UNIT - I1. PHOTO SYNTHESIS

1. ____ helps in the survival and perpetuation of its race.2. ____ are required for the synthesis of proteins.3. The wavelength of visible light is ____4. The energy present in the light rays is called ____5. The energy particles of light rays are called ____6. Green light is ____ by the chlorophyll pigments.7. ____ regulate the exchange of gases and loss of water vapour in

plants.8. ____ can be used to test the presence of starch.9. Grana are stacks of ____ membrane.10. During photosynthesis chlorophyll molecules gets ____11. ____ and ____are the end products of light reactions in

photosynthesis.12. ____ won the nobel prize for his work on photosynthesis.13. First stable product formed in photosynthesis is ____14. Examples of electron acceptors ____15. The upper layer of cells in leaf is called ____16. Stacks of thylakoid membranes is stroma are called ____17. ____ is the life process that depend on light.18. ____ is the process that helps in release of energy stored in

carbohydrates.19. Melvin Calvin got nobel prize for his studies on ____20. Photosynthesis occurs in ____ part of the cell.21. ____ process releases O2 into the atmosphere.22. Green pigment is called ____23. The end products of dark reaction ____24. The kidney shaped cells which surround the stroma are called

____25. The external factors that help photosynthesis are ____26. The internal factors that help photosynthesis are ____27. ____ is reduced in dark reaction.28. ____ accepts CO2 in dark reaction.29. The volume of CO2 present in the atmosphere is ____30. Photosynthetic activity in green plants has to be tested ____31. Green pigment is called ____32. ____ organisms synthesize their own food.33. The entire series of reactions which are involved in the

conversion of CO2 to glucose is called ____34. The electro magnetic radiation, has greater wavelength than

visible light.

Photosynthesis - Answers1. Reproduction 2. Amino acids3. 400-700 nm 4. Quantum5. Photons 6. Reflected 7. Stomata 8. Iodine9. Thylokoid 10. Oxidised11. ATP, NADPH 12. Melvin Calvin 13. PGA - Phospho Glyceric Acid14. NAD/NADP/Cytochrome15. Upper Epidermis 16. Grana 17. Photosynthesis 18. Respiration19.Carbon fixation/Dark reaction

20. Chloroplast21. Photosynthesis22. Chlorophyll23. Glucose24. Guard cells25. Light, CO226. Water, chlorophyll27. Carbondioxide28. Ribulose diphosphate29. 0-03% 30. After exposing the plant to the light for 2-3 hours.31. Chlorophyll32. Autotrophic33. Calvin cycle34. Infra red rays

2. RESPIRATION1. Substance that undergoes respiration is called ____2. Fermentation produces ____ and ____3. Inner folds of mitochondria are called ____4. Inner compartment of mitochondria is called ____5. Respiration in the absence of oxygen by micro organisms is

called ____6. The first stage of respiration is called ____7. Simplest form of carbohydrates ready to undergo respiration is

____8. Rate of ____ decreases when fruits are kept in cold storage.9. Fruits can be ripened early by keeping them in a room at a

temperature between ____10. The scientist who studied the sequences of changes in citric acid

cycle is ____11. In citric acid cycle, acetyl CO-A combines with a four carbon

compounds ____12. The products formed in aerobic respiration are ____13. In ATP, energy is stored in organic ____14. The addition of high energy phosphate to ADP is called ____15. The first phase in glucose oxidation is ____16. Bacteria convert pyruvic acid to ____ in the absence of oxygen.17. Maximum rate of respiration takes place at ____18. Expand ATP ____19. Conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid yields a net gain of ____20. In germinating seeds ____ respiration is observed.21. Cellular respiration takes place in ____22. The carboxylic acid formed at the end of glycolysis is ____23. The number of phosphate molecules present in ATP is ____24. Synthesis of new molecules in a cell get energy from ____25. Yeast cells convert pyruvic acid to ethanol in the absence of

oxygen. This process is called ____26. Kreb's cycle is also called ____27. The energy liberated from one ATP is ____ calories.28. The net gain of ATP in the complete oxidation of one glucose are

____29. The first stable compound in Kreb's cycle is ____30. In prokaryotes ____ takes care of energy production liberated.31. ____ is life process in which energy is liberated.32. Mitochondria are also called ____33. The factors that control respiration are ____ and ____34. The temperature at which respiration takes place is called ____35. The gas which turns lime water milky is ____

Respiration - Answers1. Respiratory substrates

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2. Ethyl alcohol, Energy3. Cristae4. Matrix5. Anaerobic Respiration6. Glycolysis7. Glucose8. Respiration9. 30°C - 40°C10. Sir Hans Krebs11. Oxalo Acetic Acid (OAA)12. Carbondioxide, Water, Energy13. Terminal Phosphate bond14. Phosphorylation15. Glycolysis16. Lactic acid17. 45°C18. Adenosine Tri Phosphate19. 2 ATP20. Aerobic21. Mitochondria22. Pyruvic acid23. 324. ATP25. Fermentation26. Citric acid cycle27. 720028. 3829. Citric acid30. Cell membrane31. Respiration32. Power house of cells33. Oxygen, Temperature34. Optimal temperature35. Carbon dioxide

3 - RESPIRATORY ORGANS IN ANIMALS1. Respiration in amoeba occurs by ____2. The common name of larynx is ____3. The scientific name for wind pipe of man is ____4. In women ____ plays a major role in respiratory movements.5. In frog nostrils open into ____6. In earthworm haemoglobin is present in ____7. Cutaneous respiration occurs in ____8. Coelomic fluid in earthworm comes out through ____9. Respiratory organs in cockroach are ____10. Operculum present in ____11. The structure that acts as a lid over glottis is ____12. The shape of cartilaginous rings that support the trachea is ____13. The rate of respiration per minute in a new born baby is ____14. In man ____ plays a major role in respiratory movements.15. Haemoglobin of blood transports both ____ and ____16. The respiratory organs in animals that shows pulmonary

respiration are ____17. In earthworm, leech and salamander respiratory organ is ____18. Dorsal pores occur in ____19. The structural and functional units of lungs are ____20. In man oral cavity and nasal cavity are separated by ____21. In man, epiglottis is present in ____22. In man larynx opens into ____23. ____ surround and protect the lungs in man.24. In lungs gaseous exchange occurs in ____

25. In man, air is humidified in ____26. During ____ air enters the lungs.27. Palate in man separates ____ from ____28. In man epiglottis covers ____ as a lid.29. In man, internal nares open into ____30. Hibernation means ____ sleep.31. In fishes ____ apertures open into pharynx.32. During hibernation, a frog respires through ____33. If the skin of frog dries up it ____34. Earthworm lives in ____ soil.35. In man trachea divides as ____36. Single celled organisms take in oxygen from ____37. Terrestrial animals take in oxygen from ____38. In cockroach, the tracheal system opens to outside through ____39. Number of stigmata in cockroach are ____40. The first part of wind pipe is ____41. The respiratory organs in aquatic respiration is ____42. Respiration through gills is called ____43. Respiration through lungs is called ____44. Respiration through skin is called ____45. Respiratory pigment is ____46. External skeleton can be seen in ____47. External branchial apertures can be seen in ____ fishes.48. Respiratory rate per minute in 5 years child ____49. Respiratory rate per minute in 25 years man ____50. Respiratory rate per minute in 50 years man ____51. ____ glands on the skin of earthworm and frog keep their skin

moist.

Respiratory organs in animals - Answers1. Diffusion2. Voice box3. Trachea4. Ribs5. Buccal cavity6. Plasma7. Earthworm/Frog/Salamander8. Dorsal pores9. Trachea10. Bony fish11. Epiglottis12. 'C'13. 32 times14. Diaphragm15. Oxygen and carbon dioxide16. Lungs17. Skin18. Earthworm19. Alveoli20. Palate21. Pharynx22. Trachea23. Pleura24. Alveoli25. Nasal cavity26. Inspiration27. Nasal cavity, oral cavity28. Glottis29. Pharynx30. Winter31. Internal brancheal aperture32. Skin33. Dies

34. Moist35. Left and right brancheoles36. Water37. Air38. Stigmata39. 10 pairs40. Voice box/Larynx41. Gills42. Brachial respiration43. Pulmonary respiration44. Cutaneous respiration45. Haemoglobin46. Cockroach47. Cartaginous48. 26 times49. 15 times50. 18 times51. Mucus

4 - TRANSPORT SYSTEMS -TRANSPORT SYSTEMS IN VARIOUS ANIMALS

1. In unicellular organisms transport of substances occurs by ____2. The pumping device in the transport system is ____3. In earthworm, haemoglobin is present in ____ of blood.4. In frog, the chamber that lies behind the auricle is ____ 5. The chamber that is incompletely divided in the heart of reptiles

is ____ 6. The heart that pumps blood to lungs is called ____ heart.7. A single circuit heart is found in ____ 8. The colour of the blood in crabs and snails is ____ 9. Lymph is a part of ____ system.10. Animal without red blood cells is ____ 11. In cockroach ____ muscles help in sending the blood into heart.12. Caval veins in amphibians arise from ____ 13. Blood sinuses occur in ____ 14. A 13 chambered heart is present in ____ 15. For the cell to grow it needs ____ along with food material.16. In course of evolution special fluids like ____ and ____ have

been developed for transport of substances.17. Blood vessels are absent in metazoan animals like ____ and

____ 18. The hearts of Megascolex connect ____ vessel and ____ vessel.19. In Megascolex, in addition to blood ____ also transport

substances.20. From first chamber of cockroach heart arises the ____ 21. Head sinus of cockroach receives blood from ____ 22. Heart of cockroach is present in ____ 23. In fishes, blood from ____ of heart goes to gills.24. The chambers that lie side by side in frog are ____ 25. In man aorta that supplies blood to all parts of the body is ____ 26. The two chambers that are infront of ventricle in the heart of frog

are ____ 27. In birds and mammals ____ is sent to lungs for oxygenation.28. The right auricle of frog receives ____ blood.29. The left auricle of frog receives ____blood.30. A double circuit circulation is present in ____ 31. In closed type of circulation, blood flows in ____ 32. In fishes the heart sends blood to gills, but in birds, reptiles and

mammals it sends to ____ 33. In cockroach the blood is ____ in colour.34. The substance produced in one part of the body and taken to

another part is called ____ 35. Sinus venosus is associated with ____ 36. Example for open type of circulatory system is ____ 37. The blood vessel that gathers blood in earthworm is ____ 38. The blood vessel that distributes blood in earthworm is ____ 39. The ventral blood vessel in earthworm is present ____ 40. Number of chambers in fish heart are ____ 41. Number of chambers in frog heart are ____ 42. Incompletely divided ventricle present in ____ 43. The number of hearts in Megascolex are ____ 44. The glands that secrete hormones are called ____ 45. The blood vessel that acts as main vein in earthworm is ____46. The blood vessel that acts as main artery in earthworm is ____ 47. Branchial heart present in ____ 48. In cockroach alary muscles are in ____ shape.49. The scientific name of earthworm is ____ 50. Number of hearts in birds and mammals are ____

Transport systems -Transport systems in various animals - Answers

1. Diffusion2. Heart3. Plasma4. Ventricle5. Ventricle6. Pulmonary heart7. Fish8. Blue9. Transport10. Earthworm11. Alary12. Sinus venosus13. Cockroach/Butterfly (Insects)14. Cockroach15. Water and oxygen16. Blood, lymph17. Insects, Molluscs18. Dorsal and ventral blood vessels19. Coelomic fluid20. Head sinus21. First chamber of heart22. Pericardial sinus23. Ventricle24. Auricles25. Oxygenated blood26. Auricles27. Blood28. Deoxygenated blood29. Oxygenated blood30. Amphibians, reptiles, mammals31. Blood vessels32. Lungs and body parts33. White34. Hormones35. Heart36. Insects (Cockroach, Butterfly)37. Dorsal blood vessel38. Ventral blood vessel39. Below the alimentary canal40. 241. 342. Garden Lizard (reptiles)43. 8 pairs

44. Endocrine glands45. Dorsal blood vessel46. Ventral blood vessel47. Fish48. Fan49. Megascolex50. 4

5 - STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION OF HUMAN HEART1. Heart is protected on all sides by ____ cage and by ____ on the

back side.2. Heart is covered by two layered membrane called ____3. Blood is collected from the upper parts of the body by ____4. Blood is collected from the lower parts of the body by ____5. In man, caval veins open into ____6. Oxygenated blood from lungs is collected by ____7. The right ____ receives deoxygenated blood from various parts

of the body except the ____8. The largest artery in the body of man is ____9. The left ventricle receives ____blood from ____ auricle.10. Pulmonary aorta arises from ____11. From the left ventricles of man ____arises.12. Left ____ pumps ____ blood to all body parts.13. ____ pump deoxygenated blood to lungs.14. Heart attack is caused by the blocking of ____15. The normal blood pressure of man is ____16. The contraction phase of the chambers of heart is ____17. The relaxation phase of the chambers of heart is ____18. Haemoglobin is the most efficient carrier of ____19. In man, ____fluid present in pericardium protects the heart from

injury.20. The ____auricle is smaller than ____ auricle.21. Tricuspid valve is present in between ____22. Bicuspid valve is present in between ____23. Bicuspid valve is also called ____24. The valves present at the entrance of pulmonary aorta in right

ventricle are ____25. The valves present at the entrance of systemic aorta in left

ventricle are ____26. Deoxygenated blood from the heart is taken to ____27. Doctors measure blood pressure with the instrument called ____28. The number of valves present at entrance of aorta in left ventricle

are ____29. In normal blood pressure 120/80, the numerator indicates ____

pressure.30. In normal blood pressure 120/80, the denominator indicates

____ pressure.31. The muscles present in the heart are called ____32. The upper chambers of human heart are called ____33. The lower chambers of human heart are called ____34. The strands of tissue which connect the valves with the walls of

ventricles are called ____35. The circulation of blood between lungs and heart is called ____

circulation.36. The circulation of blood between heart and body parts is called

____ circulation.37. The rate of heart beat per minute is ____38. The blood vessels that collect deoxygenated blood from heart

muscle are ____39. The blood vessels that collect oxygenated blood from heart

muscle are ____

40. Human heart pumps blood in two circuits. Hence human heart iscalled ____

Structure and function of human heart - Answers1. Rib cage/vertebral column2. Pericardium3. Superior vena cava4. Inferior vena cava5. Right auricle6. Pulmonary vein7. Auricle, lungs8. Aorta9. Oxygenated blood, left10. Right ventricle11. Systemic aorta12. Ventricle, oxygenated13. Pulmonary arteries14. Coronary artery15. 120/8016. Systole17. Diastole18. Oxygen19. Pericardial20. Left, right21. Right auricle and right ventricle22. Left auricle and left ventricle23. Mitral valve24. Pulmonary valves25. Aortic valves26. Lungs27. Sphygmomanometer28. 329. Systolic30. Diastolic31. Cardiac muscles32. Auricles33. Ventricles34. Chordae tendinae35. Pulmonary circuit36. Systemic circuit37. 70-8038. Coronary veins39. Coronary arteries40. Double circuit heart

6 - BLOOD AND ITS COMPONENTS1. The study of blood is called ____2. The inter cellular fluid in blood is ____3. The total volume of blood in adult man is ____4. ____ or ____ prevent clotting of blood in test tube.5. 0.9% sodium chloride solution is called ____6. The fluid tissue of the body is called ____7. The clear fluid seen on the top of a blood clot is ____8. The matrix of blood is ____9. The liquid part of blood is ____10. Percentage of water in plasma is ____11. Percentage of salts in plasma is ____12. Percentage of carbon compounds in plasma is ____13. Protein that helps in clotting blood in blood vessels is ____14. Plasma is slightly ____ in nature.15. Number of RBC in 1 m.l. of blood is ____

16. Nucleus is present in RBC of animal like ____17. In adults, RBC are formed in ____ of long bones.18. The production of RBC is called ____19. The life span of RBC is ____20. ____ is also called "Grave yard of red blood cells".21. RBC are red due to the presence of ____22. Haemoglobin of blood carries ____ and ____23. Number of WBC in 1 m.l. of blood is ____24. Life span of WBC is ____25. Number of lobes present in nucleus of acidophils are ____26. 'S' shaped nucleus present in ____27. Among all types of WBC ____are few in number.28. Multi lobed nucleus is present in ____29. Microscopic policeman of body are ____30. Among all types of WBC ____ are more in number.31. Smallest of all white blood cells is ____32. ____ cells are destroyed in AIDS.33. Biggest of all types WBC is ____34. Kidney shaped nucleus is present in ____35. ____ cells help in clotting of blood.36. Porphyrin in blood is present in ____37. Agranulocytes and granulocytes are ____ cells.38. Osmotic pressure of the blood is maintained by ____39. ____ help to reduce allergic reactions in the body.40. Total percentage of plasma in blood is ____

Blood and its components - Answers1. Haematology2. Plasma3. 5 litres4. Sodium oxalate/sodium citrate5. Saline6. Plasma7. Serum8. Plasma9. Plasma10. 85 - 90%11. 0.85 - 0.9%12. 6 - 8%13. Heparin14. Alkaline15. 4.5 - 5.5 × 106

16. Camel17. Long bone marrow18. Erythropoiesis19. 120 days20. Spleen21. Haemoglobin22. Oxygen and carbon dioxide23. 5.9 × 103

24. 12 - 13 days 25. 226. Basophils27. Basophils28. Neutrophils29. Neutrophils30. Neutrophils31. Lymphocytes32. Lymphocytes33. Monocytes34. Monocytes35. Platelet

36. Haemoglobin37. White blood cells38. Albumins/Globulins39. Esinophils/Acidophils40. 60%

7 - BLOOD GROUPS IMPORTANCE OF BLOODDONATION

1. Administering blood of one person to another person through thevein is called ____

2. In 1900, ____ discovered blood groups.3. Clumping of blood cells is called ____4. Blood of one person is transfused into another through his ____5. Agglutination of blood is due to reactions between ____6. Blood group antigens in blood are present on ____7. Blood group antibodies in blood are present in ____8. Antibody 'B' in plasma of blood is present in person of group

____9. Antibody 'A' is present in a person with blood group ____10. Both 'A' and 'B' antibodies are absent in ____11. Both antigens 'A', 'B' are absent in ____12. Persons with 'AB' blood group are called ____13. Persons with 'O' blood group are called ____14. A person with no antigens but with antibodies 'A' and 'B' belong

to blood group ____15. People between ____ years of age can donate blood.16. A person can donate blood once in ____ to ____ months period.17. Blood can be stored for ____ months after collection.18. Persons who can donate blood must be free from ____, ____ and

____ diseases.19. Persons with Rh factor are called ____20. Persons without Rh factor are called ____21. ____% of the population will have Rh+.22. ____ is seen if the blood samples of different blood groups are

mixed.23. In case of emergency, when we do not know the blood group of

the recipient, we can give ____ blood group.24. Persons with 'AB' blood group are known as universal recipients

because ____25. Persons with 'O' blood group are known as universal donors

because ____

Blood and its components - Answers1. Blood transfusion2. Karl Landsteiner3. Agglutination4. Vein5. Antigen and antibody6. RBC7. Plasma8. 'A'9. 'B'10. 'AB'11. 'O'12. Universal Recipients13. Universal Donors14. 'O'15. 16 to 6016. 3 to 417. 3

18. Hepatitis, Leukaemia, AIDS19. Rh+ (Positive)20. Rh– (Negative)21. 9322. Agglutination23. 'O'24. They can receive blood of all groups25. They can donate blood to all groups

Chapter wise most Important QuestionsUNIT - I

Life Process4 Mark Questions

1. How do you prove that CO2 is essential for photosynthesis?(June 2007, 2004, March 2007, 2006, 2001)

2. Describe an experiment to state that oxygen is evolved inPhotosynthesis?

3. How can you prove that sunlight is essential for photosynthesis?4. How is carbon-di-oxide converted to glucose during

photosynthesis (or) Write an account on carbon fixation (June2007, 2004, March 2007, 2006, 2001)

5. Explain the structure of Mitochondria with the help of a diagram(June 2005, March 01, Oct 99)

6. How can you show that heat is liberated during respiration.(March 2007, 2004, 2000, June 2006, 2003)

7. Write the differences between Aerobic and Anaerobicrespiration. (June 2003, March 99)

8. Write a comparative account of photosynthesis and respiration?(March 08, June 03, 04)

9. Enumerate the differences between external and internalrespiration (June 2002, 2000)

10. Write the differences between right auricle and left auricle (June02, March 2000)

11. What are the differences between right ventricle and leftventricle (June 2003, 2001, March 2000, 02, 03)

12. What is hypertension? How it is caused? Mention the preventivesteps to be taken (June 07, March 2002)

13. What are the differences between RBC and WBC? (March 2006)14. Describe the different blood groups in man? (March 2005, 2001,

June 2006, 2005, 2004)

2 Marks Questions1. What is meant by electromagnetic radiation?2. Define photosynthesis. Write chemical equation.3. What are the differences between oxidation and reduction?4. What are Electron acceptors. Give examples?5. Write differences between combustion and respiration?6. Explain ATP provides energy for various reactions and functions

in the organisms with the help of a diagram?7. Write briefly about Glycolysis?8. How trachea is prevented from collapsing?9. What is the difference between photosynthesis and respiration in

terms of energy?10. What is the difference photo phosphorylation and oxidative

phosphorylation?11. How does sinus venosus formed in Amphibians?12. A person B.P. is written 120/80.What does this indicate?13. What is heart attack?14. What is heart beat? Write the stages in heart beat?15. Why is spleen called the ''grave yard of red blood cells''?16. Who can donate blood?

17. What is agglutination?18. Define the words universal acceptor and universal donor.

5 Mark Questions (Diagrams)1. Draw a neat labeled diagram of transverse section of leaf (June

06, 05, 04, 02, March 2008, 2004, 2002, Oct 99)2. Draw the structure of the leaf which is suitable for

photosynthesis (June 2007)3. Draw a neat labelled diagram of mitochondria (March 06, 05,

01, June 04, 03, Oct 99)4. Draw neat labelled diagram of position of values in human heart

(June 2000, March 99)

UNIT - 2CONTROL AND CO-ORDINTION

Chemical Co-ordination in plants1. Responding to changes in environment in an organism is termed as

_______2. Growth is a permanent increase in _______ of an organism.3. Proposal of plant growth substances was first put forward by

_______4. The growing region of a root is _______5. Auxins in plants are synthersized at _______6. _______ is a natural auxin.7. Auxins promote root _______8. _______ promotes growth and elongation of stems, roots and

enlargement of many fruits.9. Dicotyledonous weeds are destroyed by a chemical called _______10. If terminal bud of a plant is removed _______ grow.11. Terminal bud suppressing the growth of lateral buds is called

_______12. Hormone that controls phototropism and Geotropism in plants is

_______13. _______ and _______ are used for inducing roots in cuttings.14. Gibberellins increase _______ areas of a stem in plants.15. Parthenocarpy is the terms used for _______16. Gibberellins were extracted from fungal culture called _______17. _______ cause foolish seedling disease in rice.18. Dwarf pea plants grow tall after treatment with _______19. Parthenocarpy is induced in fruits like apple and pear with spray of

_______ hormone.20. Cell division in particular is induced by a hormone known as

_______

Chemical coordination in plants - Key1. Irritability 2. Size3. Charles Darwin4. below the tip5. Meristems6. IAA (Indole Acetic Acid)7. Growth8. Auxins9. 2, 4 - D (2, 4 Dichloro phenoxy acetic acid)10. Lateral branches11. Apical dominance12. Auxins13. NAA - (Napthaline acetic Acid)

IBA - Indole butiric acid14. Inter nodal15. Seedless fruits16. Gibberella Fujikuroi17. Gibberella Fujikuroi18. Gibberellins19. Gibberellin20. Cytokinin

Chemical co-ordination in Animals1. Substances that bring about co-ordination between organs are called

_______2. Ducts are absent in _______ glands.3. Endocrine glands discharge their secretion into _______4. The tissue (or) organs on which hormones act are called _______5. _______ is called the master gland of the body.6. Gland that acts as a bridge between nervous and endocrine system

is _______

7. _______ gland secrets growth hormone.8. _______ gland secrets oxytocin and vasopressin.9. Deficiency of vasopressin causes _______10. Deficiency of growth hormone in childhood results in _______11. Over secretion of growth hormone in childhood result in _______12. Excretion of 25 litres of urine per day is symptom of _______

disease.13. The gland that is present in the neck, near trachea is _______14. Deficiency of iodine in food results in the enlargement of _______

gland.15. Deficiency of thyroxide in children results in a condition called

_______16. The hormone that increases the rate of metabolism and temperature

is _______17. Deficiency of iodine in food results in _______ disease.18. The hormone secreted by thyroid gland is _______19. _______ hormone controls the level of calcium, and phosphates in

blood and bones.20. Excess secretion of parathormone results in _______21. The glands located on the top of kidneys are _______22. The outer part of adrenal gland is _______ and inner part is

_______23. Adrenal cortex secrets _______ and _______ hormones.24. Metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats in body is regulated

by _______25. Reabsorption of water and sodium in our body is controlled by

_______ hormone.26. Adrenaline is secreted by _______ of adrenal gland.27. _______ hormone controls physical and mental emotions.28. _______ is mixed gland.29. Islets of langerhans are present in _______30. Deficiency of _______ causes Diabetes mellitus.31. The hormone that converts glycogen to glucose is _______32. Glucagon is secreted when the level of _______ in blood is low.33. Testes secrets a hormone called _______34. Development of secondary sexual characters in man is controlled

by _______35. The condition in which male characters are not developed in males

due to the absence of testosterone is called _______36. _______ hormone helps in formation of placenta.37. _______ hormone helps in the implantation of embryo.38. _______ hormone helps in the contraction of uterus during child

birth.39. _______ is secreted when the level of glucose is high.40. _______ hormone helps in development of uterus.

