical sequence
C Separated strands are able to reassociate
D
They cannot get back together once
separated
84. Which o the following predominates
in
steroid
producing cells?
A Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C Golgi apparatus
D
Phagosomes
E Nucleolus
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85 The spacing between anterior teeth
in
the
primary dentition
is
MOSTfrequently caused by
A thumb-sucking.
B tongue thrusting.
C transseptal gingival fibers.
D
the growth of the dental arches.
E the pressure from succedaneous teeth.
86 Each
of the following types of cells is
phagocytic EX EPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION
A Monocyte
B Histiocyte
C
Neutrophil
D Macrophage
E Lymphocyte
87 Which of the following
is MOST
likely to
promote depolymerization
of
extracellular
matrix?
A Cortisone
B Collagenase
C
Chymotrypsin
D
Hyaluronidase
88 In the intercuspal position, which of the
following anterior teeth has the potential of
contacting both anterior and posterior
antagonists?
A
Maxillary lateral incisor
B
Mandibular lateral incisor
C Maxillary canine
D Mandibular canine
89 In the oral region, the lingual artery usually is
found between the
A lingual and hypoglossal nerves.
B mylohyoid and geniohyoid muscles.
C
hyoglossus
and
genioglossus muscles.
D sublingual duct and hypoglossal nerve.
E oral mucous membrane and the anterior
belly of the digastric muscle.
90. Each of the following is a type of inflammatory
exudate EXCEPT one. Which one
is
this
EXCEPTION?
A Suppurative
B
Fibrous
C Purulent
D Fibrinous
E Pseudomembranous
91. A substance alters the
rate
of an enzymatic
reaction by binding to
the
enzyme at a site other
than the active site. The substance described
is
a
an)
A uncoupler.
B covalent modifier.
C. allosteric inhibitor.
D. competitive inhibitor.
E. post-translational modifier.
92
On
a maxillary first molar, the occlusal outline
contains two obtuse and two acute angles. The
acute line angles are
A. mesiolingual and distolingual.
B. mesiofacial and distolingual.
C. mesiolingual and distofacial.
D. mesiofacial and distofacial.
E. distofacial and distolingual.
93 When T-cells from patients who have chronic
periodontal disease react with certain plaque
bacterial antigens, they produce each of the
following
EX EPT
one. Which one
is
this
EXCEPTION
A Immunoglobulin
B IL-2
C T N F ~
D IFN-y
94. During which of the following would blood flow
to the coronary arteries
be
GREA TEST in a
resting individual?
A Isovolumic contraction
B
Ventricular ejection
C Atrial contraction
D Ventricular relaxation
95. Atropine prevents the secretion of saliva
resulting from stimulation of the chorda tympani
because it
A denatures the salivary gland proteins.
B
prevents the action of acetylcholine on the
secreting cells.
C prevents release of acetylcholine by
sympathetic postganglionic fibers.
D prevents release of acetylcholine
in
autonomic ganglia.
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96. If the point of a needle enters the parotid gland
during an inferior alveolar injection and solution is
deposited in the gland, the
OST
likely result is
A
paralysis of the buccinator muscle.
B paralysis of the temporalis muscle.
C
paresthesia of the lingual nerve.
D paralysis of temporal tympani.
E a hematoma of the pterygoid venous
plexus.
97. Which of the following promotes edema?
A. Increased blood proteins
B Increased sodium excretion
C Decreased lymphatic drainage
D
Decreased venule blood pressure
E
Increased plasma osmotic pressure
98. Which
of
the following ESTdescribes the
primary ionic movement during the
depolarization phase of a nerve action
potential?
A Potassium ions moving from inside to
outside the membrane
B Potassium ions moving into the fiber from
interstitial fluid
C
Large organic-negative ions moving from
inside the fiber to outside the fiber
D Sodium ions moving from inside the
membrane to outside the membrane
E Sodium ions moving from outside the
membrane to inside the membrane
99. A mature ovum
is
expelled from which of the
following?
A
Corpus luteum
B Corpus albicans
C
Graafian follicles
D Corpus hemorrhagicum
100. Which of the following is the characteristic
immunoglobulin present
in
human external
secret ions i.e. saliva, tears, intestinal juice)?
A
Monomeric
IgE
B
Monomeric IgA
C Polymeric IgG4
D Polymeric IgA
E Secretory IgD
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101. Which of the following is the cellular organelle
that contains many types of hydrolytic
enzymes?
102.
103
A.
Lysosome
B. Centrosome
C. Mitochondrion
D.
Golgi apparatus
E. Endoplasmic reticulum
Ordinarily a 6-year-old child would have which
of the following teeth clinically visible?