"Chemical Coordination in Animal" - KEY1. Hormones2. Endocrine3. Blood4. Target tissue / Target organs5. Pituitary gland6. Pituitary gland7. Pituitary gland8. Pituitary gland9. Diabetes insipidus10. Dwarfism11. Gigantism12. Diabetes insipidus13. Thyroid gland14. Thyroid gland15. Cretinism16. Thyroxine17. Simple goitre18. Thyroxine

19. Parathormone20. Tetany21. Adrenal Glands22. Cortex, medulla23. Cortisol, aldosterone24. Cortisol25. Aldosterone26. Medulla27. Adrenaline28. Pancreas29. Pancreas30. Insulin31. Glucagon32. Glucose33. Testosterone34. Testosterone35. Eunuchism36. Progesterone37. Progesterone38. Oxytocin39. Insulin40. Progesteron

HUMAN NERVOUS SYSTEM1. Nervous system can sense changes inside and outside the body

through _______2. Three components of nervous system are brain, _______ and

_______3. Neurons get nutrients from supportive cells called _______4. A neuron consists of cyton, _______ and _______5. The granules present in the cyton are called _______ granules.6. The parts of neuron that transmit information to cyton are _______7. The part of neuron that carries away information from cyton is

_______8. The site where the axon and effector cell make contact is called

_______9. The gaps at regualr intervals in the myelin sheath are nodes of

_______10. Motor nerves carry impulses from _______ to muscles.11. Impulses from sense organs are carried to _______ (or) spinal cord

thourgh _______ nerves12. Impulses from the tongue are carried to spinal cord through

_______ nerves.13. A mixed nerve contains both _______ fibres and _______ fibres.14. In disease like polio _______ neurons get destroyed by virus.15. The major centre to receive, analyse and integrate information in

the body is _______16. The structure in the body that act as wires of a telephone are

_______17. The part of neuron which is generally called as nerve fibre is

_______18. The structure of neurons that are arranged in the form of a tree with

branches are _______19. Nerves that carry impulses from brain (or )Spinal cord to effector

organs are _______20. The organ in the human body which acts as a telephone exchange

is _______21. Axons are covered by a sheath called _______22. Electric potential of a neuron is _______ (or) _______23. Another name of cell body is _______ (or) _______24. _______ are bundles of several axons.25. The system that can sense changes both inside and outside the

body is _______

HUMAN NERVOUS SYSTEM - KEY1. Receptors2. Spinal cord, nerves3. Glial Cells4. Dentrites, axon5. Nissl’s Grannules6. Dendrites7. Axon8. Synapse9. Ranvier10. Brain (or) Spinal cord11. Brain, afferent12. Sensory13. Motor, Sensory14. Motor15. Brain16. Nerves17. Axon18. Dentrites19. Motor Nerves20. Spinal Cord21. Myelin Sheath22. 0.055 volts, 55 milli volts23. Cyton, Perikarya24. Neurons25. Nervous System

CENTRAL AND PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM1. The three divisions of nervous system are _______ and _______

nervous system.2. Brain and _______ are the parts of central nervous system.3. The divisions of autonomous nervous system are _______ and

_______4. Spinal cord and brain have neurons and _______ cells.5. The outer layers of brain appear grey because of the presence of

_______6. The white matter of brain has _______ axons hence it appear

white.7. In spinal cord _______ matter is on the surface and _______

matter is in deeper layers.8. The brain is covered by 3 membranes. The outer one is _______,

the middle one is _______, the innermost one is _______.9. In brain _______ fluid is present between outer and middle

membrane.10. Nutrients are provided to the cells of the brain by _______ fluid.11. Brain in man is present in a bony case called _______12. Forebrain is also called as _______13. The largest part of the brain is _______14. Peripheral nervous system consists of _______ and _______

nerves.15. The grey outer part of cerebrum is called _______16. Each half of cerebrum is called _______17. The ridges on cerebral cortex are called _______ and the grooves

called _______18. Gyri and sulci are present on _______ cortex.19. The functions of the left side of the body are controlled by the

_______ cerebral hemisphere.20. The functions of the right side of the body are controlled by the

_______ cerebral hemisphere.21. Parts of the brain below cerebral hemisphere are called _______22. The part of the brain that continues as spinal cord through vertebral

column is _______23. Spinal cord passes through _______ and protected by it.24. The cranial nerve that controls the heart beat is called _______

nerve.

25. All the spinal nerves are mixed as they contain both ____ fibresand _______ fibres.

26. Motor nerve fibres originate from _______ horn of _______27. From dorsal _______ of spinal cord _______ nerve fibres

originate.28. The surface area of the cerebrum is increased by _______29. The highest centre of brain that controls several functions of the

body is _______30. The portion of the brain that connects fore and mid brains is

_______31. The structure that passes through vertebral column and controls

reflex actions is _______32. The substance that appears as 'H' in a transverse section of spinal

cord is _______33. The number of pairs of spinal nerves in man are _______34. The number of pairs of cranial nerves in man are _______35. The total number of pairs of peripheral nerves in man are _______36. All the spinal nerves are _______37. Brain stem consist of _______ and _______38. Cerebellum is a part of _______39. _______ portion of brain has centres that control emotions like

anger, pain.40. _______ gland is attached to hypothalamus by a stalk.41. Centres for regulating temperature, hunger, thrist and emotion are

present in _______42. Voluntary movements of the body are controlled by _______43. _______ controls movements, posture and equilibrium of the body.44. _______ controls the vital functions of the body such as respiration

heart beat, and blood pressure.

CENTRAL AND PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM - KEY1. Peripheral nervous systemautonomous nervous system.2. Spinal Cord3. Sympathetic, parasympathetic nervous system4. Glial5. Grey matter6. Myelinated7. White, grey8. Dura matter, archonoid membrane, Pia matter9. Cerebrospinal10. Cerebro spinal11. Cranium 12. Cerebrum13. Cerebrum14. Cranial, Spinal15. Cerebral cortex16. Cerebral Hemisphere17. Gyri, Sulci18. Cerebral19. Right20. Left21. Diencephalon22. Medulla Oblongata23. Vertebral Column24. Vagus25. Sensory, motor26. Ventral, Spinal cord27. horn, sensory28. Gyri29. Cerebrum30. Diencephalon31. Spinal cord32. Grey matter33. 31 pairs

34. 12 pairs35. 43 pairs 36. mixed nerves37. Ponsvaroli, Medulla Oblongata38. Hind brain39. Diencephalon40. Pituitary41. Hypothalamus42. Cerebellum43. Cerebellum44. Medulla Oblongata

REFLEX ACTION, REFLEX ARC, HUMAN BRAIN1. The sudden and involuntary actions that save us from danger are

_______2. The structural and functional unit of a reflex action is called

_______3. In a reflex action the stimulus from receptor is carried to _______4. In a reflex action sensory nerve carries the information to _______

in the spinal cord.5. The information about a stimulus is analysed by _______ of spinal

cord.6. Interneurons (or) association neurons play an important role in

_______ actions.7. In a reflex action, the information from spinal cord is carried by

_______ to the _______ organ.8. The famous Russian scientist who conducted experiments on

conditioned reflexes was _______9. Out standing in attention when we hear our National Anthem is a

_______10. _______ part of the nervous system control involuntary actions.11. The neurons in the spinal cord that passes the information and

generate responses are _______12. The organ which receive information and generates impulses is

called _______13. The decade from 1990 to 2000 is known as _______14. The weight of the brain in the total weight of the body is about

_______15. The organ in the body that has aesthetic sense to appreciate poetry

etc is _______16. The part of the brain that helps in analysing a problem is _______17. Brain has more than _______ neurons.18. Brain consumes about _______ % of total oxygen consumed by

the human body.19. Withdrawing the hand when we touch fire is _______ reflexes.20. _______ reflexes are inherited and shown from birth.21. _______ reflexes are not inherited.22. _______ reflexes are learnt by doing the same at several times.23. The human _______ is the most complicated organ in animal

kingdom.24. Brain is solely dependent on _______ for its energy requirements.25. Each neuron receives 1000 to 10,000 inputs and conducts electrical

impulses at a speed of _______

REFLEX ACTION, REFLEX ARC, HUMAN BRAIN - KEY1. Reflex actions2. Reflex arc3.Spinal cord4. Interneurons5. Interneuron6. Reflex7. Motor nerves, effector organ8. Iron Pavlov

9. Conditioned reflex10. Spinal Cord11. Inter neurons (or) association neurons12. Receptor13. Decade of Brain14. 2%15. Brain16. Cerebrum17. 10 billion18. 20%19. Unconditional20. Unconditional21. Conditional22. Conditional23. brain24. Glucose25. 0.6 to 120 meters/min

UNIT - IICONTROL AND CO - ORDINTION

4 Marks Questions1. What are affects of auxins in plants? (June 07, March 03)2. What are affects of Gibberellins in plants? (March 05, 02, June

2000)3. What are affects of cytokinins in plants? (June 04, March 04, oct

99)4. Plant growth substances act together (or) against each other. Give

suitable examples in support of the statement. (March 1999)5. What is the importance of pituitary gland in the body? Mention the

hormones and their functions of this gland (June 01, March 06, 01,2000)

6. Write a brief account of adrenal glands. (March 07, 04)7. Describe the nerve cell with the help of a neat diagram. (June 06,

March 05, oct 99)8. Describe the structure of cerebrum (March 08, 06, oct 99)9. Write the components of reflex are and their functions (June 01,

March 04, May 01)2 Marks Questions

1. What is mixed gland? Give an example. What are the hormonessecreted by it?

2. What are endocrine glands? Give examples?3. Write short note on Diabetes mellitus.4. Write a short note on Tetany5. Write a short note on cretinism6. What is apical dominence?7. What are plant growth substances? Give examples.8. What are the differences between efferent nerves and afferent

nerves.9. What is action potential?10. What are nissel granules? Where do we find them?11. What are Gyri and Sulci? what is the advantage of these structures?12. Where do you find cerebrospinal fluid and what are its function?13. What are the differences between unconditional and conditional

reflexes?14. Explain how you withdraw your hand immediately and suddenly

without your knowledge when it touches a hot object.5 Marks Questions (Diagrams)

1. Draw neat labelled diagram of Human brain? (March 2001)2. Draw neat labelled diagram of Reflex Arc (March - 2003, 2000, oct

99)3. Draw neat labelled diagram of Nerve cell. (March 2003, June -

2003)

UNIT - IIIREPRODUCTION

1. Asexual Reproduction in Plants

1. New characters are seen in offspring in sexual reproduction due to____ recombination.

2. Production (or) fusion of gametes does not take place in ____ kindof reproduction.

3. In asexual reproduction of fungi, a large number of ____ areformed in special structures.

4. Chrysanthemum propagates often by means of ____5. Buds in bryophyllum are known as ____ buds.6. In layering, stems that form roots are still attached to ____ plants.7. In grafting, the union occurs through formation of ____ between

the two grafts.8. The ability of plant cell to give rise to a whole plant is called ____9. Technique of tissue culture is practised under ____ conditions to be

free from contaminating agents.10. Haploid plants are obtained commonly by introducing ____ in

culture media.11. New characters seen in the offspring which are not present in either

of the parents is due to ____12. ____ reproduction mainly involves formation of gametes.13. In stem cuttings, a slanting cut is made in the stem ____14. In layering, girdle is done around the base of the stem to ____15. ____ is preferred to multiplication by ornamental and horticulture

plants.16. ____ is the most common type of asexual reproduction in yeast.17. Curry leaf plant is propagated by ____18. In ____ spores are produced on the conidium.19. ____ reproduce by binary fission.20. Potato is modified ____21. In ____ root cuttings are used for vegetative propagation.22. The ability of an organism to produce a new generation of

individuals of the same species is called ____23. In fungi the most common type of asexual reproduction is ____24. ____ is the place where leaf arises on the stem.25. Bud at the tip of stem is called ____26. Buds which help in growth of the plant are ____27. Buds which give rise to flowers are called ____28. Vegetative propagation in potato occurs through ____29. ____ noticed that plant cells can be grown in synthetic media.30. The portion of the plant that is taken from the desired plant is

called ____31. Unorganised mass of tissue formed from explant is called ____32. Haploid plants can be developed through tissue culture by

culturing ____33. Haploid plants through tissue culture were developed by ____ and

____34. Growing embryos in culture media that do not develop inside the

ovary is called ____35. Embryo like structures formed in tissue culture are called ____

KEY - Asexual Reproduction in Plants1. Chromosomal2. Asexual3. Spores4. Suckers5. Epiphyllous6. Parent7. New tissue8. Totipotency9. Aseptic sterilized10. Pollen grains

11. Recombination of chromosomes12. Sexual reproduction13. Below the node14. Decrease downward movement of food15. Vegetative propagation16. Budding17. Root buds18. Aspergillus19. Bacteria/Euglena20. Underground stem21. Carrot22. Reproduction23. Sporulation24. Node25. Apical bud26. Vegetative buds27. Floral buds28. Eyes29. Haberlandt30. Explant31. Callus32. Pollen grains/haploid cells33. Shipra Guha, Satish Maheshwari34. Embryo rescue35. Embryoids

2. SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS1. In order to have genetic variation in the offspring, plants

commonly adopt ____ reproduction.2. Reduction in chromosome number takes place in ____ cells of a

plant.3. Floral parts arise on a swollen part of pedicel known as ____4. The third whorl of a flower is composed of ____5. The third whorl of stamens in a flower is known as ____6. Inside an anther lobe ____ mother cells undergo reduction

division.7. The deploid cell inside the nucellus that undergoes meiosis to give

rise to embryo sac is known as ____8. Fertilization is defined as the fusion of ____with ____9. The first cell formed after fusion of male gamete with egg is called

____10. The '3n' nucleus is formed from fusion of ____ nucleus with male

nucleus inside embryo sac.11. Carpels are present in ____12. The most essential floral organs required for sexual reproduction

are ____13. The cushion like part in the ovary where ovules arise is called ____14. At the time of fertilization diploid condition in embryo sac is seen

in the ____15. The first diploid condition in embryo sac after fertilization is seen

in ____16. Endosperm nucleus forms from the fusion of male gamete with

____17. The parts of the flower which are still useful after fertilization are

____18. Root part is represented in mature embryo by ____19. The study of pollen grains is called ____20. The basal part of the ovule where the two integuments arise is

known as ____21. Endospermic seeds are seen ____ plants.22. Non-Endospermic seeds are seen ____ plants.23. The stalk of the flower is ____24. Flowers with pedicel are called ____25. Flowers without pedicel are called ____

26. The tissue enclosed inside the ovule is ____27. ____ cells direct the growth of pollen type towards the egg.28. The condition of endosperm is ____29. After fertilization ____ is converted into fruit and ____ into seed.30. The unique feature of flowering plants is ____

KEY - Sexual Reproduction in Plants1. Sexual2. Reproductive3. Thalamus4. Stamens5. Androecium6. Pollen7. Megaspore mother cell8. Male, female gamete10. Secondary11. Pistil12. Gynoecium and androecium13. Placenta14. Secondary nucleus15. Zygote16. Secondary nucleus17. Ovary, ovule18. Radicle19. Palynology20. Chalaza21. Zea maize, paddy castor22. Bean, pea, bengalgram23. Pedicel24. Pedicellate25. Sessile26. Nucellus27. Synergids28. Triploid (3n)29. Ovary, ovule30. Double fertilization

3. SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN ANIMALS1. The male gamete is called ____2. In internal fertilization the ____are deposited in the body of the

female animal.3. Paramoecium undergoes sexual reproduction by ____4. A paramoecium has two nuclei. One is ____ and the other is ____5. During conjugation in paramoecium, cytoplasm of the conjugants

becomes continuous through ____6. The ____ nucleus of one conjugant crosses over the ____ and fuses

with the stationary pronucleus of the other.7. The pronucleus, synkaryon is formed by the fusion of ____ and

____8. The synkaryon of an exconjugant divides by ____9. Earthworm is bisexual but self fertilization does not occur as ____

mature earlier than ____10. The sperm mother cells of earthworm mature in spermatozoa in

____11. In earthworm fertilization occurs in ____12. In earthworm ____ received from another worm are stored in

spermatheca.13. In housefly ____ helps in laying fertilized eggs.14. Fertilization in housefly is called ____15. Croaking sounds are produced by ____ frogs.16. Ampluxory pads of frog help in ____17. In male frog testes open into ____ through ____18. In spermatozoan the nucleus is present in ____

19. The dark pigmented part of the egg of frog is called ____20. In the frog egg, yolk is stored in ____ pole.21. The oviducts of the female frog open into ____through ____

aperture.22. Protozoans like amoeba and paramoecium reproduce by ____23. External fertilization occurs in ____24. Internal fertilization occurs in ____25. A zygote devides by ____26. When both male and female sex organs are present in the same

animal, the phenomenon is called ____27. The organism that reproduces by conjugation is ____28. Conjugation is a type of ____29. The strength lost by repeated by binary fission is regained by ____30. The nucleus of paramoecium that is responsible for negatative

function is ____31. The micronucleus of paramoecium controls ____32. The number of daughter individuals produced by a conjugant is

____33. Exchange of nuclear material occurs in paramoecium during ____34. In Megascolex, the testes are present in the segments ____35. Cocoon of earthworm is formed by ____36. Ampluxory pads that help in copulation are present in ____37. The reproductive organs that are attached to kidney in frog are

____38. The tubes that act as urinogenital ducts in frog are ____39. The ________ of frog consists of group of eggs.40. The spawn of frog consists of ____41. The part of spermatozoan that helps it in penetrating the ovum is

____42. In Megascolex, the ovaries are present in the segments ____43. In Megascolex, the clitellum present in the segments ____44. The animals which show sexual dimorphism are ____45. The existence of distinct male and female animals is called ____

KEY - Sexual Reproduction in Animals1. Spermatozoan2. Sperms3. Conjugation4. Macronucleus, Micronucleus5. Cytoplasmic bridge6. Migratory pro, cytoplasmic bridge7. Migratory pronucleus, stationary pronucleus8. Mitosis9. Testes, ovaries10. Seminal vesicles11. Cocoon12. Sperm cells13. Ovipositor14. Internal fertilization15. Male16. Copulation17. Kidney, vasa efferentia18. Head region19. Animal pole20. Vegetal pole21. Body cavity, cloacal22. Conjugation (or) binary fission23. Fish, frog24. Reptiles, birds, mammals25. Mitosis26. Hermaphroditism27. Paramoecium28. Sexual reproduction29. Conjugation

30. Macronucleus31. Reproduction32. 433. Conjugation34. 10, 1135. Clitellum36. Copulation / Reproduction37. Ovaries38. Ureters39. Milt40. Milt41. Acrosome42. 1343. 14, 15, 16, 1744. Birds, mammals45. Sexual dimorphism

4. HUMAN REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM1. ____ reproductive system consists of testes.2. Male reproduction hormone secreted by testes is ____3. ____ tubules occur in testes.4. The epithelial cells lining the seminiferous tubules is called ____5. Spermatozoa from seminiferous tubules move into ____6. Acrosome of spermatozoan helps in ____7. Spermatozoa are temporarily stored in ____8. Accessory glands of human male reproductive system are ____,

____ and ____9. ____ provide energy for movement of spermatozoa.10. Sperms live for a period of ____ to ____ hours in the female

reproductive system.11. ____ follicles present in ovary.12. Ovum is formed from a cell called ____13. Ruptured follicle is called ____14. Corpus luteum secretes ____ and ____ hormones.15. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) is secreted by ____16. Leutinising hormone is secreted by ____17. After release from the follicle the ovum enters ____18. Number of ova released at a time in female human being is ____19. Formation of ovum from graffian follicle is called ____20. The cyclic changes that occur in the female reproductive system

for every 28 to 30 days is called ____21. Hormones that control menstrual cycle are secreted by ____ and

____22. During the ____ phase of menstrual cycle the follicle ruptures and

releases the ____23. Menstrual cycle occurs once in every ____ days.24. Foetus is attached to the uterine wall by ____25. From the third month of pregnancy, the embryo is called ____26. During the implantation, the embryo gets attached to the wall of

____27. During the development of human embryo cells differentiate into

layers called ____, ____ and ____28. The zygote divides by ____ and increases the number of cells.29. Development of follicle is stimulated by ____ hormone.30. Embryo is protected from external shocks by ____31. The sex of the embryo is determined by ____week of pregnancy.32. The placenta is formed by ____ week of pregnancy.33. The gestation period of pregnant woman is ____34. Child marriage restraint act is introduced in the year ____35. The process of attachment of the blastocyst to the walls of the

uterus is called ____

KEY

UNIT - IIIHUMAN REPRODUCTION SYSTEM - 41. Male2. Testosterone3. Seminiferous4. Germinal epithelium5. Vasa efferentia6. Reproduction 7. Epididymis8. Prostate, seminal vesicles, cowper's gland9. Mitochondria10. 24, 7211. Ovarian12. Primary oocyte13. Carpus luteum14. Oestrogen, progesterone15. Pituitary gland16. Pituitary gland17. Fallopian tube18. 119. Ovulation20. Menstrual cycle21. Pituitary gland and ovaries22. Prolifirative, ovum23. 28-30 days24. Placenta25. Foetus26. Uterus27. Ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm28. Mitosis29. Follicle stimulating hormone30. Amniotic fluid31. 6th32. 12th33. 40 weeks34. 197835. Implantation

UNIT - IIIREPRODUCTION

4 Marks Questions1. What are the differences between sexual and asexual reproduction.

(March 07, 09, June 03, 06, Oct 99)2. What is meant by vegetative propagation? What are the advantages

of vegetative propagation? (March 99, 06)3. What are different methods of grafting? (March 02, June 2000, Oct

99)4. What is grafting? What are its uses? (Oct 99, March 04)5. What are the applications of plant cell and tissue culture. (March

99, 03, 04)6. Describe the structure of a flower. (March 99, 04, 05, 07)7. What are the differences between a spermatozoan and an ovum?

(March 03, June 01, 06)8. Give an account of menstrual cycle in human beings. (March 01,

04, 08)9. Give an account of contraceptive methods. (March 99)

2 Mark Questions1. What is the major difference between sexual and asexual

reproduction? (March 99, June 06)2. What is binary fission? Where do you see this method of

reproduction? (June 07)3. Write two advantages of vegetative propagation. (March 99, 06,

08)

4. What is embryo rescue? When is this method followed? (March02)

5. What is totipotency?6. What is meant by callus?7. Give some examples of plants where vegetative propagation is

routinely done. (June 02, 07)8. What is bud? Write about the importance of buds in vegetative

propagation. (March 99)9. Write a short note on sexual dimorphism in animals. (March 03,

08)10. How do you differentiate between animal and vegetal poles of the

ovum of from? (March 03, 08)11. Draw labelled diagram of human spermatozoan? (March 01, 04)

5 Mark Questions (Diagrams)1. Draw the diagram showing longitudinal section of Datura flower

and label the parts. (March 99, 2000, 01, 04, June 07)2. Draw the structure of an ovule and label its parts. (March 03, 05,

June 01)3. Draw a diagram showing the process of fertilization and label the

parts. (June 02, 03)4. Draw neat labelled diagram of male reproductive system of frog.

(March 05, 07, June 01)

UNIT - 4HIV - AIDS

1. Modern disease which took over 3 million lives is _______2. Children with HIV... AIDS must be allowed to live a _______ life.3. HIV belongs to _______ family.4. HIV belongs to _______ class.5. HIV was discovered by _______ in 1983 at parts and by _______

at USA in 1984.6. AIDS is caused by _______7. HIV is spread through _______, _______ and _______ of the

infected person.8. HIV is _______ borne organism.9. A person with HIV infection may not show symptoms of

_______immediately.10. HIV can be detected through _______ test.11. Unprotected sex means indulging in sexual act without using

_______12. The late stage of HIV infection is _______13. A person can be infected with _______ and not know that he has

it.14. Spread of _______ and AIDS is very closely linked.15. HIV is not spread by _______ bite.16. The admission of a HIV infected child in a school should be along

with _______17. The first AIDS patient was detected in India in _______18. The number of HIV infected people in India up to 2003 is _______19. The number of HIV infected people in A.P. up to 2003 is _______20. The size of HIV is _______21. The shape of HIV is _______22. The 3 tests for detecting HIV are _______, and _______23. The first AIDS case was detected in India in _______ area.24. The enzyme responsible for the unique nature of HIV is _______25. HIV stands for _______26. AIDS stands for _______27. AIDS is transmitted by _______28. The period during which there is virus in the blood but no

antibodies is called the _______ period.29. _______ percentage of infections spread through unprotected

sexual relations.30. Adjusting to a given situation refers to _______ skill.31. A person who talks freely has _______ skills.32. One who can maintain healthy relationship with friends has

_______ skills.33. The skill needed to take right decision is _______34. The skill needed to freely expressing their views, fears, doubts,

anxiety etc. is ________35. There is no medicine for HIV. _______ is the only cure for HIV.

HIV - AIDS KEY1. AIDS2. Normal3. Retrovirus4. Lentivirus5. Luc Montagnier, Robert Gallo6. Virus7. Blood, Semen, Vaginal fluids8. Human Blood9. Infection10. Blood11. Condom12. AIDS Stage13. HIV14. STDs15. Mosquito

17. 198618. 40 lakhs19. 4 lakhs20. 120 nm (10–9 m)21. Icosahedral shaped22. ELISA, Western blot test, PCR test23. Chennai24. Reverse Transcriptase25. Human Immuno Deficiency Virus26. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndorme27. HIV28. Window Period29. 9130. Coping31. Communication Skills32. Build Caring relationships33. Decision Making Skill34. Communication Skill35. Prevention.

Unit - IVHIV - AIDS

4 Marks Questions1. A person initially infested with HIV reaches AIDS stage. What are

the different stages he passed through? (June 05)2. What are the skills necessary for every one to face the challenges

of life especially in the context of HIV ... AIDS?3. What are modes of HIV transmission? (June 04)4. What are the differences between HIV and AIDS?5. What are the ways through which HIV cannot enter into the human

body? (June 06)2 Marks Questions

1. Define the words HIV and AIDS.2. What are the enzymes present in HIV?3. Name the tests to defect HIV antibodies?4. Describe the structure of HIV. (March 07)5. Write briefly about AIDS? (March 05)6. What is window period.7. Draw the diagram of HIV

UNIT - 5NUTRITION

NUTRITIONAL REQUIREMENTS1. The Chemical substances required for energy, growth and body

building are called _______2. Vitamins and Minerals are required in small amounts. So they are

called _______3. Nutrition is the procurement of all _______ required for the body.4. Carbohydrates and Sodium are _______ nutrients.5. Iron and fluorine are _______ nutrients.6. Rice is rich in _______ and _______ in proteins.7. Carbohydrates contain _______, hydrogen and _______8. Cellulose is one kind of _______9. Milk Sugar is called _______10. Cane Sugar is called _______11. Animal starch is known as _______12. Amylase hydrolysis _______ into _______13. _______ helps in the smooth movement of the food in alimentary

canal.14. The Carbohydrate that is stored in the liver is called _______15. The energy released by 1 gram of glucose is _______16. Amino acids are units of _______17. At 20°C fat remains as _______18. Vanaspati is prepared from _______ fatty acids.19. There are _______ different amino acids in nature.20. _______ is essential amino acid in children but non-essential in

Adults.21. _______ are biologically complete proteins.22. _______ are biologically incomplete proteins.23. _______ and _______ are essential fatty acids.24. One gram of fat gives _______ kilo calories in our body.25. There are more than _______ mineral nutrients in our body.26. _______ is the major cation in the extracellular fluids of the body.27. _______ is the major cation in protoplasm of cell.28. _______ is the major Anion in our body.29. _______ is required for stimulation of neurons and osmotic

balance in our body.30. Calcium forms _______ percentage of the body weight in an adult

human being.31. We require about _______ milligrams of calcium per day.32. _______ is essential for the formation of bones, teeth, coagulation

of blood and production of milk in lactating females.33. Deficiency of Iron causes _______34. Deficiency of Iodine causes _______35. _______ percentage of iron is present in blood.36. _______ is essential for production thyroid gland hormone37. Bone deformities occur due to the excessive intake of _______38. Excessive intake of fluorine results in _______39. Fats are made up of _______ and _______40. _______ is universal Solvent.

Nutritional Requirements - KEY1. Nutrients2. Micro Nutrients3. Nutrients4. Macro Nutrients5. Micro Nutrients6. Carbohydrates, Poor7. Carbon, Oxygen8. Carbohydrates9. Lactose10. Sucrose11. Glycogen12. Starch, simple sugars13.Mucous coat

14. Glycogen15. 4 Kilo calories16. Proteins17. Solid18. Unsaturated19. 2420. Histidine21. Meat, Milk, Eggs22. Vegetables23. Linoleic acid, Linolenic acid.24. 9.4525. 5026. Sodium27. Potassium28. Chloride29. Potassium30. 1.5 to 231. 400 - 50032. Calcium33. Anaemia34. Hypothyroidism/Simple Goitre35. 60 - 7036. Iodine37. Fluoride38. Flurosis39. Fatty Acids, Glycerol40. Water

DEFICIENCY DISEASES - VITAMINS1. Taking food deficient in one (or) more _______ is called

malnutrition.2. The effect of malnutrition depends on _______ and _______ status

of the individual.3. In adults, when stored carbohydrates and _______ are used up the

body generates energy from _______4. Children do not have sufficient reserves of _______ and _______

in their body5. Malnutrition in pregnant women also affects the health of the

_______6. Children given less proteins in their food suffer from _______

malnutrition.7. Children given less calorie proteins in their food suffer from

_______ malnutrition.8. Kwashiorkor is caused due to the deficiency of _______9. The African word kwashiorkor means _______10. Over eating and excess intake of energy results in _______11. When more than 20% of the body weight is due to fat, the person

suffers from _______12. Recent studies have shown the obesity is _______13. In the body excess of fat is stored in _______14. The story of vitamins started in _______ century.15. Sir H.G. Hopkins discovered a substance required for growth in

_______16. Sir H.G.Hopkins called a substance required for growth as

_______17. The name vitamin was given by _______18. Vitamin B1 is also called _______19. Riboflavin is the chemical name of vitamin _______20. Deficiency of Thiamine causes _______21. Glossitis is caused by deficiency of vitamin _______22. When rice is polished (or) repeated by washed _______ vitamin is

lost from it.23. Sailors of Japan knew that eating of _______ causes beri - beri.24. Chemical name of vitamins B3 is _______25. Deficiency of Vitamin B3 causes _______

26. Chemical name of vitamin B6 _______27. Deficiency of _______ result in fits in children.28. Pernicious Anaemia caused due to deficiency of vitamin _______29. Cyanocobalamin is the name of vitamin _______30. The Vitamin that plays an important role in the metabolism of

nucleic acids is _______31. Deficiency of _______ results in burning of feet.32. Deficiency of _______ results in muscle pains, nervous disorder,

Fatigue.33. Chemical name of Vitamin 'C' is _______34. Deficiency of Vitamin 'C' Cause _______35. The Vitamin required for the formation of collagen is _______36. The vitamin that helps in the healing of wounds and fractures of

bones is _______37. Vitamin C helps in the absorption and storage of _______38. The vitamin that is highly sensitive to heat is _______39. Chemical name of vitamin 'A' is _______40. _______ is required for the production of pigments such as

rhodopsin and iodopsin.41. In plant foods vitamin 'A' is present in the form of a compound

called _______42. Night blindness in caused due to deficiency of _______43. Xeropthalmia is a disease of _______44. _______ vitamin is stored 6 to 9 months in run body.45. Chemical name of vitamin - D is _______46. _______ vitamin helps in absorption of calcium and phosphorus.47. Sunlight converts _______ present in foods in the body into

vitamin D.48. Deficiency of vitmain D causes _______ in children.49. Chemical name of vitamin - E is _______50. The vitamin that prevents sterility in males is vitamin _______51. Chemical name of vitamin K is _______52. The vitamin required for coagulation of blood is _______53. Vitamins are not synthesized in the body. So they are called

_______54. The Vitamins which are synthesized in human intestine by bacteria

are _______55. In adults _______ deficiency weakens the bones and breaks.56. Deficiency of _______ vitamin results in abortion in females.

Deficiency Diseases - KEY1. Nutrients2. Age and Health3. Fats, Proteins4. Carbohydrates, Fats5. Child6. Protein7. Calorie8. Proteins9. Displaced child10. Obesity11. Obesity12. Genetic13. Adipose Tissue14. 18th

15. Milk16. Accessory Factor17. Funk18. Thiamine19. B220. Beri - Beri21. B222. B1 (Thiamine)23. Polished rice24. Niacin/Nicotinic Acid

25. Pellagra26. Pyridoxine27. Pyridoxine28. B1229. B1230. Folic Acid31. Pantothenic Acid32. Biotine33. Ascorbic Acid34. Scurvy35. Vitamin C36. Vitamin C37. Iron38. Vitamin C39. Retinol40. Vitamin A41. Carotene42. Vitamin A43. Eyes44. A45. Calciferol46. D47. Cholesterol48. Rickets49. Tocoferol50. E51. Phylloquinone52. Vitamin K53. Essential Nutrients54. Vitamin K, Cyanocobalamine55. Vitamin D56. E

TROPICAL DISEASES, SOME COMMON DISEASES1. Balanced diet, clean environment and _______ keeps the body

healthy.2. Disturbance in normal functioning of the body results in _______3. Entry of a disease causing organism into the body is called

_______4. Large number of disease causing organisms do not produce

sickness in _______5. The Vectors of plague bacteria are _______6. The vectors of yellow fever are _______7. The vectors of hepatitis are _______8. The vectors of malaria protozoans are _______9. The time between entry of parasite in body and appearance of

sickness is known as _______10. _______ causing bacteria enter through wounds from soil.11. Diseases like mumps, measles, whooping cough and tuberculosis

are spread by _______12. AIDS is transmitted by _______13. Incubation period of African sleeping sickness is _______14. Diseases such as plague and malaria are transmitted through

another living animal known as _______15. During the stage of _______ parasites release toxins and interfere

with normal functioning of the host.16. Immune system plays a major role in the development of _______

to a disease.17. _______ disease has spread in the cattle of Britain due to the

contamination of cattle feed.18. _______ disease is caused due to hepatitis virus.19. The toxins that damage liver cells are called _______20. Mumps is caused by _______ virus.21. Mumps mostly effects _______ glands.22. Paramixovirus (RNA) causes _______ disease.

23. Measles is also called _______24. Rubella disease is described first by the scientist _______25. Encephalitis is caused by _______26. _______ organisms are carriers of encephalitis.27. _______ mosquito is vector of encephalitis.28. The larvae of filarial worm are known as _______29. Swelling of lymph vessles and lymph glands are seen in _______

disease.30. The two nematodes which cause filariasis are _______ and

_______31. Malaria means _______32. Malaria parasite was discovered by _______33. Transmission of malaria by mosquitoes has been confirmed by

_______34. The Primary host of malaria parasite is _______35. The part of life cycle of malaria parasite spent in man is known as

_______36. The Secondary (or) intermediate host of malaria parasite is

_______37. In the mosquito, sporozoites are present in _______38. Merozoites are released by the rupture of _______ cells.39. Gametocytes are developed from the stage of _______40. Chill, headache and sweat are the symptoms of _______ disease.41. The best way of an individual getting protected from malaria

parasite is by using _______42. The sporozoites of the malarial parasites are formed from _______43. _______ is the drug used for the treatment of filaria.44. In earlier days malaria was treated with a drug called _______45. Yellow colour of urine is due to the presence of _______ in a

disease.46. The part of life cycle of malaria parasite spent in mosquito is

known as _______ cycle.47. Malaria is caused by a protozoan parasite called _______48. A habitat where the disease causing organism lives prior to

infection is known as _______49. Central nervous system is effected in _______ disease.50. Muscle remain in a permanent state of contraction in a disease

called _______

TROPICAL DISEASES, SOME COMMON DISEASES - KEY1. regualr excercise2. Disease3. Infection4. Reservoir5. Rats6. monkeys7. human beings8. mosquitoes9. incubation period10. Tetanus11. droplets12. direct contact13. 20 - 30 years14. Vector15. Manifestation16. Resistance17. Mad - Cow18. Jaundice19. Hepatotoxins20. Myxovirus Parotitis21. Parotid (Salivary)22. Measles23. Rubella24. Abubakar25. Arbovirus

26. Pigs, cattle, poultry birds27. Culex28. Microfilaria29. Encephalitis 30. Wuchereria bancrofti, Wuchereria malayi31. bad air32. Charles Lovinon33. Sir Ronald Rose34. Female anopheles mosquito35. Asexual36. Man37. Saliva38. Liver cells39. Merozoites40. Malaria41. Mosquito net42. Zygote43. Diethyl Carbomazine44. Quinine45. Bilirubin46. Sexual47. Plasmodium48. Reservoir49. Encephalitis50. Tetanus

FIRST AID & HEALTH AGENCIES1. The originator of first aid was _______2. First aid was popularised by _______3. The term _______ is used to indicate that a bone is broken due to

an accident.4. Simple fracture is also called _______5. The type of fracture where bone is broken at several places

_______6. The type of fracture is associated with damages to important

internal organs such as liver, brain, intestine and major bloodvessels is called _______

7. Compound fracture is also called _______8. If bone bends but does not break, the fracture is called _______9. Anganwadi means _______10. Health care centre established for a population of 3000 to 5000 is

commonly called _______11. _______ covers a population of 100 and spread over about

1,00,000 villages.12. In rural areas deliveries of pregnant of pregnant women are usually

carried out by _______13. First aid was popularised by st.Johns Ambulance service in

_______ year.14. The purpose of first aid is to keep the _______ alive.15. A person extending voluntarily the social service on health

problems at village is called _______

FIRST AID & HEALTH AGENCIES - "KEY"1. Esmarch2. St. Johns Ambulance Service3. Bone fracture4. Closed fracture5. Communicated fracture6. Complicated fracture7. Open Fracture8. Green stick fracture9. Court Yard10. Sub - Centre11. Primary Health12. Dayees

13. 187914. Victim15. Village Health Guide

UNIT - 5NUTRITION

4 Mark Questions1. In what way does calcium help the body? (June 02, March 06, 07,

oct 99)2. What is fluorosis? How does it affects the body? (June 01, March

07, 02, May 01)3. What are the effects of kwashiorkor disease on children? (June 01,

May 01)4. What are the differences between kwashiorkor and Marasmus?

(June 01, May 01)5. Mention various disease caused by the deficiency of Vitamin A

(March - 99)6. Describe the changes in malarial parasite that occur in mosquito

(June 06, 03, March - 2000)7. Write briefly about Jaundice (or) Hepatitis? (oct - 99)8. What are the rules to be followed white giving first aid? (June 06,

05, 03, March 01, 99)9. Describe the process of first aid for fracture. (June 06, 05, 03,

March 01, 99)10. What are the functions of primary health centres (March 03)

2 Marks Questions1. What biologically complete proteins? Give examples? (March 02)2. Why do sports persons take glucose (Mar. 08, 02)3. What is iodized salt? Why is it advisable to take iodized salt?

(March - 08, 03)4. What is the only treatment available for obesity? (June 02, March

99)5. Which cells of the body are responsible for obesity and why?

(March - 03)6. What is the method evolved by the NIN - Hyderabad to prevent

blindness. (March - 05)7. What is the loss if rice is polished (or) washed repeatedly? What is

the diseases it causes? (June 01, May 06, 01, March 9)8. What are the steps to be taken to control malaria? (June 01, May

06, 01, March 09)9. Why is the skin colour yellow in jaundice patient? (June 05, 01,

May 01)10. What are the vertebrate hosts of encephalitis?11. What is first Aid? Mention its purpose? (March - 2000)12. Describe the duties of village health guide? (June 07, 06, 02,

March 07, 05, 04, May)

S.No Vitamin Chemical Name Deficiency diseases1 B1 Thiamine Beri - Beri, loss of appetite

2 B2 Riboflavin Glossitis, cracking of mouthat corners

3 B3 Niacin, Nicotinic Acid Pellagra

4 B6 Pyridoxine Anaemia, disorders ofnervous system

5 Folic Acid Folic acid Anaemia, Diarrhoea,loss of Leucocytes

6 B12 Cyanocobalamin Pernicious Anaemia7 Pantothenic Acid Pantothenic Acid Burning feet

8 Biotin Biotin Muscle pains, nervousdisorders fatigue

9 Vitamin C Ascorbic Acid Scurvy

10 Vitamin - A RetinolNightblindness, Xeropthalmia …..of cornea, scaly skin

11 Vitamin - E Tocoferol sterility in males, Abortionsin females

12 Vitamin K Phylloquinone Delay in blood clotting

II.S.No Scientist Contributions

1 Malvin Calvin Calvin cycle/ Carbon fixation/ Dark reactions

2 Sir Hans Krebs Krebs cycle (Respiration)3 Karl Landsteiner Blood groups4 F.W.Went Auxins

5 Charles Darwin Proposal of some substances control growth in plants

6 Iron Pavlov Conditional reflex actions/Experiment on dog

7 Haberland Cell and Tissue Culture

8 Shipra Guha and Satish Maheswari

Haploid plants in Tissueculture (Pollen culture)

9 Luc Montagnaier and Rober Gallo HIV

10 H.G.Hopkins Growth regulating substance in Milk

11 Funk Vitamins12 Esmarch First Aid

13 St.John Ambulance Service First Aid was made popular

14 Carl Erickae Biotechnology15 Sunderlal Bahuguna Chipko moment16 Abubakar Rubella/Measles17 Sir Ronald Ross Malaria18 Charles Darwin Plasmodium Protozoan

Important Material related to Match the following

III

S.No DiseaseCausitive organisms/

Deficiency substances/related ones

1 Kwashiorkor Deficiency of proteins

2 Marasmus Deficiency intake of energy food /Adipose Tissue

3 Obesity Hepatitis Virus/Hepatotoxins/ Bilirubin

4 Jaundice Hepatitis VirusHepatotoxins/Bilrubin

5 Mumps Myxovirus parotitis (RNA), Patotid glands

6 Measles Paramyxo Virus/ Rubella/ Abubakar

7 Encephalitis Arbovirus/Pigs/Culex mosquitoes

8 Filariasis

Wuchereria Bacrofti/Wucherieria malayai/ Microfilaria/ lymph glands and lymph vessels

9 Malaria Plasmodium/Female Anopheles mosquito/ RBC

10 Mad cow Contamination of Cattle feed

IVS.No Respiratory organs Type of Respiration Animal

1 Lungs Pulmonary Mammals2 Gills Branchial Fishes,Tadepoel larva3 Skin Cutaneous Earthworm, leach, frog4 Trachea Tracheal Insects(Butterfly)

VS.No Age Respiration rate

1 Newly born child 32 times/minute2 5 years child 26 times/minute3 25 years child 15 times/ minute4 50 years child 18 times/minute

VI

S.No Name of the Animal

Number of chambers in heart

1 Fishes 2 chambered heart2 Frog (Amphibians) 3 chambered heart

3 Garden lizard, Snake (Reptiles)

Incompletely divided 4 chambered heart

4 Birds, Mammals 4 chambered heart

5 Cockroach 13 chambered heart6 Earth worm 8 pairs of hearts

1 Blue colour Blood snails/crabs

2Colourless (or) white colured blood - cockroach, grasshoper

(Insects)

3 Haemoglobin in plasma Earth Worm

4 Blood sinuses/Alary muscles cockroach (Insects)

5Branchial heart/single circuit circulation

Fish

6 Bicuspid valve Mitral Valve7 Sinus Venosus Caval Veins/Frog8 Yeast Budding9 Bacteria/Eugleena Binary fission

10 Curry leaves Root buds / Adventitious buds

11 Bryophylum Epiphyllous buds12 Milt Spermatozoa /Frog13 Spawn Ova/Frog14 Krebs cycle citric acid cycle15 Glycolysis Pyruvic acid16 Heart attack Blockage in coronory arteries17 Spigmomanometer Measuring B.P.18 Universal Donor 'O' Blood Group19 Universal Recipient 'AB' Blood Group20 Apical Dominence Auxins21 Pancreas/Islets of Longerhans Insulin/Diabetes mellitus

22 Vasopressin Diabetes insipidus/pituitary gland

23 Parathormone Tetany24 Estrogen Female Hormone25 Testosterone Male Hormone26 Vagus nerve 10th cranial nerve/Heart beat27 HIV AIDS/ Reverse Transcriptase28 Glucose 4 K.Cal of energy29 Fats 9.45 K.Cal of energy 30 ATP 7200 calories of energy31 Mitochondria Power houses of the cell32 Operculum Bony fishes

VII. Other Important Ones

W W W . S A K S H I . C O M / V I D Y A / B H A V I T H A

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ImportantQuestions

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Analysis

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1. The Screw gauge works on theprinciple of _____ (March 04, June 04)

2. The Scale present on index line ofscrew gauge is called as ____ (Oct-99)

3. Screw guage consists of _____ scaleand ____ scale.

4. Pitch of the screw P = _____ / No.ofrevolutions made.

5. L.C. of a Screw guage = pitch of thescrew / ____

6. If the Zeroth division of the head scalein below the indexline of the pitchscale, the error is said to be _____ andthe correction is _____

7. If 'p' is the pitch of the scale and 'N' isno.of head scale divisions them L.C.=_____

8. If screw moves 5mm for 5 revolutions,the pitch of the screw is _____

9. If a screw consists 200 head scaledivisions which contains pitch as 1mmthen the least count is _____

10. If the L.C. is 0.01 mm, Pitch scalereading is 1.5 mm and the headscalereading is 18, then the diametre of theobject is ____

1. The value of the universal gravitationalconstant is ____

(March-2009, April-2009)2. The weight of 400g stone is _____ N

(June-08, April-08, June-06, March-2000)3. Units for 'G' in SI System ____

(March, 2008)4. Ptolemaic theory is also known as ____

(March-2007)5. As per Kepler's theory, the planet revol-

ves around sun in_____ path.(March06)6. Universal law of gravitation is applicable

at _____ (March 2005)

7. Kepler's law supports _____ theory(March 1999)

8. Heliocentric theory is proposed by _____(June - 2000)

9. Units of acceleration due to gravity is_____ (March - 2001)

10. Acceleration due to gravity at poles is_____ and at equator it is _____ (March -2003)

11. Acceleration due to gravity is highest at_____ (March-03, 02, June-03)

12. Example for sensitive instruments used tomeasure small changes in the value of gat given place is _____

(June - 05, 02, 01, March - 04)13. Numerical value of the universal

gravitational constant is _____(June-07)14. The weight of a substance in the force

____15. The gravitational force of earth over

moon is _____ than the gravitationalforce of moon over earth.

16. As the altitude increases the 'g' value____

17. As the depth increases the 'g' value ____

18. Relationship among g, G, M and r is ____19. If the mass of an object is 'm', then the

weight of the same w = _____20. The mass of an object at anywhere in the

world is ____21. The principle used to determine the force

of attraction between two objects 'F' =____

22. When Kepler modernised Copernicussystem, the shape of the path of orbit isstated as ____

23. As per Copernicus solar system earthrevolves around its axis and also revolvesin circular orbit around ____

24. The acceleration attained by a body dueto the gravitational force of attraction ofearth is called as ____

25. The distance between the earth and themoon is _____ k.m.

26. The acceleration of moon towards earthis _____ km/sec2

27. Gravitational force of attraction on abody of 10 kg is ____

1. If a ball which is thrown up attainsa maximum height of 80m the initialspeed of it is _____

(June 2008, March 04, 02)2. The uniform acceleration produced in a

freely falling body due to thegravitational pull of the earth is _____

(June 2008)3. The time for which a body remains in air

is called _____ (March 08, June 07)4. The maximum height reached by a body

when it is projected upwards with a initialvelocity 'u' is _____

(April 08, June 06, 05, 00, March 04)5. The time of ascent is directly

proportional to _____ (April 08, june 08)6. When a body is dropped from a height 'h',

then the velocity of the body on reachingthe earth is _____ (March 2007)

7. For a body moving under the influence ofgravity, time of ascent is equal to _____

(March 2006, 08)8. When a body is projected upwards, the

accleration due to gravity is taken _____ (March, 08)

9. The maximum height reached by a bodythrown with initial velocity 10m/sec is_____ (June 02)

10. The time taken by a body to reachmaximum height is _____

(March-03, June-07)11. Maximum height reached by a body

thrown with initial velocity 40 m/g is_____ (March-04, 02)

12. The time for which a body remains in airis called _____ (March-08)

13. The acceleration of a falling body a = ___14. The initial velocity of a freely falling

body is ____15. The time taken by a freely falling body to

reach earth is ____16. Ascending time = Descending time = ___

17. The acceleration of a body ''a'' at the timeof ascending ____

18. Time of flight t = ____19. Ascending velocity and descending

velocity of a body at a fixed point in air is____

20. If a body takes one second to reachground when it is dropped from abuilding, the height of the building is____

1. A car moves on a curved but level road.The necessary centripetal force on the carif provided by _____

(March 2009, 04, June - 2003)2. In simple harmonic motion, the

acceleration of the particle is directlyproportional to _____ (March, 09)

3. _____ is a machine used to separateparticles of higher mass from those oflower mass in a given mixture

(March, 01)4. The force of attraction of a particle

radially towards the centre of circle is_____ (March, 1999)

5. An imaginary co-ordinate system whichis either at rest or in uniform motion andwhere Newton's laws are valid is calledas _____ (June, 03)

6. Circular motion is a variety type of _____motion.

7. If the stone tie up with a thread rotating ina circular motion is untied the motiondirection of the stone is ____

8. In uniform circular motion _____ isconstant.

9. The force acting towards centre is calledas ____

10. If the angle of banking is θ, the tanθ =____

11. The angular velocity of a hours hand inclock is ____

12. The machine which dries wet clothes is____

13. The angualr velocity of a minutes hand ina clock is ____

14. The force found only in fixed rotational

Physical ScienceOUR UNIVERSE & GRAVITYSCREW GAUGE

Time Taken to Reach Maximum Height?