A All primary teeth only
B. All primary teeth and permanent first
molars
C. Primary posterior teeth permanent first
molars and central incisors
D. Primary canines permanent first molars
and permanent mandibular incisors
Which of the following
is
the lobe of the
cerebral hemisphere that lies
in
the middle
cranial fossa?
A
B.
C.
D
Frontal
Temporal
Occipital
Parietal
104. In an ideal intercuspal position the distoincisal
aspect of a mandibular central incisor opposes
which structure of which maxillary incisor?
A
B.
C
D.
E
Lingual fossa of a lateral
Mesial marginal ridge of a lateral
Distal marginal ridge of a central
Mesial marginal ridge of a central
Lingual fossa of a central
105. Virulence of the pneumococcus is associated
with its
A
B
C
D
E
pyrogenic exotoxin.
C-reactive protein.
content of nucleoprotein.
production of streptolysin.
capsular polysaccharide
106. Which of the following statements EST
describes hydroxyapatite
in
enamel?
107.
108
A. Has a nonpolar surface
B. Has
10
ions in each unit cell
C.
Contains no ion substitutions
D. Has a higher solubility than fluorapatite
E Has a solubility that decreases as the
pH decreases
Which of the following epithelial types is
normally associated with the internal lining of
the majority of the tubular gastrointestinal
tract?
A.
Simple columnar
B. Simple cuboidal
C. Simple squamous
D. Stratified cuboidal
E. Stratified squamous
Prior to surgery an anxious patient has a
higher systolic blood pressure than previously
noted. Which of the following represents the
MOST
likely reason?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cardiac shock
Anaphylactic shock
Atrial fibrillation
Ventricular fibrillation
Decreased arterial compliance
109. Which of the following skin lesions is generally
considered precancerous?
A.
B
C
D.
E.
Psoriasis
Verruca vulgaris
Intradermal nevus
Actinic keratosis
Seborrheic keratosis
110. Which of the following is a branching
filamentous microorganism that
is
a normal
inhabitant of the gingival crevice and tonsillar
crypts?
A
B.
C.
D.
E
spergillus niger
ctinomyces naeslundii
Penicillium notatum
Trichophyton mentagrophytes
Lactobacillus casei
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111. Glucose can be made from each of the
following sUbstances EX EPT one. Which
one is this
EXCEPTION
112
A
B
C
D
E
Lactate
Acetyl CoA
Glycerol
Pyruvate
Fructose
In
an ideal intercuspal position. the
distolingual cusp of a maxillary first molar
opposes the
A central fossa of the mandibular first
molar.
B
lingual sulcus of the mandibular first
molar.
C mesial fossa of the mandibular second
molar.
D
mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular
second molar.
E
facial embrasure between the
mandibular first and second molars.
113. Which of the following oral tissues contains
the LEAST collagen?
A
Bone
B
Dentin
C
Mucosa
D Enamel
E
Cementum
114. Each of the following statements describes a
contributor to the initiation of mineralization of
bone EXCEPT one. Which one
is
this
EXCEPTION
A
B
C
D
E
Holes or pores in collagen fibers
Release of matrix vesicles by
osteoblasts
Release of acid phosphatase by
osteocytes trapped in lacunae
Alkaline phosphatase activity
in
osteoblasts and matrix vesicles
Degradation of matrix pyrophosphate
to release an inorganic phosphate
group
115.
Increased pulmonary ventilation obse
high altitudes results directly from the
hypoxia on the
116
A
B
C
D
E
carotid body.
aortic sinus.
hypothalamus.
carotid sinus.
respiratory center.
Juxtamedular and cortical ilephrons d
primarily in
A
filtration fraction.
B
location of macula densa.
C length of proximal tubule.
D
length of distal convoluted tubu
E
length of the thin segment of th
of
Henle.
117. Which of the following represents the p
function of slgA?
A Aggregates microorganisms an
prevents colonization
B
Activates complement
in
secre
fluids
C
D
E
Promotes phagocytosis by mon
Activates mast cells
Activates NK cells
118. Which of the following EST describes
occlusal outline of a maxillary first mol
an occlusal view?
A
B
C
D
E
Ovoid
Square
Rectangular
Pentagonal
Rhomboidal
119. The nasopalatine nerve reaches muco
the oral
c vity vi
which of the followin
foramina?
A Incisive
B
Infraorbital
C Lesser palatine
D
Greater palatine
E
Pterygopalatine
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120
Which of the following represents the total
number of teeth in the permanent dentition
that normally possess a cingulum?
A 4
B
C
D
E
6
8
12
16
121. Cellular tropism by viruses is dependent on
which of the following?
A Host cell DNA homology to viral DNA
B Temperature of host cell incubation
C Gamma interferon production
D Cell surface receptors
E Viral enzyme synthesis
122. Which of the following
is
an allosteric effector
of an enzymatic reaction?
A
B
C
D
E
Competitive inhibitor
Noncompetitive inhibitor
Substance that binds to the substrate
Substance affecting enzymatic activity
by binding to the active site
Substance affecting enzymatic activity
by binding to non-active sites
123.
Odontoblasts secrete the organic components
of
the dentin matrix. The fibrous matrix
is
MOSTLY
A
B
C
D
E
keratin.
reticular fibers.
Type I collagen.
Type II and III collagen.
reabsorbed as the dentin matures.
124. Which of the following
EST
describes the
normal root of the mandibular canine, in cross
section at the
CEJ?
A
Circular, symmetrical
B. Triangular, symmetrical
C. Ovoid, symmetrical
D. Ovoid, but wider mesiodistally at the
lingual
E
Ovoid,
but
wider mesiodistally at the
labial
I l
125. Collagen degradation that
is
observed in
chronic periodontal disease can result directly
from the action
of
collagenase enzymes of oral
microbial origin. Such enzymes have been
demonstrated as component systems of
126.
A
B
C
D
E
Porphyromonas
species.
Lepthothnx buccalis
Entamoeba gingiva/is
Enterococcus faecalis
Veillon ella
species.
Hormones that
exert
their effects through the
activation of second messengers al e
A lipophilic.
B usually water soluble peptide/protein
hormones.
C initially bound to cytoplasmic hormone
receptors.
D
secreted by ovaries. testes, adrenal
cortex,
and
placenta.
127. Which of the following exhibits phagocyti c
activity in the central nervous system?
A. Ependymal cell
B. Microglial cell
C. Oligodendrocyte
D
Fibrous astrocyte
E Protoplasmic astrocyte
128. Each of the following coenzymes
is
a
component of the pyruvate dehydrogenase
complex EXCEPT one. Which one
is
this
EXCEPTION?
A
B.
C
D
NAD
Biotin
Coenzyme A
Thiamine pyrophosphate
129. Identify the anterior tooth that MOST
frequently exhibits a bifurcated root and
identify the positions of the roots.
Tooth
Root Position
A
Maxillary lateral
Mesial and distal
incisor
B
Maxillary lateral
Facial and lingual
incisor
C
Maxillary
canine
Facial and lingual
D
Mandibular canine
Facial and lingual
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130. Which of the following ligaments is OST
often damaged in
an
inferior alveolar nerve
block?
A
Lateral
B
Capsular
C Stylohyoid
D
Stylomandibular
E
Sphenomandibular
131.
Which of the following enzymes seals nicks
in
DNA?
A
B
C
D
E
Exonuclease
Endonuclease
Ligase
DNA polymerase
RNA polymerase
132. Which of the following teeth is the LE ST
likely tooth to have a bifurcation of the root?
133.
134.
A
Mandibular canine
B Mandibular central incisor
C Maxillary central incisor
D
Mandibular lateral incisor
E
Maxillary second premolar
Hepatitis C virus infection
is OST
often
transmitted through
A sexual contact.
B oral secretions.
C
blood transfusions.
D
the fecal-oral route.
E
respiratory droplets.
Neurofibromatosis type I
is
characterized by
which of the following conditions?
A
B
C
D
E
Multiple mucosal neuromas
Perioral melanotic freckles
Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
Development o visceral carcinoma
Multiple pigmented macUies of the skin
135.
Each of the following structures increases the
surface area of the small intestine EXCEPT
one. Which
is
the EXCEPTION
A
Villi
B
Rugae
C
Microvilli
D
Brush border
E
Circular folds
136
137.
138.
139.
Which of the following represents the slight
incisocervical concavity on the labial crown
surface of the canines that is found in the
incisal third just mesial to the labial ridge?
A
Mesial fossa
B
Mesiolingual fissa
C
Mesial marginal ridge
D
Mesiolabialline angle
E
Mesiolabial developmental depression
Submucosal glands are usually located
in
the
A fundus of stomach
B duodenum.
C appendix.
D
jejunum.
E
colon.
Which o the following is an endogenous
fungus that
is
capable of producing an
opportunistic infection?
A Candida
B Rhizopus
C
Blastomyces
D
spergillus
E Cryptococcus
Which of the following pathogens is the single
OST common cause of sexually transmitted
disease in the U S.?
A.
B.
C
D
E
Treponema pallidum
Haemophilus ducrey
Chlamydia trachomatis
Herpes simplex virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
140. Which
o
the following is the pathway that
results in the formation of glucose in the liver
from lactate produced in muscle?
A. Cori cycle
B
Glycolysis
C
Citric acid cycle
D
Pentose phosphate pathway
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141
142
Which of the following represents the primary
function of cementum?