SCREW GAUGE

KINEMATICS

Our Universe & Gravity

DYNAMICS

Answers:1. Screw 2. Pitch Scale3. Pitch, head4. Distance travelled by the Screw5. No.of head scale divisions6. Positive, negative 7. P/N 8. 1 mm9. 0.005mm 10. 1.68 mm

Answers:1. 40 m 2. Acceleration due to gravity3. Time of flight 4. U2/2g'5. Initial velocity 6. √2gh7. Ascending time or U/g'8. negative 9. 5m10. Descending time 11. 80 m12. Time of flight 13. ''g''14. Zero 15. Descending time16. U/g' 17. – g 18. 2U/g19. equal 20. 5m

Answers:1. 6.67×10–11Nm2Kg–2 2. 3.9 N3. Nm2Kg–2 4. Geocentric theory5. Elliptical6. Anywhere in the universe 7. Heliocentric theory 8. Copornicus9. mg–2 10. Maximum, Minimum11. Poles 12. Gravity Metre13. 6.67×10–11

14. Of attraction of earth on it15. Low 16. Decreases17. Decreases 18. g = GM/r2

19. mg' 20. Constant21. F = GMm/r2 22. Elliptical 23. Sun 24. Acceleration25. 3.85×105 26. 0.0027m/sec2 27. 98N

Y. Ravi KumarTG, Senior Teacher,

Hyderabad

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3

frame is ____15. The bend of a cyclist moving on edges

depend on ____16. The realationship among 'r', v and ''w'' is

____17. One radian = ____18. Relation between time of oscillation 'T'

and frequency f is ____19. One revolution = _____ radians.20. The angular momentum of a body L =

____21. The magnitude of centripetal acceleration

a = ____22. Centripetal force F = ____23. In a uniform circualr motion if the radius

is doubled then the centripetal force ____24. The angle made by a body with respect to

time is ____25. Units for angualr velocity is ____26. Centrifugal force acting on a car which

has 1200 kg mass, moving with 6m/secvelocity along a road have 180m. circularradius is ____

27. The angle subtended by an arc of lengthequal to its radius at its centre is definedas ____

28. The rate of angular displacement is called____

29. 2π radians = _____ degrees 30. Time taken by a body for one complete

revolution is called ____31. Ball left by a bowler attains _____

motion before reaching a batsman.32. dθ/dt = ____33. Angular velocity w = 2π ÷ _____

Radians34. ____ separates molases from sugar

crystals.35. Systems which do not obey Newtons

laws of motion are called as ____

1. The wavelength of the visible spectrum is_____ (June - 09, 05, 04, March 01)

2. The electromagnetic radiations that areused to take photographs of objects indarkness _____ (March - 2009)

3. ____ rays are emitted in radioactivity.(June - 2008)

4. The velocity of electromagnetic waves is_____ (March 2008)

5. Electromagnetic radiations with shortestwavelength are _____ (March 2008)

6. Rays used in RADAR _____(April 08, June 07) (March 2001)

7. We are protected from ultravioletradiations of the sun because _____ inour atmosphere absorbs UV raysstrongly. (June 2007, April -2008)

8. The radiations used in physio - therapy is_____ (March 2007)

9. Velocity of light in vaccume _____(June - 2006)

10. Electromagnetic waves are _____ type ofwaves. (March 2006)

11. 1A°= _____ (Oct - 1999)12. Frequency range in radio broadcasting

_____ (March - 2006)13. RADAR means _____ (Oct - 99)14. Microwaves are generated in a electrical

circuit on account of _____ (June - 01)15. On account of change in the rotation or

vibrations of molecules of a substance_____ rays are emitted.

16. The waves useful in Telemetry ____17. ____ rays cause skin cancer if body is

exposed for moretime of the same.18. ____ waves are generated on account of

the vibrations of low frequencyelectromagnetic radiations.

19. The wavelength range of Radio waves.20. Infrared rays are located through ____21. The process of using soft X-rays in

medical diagnosis is called as ____22. ____ waves are used in Micro Oven.23. ____ cause damage to ozone layer.24. The wavelength range of Infrared rays is

from _____ to ____.25. Mapping of the radio emissions from

extra terrestrial sources in known as ____

1. If the distance between a node andthe next antinode in a stationary wave is10 cms, then the wavelength is _____

(June 09)2. Velocity of sound in air 'V' = _____

(March-09, April-08) (June-06) (March03, 01)

3. In a stationary wave, the point at whichthe maximum displacement is _____

(June, 2008)4. Periodic vibrations of decreasing

amplitude are called _____ (June, 2007)5. The vibrations that take place under the

influence of an external periodic force arecalled _____ (June, 2007)

6. A medium transmits a sound wavethrough it, by virtue of its _____

(March 2007)

7. The distance between successive nodeand antinode is _____ (March - 2006)

8. In a resonance experiment if the firstresonance air column length is 10cm, thesecond length of resonance air column isat ____

9. The distance between two successiveparticles which are in the same phase iscalled as ____

10. ____ waves are developed in theresonance of air columns.

11. If particles in the wave vibrateperpendicular to the propagation of wave,then it is called as ____

12. By keeping the length of a pendulumconstant, the vibration range is increased

by energy then frequency ____13. ____ is the reason for the collapse of a

bridge if march fast is done on it.14. ____ are the stationary points of particles

of media in stationary waves.15. The distance between two successive

antinodes in a stationary wave is ____16. The wavelength of a sound wave where

the velocity is 300m/sec and frequency is10,000Hz is ____

17. Waves containing compressions andrarefractions are ____

18. Units for the frequency ____19. The velocity of sound waves have

frequencies 200 Hz and 500 Hz is ____20. Frequency possessed by each system is

called as ____21. If frequency is ''ν'' and wavelength is ''λ''

then the velocity of sound v = ____22. The phenomenon in which if one of the

two bodies of the same natural frequencyis set into vibrations, the other body alsovibrates under the influence of the firstbody is called ____

23. When two waves of equal frequency andamplitude travel in opposite direction_____ are formed.

24. Velocity of sound in vaccume is ____25. Velocity of sound in air is determined

with ____

1. Unit for the intensity of light _____(June 2009, March 2007)

2. Expand ''LASER'' _____(June 2009, April 2008)

3. ____ is the change in the phase of a wavewhen it is reflected (June - 2008)

4. For a constructive super position ofwaves, the phase difference between thewaves should be equal to _____

(June - 2008)5. The unit of solid angle (Ω) is _____

Physical ScienceLIGHTSOUND

ELECTRO MAGNETICSPECTRUM

SOUND

Answers:1. 0.4µm - 0.7µm 2. Infrared rays3. Gama 4. 3 × 108 m/s 5. GAMA6. Micro waves 7. Ultra violet rays8. Infrared rays 9. 3×108 m/s10. Transverse waves 11. 10–8 cm12. 300 KHz to MHz13. Radio detection and Ranging14. Oscillatinos of high frequency

electromagnetic waves15. Infrared 16. Microwaves17. Ultra violet 18. Radio waves19. 1m - 100 km 20. Thermofile21. Radiography 22. MICRO23. Spray of gaseous solutions24. 0.7µm - 100µm25. Radio Astronomy

Answers:1. Abrasion between Car tyres and road2. Displacement 3. Centrifuge4. Centripetal force5. Inertial frame of reference6. Rotation 7. Along contact line8. Angular Velocity 9. Centripetal Force10. v2/rg 11. π/6 radians/hour12. Laundry drier 13. π/1800 Radians/Sec14. Centrifugal force 15. Speed16. V = rω 17. 57°291 18. T= 1/f19. 2π 20. mωr2 21. v2/r22. mv2/r 23. Increases twice24. Angular displacement25. Radians/sec 26. 147 N27. Radian 28. Angular Velocity29. 360 30. Periodic Motion31. Rotation 32. ω 33. T34. Centrifuge35. Non - inertial frame of reference

Answers:

1. 40cm 2.

3. Antinode 4. Damped Vibrations5. Forced Vibrations 6. Elasticity, Inertia7. λ /4 8. 30 cm 9. Wavelength10. Stationary Waves 11. Transverse Wave12. No change 13. Resonance14. Node 15. λ /2 16. 3 cm17. Longitudinal waves 18. Hertz19. Equal 20. Natural frequency21. v = νλ 22. Resonance23. Stationary waves 24. zero

25.p

vλ=ρ

pλρ

LIGHT-NATURE OF LIGHTAND SOURCES OF LIGHT

Velocity of Electromagnetic Waves?

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Physical ScienceCURRENT ELECTRICITYMAGNETISM

(March 2008)6. The process of achieving population

inversion is called as ____7. ____ proposed wave theory of light

(June-2003)8. First scientist explained about the nature

of light is ____9. Scientist explained the colours of light

with the different sizes of light particles is____

10. Radiations of quanta is called ____11. As per newton's theory velocity of light is

_____ in denser medium.12. _____ phenomenon could n't explain by

Newtons theory of light.13. Scientist proposed medium of 'Ether' in

universe is ____

14. The imaginary three dimensional surfaceformed by the particles of a mediumwhich are vibrating in the same phase iscalled a ____

15. If the velocity of light in vaccume is ''c''and the velocity of light in a medium is''v'', then the refractive index of mediumµ = ____

16. If angle of incidence is i in rarer mediumand the angle of refraction is ''r'' is densermedium the refractive index of mediumµ = ____

17. Crests of water waves in ripple tank act as____

18. The velocity of water wave is _____ asthe depth of the water increases

19. For destractive superimposition of waves,the phase difference between the wavesshould be equal to ____

20 ____ is the reason for noticing sounds ofone room to another room.

21. Refractive index µ = velocity of light invaccume (c) / ____

22. ____ is used for curing meninzes(March 2005, oct - 99)

23. Lumen is unit for _____ (March - 2007)24. The wavelength of ruby laser is _____

(June 2004)25. ____ proposed law of laser at first in the

year 1954. (June - 2004)26. Modern units for the flux of light ____27. The width of band in a quality laser is

____28. The science of measuring the intensity of

light of two sources with a special units is

called as ____29. 1 Lumen / Steridian = ____30. Temporal coherence is important in the

production of ____31. ____ is the cause for optical noise in

ordinary light.32. ____ rays posses directionality.33. ____ destructs ICBM in air.34. Special three dimentional photography

using laser is called as ____

1. Gadolinium is a ______ magneticsubstance (June 2009)

2. Locate Para magnetic substance amongAl, Hg, Co & AU _____ (June - 2008)

3. Magnetic field induction on the equatorialline is given by B = _____Newtons/Amphere - Metre (June - 2008)

4. Magnetic permeability of space is _____(March 2008, 06, 2000)

5. The magnetic moment of a bar magnet oflength 5cm with pole strength 2 × 10–3

ampere - meter is _____ (March - 2008)6. The units of pole strength in SI system is

(April - 2008)7. Air, water & Bismuth are the examples of

_____ magnetic substances.(April - 2008)

8. Substances are those in which theresultant magnetic moment of individualatoms is not zero are called as _____

(June 2007)9. Relationship between magnetic flux

density (B) and the magnetic field (H) is____ (June - 2007)

10. ____ is the diamagnetic substance amongBismuth, Iron and Oxygen(March - 2007)

11. The unit of magnetic pole strength inMKS system is _____ (June - 2006)

12. The value of µr for diamagnetic

substances is _____ (March - 2002)13. The relative permeability of diamagnetic

substances is _____ (March - 2002)14. Units for the intensity of magnetisation is

_____ (March - 1999)15. Susceptibility of dia-magnetic substance

is _____ (March 2005, June - 2001)16. Relationship between absolute permeabi-

lity µ, relative permeability µr is ____17. SI units for H = ____18. Relationship among φ, A and B is ____19. 1 weber = _____ Ampere - metre20. µr value for space = ____21. If the length of magnet is (2l) and

polestrength is (m)then magnetic momentM = ____

22. B0 is not considered for a bar magnet at_____ points.

23. The point where the B & B0 nullify eachother forms _____ near by a magnet.

24. B0 value of Andhra Pradesh is ____25. The magnetic moment M of a bar magnet

when neutral points are on equatorial lineand B = B0. Then M = _____ A - m2

26. The magnetic moment M of a bar magnetwhen neutral points are on axial line andB = B0. M = _____ A - m2

27. A pole which repulses with a force of 10–7

N of another pole kept at a metre distanceis called as ____.

28. Magnetic momentum present in unitvolume of a substance is called as ____

1. Rate of electrical work done isdefined as _____ (June 09).

2. A transformer works on the principle of_____ (March 09).

3. The value of mechanical equivalent ofheat is _____ (March 09).

4. The work required to be done to producea quality of heat of 1 calorie is _____joules (June 08).

5. The equivalent resistance when tworesistors of 8Ω each are connected inparallel _____ (March 08).

6. A device which converts mechanicalenergy into electrical energy is _____(April 08).

7. The instrument used to measure potentialdifference between two points is called_____ (June 07).

8. When resistances are connected in _____,the total voltage is divided among them(March 07).

9. The symbol of battery is _____ (June 06).10. The conductors which do not obey ohms

law, are called as _____ (March 06).11. Unit for flow of current is _____

(March 99).12. The resultant resistance when R1 = 100Ω,

R2 = 1Ω are connected in parallel = ____ (March 00)

13. The resultant resistance when 6Ω, 12Ωresistances are connected parallel _____(June 01).

14. The resultant resistance of 6Ω, 12Ω areconnected in serial is ____ (March 03).

15. When 240V potential difference ismaintained in a bulb a flow of 3A isobserved through it. Then the resistanceof bulb is ____ (June 04).

16. Potential difference between two points ismeasured with ____ (June 07).

17. Electrical current is measured with ____instrument (March 00).

18. When 1v, 1.5v, 5v emf batteries areconnected in parallel the resultant emf is-____ (March 02).

19. Magnetic induction (B)=____(March 00).20. Electrical motor converts _____ energy

into _____ energy (March 07).21. Volt meter is always connected in ____ in

electrical circuit. (March 00).22. Use of iron core on transformer is ____

(March 01).23. Mechanical energy is converted into

electrical energy by _____ throughelectromagnetic induction (March 02).

24. Units for self induction is ____ (June 07).25. Full form of RPM is ____26. If a electrical coil is rotated in the

presence of magnetic field the inducedemf is changed for every revolution of

Lumen is Unit for?

Answers:

1. Candle2. Light amplificatoin by stimulation

Emission of Radiation3. 180° 4. 2πn 5. Steridian6. Pumping 7. HUYGENS 8. Newton9. Newton 10. Photon 11. More12. Polarisation13. Huygens14. Wavefront 15. C/V16. Sin i /Sin r 17. Convex lense18. Increases 19. π 20. Diffraction21. Velocity of light in medium22. LASER 23. Luminous flux24. 6943Å 25. Charles H. Towns26. Lumen 27. 10–8 28. Light

Photometry 29. LUX 30. Laser 31.Non Coherence 32. LASER 33.LASER 34.Holography

MAGNETISM

Answers:1. Ferromagnetic Substance

2. Al3.

4. 4π × 10–7 Henry/metre5. 10–4 Ampere - metre2

6. Ampere - metre 7. Dia8. Para magnetic substance 9. B = µ0H10. Bismuth 11. Weber12. µr≤1 13. Nearly equal to one14. Ampere - metre 15. Very low16. µ =µ0µr 17. Ampere / metre18. φ = AB 19. µ0 Ampere - meter20. 1 21. 2 ml 22. near by23. null points or neutral24. 0.39×10–4 Tesla 25. 390d3

26. 195d3 27. Unit pole strength28. Magnetic Intensity I

03

M

4 d

µπ

CURRENT ELECTRICITY

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____ coil.27. The equivalent weight of oxygen is ____28. Units for electro chemical equivalent is

____29. As per Faraday's first law of electrolysis

m = ____30. Commercial unit of electrical energy is

____31. Unit for electrical charge is ____

32. Instrument used for the measurement ofcurrent is ____

33. The relationship among electrical chargeQ, workdone W and potential differenceV is ____

34. The resultant emf when three batteries of1.5 v are connected in serial is ____

35. The resultant emf of two batteriesconnected in parallel of 1.5v and 2.0 v is____

36. If one of the bulbs connected in series isremoved the bulbs ____

37. 1/R means ____38. Units for conductivity is ____39. The relationship among R, g is ____40. Non-ohmic conductor among copper,

Aluminium and electrolyte is ____

1. ____ has more ionization amongα, β, γand x-rays

(June 09, 00, March 02).2. 1 amu = ____ Mev (June 09).3. In a p-type semi conductors ____ are the

majority carriers. (March 09).4. To make silicon a p-type semi conductors,

the impurity to be doped in____ (June 06)5. are examples for _____

(June 06).6. ____ electro magnetic radiations are

released in Radio activity. ( March 06).7. If a β particle is emitted the mass number

____ (June 00, March 03).8. If one α particle is emitted the mass

number changes by ____(March 03, june 00)

9. Thorium series is called as ____ series (June 02)

10. Bismuth series is called as ____series (June 02)

11. The radius of atomic nucleus ____(June 03)

12. Elements contain same mass number withdifferent atomic numbers are called as____ (June 05).

13. Neptunium series is otherwise called as____ series (June 06).

14. α particle is a ____ charged particle15. ____ isotope is used to decide the age of

rocks (March 00).16. (June 2004)17. Difference between the particles of

nucleons to the mass of nucleas is calledas ____

18. If the total mass of combined two nucleiis less than two individual nuclei thedeficiency is called ____

19. Rutherford's planetary model wasproposed with ____ experiment (March06).

20. Principle involved in the Hydrogen bombis ____

21. Principle involved in the construction ofatom bomb is ____

22. ____ reactions are noticed in the stars

23. are the examples of ____24. The age of fossils is determines with ____

isotopes

1. Assembler is a ____ language(March 09)

2. Among arsenic, antimony, phosphorousand antimony ____ is added to convertsilicon into p-type of semi conductors(June 06).

3. If the temperature of a semi conductorincreases the energy gap also ____

(June 01)4. Conduct particles in semi conductors are

____ (March 03, 00).5. ____ combinations compile a program

(June 00)6. Transistor works as ____ (March 03).7. P-n junction diode acts as ____ (June 00).8. ____ number of bits form a byte9. If trivalent valency atoms like Gallium

are added to Germanium ____ types ofsemi conductors are formed (March 99).

10. Combination of 8 bits form a ____ (March 00)

11. The symbol of p-n junction diode is ____ (June 02, March 01)

12. Camera consisting cathode rays andphotoes is called as ____ (June 01).

13. Last four bits in BCD code is ____14. First four bits in BCD code is ____15. Digits like "o" or "1" called as ____16. ____ is used as electronic switch.17. ____ is used as rectifier.18. Adding of impurities in a small quantities

is called as ____19. ____ selects modulated waves.20. I.C. means ____21. A.M. means ____22. In semi conductors the conduction of

holes and electrons will be in ____direction.

23. The arrow mark in transistor denotes____24. Three terminals contains by a transistor

are ____25. ____ are the conductance particles in n-

type of semi conductor.

26. Basic is a type of ____27. CPU consists of ____28. Arithmetic operations are carried out by

____ in Micro processor.29. Unit decodes and executes the

instructions given in the program by ____in micro processor.

30. Instrument used for scanning is ____31. Scientist discovered transistor is ____32. Transistor was discovered in the year

____33. If the partial conductor is cooled to a

temperature of OK the EG value will be____

34. Energy gap in insulator is ____35. Energy gap in semi conductors is ____36. Trivalent impurities are ____37. Pentavalent impurities are ____

1 21 1H, H

238 23492 90U Th ____→ +

40 4019 20K, Ca

Answers:1. Electric power 2. Mutual Induction

3. 4.18 Joules/calorie 4. 4.18 Jouls

5. 4Ω 6. Dynamo 7. Voltmeter

8. Series 9. –| |–

10. Non-ohmic or Non linear conductors

11. Amphere 12. 0.99 Ω 13. 4Ω14. 18Ω 15. 80Ω 16. Voltmeter

17. Ammeter 18. 5v 19.

20. Electrical, Mechanical 21. Parallel

22. Controls flux 23. Dynamo

24. Henry 25. Revolution per minute

26. ½ rotation 27. 8

28. GRAMS/Columb 29 ZiT

30. Kilowatt hour. KWH 31. Coloumb

32. Ammeter 33. W=Vq

34. 4.5 v 35. 2.0V 36. Glow off

37. Conductance 38. Mho/meter

39. RA/L 40. Electrolytes.

0 i

2 v

µΠ

Answers:1. Machine 2. Aluminium3. Decreases 4. Electrons, holes 5. Instructions6. Amplifier7. Electronic switch or rectifier8. 8 9. P-type10. BYTE 11. 12. Iconoscope 13. Numeric bits14. Zone bits 15. Bit16. P-n junction diode 17. Junction diode18. Doping 19. Oscillation20. Integrated circuit21. Amplitude modulation22. Opposite 23. Emission24. Emitter, base, collector25. Electrons 26. Higher language27. Control unit, ALU, Memory28. ALU 29. Control unit30. Icono scope 31. Williamshock lee32. 1948 33. Reduced 34. 3 ev35. 1 ev 36. Acceptor impurities37. Donor impurities

MODERN PHYSICS

Answers:1. α particle 2. 931.5 3. Holes4. Aluminium 5. Isobars 6. γ7. Increases by one unit8. Reduces by 4 units9. 4n series 10. (4n+1) 11. 10–13 cm12. Isobar 13. (4n+1) 14. Positive15. 16. 17. Mass defect 18. Mass deficiency19. Scattering of α-particles20. Nuclear fusion 21. Nuclear fission22. Nuclear fusion 23. Isotopes 24. Carbon dating

42 He235

92 U

ELECTRONICS

Physical ScienceELECTRONICSMODERN PHYSICS

Thorium Series is Called as?

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ChemistryCHEMICAL BONDINGATOMIC STRUCTURE

1. The electronic configuration ofchromium (Cr) is _____ (June-2009)

2. ______ contains less energy among 3p,4s, 3d and 4p

(March-2008, 09, April-2008)3. No. of sub shells present in L shell is

______ (March-2004, 08)4. If l = 3 then the values of m is ______

(March-2008)5. Rutherford's atomic model introduced

based on ______ experiment.(April-2006)

6. ______ proposed elliptical orbits. (March-2000, 01, 03, June-2001)

7. 'l ' value of d sub-shell is ______(March-1999)

8. Symbol to show the rotation of electronsin clockwise is ______ (October-1999)

9. Among H2, O2, Cl2 and HCl ______contains s-p overlapping. (June-2004)

10. The shape of s-orbital is ______(June-2000)

11. Electron enters ______ after filling 3d.(March-2004, June-2004)

12. Distance between the nucleus and theoutmost shell is called ______

(June-2007)13. Atomic number of magnesium is ______

(March-2006)14. 1s22s22p63s1 is the electronic configura-

tion of ______ (March-2008)15. Electronic configuration of sodium (z =

11) is ______ (March-2002)16. Number of sub shells present in 'M' shell

______ (June-2005)17. Electronic configuration of copper is

______ (June-2003)18. Quantum theory of radiation is proposed

by ______19. No. of sub shells present in K, L, M and

N ______20. If n is the principle quantum number then

the maximum value of l is ______21. The shape p-orbital is ______22. No.of maximum electrons present in each

main shell is ______23. Units for atomic radius ______

24. Pockets of electromagnetic radiation are______

25. Value of Planck's constant is ______26. As the charge of nucleus increases the

ionization energy also ______27. Place where the probability of electron is

zero called as ______28. ______ principle states that no two

electrons contain all four quantumnumbers equal.

29. Units for electron affinity ______30. ______ takes place after filling of each

degenerated orbital with one electronaccording to Hund's principle.

31. ______ Law which states higher energyorbitals are filled after lower orbitals arefilled

32. Most probable place of an electron iscalled ______

33. As per Bohr's atomic model angularmomentum mvr = ______

1. Molecule contains s–p overlappingis ______ (June-2009)

2. ______ is the shape of PH3 molecule. (March-2009)

3. The shape of CO2 is ____(March-2009)

4. Molecule contains double bond amongN2, C2H4 HCl and Cl2 is _____

(June 2006)5. Bond angle in water molecule is ______

(June-2003)6. Molecule containing ''V'' shape is ______

(March-2002, October-1999)7. The shape of Ammonia molecule is

______ (June-2003, 04)8. The shape of PCl5 molecule is ______

(March-2001, June-2002)9. ______ bond is formed by sharing of

electrons.

10. ______ bond is formed due to the transferof electrons.

11. ______ type of overlapping is observedin F2 molecule.

12. ______ sigma and ______ ''π'' (pi) bondsare found in N2.

13. No.of lone pair electrons noticed onoxygen in water is ______

14. The energy of a molecule is always______ than the sum of the energy ofindividual atoms.

15. End-to-End type of overlapping forms______ bond.

16. Side by side overlapping forms ______bond.

17. ______ pair of electrons are donaated incoordinate covalent bond.

18. ______ is electron pair donar on NH4+

molecule.19. Strongest bond among s–s, s–p and p–p is

______ 20. Valency of carbon atom is ______ 21. No.of electrons present in outer most

shell of inert gases other than in Heliumis ______

22. Number of lone pair electrons noticed onNitrogen in Ammonia is ______

23. The shape of methane is ______ 24. Angle among p–orbitals is ______

1. ______ period is partially filledwith elements in long periodic table.

(June-2008)2. First person proposed classification of

elements is ______ (March-2007)3. Number of elements in the first period of

long periodic table ______ (April-2008)4. Values of ionization energy ______ move

from top to bottom in a group.(June-2000)

5. Locate Dobereiner triad among (Na, Ne,Ca), (Li, Na, K), (H2, N2, O2) and (Na,Br, Ar) ______ (March-2001)

6. Elements have atomic numbers from 58to 71 are called as ______ (March-2003)

7. Elements with atomic numbers from ''90to 103'' are called as ______ (June-2009)

8. ______ group of elements are used asoxidents in long periodic table.

(June-2002)9. Electronegativity is measured with

______ scale. (June-2001, 05)10. Mendeleev's classification of elements is

based on ______ (June-2001, 02)11. IIA group elements are called as ______12. Sand P block elements together are called

as ______13. Other name of d-block elements is

______14. Other name of f-block elements is

______15. Lanthanoids belong to ______ period.16. Actinoids belong to ______ period.17. Element with high electro positivity is

______18. Adding of hydrogen to a compound is

called as ______19. Ionization is measured in terms of ____20. One Fermi = ______21. 1 ev = ______ kilo calories/mole.22. The other name of ecoboron is ______23. Mendaleev named Gallium as ______24. Law of octanes is proposed by ______25. The general electronic configuration of

inert gases is ______26. Leuther mayar classified elements based

on ______27. Scientist discovered scandium is ______28. General electronic configuration of

Alkalies is ______29. Inert gas belongs to second period is

______30. Modern periodic law is based on ______31. Element which doesn't follow octet

electronic configuration is ______32. Radio active element in IA group is

______33. Radio active element in IIA group is

______

The Shape of S-orbital is?ATOMIC STRUCTURE

PERIODIC CLASSIFICATIONOF ELEMENTS

CHEMICAL BONDING

Answers:1. [Ar]4s13d5 2. 3p 3. 24. 7 5. Scattering of α-particles6. Somerfeld 7. 2 8. ↑9. HCl 10. Spherical11. 4p 12. Atomic radius/size13. 12 14. Sodium15. 1s22s22p63s1 16. 317. [Ar]4s13d10 18. Maxwell Planck19. 1, 2, 3, 4 20. (n–1) 21. Dumbell22. 2n2 23. Angstrom24. Photon 25. 6.625 × 10–27 Erg/sec26. Increases 27. Nodal Plane28. Pauli's 29. Electron volts30. Pairing 31. Aufbau principle32. Orbital 33. nh/2π

Answers:1. HCl 2. Pyramid 3. Linear4. C2H4 5. 105° 6. Water7. Pyramid 8. Trigonal bipyramid9. Covalent bond 10. Ionic bond11. p–p 12. One, two 13. Two14. Less 15. Sigma 16. π17. Only 1 18. H+ ion 19. p–p20. Four 21. 8 22. One23. Tetrahedron 24. 90°

Answers:1. Seventh 2. Dobereiner 3. Two4. Decreases 5. Li, Na, K6. Lanthanoids 7. Actinoids 8. VIIA9. Pauling 10. Atomic Weight11. Alkaline earth metals12. Representative elements13. Transition elements14. Inner Transition elements 15. VI16. VII 17. Cesium 18. Reduction19. Electron volts20. 10–13cm (or) 10–15 metre21. 23.04 KCal/mole 22. Scandium23. Eko Aluminium 24. John Newlands25. ns2np6 26. Atomic Weight27. Nelson 28. ns1 29. Neon30. Atomic Number31. Boron in Boron trifluoride32. Francium 33. Radium

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1. Ore of Magnesium is ______(March-2008, June-2009)

2. Formula of Dolamite is ______(March-2009)

3. ______ element forms peroxide withmore oxygen besides oxide also.

(April 2008)4. The formula of magnesite is ______

(June-2007)5. ______ is used as cathode at the time of

extraction of magnesium by electricmethod. (March-2007)

6. Reagent used at the time of extraction ofBeH2 from BeCl2 is ______ (June-2006)

7. In order to increase the conductivity ofanhydrous MgCl2 ______ and ______ areadded. (March-2000)

8. Number of water molecules present inEpsom salt is ______ (Octber-1999)

9. Alkaline earth metals are _____10. [Ar]4s2 is the electronic configuration of

______11. Most unstable hydride among MgH2,

BaH2 and BeH2 is ______12. Anode used during electronic reduction

of MgCl2 is ______13. Number of water molecules removed

initially from carnolite is ______14. Ore of Beryllium is ______15. Ore of Barium is ______16. Nature of CaO is ______17. Alkaline earth metal used in crackers is

______

1. If 10 grams of Na2CO3 is added to 190grams of water the weight percentage ofsolution is ______

(March-2009, June-2009)2. The solubility of NaCl ______ with the

increase of temperature. (June-2009)3. If 4 ml of alcohol is added to 36 ml of

water the volume % = ______(June-2006, 07, 08)

4. The molecular weight of Na2CO3 is______ (March 2008)

5. If 12 grams of Na2CO3 is present in 120

grams of solution the weight % = ______(April-2008)

6. Weight of exalic acid present in100 ml of0.2M oxalic acid solution is ______(March-2007)

(M.W. of oxalic acid is 126)7. If 10 grams of Na2CO3 is present in 120

grams of solution the weight % = ______(June-2005)

8. Solubility depends on ______, ______factors.

9. Solvent in aqueous solution is ______ 10. Substance whose solubility decreases

with the increase of temperature is _____11. Solubility of gases ____ with the increase

of temperature.12. Molecular weight of H2SO4 is ______ 13. Example for polar solvent ______ 14. Example for non-polar solvent is ______ 15. Naphthalene dissolves in _____16. Acetic acid is a ______ electrolyte17. If 2 moles of Na2CO3 is added to 3 moles

of water, the mole fraction of water is______

18. Weight of solute dissolves is 100 gramsof solvent at constant temperature is ____

19. ______ solutions are unstable.20. ______ are absent for V%, Wt% and

mole fraction.21. Molarity depends on ______

22.

23.

24.

25. (V in litres)

26. Substances like NaCl, NaNO3, Na2SO4,KCl, BaCl2 ______ when they dissolve inwater.

27. CH3COOH, NH4OH dissolve ______ inwater and hence they are ______

28. When _____ increases for _____ of weakelectrolytes the ionization increases.

29. Compounds like glucose, sucrose andurea dissolve in ______ but dont ______hence they are called ______

30. Vinegar is ______ 31. Formula of Naphthalene is ______

1. The concentration of [H+] in a solutionof pH = 6 is ______ (June-2009)

2. MgO contains ______ nature(March-2009)

3. Ionic product of water at 25°C is ______ (June-2009)

4. KW value varies with ____(March-2008, June-2005, 07, 09)

5. If pH > 7 then the solution is a ______ (April 2006, 08)

6. Methyl orange shows _____ colour in thepresence of acid.

(March-2007, June-2007)7. Phenaphthelein shows ______ colour in

the presence of a base (March-2001)8. If pH = 8 then H+ ions concentration is

______ (March-2003)9. Heat of neutralysation observed when a

strong acid reacts with a strong base is______ (March-1999, June-2005)

10. pH value of a pure water is ______(June-2003)

11. If pH is 10 then [H+] = ______(March-2004, June-2002)

12. Formula of acetic acid is ______(March-2000)

13. H2SO4 + Ca(OH)2 → ______(March-2004)

14. ______ formed when non-metallic oxidesdissolved in water.

15. ______ formed when metallic oxidesdissolved in water.

16. ______ proposed theory of acids & basesionization.

17. Substances that gives OH– in the presenceof water is ______

18. Concentration of H+ ions at 25°C in wateris ______ ions/litre

19. ______ introduced the term pH20. pH value of gastric acid is ______ 21. Combination of H+ and OH– ions is

______ 22. Acids or bases that completely ionize in

the presence of water ............ ______ 23. As the pH increase from 7 to 14 the

nature of ______ increases24. As the pH values decreases from 7 to 1

the ______ character increases.25. Ionization energy during CH3COOH →

CH3COO– + H+ is ______ K calories.

1. The bond length of C – C ingraphite is _____ (March 2009)

2. Dry ice is _____(March'08, April'08, June'06)

3. Formula of Alkyne is _____(March 2008)

4. C8H18 is the example of that is ____(June 04)

5. Alkanes participate in ______ type ofreactions (June 2007)

6. Refractive index of diamond is _____(March 07)

7. Alkenes participate in _____ type ofreactions (March 07)

8. No. of carbons present in Hexane is_____ (June 2006)

9. Important component present in cookinggas is ______ (June 2006)

10.

(March 03)

11. –COOR is the functional group of_______ (March 04, 02, 00. June 05)

12. Alkane among C4H10, C4H8, C4H6 AND

C6H6 IS ____ (March 99)13. C–COOR functional group present amo-

ng CH3COOC2H5, C3N7NH2 CH3CHO,CH3COOH is _____ (June 2001)

14. ______ indicates the functional group ofketones (Jan2002)

15. Functional group –NH2 indicates _____ (March 2003)

16. Metal used in identifying functional

Fe O 3CO ________ _______2 3∆+ → +

.................... 1Molarity

Molecular Weight V= ×

.............Molarity (Vin litres)

V=

......................% 100

Volumeof solution= ×

Weightof soluteW% 100

..............= ×

SOLUTIONS

ALKALINE EARTHMETALS

Answers:1. Carnolite (or) Magnesite2. CaCO3MgCO3

3. Barium 4. MgCO3 5. Iron tank6. LiAlH4 7. KCl, NaCl 8. 79. Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba and Ra10. Calcium 11. BeH2 12. Graphite13. 4 14. Beryl 15. Barytes16. Basic 17. Magnesium

Answers:1. 5 2. No change 3. 104. 106 5. 10 6. 2.5 grams7. 1000/1208. Solute, Solvent, Temperature9. Water 10. Ce2(SO4)311. Decreases 12. 98 13. Water14. Kerosene, Benzene, Alcohol15. Kerosene 16. Weak 17. 3/5 or 0.618. Solubility 19. Super saturated20. Units 21. Temperature22. Weight of solution 23. Volume of solute24. n 25. Weight of solute26. Ionize27. Partial, weak electrolyte28. Temperature, dilute29. Water, Ionization, Non electrolytes30. Dilute acetic acid 31. C10H8

ACIDS - BASES

Answers:1. 10–6 2. Base

3. 1.0 ×10–14 mole ion2/litre

4. Temperature 5. Base

6. Red 7. Pink 8. 10–8

9. 13.7 KCal/mole 10. 7

11. 10–10 12. CH3COOH

13. CaSO4 + 2H2O 14. Acids

15. Bases 16. Arhenias 17. Bases

18. 1×10–7 19. Sorenson

20. 1 to 2 21. Neutralization

22. Strong acid, strong bases

23. Basicity 24. Acids 25. 0.3

CHEMISTRY OFCARBON COMPOUNDS

ChemistryACIDS - BASESSOLUTIONS

Solvent in aqueous solution is?

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ChemistryOILS - FATSCARBOHYDRATES

group of alcohol is ____ (March 2006)17. The functional group of Aldehyde is

_____ (March'99)18. CH4 + 2O2 → ____ + _____ (March'99)19. HC ≡ CH + 2Cl2 → ______ (March'99)20. Expreses the equation for the Hydrolysis

of calcium carbide to give acetylene______ (March'02)

21. Balanced equation of the dissociation ofNaHCO3 when it is heated is _____

(June'03)22. Alkene participate in additional reactio-

ns because it contains _____ (March'04)

23. Name of –CO–NH bond is _______(March'04)

24. The process of forming dry ice by suddenexpansion and cooling of CO2 is called as_____

25. The best conductor of electricity amongAnthracite, Coal, diamond and graphite is_________

26. The hardest substance in nature is________

27. Gas that is used in turning the raw fruitsinto fruits artificially is ______

28. C60 Buck minster pullarin is a _____ typeof structure.

29. No. of cycles present in C60 is _______30. Scientists who got noble prize on the

study of C60 are ________31. Element contains more catenation power

is ________

1. Enzyme that divides Glucose is _____ (June'09)

2. Sweetest available sugar is ______(April'08)

3. Defacation means addition of ______ (June'06, 07, 08) (June'01)

4. In the fermentation of molases ______micro organisms are used.

(June'07, March'07)5. _____ and _____ are the example of seed

which gives oils (March'07)6. The spent cane sugar is called as ______

(June'06)7. Example for a polysacharoid is ______

(June'03)8. ____ is reduced by the glucose in tollens

test (June'00, 04)9. Which is not a biproduct among Bagase,

Press mud, Sugar and molases in sugarindustry _____ (March'05)

10. _____ is present in Benedict solution (Oct'99, March'02)

11. _____ seperate sugar crystals from canesugar juice (June'07)

12. Substances formed by glucose duringfermentation _____

(June'07, 00, March'07)13. Biproduct during the production of

alcohol is _____ (June'03)14. Ammonical silver nitrate solution is

called as _____ reagent (Oct'99)15. Aldoze means ____16. Number of carbons in Hectose is _____17. By adding _______ rectified spirit turns

into absolute alcohol.18. No. of water molecules in Magnesium

sulphate is ______19. Identify Aligosacharoid among maltose,

glucose, fructose and manoze is _____20. The precipitate obtained after defac-

ation, carbenation and sulphitation is_____

21. _____ is extracted from country dates.22. Enzyme that divides sucrose is ______23. ____ is identified with Iodine test24. No. of water molecules present in copper

sulphate is ______25. The process of turning huge molecules

into minute molecules is called as ______26. Alcohol percentage in wash is _____

27. Alcohol that causes blindness is ______28. Temperature required at the time of

fermentation is ______29. Another name for a dipole ion is _____30. Siekel cell anaemia is a type of _____

disease.31. ______ plays important role in the

structure of animal cell.32. ______ type of carbohydrate is present in

cloth.

1. In shaving soap ____ is morepresent (March'03, 01, June'02)

2. Catalyst used in the hydrogenation of oilsis ____ (June'02, March'02, 99)

3. Soaps remove bad smell contain _____ (June'06)

4. 2Na3PO4 + 3CaCl2 → 6NaCl + ______(March'00)

5. Formula of linoleinic acid is ______(June'01)

6. The process of turning unsaturated oilsinto saturated oils is called as ______

(March'01)7. Detergent are used even with hardwater.

Because _____ (June'02, 04)8. The formula of stearic acid is ______

(June'08)9. Cation that present in the soap of dry

cleaning is _____10. Salts of fatty alcohol sulphates are _____11. Chemically oil & fats are ______12. Formation of soap process is called as

_____13. Saponification ______ is the biproduct14. Salts of fatty acids is ______15. Cardliver oil is useful _________16. Salt present in cloth cleaning soaps is

_____17. Greeze contains _____ salts.

1. Example for a mixed fertilizeris _____ (June'09, 08)

2. Cement is the mixture of ______(June'09, 08)

3. Cold cream is the _____ of water and oil(June'08, March'06)

4. _____ is the example of Auxochrome(March'08)

5. Glass blowing is possible with ____ glass(June'06, May'08)

6. _____ is used as refrigerator lining(March'08)

7. Drugs which act on blood circulation are_______ (April'08)

8. The action of chromophore is ______(April'08)

9. _____ type of glass is used for thepreparation of laboratory glassware.

(April'08)10. The process of cooling gas is called

_______ (March'07, 06, June'07)11. ______ holds materials together by

surface attachment (June'07)12. Objects of Terrakota are _____ (June'06)13. Scientist who prepared dye at first

artificially is ______ (June'03)14. The chemical formula of talc is _____

(June'05, 07)15. Materials required for the preparation of

glass are ______ (March'99)16. Artificial rasin among Rosin, Decron,

Cellulose acetate is _____17. Plastic used in the manufacture of pipes

is ______18. Natural gelatin from milk protein is

_____19. _____ is used in the preparation of ice

cream cups.20. Nitrophosk is a _________21. Dye which doesn't require the help of

other substances is ______22. _______ discovered artificial dye.23. Use of adding cullet to glass is _____

Chemically Oil and Fats are?Answers:

1. Free stearic acid 2. Nickel

3. 3,4,5 tri bromo salicylamide

4. Ca3(PO4)2 5. C17H29COOH

6. Hydrogenation

7. doesn't form precipitate with Ca2+, Mg2+

but gives froth

8. C17H35COOH

9. Triethanol Ammonium Salt

10. Detergents

11. Tryesters of glucerol and fatty acids

12. Saponification 13. Glucerol

14. Soaps 15. Medicine 16. Na+

17. Li+

Answers:1. Zymase 2. Fructose 3. Ca(OH)2

4. Yeast 5. Groundnut, sunflower

6. Bagase 7. Starch, Cellulose

8. Ag+ ions into Ag 9. Sugar

10. Copper sulphate 11. Centrifuge

12. Ethyl alcohol + CO2 13. CO2

14. Tollens reagent

15. Polyhydroxy aldehydes 16. 6

17. CaO 18. 6 19. Maltoze

20. Press mud 21. Country dates spirit

22. Invertase 23. Starch 24. 5

25. Fermentation 26. 15 - 20%

27. Methyle alcohol 28. 30°C

29. Zwitter ion

30. ineffective haemoglobin 31. Protiens

32. Polysacharoid

CARBOHYDRATESAND PROTEINS

OILS - FATS

CHEMISTRY AND INDUSTRY

Answers:1. 1.42Å 2. Solid CO2

3. Cn . H2n – 2 4. Alkene (octane)

5. Substitution reactions 6. 2.417. Additional reactions 8. "6"9. Butane 10. 3Fe + 3CO2

11. Ester 12. C4H10

13. CH3COOC2H5 14.

15. Amine 16. Sodium17. –C–CHO18. CO2 + 2H2O + 212.8 K.Cal

19. Cl2CH – CHCl220. CaC2 + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + C2H2

21. 2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2

22. Presence of double bend 23. Peptide24. Joules Thomson effect 25. Graphite26. Diamond 27. Acetylene28. Foot ball 29. 3230. HW Crowto, Re Smali 31. Carben

C = O

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24. Dyes include C=O group are _______25. Chemical curing drugs act on ______26. Hard ball of greyish cement are called as

______27. Cullet means _____28. Polymers of carbon substances are called

as _____

29. Chemically gypsum is _____30. Example for artificial adhesive _____31. Dyes used in the neutral media are called

as ______32. ____ is prepared from limestone and clay.33. Substance that is added in a small

quantity to grow plants is called as _____34. Petrolium products that are formed by

chemically are called as _____35. Petrolium refinery is located at _____ in

AP.36. Slip nature of powder is caused by _____37. Combs are prepared from _____38. Rain coats are prepared from _____39. Substances that are used in diagnosis,

confirmation and remedy of diseases arecalled as _____

40. _____ is added for the powdered clinker.

1. Draw a neat diagram of a screw gaugeand label it's parts.

2. Draw a neat diagram of magnetic lines offorce when N-pole of a bar magnet isfacing south pole of earth. Locate thenull points.

3. Draw the following diagrams showing“Zero error of screw gauge” a) No Zeroerror b) Negative new error c) Positivezero error

4. Sketch the diagram of Rutherford’sAtomic model and label its parts

5. Draw and label the diagram showingvarious regions of electromagneticspectrum and their wave length ranges.

6. Draw a neat diagram of magnetic line offorce when N-pole of a bar magnet isfacing North pole of earth. Locate thenull points.

7. Draw a neat diagram of Nuclear Reactorshowing various parts.

8. Draw a block diagram of TV broadcasting.

9. Draw a block diagram of Radio Broadcasting.

10. Draw the figure of Ripple tank and lablethe parts

11. Draw the figure of AC Dynamo12. Draw the figure of p-type of semi

conductors.13. Draw the figure of n-type of semi

conductors14. Draw the symbols of both p-n-p and n-p-

n transistors15. Draw the block diagram of computer.

1. What are the negative and positive errorsof the Screw gauge? How are theydetermined?

2. How do you determine the diameter of awire using screw gauge?

3. Derive universal law of gravitationcalculate the gravitational force of astone of mass 10kg.

4. Derive the relationship betweenacceleration due to gravity and universalgravitational constant. (or) Differencebetween “g” and G.

5. Describe an experiment to determineacceleration due to gravity by a simplependulum.

6. Derive the banking angle Tan θ = v2/rg7. Distinguish between centripetal and

centrifugal force.8. Describe the phenemenon of resonance

with examples.

9. What are the differences betweenprogressive waves and stationary waves.

10. What are the important applications oflaser light in science and Technology?

11. Describe a ripple tank. How does it helpin understanding the reflections andrefraction of light.

12. What are the main parts of an actuallaser.

13. Distinguish between Newton corpusc-ular theory and wave theory of light.

14. What are the important applications oflaser light in medicine, industry andspace science?

15. Explain Para-Dia and Ferro magneticsubstances. Give two examples of eachtype.

16. Distinguish between dia-magnetic andPara magnetic substances.

17. Define the terms a) Mageneticsusceptibility b) Magnetic permeability.Compare the relative values of relativepermeability and magnetic susceptibilityof Dia and Ferro magnetic substances.

18. What are the essential ideas of Ewing’smolecular theory of magnetism? Whatare the reasons for its failure?

19. Compare the values of relativepermeability and Magnetic susceptibilityof Dia, Para and Ferro magneticsubstances.

20. Derive the relation ship V1/V2 = i2/i1 fortransformer.

21. What are ohmic and non ohmicconductors? Give examples? The p.dacross a bulb is 240v, When a current of3 amperes flows through it. Find theresistance of the bulb?

22. Derive an expression for equivalentresistance of parallel combinations ofthree resistances R1, R2 and R3.

23. Describe an experiment to verify Fara-day’s second law of electrolysis. Mentionany two applications of electrolytes.

24. State Ohms law. Describe an experimentto verify Ohms law.

25. Show that effective resistance of a seriescombination in a circuit is equal to thesum of the individual resistance.

26. Derive R=R1+R2+R3.27. State the law of Resistance.28. Show that the reciprocal of the effecting

resistances of parallel combination in acircuit is equivalent to the sum of theirreciprocals.

29. Define Joule’s law, Derive Q = i2Rt/J30. Explain the construction of a transformer

with a neat diagram.31. Calculate the mass defect in the

formation of 2He4. How do you accountfor mass defect of an atom?

32. Describe the Rutherford's gold foil

experiment with a diagram. Mention itsimportant features.

33. What are isobars and Isotones? Explainwith examples.

34. What is the principle of a nuclearreactor? How does it work?

35. Compare the properties of α, β, λradiations.

36. What is chain reaction? How is a chainreaction controlled in Nuclear Reactor?

37. What are the users of radio isotopes?38. Explain the following

a) Extrinsic semiconductorb) Doping c) Transistord) Energy bond

39. Explain different stages of TVcommunication with a block diagram.

40. Draw the symbol of transistor. State theproperties and user of a junctiontransistor.

41. State the properties of a junction Diode.42. How do you classify the solids,

electrically?43. Draw the block diagram of a computer?