A Attach Sharpey s fibers
B
Protect the root from caries
C Repair traumatic injuries of the root
D Supply nutrition to the periodontal
ligament
E
Maintain the width of the periodontal
ligament
Compared to a maxillary second premolar, a
maxillary first premolar has
A two roots, one facial and one lingual.
B three developmental grooves.
C one root containing two root canals.
D
a shorter central groove.
E
two roots, one mesial and one distal.
143. A 9-year-old boy has tinea capitis. If
he
is
receiving appropriate therapy then
he
is
MOST
likely being treated with
an
144
145
A
anti-viral agent.
B
anti-mycotic agent.
C anti-bacterial agent.
D
anti-parasitic agent.
A pronounced developmental groove
is
usually present
on
a marginal ridge of which
of the following teeth?
A
B
C
D
E
Maxillary canine
Maxillary first premolar
Mandibular second premolar
Mandibular first molar
Maxillary second
molar
MOST
cases of choriocarcinoma are
discovered by the appearance of a rising titer
in blood or urine of which of the following?
A. Acid phosphatase
B. Alpha-fetoprotein
C. Alkaline phosphatase
D. Carcinoembryonic antigen
E. Human chorionic gonadotropin
146
Glucose reabsorption in the nephron is usually
completed in which of the following?
A
B
C
D
Distal tubule
Loop of Henle
Collecting duct
Proximal tubule
147
148
149
Which of the following represents the number
and the location of cusps
on
the V-type
mandibular second premolar?
A No lingual and one facial
B
One lingual and one facial
C One lingual and two facial
D Two lingual and one facial
E
Two lingual and two facial
Which of the following primary teeth
is
usually
bilaterally symmetl ical when viewed facially
and incisally?
A Mandibular central incisor
B
Maxillary central incisor
C Maxillary lateral incisor
D Mandibular lateral incisor
E
Mandibular canine
Pernicious anemia is characterized
by
each of
the following symptoms
EXCEPT
one. Which
one
is
this
EXCEPTIO v?
A
Easy fatigability
B Atrophic glossitis
C Peripheral neuropathy
D
Atrophy of the gastric mucosa
E Microcytic hypochromic red blood cells
150
Which of the following nerves pierces the
thyrohyoid membrane?
A.
B
C
D
E
Inferior laryngeal
Recurrent laryngeal
External branch of the superior
laryngeal
Internal branch of the superior
laryngeal
Pharyngeal branch of the vagus
151
Each of the following conditions involves
changes in numbers of cells in an organ or
tissue EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION
A
B
C
D
Aplasia
Hyperplasia
Hypoplasia
Metaplasia
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1520
The marginal ridges are more prominent on
the lingual surface of which of the following
incisors?
A
B
C
D.
Maxillary central
Mandibular central
Maxillary later'al
Mandibular lateral
153
Which of the following directly catalyzes urea
formation in a cell?
154
A.
Urease
B Uricase
C.
Arginase
D Glutaminase
Atretic follicles are characteristic of which of
the following?
A
B.
C
D
E.
Integument of scalp
Thyroid
Pituitary
Lymph gland
Ovary
155 Which of the following conditions is a
significant risk factor for the development of
hepatocellular carcinoma?
156
A.
Cholestasis
B. Portal hypertens ron
C. Cholelithiasis
D. Reye s syndrome
E. Hepatitis C
Where
is
the lingual height of contour located
on a mandibular first premolar?
A. Occlusal third
B
Junction of the occlusal and middle
thirds
C.
Middle third
D. Junction of the middle and cervical
thirds
E. Cervical third
157. Cigarette smoking has been etiologically
linked to each of the foliowing cancers
EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION
A
B.
C
O
E.
Lung
Colon
Oral cavity
Esophagus
Urinary bladder
158. Which of the following teeth has the greatest
cervi co-occlusal crown height?
A
B
C
D.
E
Maxillary first premolar
Mandibular second premolar
Maxillary first molar
Mandibular second molar
Maxillary second molar
1590
The oblique ridge of the maxillary molars
extends between which two cusps?
A
Mesiofacial and distofacial
B. Mesiolingual and distolingual
C. Mesiolingual and distofacial
D Mesiofacial and mesiolingual
E. Mesiofacial and distolingual
1600
A practitioner administers a
90:10
nitrous
oxide-oxygen mixture to a patient, causing
respiratory depression. Which of the following
conditions
is
likely to result?
A.
B
C.
O
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Test item
'5
161-172 refer
t
the following
test
et.
A 23-year-old female presents with complaints of
difficulty
in
opening her mouth and a low-grade fever
of several days' duration. The medical history
indicates a recent positive PPO skin test, and the
patient
is
taking rifampin (Rifadin®). The extra-oral
exam shows diffuse swelling at the angle of the right
mandible and lateral neck. Oral exam shows gingival
swelling and erythema around partially erupted Tooth
32.