Describe the functions of each compo-nents.

44. Explain the p-type and n-type ofconductors.

45. State the properties and user of junctiontransistor.

1. What is the principle of screw gauge?2. Write Newton’s law of universal

gravitation calculate the gravitationalforce on an object of mass 10kg.

3. Difference between mass and weight of abody.

4. A body is projected vertically upwardswith a velocity of 2m/s. Find themaximum height reached by the body (g= 10m/s2)

5. What is the angular velocity of the earthabout its own axis?

6. What is the principle of launching asatellite into an orbit?

7. What is the necessity for banking ofroads?

8. Distinguish between a rotatory motionand a circular motion.

09. Explain the working of a laundry drier.10. What are the similar characters of

centripetal and centrifugal forces?11. What is simple harmonic motion? What

are its characteristics?12. What is centrifuge? How does it work?13. What are the uses of hard x-rays?14. Draw the diagram of electromagnetic

ware.15. Distinguish between node and antinode.16. Mention few incidents of resonance

Answers:1. Nitrophosk2. Calcium silicate and Calcium

aluminate3. Emulsions 4. –NO5. Pyrex glass 6. Polysterein7. Cardio vascular8. Sticks dye to the thread9. Pyrex 10. Annealing11. Adhesives 12. Porous13. WH Perkin 14. Magnesium silicate15. Sand 16. Dacoron17. Polyvenyl chloride 18. Rasin19. Soyabeans adhesive20. Mixed fertilizer21) Acid dyes, Basic dyes, Direct dyes22. Perkin 23. Reduces melting point24. Chromophores 25. Protozoa26. Clinker 27. broken glass pieces28. Rasins 29. Calcium sulphate30. Urea, formaldehyde rasin31. direct dyes 32. cement33. microfertilizers 34. Petrochemicals35. Visakhapatnam 36. Magnesium silicate37. Pastyrin 38. Polythene39. Medicines 40. Gypsum

Physics5 Marks Questions

4 Marks Questions

2 Marks Questions

Physics & ChemistryIMPORTANT QUESTIONS

Main Parts of Actual Laser?

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phenomenon observed in your daily life.17. How do you distinguish laser light from

an ordinary light in terms of property ofcoherence?

18. What is the basic process involved in theworking of a laser?

19. Define a) Magnetic susceptibilityb) Magnetic permeability

20. Calculate the magnetic movement of ashort bar magnet of length 5cm and polestrength. 2×10-3 A-m

21. What are the values of magnetic induc-tion at a distance ‘d’ on the axial line andon the equatorial line of a Bar magnet?

22. Explain why Ferro magnetic substancelike iron rod is not a magnet by itself.Explain on the basis of domain theory?

23. Calculate the value of magnetic inductionat a distance of 0.5m on the axial line ofa short bar magnet of length 5 cm andpole strength 2 × 10–3 A-m.

24. State and explain inverse square law ofMagnetism.

25. Define a) Joule’s law b) Flemings righthand rule.

26. Calculate two resistances of two resistors100Ω and 1Ω connected in parallel.

27. Define Faraday’s law of Electrolysis.28. State and explain Lenz’s law.29. Explain the process of Electro typing?30. What is nuclear fusion? Give one

example with equation.31. Distinguish between Natural radio-

activity and artificial radio activity.32. What is the role of a moderator in a

nuclear reactor?33. Mention the applications of radio-

isotopes in industry.34. What about β decay with an example?35. What are isotopes? Give an example.36. What is moderator? give an example?37. Explain artificial transmulation. Give an

example.38. Define a)Electroncurrentb)Whole current39. Importance of computer in day life?40. Draw circuits showing a) forward bias

condition b) reverse bias condition.41. What are Hardware and software?42. What are the uses of junction transistor?43. Draw the symbols of p-n-p transistor and

n-p-n transistor.

1. Why is the weight of a body not the sameat poles and equator?

2. The weight of the body is not the same onthe surface of earth at all places “specifythe reason”.

3. What is heliocentric theory?4. What is acceleration due to gravity?5. Define weight of a body.

6. Why ‘g’ value decreases when we godeep into the Earth?

7. Define the mass of a body?8. What is meant by time of flight?9. A ball is thrown up and attains maximum

height of 80m. Find its initial speed.10. What is the reason of depletion of Ozone

layer in atmosphere?11. Draw a figure showing the formation of a

stationary wave.12. Distance between a mode and the next

antinode in a stationary wave is 10cm.Find the wave length.

13. What is resonating air?

14. What is Damped vibration?15. Explain the phenomenon of resonance.16. In a resonating air column experiment

with a closed-end tube, first resonanceoccur when the length of air column is10cm. Find out the length of the aircolumn for the occurrence of secondresonance.

17. What is meant by Magnetic moment?18. Draw an electric circuit and label its

parts.19. What is the principle of Transformer?20. What is transformer? On what principles

does it work?21. What is the total emf when three cells of

voltages 1v, 1.5v, 2v are connected inseries?

22. The resistance of Magnanion wire of1mm2 cross - sectional area is 15Ω. Findthe resistance of the Manganion wire ofsame length but of cross - section of3mm2.

23. Calculate the equivalent resistance of tworesistors of 6 Ohms and 4 Ohmsconnected in parallel?

24. Define Lenz’s law.25. The mass defect, when Helium nucleus is

formed is 0.0303 amu. calculate thebinding energy.

26. What is Binding energy?27. What is Radiography?28. Mention the isotope of Ne–

29. State the law of radio active disintegration.30. Define the term ‘Mass defect’.31. Draw the symbol of p-n-p transistor.32. Define BYTE.33. Define BOD.34. What is doping?

1. Draw the shapes of five ‘d’ orbitals.2. Draw Moeller diagram neatly.3. Explain with a diagram the bond

formation in HCl and N2 molecule.4. Draw a neat diagram showing the

extraction of Mg from its ore. Label itsparts.

5. Draw a diagram showing the manufac-ture of sugar from sugar-cane.

6. Draw a neat diagram showing themanufacture of alcohol.

7. Draw a neat diagram of fractionation ofPetroleum and label its parts.

1. Explain Hand's rule with an example?2. State the postulates of Bohr's atomic model?3. Explain Paul's exclusive principle with

examples.4. Explain the formation of co-ordinate

covalent bond.5. Explain the formation of Triple bond in

N2 with the help of a diagram.6. Explain s-p overlap with examples.7. Explain the formation of double bond.8. How the properties of the following

changes in a period and group?A) Electro positive characterB) Electro negative characterC) Oxidising propertyD) Reducing property

9. Answer the following questions.A) Define Ionization energyB) What is Newlands concept of octaves?C) What are inner transition elements?D) What are transition elements?

10. What is Modern Periodic Law? Explainits main features?

11. Explain the classification of elementsbased on their electronic configuration?

12. How does the following change in aPeriod and Group? Explain.A) Atomic radius B) Electro negativity C) Electro positive characterD) Oxidising and reducing property

13. Write down chemical reactions of firstthree elements of group II A with oxygenand Chlorine.

14. Write the reactions of Group-IIAelements with i) Water; ii) Oxygen;iii) Hydrogen; iv) Chlorine

15. Define Mole fraction 4 gms of NaoH(M.Wt=40) is dissolved in 16.2gms ofwater (M.wt=18). Calculate the modefractions of NaOH and water.

16. 2.12 gms of Na2CO3 is present in 500 mlof its solution. Calculate the molarity ofthe solution (M.wt. of Na2CO3 is 106).

17. How do you prepare 0.1 M standardNa2CO3 solution using 250ml standardflask?

18. Write short notes ona) Limitations of Arrhenius theory ofacids and bases b) Heat of neutralisation

19. Write short notes ona) pH b) strength of acids and bases

20. Define terms and give one example ofeach a) strong acid; b) strong bases; c)weak acid; d) weak bases

21. State Arrhenius theory of Acids andBases. Write down the limitations ofArrhenius theory.

22. What is meant by ionic product of water?23. Compare the structures of diamond and

graphite.24. What is Alkane? Write the substitution

reactions and combustion reactions ofAlkanes.

25. Define Proteins. Write about theclassification of Proteins.

26. Describe the main steps involved in theproduction of sugar from sugarcane.

27. What are the detergents? Explain thesteps involved in the manufacture of adetergent.

28. What are the soaps and detergents? Howdo you test the quality of soap?

29. What are the differences in the manufac-turing of soap and detergent?

30. How is soap industrially manufactured?31. What are fertilizers? Discuss their types

with examples?32. What is a drug? What are the requisites of

an ideal drug? List out the sources ofdrugs?

33. What is fractionation? Describe aboutpetroleum fractionation and mentionprinciple products obtained in fractio-nation of petroleum.

34. What is a drug? Classify drugs dependingupon their therapeutic action?

35. Define drug? Write the characteristics ofan ideal drug?

36. Write a short notes ona) Synthetic adhesives and usesb) Pottery and earthen-ware

1. Write electronic-configuration of Cu andCr.

2. Define a) Ionization energy; b) Electronaffinity; c) Atomic size

3. Draw the shapes of 's' and 'p' orbitals.4. Distinguish between orbit and orbital.5. Write the electronic configurations of

a) Chromium b) Phosphorous6. What information does the principle

quantum number give?7. Draw the structure of Ammonia molecule.

Physics & ChemistryIMPORTANT QUESTIONS

What is the Modern Periodic Law?

1 Mark Questions

4 Marks Questions

Chemistry5 Marks Questions

2 Marks Questions

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8. Draw the shape of PCl5 and H2O.9. Draw the bond formation of F2 molecule.10. Draw the diagram showing the formation

of a triple bond.11. How does the atomic radius vary in

period and in a group of a periodic table?12. How does Ionization energy vary in a

period and in a group?13. Write reactions of any two elements of

group IIA with oxygen.14. Calculate the amount of NaOH in 250ml

of 0.5 M solution of NaOH (M wt ofNaOH = 40)

15. Calculate the number of moles of oxalicacid present in 400 ml of its 0.025 Msolution. (M.wt of oxalic acid is =126)

16. 4 gms of NaOH is dissolved in 16.2 gmsof water. Calculate the mode fraction ofNaOH and water. (M.wt of NaOH = 40,H2O = 18)

17. 15ml of Hexane is mixed 45ml heptane.Calculate the volume percentage of thissolution.

18. Calculate the number of moles of NaOHpresent in 750ml of 0.4M solution (M.wtof NaOH = 40)

19. 20 ml of alcohol is mixed with 160ml ofwater. Find the volume percentage of thesolution.

20. CuSO4 is soluble in water but not inKerosene. Give reason.

21. What is heat of neutralisation? Give anexample.

22. What is pH? Calculate the pH of 0.002 MHCL solution?

23. Write two chemical properties of acidsand bases with equations.

24. Write the chemical equations for theaddition reactions of alkenes with H2 andCl2.

25. Write short notes on Substitutionreactions of alkanes.

26. Write the differences between Alkanesand Alkenes.

27. What is Polymerization.28. Draw the diagram showing the structure

of Benzene molecule.29. How do you perform a) Tollen’s test b)

Benedict's test for detecting sugar.30. How is Benedict's reagent prepared.31. What are amino acids? Give two

examples.32. How is Tollen’s reagent prepared? How is

glucose tested with it.33. Distinguish between soaps and

detergents.34. Mention four industrial uses of oils.35. What are the advantages of hydrogenat-

ion of oils?36. Describe briefly cold cream and face

powder mentioning their ingredients.37. Sketch the paracetamol drug molecule.

38. Define and give two examples for eachi) Cosmetic and ii) Pharmaceuticals

39. Mention the methods of manufacture ofcement.

40. What are uses of cold cream.41. What are characteristics of good quality

face powder?

1. Write the e.c. of Ca atom.2. What is stationary orbit?3. What is a nodal plane?4. What is Hund's principle?5. Write the Plank's equation. What is the

value of Plank's constant?6. Define electron affinity?7. Define atomic radius.8. State the Aufbau principle.9. Name two molecules having pyramidal

shape.10. Mention the atomic property on which

Mendaleef's periodic table is based.11. Why does atomic size decreases from left

to right in a period.12. Which group of elements in periodic

table can be used as reducing reagents?13. Why do you add KCl and NaCl to MgCl2

during extraction of Magnesium?14. Write the equation showing the reactions

of alkaline earth metals with oxygen.15. How many water molecules are present

in Epsom salt?16. Distinguish H+ and (H+).17. Calculate the pH of 0.001m HCl.18. Write down the balanced equation show-

ing the preparation of zinc hydroxidefrom Zinc oxide.

19. Define pH.20. Give a limitation of Arrhenius theory.21. Define Heat of neutralisation.22. What is the ionic product of water?23. Why does diamond acts a bad conductor

of electricity?24. What is an allotropy?25. What is a sulphitation?26. Why do shaving soaps give slow drying

latter?27. What are the advantages of hydrogen-

ation of oils?28. What is saponification?29. What are adhesives?30. Write the names of any two chromop-

hores.31. What are the uses of Micro fertilizers?32. Sketch the structure of Aspirin drug

molecule.33. What are the primary nutrients?34. What is plastic?35. What is the use of cullet to the raw

materials of glass?

June-2009Group A Group B

1. Ester [ ] A) CH3 CO CH3

2. Acid [ ] B) C2H5 NH2

3. Alcohol [ ] C) CH3COOC2H5

4. Ketone [ ] D) CH3OCH3

5. Ether [ ] E) CH3 COOHF) CH3OHG) CH3 CHO

Answers: 1) C; 2) E; 3) F; 4) A; 5) D

March 2009Group A Group B

1. Lauric Acid [ ] A) C17 H33 COOH2. Stearic Acid [ ] B) CH3 COOH3. Oleic Acid [ ] C) C17H29 COOH4. Linlenic [ ] D) C11H23 COOH5. Acetic Acid [ ] E) C17 H35 COOH

Answers: 1) D; 2) E; 3) A; 4) C; 5) B

June 2008Group A Group B

1. Carbon tetra chloride [ ] A) CHCl32. Butane [ ] B) CH4

3. Methane [ ] C) C6H6

4. Chlorofom [ ] D) CCL4

5. Benzene [ ] E) C4 H10

Answers: 1) D; 2) E; 3) B; 4) A; 5) C

March 2008Group A Group B

1. Dimethyl ether [ ] A) CH3CL2. Acetylene [ ] B) C6 H10

3. Chloromethane [ ] C) C2H2

4. Benzene [ ] D) CH3-O-CH3

5. Hexyne [ ] E) C6H6

Answers. 1) D; 2) C; 3) A; 4) E; 5) B

April 2008Group A Group B

1.Acetylene [ ] A) CH3CHO2.Methyl alcohol [ ] B) HC=CH3. Aldehyde [ ] C) CH3OH4. Ketone [ ] D) CH3COOC2H5

5.Ester [ ] E) CH3 COCH3

Answers: 1) B; 2) C; 3) A; 4) E; 5) D

June 2007Group A Group B

1. Acetelen [ ] A) C6H14

2. Acitic acid [ ] B) CH3OH3. Glucose [ ] C) Ester4. Methyl alcohol [ ] D) C6H12O6

5. Hexane [ ] E) C2H2

F) BaseG) CH3COOH

Answers. 1) E; 2) G; 3) D; 4) B; 5) A

Analysis Based On Last Five years Question PapersChemistry

Chapter March09 March08 March07 March06 March05Atomic Structure 3 7½ 7½ 7 7½Chemical Bond 6½ 6 6 6 2 Periodic classification of Elements 4 4 4½ 4 4Alkaline Earth Metals 1 ½ ½ ½ 1Solutions 4½ 2½ 2½ 2½ 2½Acids, Bases and Salts 1½ 1½ 1½ 1½ 1½Chemistry of Carboncompounds 2 3½ 3½ 4 3½Carbohydrates, protiens 6½ 5 5½ 5½ 5½Oils and Fats 4 4 4½ 4 4½Chemistry and Industry 6½ 5 3½ 4 4

PhysicsChapter March09 March08 March07 March06 March05Measurement of length 4 5 5 - 5Our Universe and Gravitation ½ 1½ 1½ 1 2Kinematics 1 1 ½ 1½ ½Dynamics 5½ 2 2 2 2Electro magnetic spectrum ½ 1 1 5 1½Sound 4½ 1½ 2 2 1Light 2½ 4½ 4½ 4½ 4Magnetism 8 3 2½ 3 3Current Electricity 1 6½ 7 4½ 1Modern Physics 5 7½ 7½ 8½ 7½Electronics 7 6 6 8 8

CHEMISTRY MATCHINGS

1 Mark Questions

ChemistryQ.P. AnalysisIMPORTANT QUESTIONS

What are Adhesives?

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12

SOMECONSTANTS

Least count ofa Screw gauge= 0.01mm

G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2Kg–2

g = 9.8m/sec2 (on earth) Mass of the earth M = 6 × 1024 Kg Radius of the Earth r = 6.4 × 105 m The distance between moon and the earth

3.85 × 105 Km g value on Sun 27.4 m/sec2

g value on moon = 1.67m/sec2

Time period of a seconds pendulum = 2 sec Velocity of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 m/s Wave length of Sodium vapour lamp = 5893 Å The band width of an ordinary laser is of

the order of 10 Å The band width of a high quality laser is 10–8 Å The wave length of Ruby laser is 6943 Å The wave length of He -Ne laser is 6328 Å Permeability of free space or vacuum µ0 =

4π × 10–7 Henry/meter 1 Tesla = 104 Gauss The value of B0 in AndhraPradesh is B0 =

0.39 × 10–4 Tesla J = 4.185 Joules Mass of proton 1.0078 amu Mass of neutron 1.0087 amu 1 amu = 931.5 × 106 ev = 931.5 Mev 1 Mev = 1.6 × 10–12 J 1 Kg = 9 × 1016 J 1 Joule = 1.11 × 10–17 Kg Energy released in Nuclear fission = 200Mev The value of Energy gap for Pure silicon is

1.1ev The value of Energy gap for pure

germanium is 0.72ev The frequencies used in Radio

communication are 300KHz to 30 MHz The frequencies used in TV

communication are 30MHz to 300 MHz Planck's constant h = 6.625 × 10–27 erg sec

or 6.625 × 10–34 Joule .sec mass of electron me = 9.16 × 10–31Kg Charge of electron (e–) = 1.602 × 10–19

Coulomb e/m of electron = 1.76 × 1011 C/Kg If PH < 7, Acid If PH > 7, Base If PH = 7, Neutral Density of Diamond = 3.51 gm/cc Refractive index of Diamond = 2.41 C – C Bond length in Diamond = 1.54 Å Bond angle in Diamond = 109°28' Density of Graphite = 2.25gm/cc C – C Bond length in Graphite = 1.42 Å Bond angle in graphite = 120° The distance between two successive

Graphite layers is 3.35Å

1. Pitch of the Screw = Distance traveled by

the tip of the screw/No. of rotations made

2. Least count of Screw gauge = Pitch of the

screw / No. of head scale divisions

3. Diameter of a wire using screw gauge (d)

= PSR + (HSR x LC)

4. Universal Gravitational constant

G = Fr2/m1m2

5. Relation between G and g is g = GM/r2

6. Weight of an object w = mg

7. Hook's law l–l0 /F = Constant

8. Maximum height reached by a vertically

projected body H = U2/2g

9. Time of Ascent t1 = u/g

10. Time of descent t2= √2h/g of t2 = u/g

11. Time of flight T = 2u/g

12. Velocity of a freely falling body on

reaching the ground V = √2gh

13. Relation between V, and ω is V = rω14. Angular momentum L = mvr or mω r2

15. Centripetal acceleration a = v2/r

16. Centripetal force F = mv2/r or mω 2r

17. Angle of banking Tanθ = V2/rg

18. Formulae to find 'g' using simple

pendulum is g = 4π2 l/T2

19. Distance between a node and next

antinode is λ/4

20. Distance between two successive nodes or

two successive antinodes is λ/2

21. Velocity of sound in air from resonating air

column is V = 2η(l2–l1).

22. Relation between v, n, λ is V = nλ23. :Laplace formula to find the velocity of

sound in air is V= √γP/ρ24. Length of air column at first resonance l1 =

λ/4

25. Length of air column at second resonance

l2 = 3λ/4

26. Inverse square law of magnetism F = µ0/4π. m1m2/r

2

27. Relative permeability µr = µ/µ0

28. Magnetic moment M = m × 2l

29. Relation between B and H is B = µ0 H

30. Magnetic field induction at a point on axial

line is

31. Magnetic field induction at a point on

equatorial line

32. Susceptibility χ = I/H33. Current I = q/t34. Potential Difference V = W/q35. Ohm's law i=V/R36. Effective resistance of two or more

resistors connected in series R = R1 + R2 +--------

37. Effective resistance of two resistorsconnected in parallel R = R1 R2/R1 + R2

38. Specific resistance ρ = RA/l39. Heat produced due to passage of current

through a conductor is Q = i2Rt/J40. Electrical power P = Vi41. Electrical energy W = i2Rt42. Faraday's First law of electrolysis m = Zit43. Faraday's Second law of electrolysis

m1:m2:m3 = E1: E2: E3. = Z1 : Z2 : Z3

44. Magnetic induction at a point near astraight current carrying conductorB = µ0i/2πr

45. Force on a current carrying conductor in amagnetic field F = ilB

46. Faraday's law of electro magneticinduction ε = –N(d∅ B/dt)

47. Inductance of a coil

48. Transformer rule n1/n2 = v1/v2 = i2/i149. Bohr's quantum condition I = nh/2π50. Mass energy equivalence E = ∆mc2

51. Binding energy B.E. = ∆m × 931.5 Mev52. Actinium series 4n+353. Uranium seires 4n+254. Neptunium series 4n+155. Thorium series 4n56. Angular momentum mvr = nh/2π57. Total number of orbitals present in a given

stationary orbit = n2

58. Total number of electrons in a givenstationary orbit = 2n2

59. For a given l value, the number of 'm'values are (2l+1)

60.

61.

62.

× 1/V in litres

weight of soluteMolarity(M)

gram molecular weight of solute=

volume of soluteolume percentage 100

volume of solution= ×

weight of soluteweight percentage 100

weight of solution= ×

Ldi / dt

−ε=

03

MB N / A m

4 d

µ ×= −

π

03

2MB N / A m

4 d

µ ×= −

π

Important Formulae

A.Naga Raja SekharScience Teacher,

ZPHS, Kothagudem

UNITSQUANTITY UNIT

G Nm2Kg-2

g m/sec2

Mass (m) Kg (MKS), gm (CGS)Weight (w) N(MKS), dyne (CGS)Velocity (v) m/secAcceleration (a) m/sec2

Angular displacement(θ) RadianAngular velocity(ω) Radian/secFrequency HertzSolid angle SteradianLuminous flux (ϕ) LumenLuminous intensity (I) Candela(or)Lumen/SrMagnetic pole strength(m) Amp-meter(S.I),

Weber (MKS)Magnetic moment(M) Amp-meter2(S.I)Magnetic induction(B) N/Amp-meter(S.I),

Tesla(or)Weber/m2(MKS)Intensity of magnetic Amp/Meterfield (H)Magnetic flux (ϕ) WeberMagnetic susceptibility(χ) No unitsPermeability (µ) Henry/meterRelative permeability(µr) No unitsIntensity of magnetization(I) Amp/meterCurrent (i) AmpereCharge (q) CoulombPotential Difference(V) VoltE.M.F(e) VoltElectrical Resistance(R) Ohm (Ω)Specific resistance(ρ) Ohm-meterSpecific heat(s) Cal/gm°CElectric power(p) Volt-amp (or) wattMechanical equivalent Joules/Calorieof heat (J)Electrical energy(W) Watt-sec (or) KWHElectrochemical Gm/Coulombequivalent(z)Self inductance (L) HenryMutual inductance HenryConductance Mho/meterAtomic mass unit AmuEnergy EvPlanck's constant Erg.sec (or) Joule.secIonization energy (e) Ev (or) K.cal.Mole–1

(or) K.Joule.mole–1

Atomic radius A°(or) atomic sizeElectron Affinity Ev (or) K.cal.Mole–1

(or) K.Joule.mole–1

Electro negativity Pauling E.N.ScaleConcentration of Mol/litsolutionMolarity Mol.lit–1

Mole fraction No unitsHeat of Nuetralization K.Cal/moleIonic product of water(Kw) Mole. Ion2 lit–2

Calorific value Cal/gm (or) cal/mole

Electro magnetic Wave length

radiation range

Visible spectrum 0.4µm ----- 0.7µm

Infra red spectrum 0.7µm ---- 100µm

Micro waves 10µm ----10m

Radio Waves 1 metre ---- 100 k.m.