161. Rifampin (Rifadin®) is effective in treating
active tuberculosis because it targets which of
the following pathways?
A
B.
C.
D
E.
Mitosis
Replication
Translation
Transcription
mRN splicing
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18
172. Prior to extracting Tooth 32, surgery is done to
expose the entire crown of the tooth. Which of
the following should the dentist expect to see?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The buccal-lingual dimension of the
crown is greater than the mesial-distal
dimension.
The mesial-distal dimension
of
the
crown
is
greater that the buccal-lingual
dimension.
The buccal-lingual and mesial-distal
dimensions of the crown are the same.
The crown of Tooth 32
is
smaller than
the crown of Tooth 1.
Test
item
's
173-181 refer to
the
following
testlet.
A 7-year-old male with a history of asthma presents
for an emergency appointment. He suffered a fall
in
which he struck his anterior maxilla. lacerating his
lips. Oral examination reveals bleeding from the
gingival sulcus around the maxillary central incisors,
and these teeth are mobile. The maxillary lateral
incisors are mobile but do not exhibit bleeding.
During the initial exam, the patient demonstrates
acute dyspnea.
173.
During the initial oral examination, the dentist
suspects onset of an acute asthmatic attack.
Each of the following is a common
manifestation
of
an asthmatic attack
EXCEPT
one. Which one is this EXCEPTION
174.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Airway edema
Bronchospasm
Decreased surfactant
Increased mucous secretion
Increased airway resistance
Which of the following immunoglobulin classes
is
OST
active
in
this patient's respiratory
difficulties?
A.
IgD
B.
IgA
C. IgE
O. IgM
E. IgG
175
Treatment of this patient's respiratory
symptoms requires activation of which of the
following pathways?
176.
177.
178.
A. Cholinergic nicotinic
8.
Cholinergic muscarinic
C. Adrenergic Alpha-1
D. Adrenergic Beta-1
E.
Adrenergic Beta-2
The immediate consequences of this patient's
respiratory difficulty include each of the
following
EXCEPT
one. Which one
is
this
EXCEPTION
A. Hypoxia
B.
Tachycardia
C.
Hypercapnia
O.
Acute respiratory acidosis
E.
Increased renal bicarbonate production
Each of the following statements regarding the
pathogenesis of this patient's respiratory
difficulty
is
correct
EXCEPT
one. Which one
is
this EXCEPTION
A
B.
C.
O.
E.
Multinucleated giant cells phagocytize
extrinsic antigens.
Prostaglandin 0 elicits
bronchoconstriction and vasodilation.
Chemotactic factors recruit and
activate eosinophils and neutrophils.
Platelet activating factor aggregates
platelets and induces histamine
release.
Leukotrienes C4 04 and E4 cause
prolonged bronchoconstriction and
mucin secretion.
Laceration of the patient's lips resulted in
bleeding from which of the following arteries?
A.
Nasopalatine
B.
Nasal branches of the facial
C. Labial branches of the facial
D. Buccal branch of the maxillary
E.
Incisive branches of the infraorbital
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179. If there is a fracture of the maxillary bone
adjacent to the traumatized central incisors,
then nociception terminates centrally within
which of the following?
180.
A.
B
C
D.
E
Trigeminal ganglion
Spinal tract of
V
Spinal subnucleus oral s of V
Spinal subnucleus caudal s of
V
Main (chief) sensory nucleus of
V
On
a panoramic radiograph of this patient, the
dentist
will expect to see each of the following
features EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION
A. Primary maxillary lateral incisors with
partially resorbed roots.
B Partially erupted maxillary central
incisors with incomplete root closure at
the apex.
C. Partially erupted mandibular lateral
incisors with incomple te root closure at
the apex.
D Fully erupted mandibular central
incisors with complete root formation
and closure at the apex.
E Fully erupted mandibular first molars
with incomplete root formation and non
closure at the apex.
181. A radiograph of the maxillary central incisors
reveals a small, calcified radiopaque mass
between the roots of Teeth #8 and #9. Which
of the following
is
the
MOST
likely reason for
this mass?
A
B
C.
D
E
Distodens
Mesiodens
Talon cusp
Dens in dente
Peg lateral incisor
Test item #'s 182-195 refer to
the
following testlet
A 15-year-old male presents for emergency care. He is
non-compliant with his type I diabetes regimen, and he
suffered a fall while having an insulin reaction. He .
struck his chin and lacerated
his
tongue. Upon
opening, his mandible deviates to the left. A
panoramic radiograph reveals a fracture of the left
condylar neck.
182
Before examining this patient, the dentist notes
that the standard medical emergency kit
contains an ampule of glucagon. For which of
the following reasons would glucagon
be
used?
183
A. Acts as a source of glucose for the
hypoglycemic patient.
B
Promotes glycogen formation
in
the
hyperglycemic patient.
C. Promotes glycogeno lysis in the
hypoglycemic patient.
D. Stimulates secretion of insulin in the
hyperglycemic patient.
The patient's insulin reaction represented a
sudden fall in blood glucose because he had
taken his normal insulin dose but did not eat
breakfast. Each of the following is a clinical
manifestation of hypoglycemia
EX EPT
one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION
A
Coma
B Dizziness
C. Confusion
D Convulsion
E
Hyperventilation
184
Which of the following glucose transporters
was responsible for the patient's insulin
reaction ?
A
B
C
D
E
GLUT-1
GLUT-2
GLUT-3
GLUT-4
GLUT-5
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185. Which of the following cells found
in
the
pancreas is responsible for secreting insulin?
186
A Alpha
B
Beta
C
Delta
D
Acinar
E
Centroacinar
Each of the following is a likely long-term
complication of poorly controlled type I
diabetes mellitus EXCEPT one. Which one is
this
EXCEPTION
A Pancreatic carcinoma
B Hyaline arteriolosclerosis
C Proliferative retinopathy
D
Nodular glomerulosclerosis
E
Peripheral symmetric neuropathy
187. Sudden onset of a seizure in this patient
would
OST
likely be due to which of the
following?
188
189
A Hypoxia
B
Ketoacidosis
C Hyponatremia
D
Hypoglycemia
E
Hyperglycemia
The patient's tongue laceration will likely
damage taste buds found on
A. filiform papilla.
B. fungiform papilla.
C. circumvallate papilla.
D. ventrum of the tongue.
Pain impulses from the patient's fractured
mandible are carried by which of the following
nerves?
A Lingual
B. Inferior alveolar
C Auriculotemporal
D. Zygomaticotemporal
E.
Nerve
to lateral pterygoid
190. Each of the following events will occur during
fracture repair EX EPT one. Which one
is
this
EXCEPTION
A
B
C
D
E
Blood clot forms.
Bridging callus forms
Periosteal callus forms.
New endochondral bone forms.
New osteons grow across the callus.
191. The deviation of the patient's mandible is
MO
likely due to lack of function of which of the
following muscles?
192.
193
A Left medial pterygoid
B Right medial pterygoid
C Masseter
D
Left lateral pterygoid
E
Right lateral pterygoid
Monosynaptic jaw closing reflexes might be
disrupted
in
which of the following areas?
A
Locus coenurus
B
Globus pallidus
C Motor nucleus of V
D Mesencephalic nucleus of V
E
Motor nucleus of VII
Muscular contractions might result
in
displacement of the left condyle. Into which of
the following areas will the condyle
OST
like
be displaced?
A Oral
cavity
B Maxillary sinus
C
Temporal fossa
D
Middle ear cavity
E Infratemporal fossa
194. With the fracture of the left condyle, the
condylar head remains in the mandibular fossa
due to which of the following ligaments?
A Periodontal
B Otomandibular
C
Stylomandibular
D
Sphenomandibular
E
Temporomandibular
195. Clinical examination
reveals
that the lingual
cusp on Tooth 5
is
broken off. This
is MOST
likely due to which of the following mandibular
movements during trauma?
A
B
C
D
E
Left mesiotrusive
Right mesiotrusive
Protrusive
Left laterotrusive
Right laterotrusive
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Test item
's
196-200 refer to the following testlet.
The dentist is called in to assist
in
the postmortem
identification of an unknown person. Parts of a
cadaver are presented, including portions of the skull
with bones, teeth, and intact soft tissue.
196. Upon viewing the cadaver, the dentist suddenly
feels faint and experiences vasodepressor
syncope. This finding might be associated with
each of the following circumstances
EXCEPT
one. Which one
is
this
EXCEPTION
197.
A
B
C
D
E
Pallor
Diaphoresis
Decreased heart rate
Decreased cerebral blood flow
Increased systemic blood pressure
Examination of the right side of the cadaver's
skull reveals a fracture running through the
petrotympanic fissure. Which of the following
structures is
OST
likely affected
by
such a
fracture?
A Chorda tympani
B Auriculotemporal nerve
C
Mandibular branch of V
D
Middle meningeal artery
E Accessory meningeal artery
198. Examination of a remnant of the cranial base
exhibits a fracture of the cribriform plate.
Damage to this area typically results in which
of the following conditions?
A Tunnel vision
B. Loss of sense of taste
C Loss of sense of smell
D. Damage to optic chiasm
E Damage to speech areas
199.
Examination of a portion of the left mandible
shows a torn piece
of
muscle attached on the
,medial side near the angle of the mandible.
This is which of the following muscles?