U.V.Spectrum 0.4µm -----1 N.m

X-rays 0.01Å ---100Å

Gamma rays 0.001Å----1Å

Some Alkanes

MethaneCH4

Ethane C2H6

Propane C3H8

Butane C4H10

Pentane C5H12

Hexane C6H14

Some Alkines

Ethene C2H4

Propene C3H6

Butene C4H8

Pentene C5H10

Hexene C6H12

Some Alkenes

Ethyne C2H2

Propyne C3H4

Butyne C4H6

Pentyne C5H8

Hexyne C6H10

FUNCTIONAL GROUP NAME EXAMPLE-C - OH ALCOHOL CH3OH-C- CHO ALDEHYDE CH3CHOC = O KETONE CH3COCH3-C - COOH ACID CH3COOH- -C- O - C ETHER CH3OCH3- C - NH2 AMINE C3H7NH2-C - COOR ESTER CH3COOC2H5

Functional Groups

Quick Review Written by

Physics & ChemistryQuick ReviewUnits

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ImportantQuestions

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GEOGRAPHYSOILSCLIMATE

DPAP is the Abbrevation of?

1. The_____runs half way through the

country.

2. The English name of Sindhu river is

_____.

3. In Geographical area, India occupies _____

place in the world.

4. In India,_____state gets the earliest Sunrise.

5. Difference between Greenwich Meantime

and the Indian Standard time is _____

6. India's total land frontier is _____ kms.

7. India's total Coastline is _____ kms.

8. The Indian island closest to the Equator is

_____.

9. India is separated from Srilanka by _____

10. The smallest state in area is _____.

11. The state stands on three seas is _____.

12. The border country sharing the longest

boundary with India is _____.

13. The boundary line between china and India

is _____.

14. The biggest state in area is _____.

15. The longest coastal state is _____.

16. The total islands in India are _____.

17. Indian Union consists of _____ states _____

Union territories.

18. The _____ island located between India and

Srilanka.

19. _____ longitude is identified as the basis for

standard meridian in our country.

20. The capital of Nepal is _____.

21. The number of coastal states in India is

_____.

22. Andhra Pradesh has the coastline of____.

23. The number of countries that share the

common land frontiers with India _____.

24. Our nearest neighbour across the ocean

waters is _____.

25. The Minicoy island is the part of _____

Islands.

1. The Himalaya mountains are the young

____ mountains.

2. The Himalayas, Indo-Gangetic plains were

occupied by the ____ sea.

3. The Himalayas form India's northern

frontier from ____ state to ____ state.

4. The longitudinal distance of Himalayas is

____kms.

5. Greater Himalayas are also known as___

6. K2 mountain peak is in ____.

7. The highest mountain peak of the

Himalayas in India is ____.

8. Pamir Plateau is located in ____.

9. The longitudinal extent of the great plains in

India is ____.

10. The younger alluvium is known as ____.

11. Terai is a ____.

12. Bundelkhand upland is an extension of

____ plateau.

13. The peninsular plateau is slightly tilting

towards ____.

14. The highest peak of peninsular in India

____.

15. The Deccan plateau is bounded on north by

____.

16. ____ river flows through a rift valley.

17. ____ river and ____river head streams

formed the main stream of Ganga.

18. The highest peak in India is ____

19. The height of Everest mountain is ____.

20. The longest range in Himachal range is

____.

21. The south-west ward extension of Pir Panjal

range is ____.

22. The popularise hill stations are situated in

____range.

23. The outer Himalayas in Arunachal Pradesh

are called as ____.

24. The valleys which are separate the Siwalik

range from the Himachal mountains are

called as ____.

25. The ____ are responsible for causing

rainfall in the plain during summer and

monsoon type of climate in the country.

26. The pebble studded zone porous beds is

known as ____.

27. The older alluvium of the flood plain is

called the ____.

28. The tidal forests are called ____.

29. The highest peak in the Aravalli range is

____.

30. The eastern part of Satpura range is called

the ____ plateau.

1. India receives bulk of its rainfall

from _____ monsoon gives.

2. The retreating monsoon gives abundant

rainfall to _____ coast.

3. The monsoon burst first takes place in

coastal areas in _____.

4. The word 'monsoon' has been derived from

the Arabic word _____.

5. The highest temperature recorded in _____

state.

6. In summer _____ pressure system develops

on the land surface of India.

7. The Indian agriculture is referred to as a

gamble in the _____.

8. The rainfall is less than 75 percent of the

normal is called _____.

9. DPAP is the abbreviation of _____.

10. The Government of India launched the Nat-

ional flood control programme in _____.

1. _____ State is having the largest

area under forest.

2. Sandal wood is produced mainly in _____

forests.

3. The tidal forests are also known as _____

forests.

4. Sundarbans are named after the _____ tree.

5. Teak is abundantly grown in _____ forests.

6. Alpine vegetation is found in _____

7. _____ percentage of land is required to

maintain ecological balance.

8. The forest area in the country accounted for

_____percent in the total geographical area.

9. Economically, most important- forests in

India is _____.

10. The highest concentration of forest land is

in _____.

1. The older alluvium is called as _____ in

India.

2. The newer alluvium is known as_____in

India.

3. The alluvial soils are rich in_____, _____.

4. The tropical chernozems in India are called

as _____.

5. _____ soils are moist clayey and moisture

retentive.

6. Laterite Soils are characterised by leaching

away of _____.

7. Immatured soils genereally found in _____.

8. Red Soils derived form the weathering of

_____ rocks.

9. _____ soils developed due to deposition of

sediments.

10. The average annual removal of top soil per

hectare in India through erosion process is

_____ Tonnes.

11. _____ type of soil erosion is most prevalent

over Chambal region.

12. Washing away of the fertile top most layer

of the soil by natural causes is called _____.

13. _____soils are well known for their fertility.

1. India _____ most populous country

in the world.

2. During 1991-2001 the highest growth rate

was registered in _____ state while the

lowest in _____.

3. The average density of population in India

in 2001 was _____.

4. The state with the lowest density of

population _____.

5. The rank Andhra Pradesh in the level of

Urbanisation is _____.

6. The state with maximum Urban population

is _____.

7. As per 2001 census the rate per thousand

births was _____.

8. During 1991 - 2001, the average rate of

population growth in India was _____.

Bit bank written byB.Srinivasa Rao

Sr. Teacher,Torrur, Warangal

The Locational andSpatial Setting of India

Physical Features-Relief and Drainage

Answers:1. Tropic of Cancer; 2. Indus; 3. Seventh; 4.

Arunachal Pradesh; 5. 51/2hours; 6. 15,200; 7.

6,100; 8. The Great Nicobar; 9. The Gulf of

Mannar and the Palk strait; 10. Goa; 11.

Tamilnadu; 12. China; 13. MacMohan Line;

14. Rajasthan; 15. Gujarat; 16. 247; 17. 28, 7;

18. Pamban; 19. 82 1/2° East; 20.

Kathmandu; 21. 9; 22. 972 kms; 23.7; 24.

SriLanka; 25. Lakshadweep.

Answers:1.South-West;2.Western;3.Kerala; 4.Mausam;

5.Rajasthan; 6.Low; 7.Monsoons; 8.drou gh;

9. Drought Prone Area Programme; 10. 1954

Answers:1. Bhangar; 2. Khadhar; 3. lime, Potash; 4.

Black / Regur Soils ; 5. Black; 6. Silica ; 7.

mountains; 8. Crystalline and metamorphi; 9.

Alluvial; 10. 16.4; 11. Gully; 12. Soil erosion;

13. Black.

Climate

Soils

Answers:1. Fold; 2. Tethys; 3. Jammu Kashmir, Aruna-

chal Pradesh; 4. 2400; 5. Himadri ranges; 6.

Karakoram range; 7. K2; 8. Trans Himalayas;

9. 3200 kms; 10. Khadar; 11. Marshy land

under the Bhabar Zone; 12. Malwa; 13. East;

14. Anaimudi; 15. Satpura mountain range;

16. The Narmada; 17. Alakananda Bhagirathi;

18. Mt. Everest; 19. 8,848 mts; 20. Pir Panjal;

21. Dhula Dhar range; 22. Himachal; 23.

Mishmi hills; 24. Duns; 25. Himalayas; 26.

Bhabar; 27. Bhangar; 28. Sundarbans; 29.

Gurusikhar; 30. Maikal.

Answers:1. Madhya Pradesh; 2. Tropical Moist

Deciduous; 3. Sundarbans/Mangrove; 4.

Sundari; 5.Karnataka; 6. Upper Himalayas; 7.

33; 8. 20.55; 9. Tropical moist deciduous

forests; 10. Arunachal Pradesh.

Natural Vegetation Population

Ýë„ìS ¿¶æÑ™èl VýS$Æý‡$ÐéÆý‡… 4 Ð]l*Ça, 2010

3

9. The state with highest population is _____.

10. The least populous state is _____.

11. According to 2001 census,Arunachal Prade-

sh has recorded as the lowest density of

population with _____ persons per sq.km.

12. The percentage of population living in

villages in our country is _____.

13. The largest proportion of rural population

state is _____.

1. Inundation canals depend entirely

upon ____.

2. Tank irrigation is more prevalent in ____.

3. Perennial canals draw their water from ____

4. Most of the tanks in India are ____.

5. An Inundation canal can provide water only

during ____.

6. The Bakra-Nangal projects is located in the

state of ____.

7. The benefits of Kosi project shared by ____

8. Damodar project is administered by ____

9. Hirakud project constructed across the river

____.

10. The Tungabhadra project is a joint venture

of ____ and ____.

11. The main source of water supply for

Agriculture of India is ____ rainfall.

12. ____ provide the most widely distributed

source of irrigation for agriculture in the

country.

13. The maximum hectarage under tank

irrigation in ____ state.

14. The highest intensity irrigation is found in

____ state.

15. Hydro-electricity is known as ____.

1. ____ is the back-bone of Indian economy.

2. Agriculture contributes about ____ of the

Gross Domestic Product of the country.

3. The average land holding in India is ____

hectares.

4. The kharif crop season extends from ____.

5. Kharif, Rabi and ____ are crop seasons in

our country.

6. Development of agriculture by the modern

scientific methods known as ____.

7. ____ is the leading crop in our country.

8. The well-known crop, which is the poor

man's food is ____.

9. The winter crop season is known as ____.

10. During south-west monsoon the crop

season is known as ____.

11. The modernisation of agriculture refers to

____ farming.

12. The tribal agriculture is called as ____.

13. New agricultural strategy for the increase of

food grain production is referred to ____.

14. The nature of cropping in India is

predominantly ____ oriented one.

15. Wheat is largely grown in ____ season.

16. The crop which is predominantly grown in

deltas and river valleys ____.

17. The largest cultivated area found in ____

cultivation.

18. The crops which are used for inter-culture

are ____.

19. Sugarcane is ____crop.

20. Jute cultivation is predominant in____ state.

21. Tea cultivation requires ____ climate.

22. Coffee cultivation requires ____ climate.

23. Black soils are favourable for the

cultivation of ____.

24. Natural rubber cultivation is predominant in

____ state.

25. Estuaries fisheries are apart of____

fisheries.

1. Aluminium is produced from _____.

2. The larger Mica reserves are found only

_____, which is essential for electronic

industries.

3. Most of the iron ore deposits are located in

the _____ rocks.

4. Mica an indispensable mineral in _____

industry.

5. The maximum energy producing mineral in

India is _____.

6. The important iron ores of India are _____.

7. The important state for gypsum production

is _____.

8. Diamonds are richly available in _____.

9. India is _____ in copper production.

10. The important lignite coal field is _____

11. Thorium and Uranium are richly found in

_____sand deposites.

12. Lead and zinc occur in association among

_____.

13. 25 percent of world's total _____ reserves

found in our country.

14. Zinc is used with copper for the

manufacture of _____.

15. India is the largest _____ producer and

exporter in the world.

1. The largest industry in the country is _____.

2. The first cotton mill was set up near _____

in 1818.

3. _____ is the principal raw material of cotton

textile Industry.

4. India is the largest producer of _____

products in the world.

5. Indian_____is well known all over the

world.

6. Within the country _____ state holds the

monopoly in silk production.

7. Silk industry is predominate in _____ state.

8. The Mazagaon Dock is located at _____

9. Important oil refinery in the western coast is

_____.

10. Chota Nagpur industrial region is oftenly

compared to _____ of west Germany.

11. Most of the steel plants were established

under _____ sector.

12. _____ and _____ are the foremost cotton

textile manufacturing states in India.

13. Rourkela steel plant was set up with the

assistance of _____.

14. The first cement factory in India was built at

_____.

15. Limestone is the chief raw material from

_____ industry.

16. The biggest oil refinery in India is located at

_____.

17. Jute Industry is largely concentrated along

the _____ river.

18. In Andhra Pradesh, _____ industry is

situated at Nellimarla.

19. The _____ industry is a basic industry for

the rapid industrialisation of India.

20. _____ started the first iron and steel factory

in our country.

21. TISCO stands for _____.

22. The visveswaryya Iron and steel factory

was set up by the company of _____.

23. Bhilai steel plant is in _____ state.

24. The Bokaro steel plant obtains hydel

electricity power from _____ project.

25. _____is the largest producer of cement in

India.

1. _____ provide the most important means of

transport in the country.

2. The first railway line was laid in the year of

_____ in the country.

3. In Broad gauge railway line, the width

between two tracks is _____.

4. The states _____, which is no rail

network.

5. Indian railways are under _____.

6. In India, railway network makes avery

dense pattern in the areas of _____.

7. _____ state has the largest rail route length.

8. Door to door collection and delivery of

goods possible in _____ transport.

9. National Highway - 7 is running from

_____ to _____.

10. Air transport is the _____ and _____ mode

of modern transport.

11. International air services will be run by

_____

12. The important navigable canal in southern

India is _____.

1. Musi river is flowing in the

amidst of ____.

2. The most famous pilgrim centre in south

India is ____.

GEOGRAPHYMINERAL RESOURCESAGRICULTURE

Agriculture

The Important Lignite Coal Field?

Mineral Resources

Answers:1. Flood water; 2. Deccan plateau; 3. Storage

reservoirs; 4. Andhra Pradesh; 5. Rainy

season; 6. Himachal Pradesh; 7. India, Nepal;

8. Damodar Valley Authority; 9. Mahanadi;

10. Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka; 11. Monsoon;

12. Wells; 13. Andhra Pradesh; 14. Punjab;

15.White coal

Answers:1. Bauxite; 2. India; 3. Archaean; 4. Electrical

and electronic; 5.Coal; 6. Hematite, Magne-

tite; 7. Rajasthan; 8. Madhya Pradesh; 9. Def-

icient; 10. Neyveli; 11. Monazite; 12. Crystal-

line Schist rocks; 13.Iron; 14.Brass; 15. Mica.

Irrigation and Power

Answers:1. Second; 2. Nagaland, Kerala; 3. 324; 4.

Arunachal Pradesh; 5. Fifth; 6. Mahara-shtra;

7. 8.9; 8. 21.34%; 9. Uttar Pradesh; 10.

Sikkim; 11. 13; 12. 72.2; 13. Himachal

Pradesh.

Answers:1. Agriculture; 2. 30%; 3. 1.7; 4. June to

October; 5. Zayad; 6. Green Revolution; 7.

Paddy; 8. Ragi; 9. Rabi; 10. Khariff; 11.

Hybrid; 12. Jhumming/shifting cultivation;

13. Green Revolution; 14. Food Grain; 15.

Rabi; 16. Paddy; 17. Paddy; 18. Pulses; 19.

Tropical cash; 20. West Bengal; 21. Warm and

moist tropical; 22.Hot and humid trop-ical;

23. Cotton; 24.Kerala; 25. Estuarine.

Industries

Answers:1. Textile Industry; 2. Kolkata; 3. Cotton ; 4.

Jute; 5. Silk; 6. Karnataka; 7. Karnataka; 8.

Mumbai Port; 9. Mumbai High; 10. Rhur

region; 11. public; 12. Maharashtra, Gujarat;

13. Germany; 14. Chennai; 15. Cement; 16.

Mathura; 17. Hooghly; 18. Jute; 19. Iron -

Steel; 20. Jamshedji Tata; 21. Tata Iron and

Steel Company; 22. America; 23. Chhattis-

garh; 24. Damodar Valley; 25. Tamilnadu.

Transport andCommunications

Answers:1. Railways; 2.1853; 3. 1.69mts.; 4. Megha-

laya, Sikkim; 5.Public Sector; 6. North Indian

Plains; 7. Uttar Pradesh; 8. road; 9. Varanasi,

kanyakumari; 10. Costliest, quickest; 11. Air

India Lmtd; 12. Buckingham canal.

Places of Interest

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4

GEOGRAPHY, ECONOMICSProblems of Indian EconomyIndian Economy

3. New Delhi is situated on the bank of ____

river.

4. Ooty is also called as____.

5. ____ is the paradise among the world's

tourist resorts.

6. Hyderabad is the ____ most populous city in

India.

7. Capital city of Karnataka state is ____.

8. Delhi is a ____city.

9. Summer capital of Jammu and Kashmir

state is ____.

1. ____ is the man-made port.

2. ____ port is located on the cross roads of

east-west.

3. ____ port is located on the bank of the

Hooghly river.

4. Natural harbours are found along a fairly

____ coastline.

5. The biggest port in terms of seaborne trade

is ____

6. The number of major ports on east coast

____.

7. ____ major seaports located along the

coastline of India.

8. ____does not have loading and unloading

facilities.

9. The major ports are governed by the central

government under the ____ Act.

10. The minor ports are administered by____.

11. The biggest port located at west coast is

____.

12. The river based port is at ____.

13. Kolkata port is located on the left bank of

the river ____.

14. Second largest port in the country is ____.

15. A major port located in Andhra Pradesh is

____.

1. ____ is the single largest item of import.

2. ____ are the largest group of exports.

3. ____ are the most important countries in

Asia for the destination of exports.

4. The volume of imports in agricultural

products is ____.

5. ____ products are important within the

agricultural goods exports.

6. ____is the largest buyer country of Indian

goods.

7. Our major source of imports from ____

countries.

8. The foreign trade of a country consists of

both exports and imports is known as ____.

1. The countries of _____ continent used to

import the Indian products in larger quanti-

ties during 17th and 18th centuries.

2. _____Revolution had brought about radical

changes in agriculture, manufacturing,

animal husbandry and transport etc.

3. D.R.Gadgil termed the economic exploitat-

ion in India as_____ during the British rule.

4. Indigenous industries in India faced a stiff

competition from industrially manufactured

goods of _____.

5. As far as economic development is

concerned, India is a _____ one.

6. Cottage Industries, small scale and small

sectors of industry are referred to as the

_____ of the economy.

7. Britisher's economic exploitation of Indians

is termed as _____ by Dadabhai Naoroji.

8. In India a substantial labour force and out

put is located in _____ Sector.

9. _____ refers to large scale industrial Units

and agricultural units with a defined system

of production and employment.

10. Indian agriculture mostly depends on _____

for cultivation.

11. _____ occurred from the month of June to

September provided much rain water to the

Indian agriculture.

12. There are three important crop seasons in

Indian agriculture such as 1. _____ 2. Rabi

and 3. Zayad.

13. The main crops of wheat, jowar, maize and

pulses are mainly grown in _____ season in

India.

14. According to 2001 population census nearly

_____ percentage of population live in rural

area.

15. Manufacturing of computers and TVs are

located in _____ sector.

16. Zamindari system was introduced in India

during East India company rule by _____.

17. Under _____ system the land belonged to a

small group of families who are powerful in

that region and also responsible for paying

rent to the state.

18. Income earned through wealth and property

is called _____.

19. According to 2001 census the National

literacy rate is _____.

20. Inheritance of wealth and_____to the people

of one generation to another generation is

the main reason for economic disparities in

India.

21. In _____ economic system the supply of

goods and services are organised by private

firms and public enterprises.

22. The industrial units which are managed by

the government are called _____.

23. A_____economic system is characterised by

the presence of private enterprises in the pr-

oduction and supply of goods and services.

24. _____ economic system is one where

production and supply of goods and services

are organised by the public enterprises.

25. The _____ sector is that where the firms are

jointly owned by the private individuals and

the government.

26. In _____ economic system the prices of

commodities are determined by the market

forces of supply and demand.

27. In_____economy the production and supply

of goods are organised by the public

enterprises.

28. One of main economic problems of Indian

economy is _____.

29. In _____ system the land belonged to the

individual peasants.

30. Centralised planning is main characteristic

of _____ economy.

1. _____ is one of the important criteria to

know whether the country is developed or

undeveloped.

2. GNP per capita is used as an index of _____

of any economy.

3. According to UNO of 1986 those countries

whose per capita is less than $350 belonged

to _____.

4. During sixth Five year plan the people of

rural areas lived below the poverty line as

they spent only _____ per month for

minimum food items.

5. India's per capita income in 1995 is _____

6. The problem of poverty is more felt in

_____ than in Urban areas.

7. NREP means _____.

8. _____ Unemployment means even if the

individuals are prepared to work at

prevailing rate, they do not get jobs.

9. According to the organisation of Economic

co-operation and Development in 1986 the

countries whose per capita is less than $425

came in to the category of _____.

10. The people whose per capita income is

below the per capita expenditure are termed

as the _____.

11. The _____ employment is the phenomena

that existed in developed countries.

12. _____ was the first economist who noticed

the difference between involuntary

employment and voluntary employment.

13. The marginal productivity is zero in the

_____ employment.

14. According to the World Bank Report of

1997 the per capita income of developed

countries is more than _____ dollars.

15. Both _____ employment and _____

employment are rampant is rural India.

16. According to National Sample Survey of

India, the people are under employed

whose working hours are less than _____

per week.

17. India adopted a policy for ''balanced

regional development'' during _____ Five

year plan.

18. As per composite index of regional

development_____ stands first in our

country.

19. The structural inflation is noticed in _____.

20. The Regional plans were adopted for the

backward regions of Telangana and

Rayalaseema in _____.

21. At present "Health for All" programme is

changed to health for _____.

22. A sustained rise in general level of prices of

all commodities is called _____.

23. According to an indicator of industrial

growth _____ ranks first in our country.

24. A rise in the price level, is caused due to an

increase in costs, is called _____ inflation.

25. The concept of _____ inflation is applicable

to India.

26. India stands _____ in the world as far as the

secondary education system is concerned.

India's Per Capita Income in 1995?

International Trade

Problems of Indian Economy

Answers:1. Hyderabad; 2. Tirupathi; 3. The Yamuna; 4.

Udagamandalam; 5. Srinagar; 6. Fifth; 7.

Bangalore; 8. Cosmopolitan; 9. Srinagar.

Answers:1. Petroleum, 2. Manufactured goods; 3.

Japan, Singapore, Hong Kong, Thailand; 4.

Considerably low; 5. Marine; 6. America; 7.

OPEC; 8. Foreign Trade.

Answers:1. Chennai; 2. Cochin; 3. Kolkata; 4.

Indented; 5. Mumbai; 6. Six; 7. 12; 8.

Harbour; 9. Major Port Trust; 10. State

Government; 11. Mumbai; 12. Kolkata; 13.

Hooghly; 14. Chennai; 15. Visakhapatnam.

Answers:1. European; 2. Industrial; 3. Economic drain;

4. Britain; 5. Developing; 6. Un Organised; 7.

Plunder of economic wealth; 8. Organised

Sector; 9. Organised Sector; 10. Rain water;

11. South west Monsoons; 12. Kharif; 13.

Rabi; 14. 72%; 15. organised; 16. Cornwallis;

17. Mahalwari; 18. Un earned; 19. 65.38; 20.

Property; 21. Capitalistic; 22. Public enterpri-

ses; 23. Capitalistic; 24. Socialistic; 25. Joint;

26. Capitalistic; 27. Socialist; 28. Economic

in equality; 29. Rayatwari; 30. Socialist.

Sea ports and TownsCharacteristics of Indian

Economy

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27. _____ programme was introduced to bridge

the gap between major, medium and minor

projects.

28. Income inequalities were measured by

_____.

1. The Occupations which are included in the

_____ sector are agriculture, fishing,

mining and all other related activities.

2. The working population is more in _____

sector than other two sectors of Secondary

and Tertiary.

3. The share of agriculture in National income

is meagre in _____ countries.

4. The industries,small and big, construction

activity find their place in _____ sector.

5. Only_____percentage of American

populat-ion derive their livelihood from

Agriculture.

6. Presently _____ percentage of the people

depend on agriculture in India.

7. The Occupations which are generated in

Banking, commerce and communications

come under the _____ sector.

8. The living conditions of marginal farmers

in the rural areas get improved, if the _____

will be implemented along with the

increasing rural credit.

9. The abolition of all systems of land tenure

had paved the way for the _____ to get the

right of the ownership of the land.