A
Buccal
B. Masseter
C. Temporalis
D. Medial pterygoid
E. Inferior head of the pterygoid
200. One piece of examined soft tissue contains
obvious glandular tissue. Histological
examination reveals that it is composed of
purely serous acini. This is OST likely which'
of the following glands?
A
B
C
D
E
Buccal
Parotid
Sublingual
Submandibular
Posterior palatal
WHEN YOU HAVE FINISHED THIS
EXAMINATION BOOKLET, TURN
IN
THE
ORIGINAL (TOP) ANSWER SHEETS TO
THE
TEST ADMINISTRATOR
YOU MAY KEEP THE EXAMINATION
BOOKLET AND THE CANDIDATE'S
COpy OF
THE TWO ANSWER SHEETS,
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1
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5
NATIONAl
BOARD COMPREHENSIVE PART I PILOT EXAMINATION
TEST KEY
Discipli ne
Item Key
Item
No.
Discipline
Biochemistry-Physiology
A
51
Dental Anatomy
&
Occlusion
Microbiology-Pathology
D
52
Anatomic Sciences
Dental Anatomy & Occlusion
C
53
Dental
Anatomy
& Occlusion
Anatomic Sciences
D 54 Microbiology-Pathology
Anatomic Sciences
A
55
Anatomic Sciences
Microbiology-PatholClgy
A
56
Dental
Anatomy &
Occlusion
Dental Anatomy & Occlusion
C 57 Microbiology-Pathology
Biochemistry-Physiology
A
58 Dental Anatomy & Occlusion
Biochemistry-Physiology
E
59
Microbiology-Pathology
Microbiology-Pathology
C 60
Dental
Anatomy &
Occlusion
Anatomic Sciences
A
61 Blochemistry-Physiology
Dental Anatomy & Occlusion
D
62
Biochemistry-Physiology
Microbiology-Pathology
D 63
Anatomic Sciences
Bioc-hemistfy-Physiology
C
64 Anatomic Sciences
Anatomic Sciences
E 65
Dental Anatom], & Occlusion
Biochemistry-Physiology
D
66
Biochemistry-Physiology
Microbiology-Pathology
A
67
Anatomic
Sciences
Denml Anatomy & Occlusion
D
68
Dental Anatomy & Occlusion
Dental Anatomy & Occlusion
8 69 Biochemistry-Physiology
Microbiology-Pathology_
E
70 Biochemistry-Physiology
Biochemistry-Physiology
C
71
Dental Anatomy
8
Occlusion
Anatomic Sciences
C
72 Microbiology-Patho Qgy
Anatomic Sciences
D
73
Microbiology-Pathology
Dental Anatomy & Occlusion
D 74
Anatomic Sciences
Microbioklgy-Pathology
E 75
Biochemistry-PhysiolQ9Y
Biochemistry-Physiology
8
76
Dental
Anatomy
& Occlusion
Anatomic Sciences
C
77 Microbiology-Pathology
Anatomic Sciences
D
78
Biochemistry-Physiology
Biochemistry-Physiology
8 79
Anatomic
Sciences
Dental
Anatomy
&
Occlusion
A
80
Dental
Anatomy
& Occlusion
Microbiology-Pathology
A
81 Microbiology-Pathology
Microbiology-Pathology
C
82
B i o c h e m i s t r y P h ~ l o l o g y
Dental
Anatomy
8 Occlusion
C
83
Biochemistry-Physiology
Anatomic Sciences
E
B4
Anatomic Sciences
Microbiol()Qy-Pathology
D 85
Dental Anatomy & Occlusion
Dental Anatomy
8
Ocdusion
A
86
Microbiology-Pathology
Anatomic Sciences D 87
Biochemistry-Physiology
Anatomic Sciences 8 88
Dental Anatomy & Occlusion
Biochemistry-Physiology
C
89
Anatomic Sciences
Dental
Arlatomy
8 Occlusion D
90
Microbiology-Pathology
Microbiology-Pathology D
91
Biochemistry-Physiology ,
Biochemistry.Physiology
C
92
Dental
Anatomy
&
Ocdusion
Microbiology-Pathology
D 93
Microbiology-Pathology
Microbiology-Pathology C 94
Biochemistry-Physiology
Biochemistry-Physiology
C
95
Biochemistry-Physiology
B i o c h e m i ~ t r y P h Y S i o l o g y
E
96
Anatomic Sciences
Anatomic Sciences
E
97 Microbiology-Pathology
Anatomic Sciences
C
98
Biochemistry-Physiology
Dental Anatomy & Occlusion
C
99
Biochemistry-Physiology
Microbiology-Pathology
D
100
Microbiology-Pathology
Item
A
C
B
A
E
A
C
B
8
D
D
C
E
C
B
E
A
E
B
E
D
C
B
D
C
B
B
D
E
C
E
C
C
A
D
E
D
C
C
B
C
B
A
D
B
A
C
E
C
D
@
2005 American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations, Ail rights reserved, Reprinted by permiss
8/16/2019 2005 PilotNBDE (Part I)
http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/2005-pilotnbde-part-i 21/21
I
I
Item No.
1
1 2
1 3
104
105
106
1 7
108
109
110
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
121
122
123
124
125
126
127
128
129
13
131
132
133
34
135
36
137
138
139
140
141
142
143
144
145
146
147
148
149
150
NATIONAL BOARD COMPREHENS VE PART PILOT EXAMINATION
TEST KEY
Discipline
Hem Key Item No.
Discipline
Anatomic Sciences
A
151
Microbiology-Pathology
Dental
Anatomy
Occlusion
B
i2
Dental Anatom1& Occlusion
Anatomic Sciences
B
153
B i o c h e m ~ P ~ i o t ~
Dental
Anatomy
Occlusion E
154
Anatomic Sciences
MicrobiolOQV-PatholoQV
E
155
M i c r o b i o l o g y - P a t h o ~
Biochemistry-Physiology D
56
Dental Anatomy
&
Occlusion
Anatomic
Sciences A
157
Microbiology-Pathology
Biochemistry-Physiology
E
158
Dental Anatomy Occlusion
Microbiology-PafuolOQV
0
159
Dental AnatOfT Y & Occlusion
Microbiology-Pathology B
16
B i o c h e m i s J r y ~ P ~ i o l 9 9 Y
Biochemistry-Physiology B
161
B i o c h e m i s t r y - P ~ o I o g y
Dental Anatomy Occlusion
D
162
B l o c h e m ~ - : - P ~ o < > m '
Anatomic
Sciences 0
163
Anatomic Sciences
Anatomic Sciences
C
164
M i c r o b i o ~ P a t h o l ~
Biochemistry-PhysiolOQV
A
165
Anatomic Sciences
Biochemistry-Physiology E
I 166 Dental Anatom1& Occlusion
Microbiology-Pathology
A
167
Anatomic Sciences
Dental Anatomy Occlusion E
168
Biochemisby-Physiology
Anatomic
Sciences A 169
Anatomic Sciences
Dental
Anatomy
Occlusion
D
17
Anatomic Sciences
Microbiology-Pathology
D
171
Dental Anatomy Occlusion
Biochemistry-Physiology
E
172
Dental AnatolT Y Occlusion
Anatomic Sciences
C
113
Biochemistry-Physiology
Dental Anatomy Occlusion
E
174
M i c r o b i o l ~ a t h o l o g y
Microbiology-Pathology
A
175
B i o c h e m ~ P ~ i o ~
Biochemistry-Physiology
B 176
Biochemistry-Physiology
Anatomic Sciences
B
77
Microbiology-Pathology
Biochemistry-Physiology
B 178
Anatomic Sciences
Dental Anatomv
&
Occlusion
0
179
Anatomic Sciences
Anatomic Sciences
E
180
Dental Anatomy
&
OcClusion
Biochemistry-Physiology
C 181
Dental Anatom1
&
Occlusion
Dental
Anatomy
& Occlusion
C 182
B i o c h e m i s J Y - P ~ i ~ o g y
Microbiology-Pathology
C
183
Biochemistry-Physiology
Microbiology-Pathology
E 184
Biochemistry-Physiology
Anatomic Sciences
B
185
Anatomic Sciences
Dental Anatomy
&
Occlusion
E
186
Microbiology-Pa1hology
Anatomic Sciences
8
187
B i o c h e m i ~ ~ P ~ o I Q I D 1 :
Microbiology-Pathology
A 188
Anatomic Sciences
Microbiology-Pathology
C
189
Anatomic Sciences
Biochemistry-Physiology
A
190 Anatomic Sciences
Anatomic Sciences
A
191
Dental Anatomy & Occlusion
Dental
Anatomy
Occlusion
A
92
Anatomic Sciences
Microbiology-Pathology
B
193
Anatomic Sciences
Dental Anatomy Occlusion
B
94
Dental Anatom1
&
Occlusion
Microbiology-Pathology
E
95
Dental AnatolT Y
&
Occlusion
Biochemistry-Physiology 0
196
B i o c h e m ~ P h Y S i o l o g y
Dental Anatomy
&
Occlusion
D
97
Anatomic Sciences
Dental Anatomy
&
Occlusion A
98
Anatomic Sciences
Microoiology-Pathology
E
99 Anatomic Sciences
Anatomic Sciences
D
200 Anatomic Sciences
Item Key
D
C
C
E
E
C
B
A
C
B
D
C
C
C
B
D
D
A
B
C
A
B
C
C
E
E
A
C
0
D
B
C
E
0
B
A
D
B
C
E
D
C
E
E
A
E
A
C
0
B