10. The better water management influenced

_____ revolution in India.

11. Since the productivity per acre is in small

forms is greater than the large ones, so there

is an _____ relationship between form, size

and productivity.

12. The increase in_____ production is

attributed to the form technology and better

methods of production.

13. The _____ inequalities have been increased

due to green revolution in India according

to some people.

14. The _____ industry is defined as those

firms with capital investment not exceeding

Rs. 35 lakhs.

15. The pattern of share holding with in a firm

is known as _____.

16. FERA means _____.

17. If the equity holding of foreign nationals is

more than 40 percent of total equity in a

firm. That firm is regarded as a _____.

18. _____ Sector is considered important in

Indian industry as the foreign exchange

reserves are said to be scarce.

19. The_____industries are those which

provide inputs to all industries and

agriculture.

20. The manufacturing of machine tools,

engineering goods, electrical equipment

and automobiles come under the category

of _____ goods industries.

21. The intermediate goods industries are those

which produce goods used in the _____

process of other goods.

22. The industries which do not produce the

final goods come under the category of

_____ goods industries.

23. There are ups and downs in the industrial

growth sector during the period from _____

to _____ in India.

24. _____ as a central Bank is having monetary

authority in the country.

25. All the Scheduled commercial banks funct-

ion as per the rules and regulations

of_____.

26. The industries which produce comsumera-

ble goods like TVS, textiles, cosmetics

are termed as _____ goods industries.

27. The Share of industries in the national

income in India is less compared with the

_____ countries.

28. As the strength of economy depends upon

the growth of industry and agriculture, the

growth of service sector indicates the

direction of _____ in India.

29. The industries and business sectors got its

funds from _____ finance.

30. The government encouraged _____

investment in communication sector as per

Telecommunication policy of 1994.

1. The first five year plan started in the year

_____ .

2. Removal of poverty (Garibi Hattavo) is the

main objective of_____five year plan.

3. At present _____ five year plan is in

progress in India.

4. One of the important failures of Five years

plans is failure in achieving reduction in

_____

5. Before introduction of Five year plans in

India, the Industrial policy of _____ paved

the way for economic development in India.

6. The _____ state policy of the Indian

constitution defined the objectives of Socio

- economic policy.

7. The Indian planning commission was

constituted in the year _____.

8. Economic_____ is that strategy and

mechanism to achieve set goals in definite

time frame with allocation of funds.

9. The main objective of Indian planning is to

achieve _____ or achieving of high standard

of living.

10. The general objectives of Indian planning

have been primarily to achieve economic

growth with _____ and _____.

11. One of the objectives of Indian planning is

to reach the benefits attained through the

implementation of five year plans to the

_____ classes of society.

12. The main objective of first five year plan is

to increase productivity in the _____.

13. The top priority was given to to

industrialisation during_____ five year plan.

14. The Annual plans were being implemented

during the period form _____ to _____.

15. The Janata Government stopped the

implementation of _____ five year plan in

the year 1978.

16. _____five year plan was introduced twice in

India.

17. The chairman of planning commission of

India is _____.

18. The vice- chairman of Indian planning

commission is _____.

19. Annual plans for the second time were

implemented during the period_____.

20. Food grains production, employment and

productivity are the main objectives of

_____ Five year plan.

21. The duration of First five plan is from _____

22. 7th five year plan period _____.

23. Integrated speedy development is the main

objective of _____ five year plan.

24. At present the chairman of the planning

commission of India is _____.

25. Duration of 11th five year plan was_____.

26. The aims and objectives of five year plans

have not been fulfilled due to incomplete

implementation of _____ reforms.

27. Since the starting of the five year plans

_____ sector has been given priority till to

day.

28. The five year plans are being implemented

on _____ and _____ lines.

29. The achievement of _____ is the main

objective of third five year plan.

1. _____used to say ''had there been no Rouss-

eau, there would have been no Napoleon''.

2. Napoleon sowed the seeds of nationalism in

_____.

3. In 1804, Napoleon got coronated as the

emperor of _____.

4. Napoleon introduced the famous _____

system in order to defeat England.

5. The Leipzig war in 1813 was called the

_____.

6. Napoleon died in the _____ Island [(or) St.

Helena].

7. The convenor of the congress of Vienna was

_____.

8. 1830 Revolution occurred in France during

the period of _____.

9. 1830 Revolution inspired National spirit in

Germany,Poland, Spain, Portugal and_____.

10. The 1830 revolt brought success to the revo-

lutionaries only in the countries of _____.

11. 1848 revolt occurred in France during the

period of _____.

12. Louis Phillips minister who made people

disgusted through his conservative reaction-

ary and corrupt practices was _____.

13. The Congress of Vienna was held in the year

_____.

14. Metternich was the chancellor of _____.

15. Napoleon Bonaparte was born at Ajaccio in

the island of _____.

16. According to guiding principles of Vienna

Congress, under the principle of _____, no

country could threaten another one.

17. The decision of the congress of Vienna sown

the seeds of _____ movements in Europe.

ECONOMICS, HISTORYNational MovementsPlanning

Congress of Vienna Held in the Year?

Answers:1. GNP Per capita; 2. Relative Economic

Development; 3. Low income Group

countries; 4. Rs 65; 5. Rs. 340; 6. Rural Areas;

7. National Rural Employment Programme;

8. Involuntary Unemployment; 9. Low

income Countries; 10. The poor; 11.

Voluntary; 12. John Maynard Keynes; 13.

Disguised; 14. $ 9,386; 15. Disguised and

Open; 16. 14 hours; 17. Third; 18. Punjab; 19.

Latin America; 20. 1970; 21. Underprivile-

ged; 22. Inflation; 23. Maharashtra; 24. Cost

Push; 25. Demand Pull; 26. Second; 27. Com-

mand Area Development; 28. Lorenz Curve.

The Structure of theIndian Economy

Answers:1. Primary; 2. Primary; 3. Developed or adva-

nced; 4. Secondary; 5. 2; 6. 58; 7. Tertiary; 8.

Land reforms; 9. Tenants; 10. Green revoluti-

on; 11. inverse; 12. Wheat; 13. Regional; 14.

Small scale; 15. Equity; 16. Foreign Exchan-

ge Regulation Act; 17. Foreign Sector; 18.

Foreign; 19. The Capital goods; 20. Capital

goods; 21. Production; 22. Intermediate; 23.

From 1960 to 1970; 24. Reserve Bank of

India; 25. RBI; 26. Consumer; 27. Developed;

28. Modernisation; 29. Industrial; 30. Private.

Planning: Achievementsand Failures

Answers:1. 1951; 2. 4th; 3.11th; 4. Economic inequ-

alities; 5. 1948; 6. Directive Principles of; 7.

1950; 8. Planning; 9. Socialistic pattern of

society; 10. Stability and distributional just-

ice; 11. Depres-sed or under privileged; 12.

Agriculture; 13. Second; 14. 1966 - 69; 15. 5th

five year plan; 16. 6th five year plan; 17. The

Prime Minister of India; 18. Montek Singh

Ahluwalia; 19. 1990 - 92; 20. 7th 5 year plan;

21. 1951 - 1956; 22. 1985 - 90; 23. 11th five

year plan; 24. Dr. Manmohan Singh;25. 2007-

2012; 26. Land reforms; 27. Agriculture; 28.

Democratic and egalitarian; 29. Self- reliance

National Movements

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6

HISTORYContemporary WorldImperialism

18. "Whenever France Sneezes, _____ catches

cold" is one of the proverb.

19. Louis Phillip described himself as "_____

king".

20. Theirs, a historian, was the leader of the

_____ party.

21. After the revolt of 1848, under the

leadership of _____, France became

Republic country in place of monarchy.

22. Under the leadership of _____ Hungarians

revolted.

23. The result of Napoleon's work was that the

complicated political, geographical map of

_____ was made easy.

24. Under the French patronage, Napoleon

formed the "Confederation of the _____"

with the small regions of Germany.

25. _____ was removed from the Prussian civil

services with the remark of deficiency in

discipline.

26. Bismark believed in _____.

27. Bismark's Policy was based on _____.

28. The unification of Germany was completed

in the year of _____.

29. The Secret revolutionary organisation_____

was started in Naples and spread through

Italy.

30. Majjini founded the_____, a revolutionary

Society.

31. _____started a news paper, "Risorgimento".

32. _____attracted by 'Young Italy' and joined it

33. First United German Emperor was _____.

34. An army of _____ known as 'Red shirts',

founded by Garibaldi.

35. _____, wrote of the society where no man

possessed any private property.

36. The principle of right to work was

advocated by _____.

37. 'Communist Manifesto' was written by____

38. The first international was held in the year

_____.

39. Paris Commune was established in the year

_____.

40. At the time of Paris Commune, the Emperor

of France was _____.

1. The third stage of capitalism is

known as _____.

2. _____ said ''Imperialism is the highest stage

of capitalism''.

3. The Imperial countries spread the ideology

of the _____ burden for offering civilisation

to backward people.

4. The Scottish missionary who explored

Africa in 1840 was _____.

5. Congo was discovered by _____.

6. The king who convened a conference of all

European states in 1879 to discuss the issue

of Exploration of Africa was _____

7. _____ made treaties with the native chiefs

of Africa.

8. King Leopard - II of _____ took up the title

of Sovereign of Congo.

9. In 1811_____, the ruler of Egypt declared

Independence.

10. Ismail Pasha, the ruler of Egypt sold his

shares of Suez Canal to _____.

11. Under the leadership of _____, the Arab of

Egypt revolted against the foreign

intervention on Egypt.

12. The_____also known as Boers, the settlers

of Africa.

13. _____ contemplated to establish British

Empire in South Africa.

14. The English settlers were called _____ in

Transvaal in south Africa.

15. _____ revolution was origin of Imperialism.

16. In the Boers revolt against England, the

other European power who showed

sympathy with Boers was _____.

17. _____ was the first country to fall prey to

the Europeans.

18. The European power to gain the final

control over Indonesia was _____.

19 _____ were the first to develop trade with

India.

20. The Battle of Buxar occurred in _____.

21. Chinese emperor_____says that ''we posse-

ss all things;I set no value on strange things.

22. _____ was winner of the opium wars.

23. The ancient name of Srilanka was _____

24. Opium grown in_____was smuggled to

china.

25. _____ believed that they possessed every

thing they needed.

1. The growth of _____ of Germany

causes English people restless.

2. First Industrialised country in Europe is

_____.

3. With Imperialism, Britain established a vast

empire on which ''the sum _____".

4. Russians encouraged pan-_____ movement.

5. The murder of _____, the crown prince of

Austria by a Serb precipated the crisis

became First World war.

6. World war - I began in _____ and lasted till

_____.

7. With the withdrawal of_____, Central

powers gained.

8. The treaty of Versailles was signed in the

year _____.

9. The Czar who was assassinated by Nihilists

in 1894 was _____.

10. The last of the Czars who was made to

abdicate the throne was _____.

11. The Russian leader who advocated for the

continuation of war by Russia to a speedy

and honorable conclusion was _____.

12. The architect of the league of Nations was

_____.

13. Treaty of Versailles was entered in to

between the allied powers and _____.

14. The terms of the Treaty of Versailles were

humiliating to _____.

15. President _____ of America proposed for

the establishment of the league of Nations.

16. The headquarters of the league of Nations

was established at _____.

17. _____ failed to restrain Hitler's invasions.

18. _____ was stamped out by Socialism later

in Russia.

19. Teachings of Marx were popularised by

Novelist _____.

20. Lenin original name was Vladimir Illich

_____.

21. Lenin edited _____ , the party news paper.

22. _____ formed the Bolshevik party in

1903.

23. Bolsheviks were concluded the treaty of

_____ with Germany in 1918.

24. The Old Russian Calendar is _____ days

behind the present Russian Calendar.

25. USSR means _____.

1. After the conclusion of world war-I,

under the leadership of ____ in Germany,

dictatorial government emerged.

2. Japan became very powerful with a slogan

of ____.

3. ____ started a newspaper Il Popolo 'd' Italia.

4. Mussolini founded ____ party.

5. Fascism was opposed to democracy, ____

and liberalism.

6. King ____ invited Mussolini to form the

government.

7. Mussolini joined hands with Hitler and

signed an anti ____ pact.

8. "War is to a nation what maternity is to

women" was the principle advocated by

____.

9. The author of Mein Kampf was ____.

10. The Russo-Japanese war was fought over

the conflict of interests in the region of

____.

11. Hitler got attracted to the teachings of

philosopher, ____.

12. Hitler joined the workers party and gave a

new name to the party, as ____ party.

13. Hitler was an anti-____.

14. In____, Hitler became the president of

Germany.

15. Under Hitler's dictatorship rule, the famous

scientist ____ left Germany.

16. Through Land-lease Bill, America agreed to

give all-out assistance to ____.

17. Robert Mugabe became the first president

of ____ in 1980.

18. In 1894 the China-Japanese war ended with

the treaty of ____.

19. Manchuria was called the____of the Far

East.

20. Japan entered into Second World War with

an attack on the ____.

21. America's joining on the side of ____

decided their victory in the war.

22. American president Harding took a stand of

____.

23. American president____promised a new

deal.

24. U.S.A. joined the Second World War by

signing of ____ charter.

25. ____ introduced a programme of five year

plan in Russia.

26. Hitler declared that ____were his arch

enemies.

27. Turkey was touched by the humiliation met

by the treaty of ____.

28. ____ slogan was 'Turkey for the Turks'.

29. ____ failed to achieve world peace.

30. In opposition to leaning, a revolt broke out

in Spain under the leadership of ____.

31. The ____ war was commented as "a dress

rehearsal for a greater drama soon to be

played on an ampler stage".

Third Stage of Capitalism is Known As?Contemporary WorldImperialism World up to the world war-II

Answers:1. Naval Power; 2. Britain; 3. Never set; 4.

Slave; 5. Ferdinand; 6. 1914, 1918; 7. Russia;

8. 1919; 9. Alexander; 10. Nicholas - II;11.

Kerensky; 12. Woodrow wilson; 13.

Germany; 14. Germany; 15. Woodrow

wilson; 16. Geneva; 17. The League nations;

18. Nihilism; 19. Maxim Gorky; 20. Ulyanov;

21. Iskra; 22. Lenin; 23. Brest litovsk; 24. 13;

25. Union of Socialist Soviet Republic.

Answers:1. Imperialism; 2. Lenin; 3. ''white man's bur-

den'' ; 4. Livingston; 5. Cameroon; 6. Leop-

ald-II; 7. Stanly; 8. Belgium; 9. Mohammad

Ali; 10. England; 11. Arabi Pasha; 12. Dutch;

13. Cecil Rhodes; 14. Outlanders; 15. Industr-

ial; 16. Germany; 17. India; 18. Netherlands;

19. Portuguese; 20. 1764; 21. Cheinlung; 22.

England; 23. Ceylon; 24. India. 25. Chinese.

Answers:1. Napoleon; 2. Italy; 3. France; 4. Contine-

ntal; 5. Battle of Nations; 6. Rocky; 7. Met-

ternich; 8. Charles - X; 9. Italy; 10. France,

Belgium; 11. Louis Phillip; 12. Guizot; 13.

1815; 14. Austria; 15. Corsica; 16. Balance of

Power; 17. Nationalist; 18. Europe; 19.

people's; 20. Reform; 21. Louis Blanc; 22.

Kossuth; 23. Germany; 24. Rhine; 25.

Bismark; 26. Autocracy; 27. "Blood and

Iron"; 28. 1871; 29. Carbonary; 30. Young

Italy; 31. Count Cavour; 32. Garibaldi; 33.

William-I; 34. 1000; 35. Thomas Moore; 36.

Louis Blanc; 37. Karl Marx; 38. 1864; 39.

1871; 40. Napoleon- III.

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7

32. Hitler's attack on ____ was the immediate

cause for the out break of the world war-II.

33. ____ was shot by Italians themselves.

34. On 6th August,1945 the bombs were thrown

which destroyed ____, ____ towns in Japan.

35. The world war-II ended with the victory of

____on ____.

36. The Second World War roused the vigour of

nationalism in countries of ____.

37. The proposals of ____ plan aimed for

reconstruction of Europe economy.

38. At the____conference of 1944, was drawn

up the draft proposal of the UNO.

39. ____ succeeded in turning the Anti-Manchu

agitation into a republican movement.

40. The communists proclaimed the People's

Republic of China on ____ in China.

41. In 1927, the Indonesian Nationalist Party

was founded by ____.

42. The South African white government

followed a policy of ____.

43. The South-West Africa was renamed as

____by the United Nations.

44. The old name of Zambia was ____.

45. South Rhodesia became Independent in

1980 under a new name ____.

46. The liberation struggle in South America

was initiated by Simon Boliver a native of

____.

47. In Mexico, the serious national sentiment

was roused under the leadership of ____.

48. Dan Padro won independence to ____

without any struggle or war.

49. Sun-Yet-Sen belongs to ____ party.

50. SWAPO full form is ____.

1. The _____ formed under the

leadership of U.S.A., and the _____ formed

under the leadership of U.S.S.R.

2. The two rival systems of alliances gave

birth to a war of tension called as _____

3. _____ was a proposal to send military and

economic aid to Greece and Turkey.

4. _____ was an extension of Truman doctrine.

5. Western Europe countries signed on the tre-

aty of____to____check Russian influence.

6. _____ was a defensive organisation against

the Soviet bloc.

7. NATO means _____.

8. Warsa treaty was organised by _____.

9. _____ was the architect of Non - alignment

movement.

10. Palestine problem was a struggle between

Arabs and the Jews.

11. _____ plan was initiated as a countermove

to the Marshall plan by Russia.

12. In opposition to the NATO organised by

America,_____treaty agreement for the

European Communist countries was

proposed by Russia.

13. The Asian - African conference of 1955 was

known as the _____ conference.

14. _____inaugurated the Bandung Conference.

15. _____ of Egypt also attended the Bandung

conference.

16. Egypt's president _____ announced

nationalisation of Suez Canal.

17. The Indonesian Islands of Java, Sumatra

were the colonies of _____.

18. The Supreme allied commander during the

world war - II was _____.

19. _____ fought for independence of Vietnam.

20. Yugoslavian statesman _____ preferred to

maintain a neutral foreign policy.

21. _____was the first American president to be

elected for more than two terms of office.

22. Roosevelt's wife _____ served as

chairperson of United Nations Human

Rights commission.

23. British Prime Minister _____ was captured

by the Boers in South Africa but made a

spectacular escape.

24. _____ was the first soviet ruler to visit USA.

25. Khrushchev removed Stalin's body from

_____ side and got buried elsewhere.

26. _____ was the author of panchasheel

agreement.

27. _____ published an article "A study of

Physical Culture".

1. Indus Valley civilisation existed in India

around _____ B.C.

2. The Urban centers of Indus civilisation

discovered by_____department excavations

in 1921 -22.

3. Harappa is located in the Montgomery

district of _____ state.

4. The _____ at Mohenjo-Daro was a striking

example of city culture.

5. Excavation work of Indus valley civilisation

was first carried out by_____.

6. Temples at Mahabalipuram were built by

_____.

7. In Aryans period, there were_____

Janapadas.

8. The _____ produced Vedic literature.

9. The Rigveda, the Yajurveda, the Samaveda

and the _____ were the four Vedas.

10. The_____culture of the south was interwo-

ven with the _____ culture of the North.

11. During the _____ rule, we found the achie-

vement of political administrative unity in

our country.

12. The art of the kanishka period is called

_____.

13. _____ and curled hair were the distinctive

features of Gandhara art.

14. _____ art got inspiration from Jain

religion.

15. Lotus were most admirably represented in

the _____ schools of art.

16. The brick temple at_____ in Uttarpradesh

belonged to the Gupta period.

17. Tanjore Brihadeshwara Temple built by

_____.

18. The Biggest Nataraja image in the country

is at _____.

19. The construction of Qutubminar was

completed by _____.

20. The immediate cause of the Sepoy Mutiny

was the use of _____.

21. The British who succeeded in abolishing the

practice of sati in India was _____.

22. The European country which held

Monopoly over India trade during 16th

century was _____.

23. Hoyasala monuments of Hoyasaleshwara

temple are located at _____.

24. _____ were built by SrikrishnadevaRaya.

25. _____ laid foundation of Indo - Persian

school of painting.

26. _____ gave patronage to Mughal miniature

painting.

27. Indo - Persian architecture was patronised

by _____.

28. The Red fort in Delhi was built by _____.

29. _____ was appointed as the librarian by

Jalal -ud - din khilji in Delhi.

30. _____permitted Hindus in to the Madarasas.

31. Aryabatta, a famous astronomer lived

during the _____ period.

32. _____ is regarded as very ancient Native

Indian language.

33. Annual Hindu mela started by _____

awakened nationalism among Bengalis.

34. Ganapati festival, Shivaji festival were

started by _____.

35. Swami Vivekananda participated in the

parliament of world religions held in 1894

at _____.

36. The most popular among the early Christian

Missionaries was _____.

37. _____ established the Serempur College in

Bengal.

38. With the help of _____, Lord Bentik

succeeded in abolishing the practice of sati.

39. The deposed princess of native states joined

in the 1857 revolt due to the panic created

by Annexationist policies of _____.

40. The 1857 revolt began at _____.

41. The 1857 revolt was called as _____.

42. According to 1858 Act the head of the

Indian government was called the _____.

43. In Chandra Gupta Vikramadithy's court

there were _____ the poets.

44. _____ court was adorned by Ashtadiggajas.

45. Plasi war held in _____.

HISTORYCultural Heritage of IndiaWorld after World War-II

Warsa Treaty Was Organised by ?

Answers:1. Hitler; 2. Pan-Asianism; 3. Mussolini; 4.

Fascist; 5. Socialism; 6. Victor Emmanuel-III;

7. Comintern; 8. Mussolini; 9. Hitler; 10.

Manchuria; 11. Nietzsche; 12. Nazi; 13. Jew;

14. 1934; 15.Albert Einstein; 16. England; 17.

Zimbabwe; 18. Shemonosheki; 19. Granary;

20. Pearl Harbour; 21. Allies; 22. Isolation;

23. Roosevelt; 24. Atlantic; 25. Stalin; 26.

Communists; 27. Sevres; 28. Musthafa Kemal

Pasha's; 29. League of Nations; 30. General

Franco; 31. Spanish civil; 32. Poland; 33.

Mussolini; 34. Hiroshima, Nagasaki; 35.

Allied powers, Axis powers; 36. Africa, Asia;

37. Marshall; 38. Dumbarton oaks; 39. Sun-

Yet-Sen; 40. 1949; 41. Sukarno; 42.

Apartheid; 43. Namibia; 44. North Rhodesia;

45. Zimbabwe; 46. Venezuela; 47. ButoJarez;

48. Brazil; 49. Koumintang; 50. South West

African People's Organisation.

The world after world war-II Answers:1. Western Power bloc, Eastern Power bloc; 2.

Cold war; 3. Truman Doctrine; 4. Marshall

plan; 5. Brussels,check; 6. NATO; 7. North

Atlantic Treaty organisation; 8. Russia; 9.

Jawaharlal Nehru; 10. The Jews; 11. Maltov;

12. Warsa; 13. Bandung; 14. Sukarno; 15.

Nassar; 16. Nassar; 17. Dutch; 18. Eisenhow-

er; 19. Ho chi Minh; 20. Mar- shall Tito; 21.

F.D.Roosevelt; 22. Eleanor; 23. Winston Chu-

rchill; 24. Nikitakhrush- chev; 25. Lenin's; 26.

Jawaharlal Nehru; 27. Mao-Tse-Tung.

Cultural Heritage of Indiaand Intellectual Awakening

Answers:1. 2500BC; 2. Archaeological; 3.Punjab; 4.

Great Bath; 5.Sir John Marshall; 6. Narsimha-

varma; 7. 16; 8. Aryans; 9. Atharwana Veda;

10. Dravidian, aryan; 11. British; 12. Gandha-

ra; 13. Facial features; 14. Mathura; 15. Ama-

ravati; 16. Bitargaon; 17. Raja Raja Chola; 18.

Chidambaram; 19. Iltutmish; 20. Enfield Riff-

les; 21. William Bentik; 22. Portugal; 23.

Halebadi; 24. Vitala Temple and Hwara Ram-

aswamy Temple; 25. Akbar; 26. Jahangir; 27.

Shahjahan; 28. Shahjahan; 29. Amirkhusrav;

30. Akbar; 31. Gupta; 32. Sanskrit; 33.Gopal

Mitra; 34. Tilak; 35. Chicago; 36. William

Keri; 37. William Keri; 38. RajaRamMohan

Roy; 39. Dalhousie; 40. Meerut; 41. first war

of Indian independecne; 42. Vic-eroy; 43.

Navaratnas; 44. The vijayanagar; 45. 1757.

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HISTORY, CIVICSIndian DemocracyFreedom Movement

1. ____ and ____ were started under

the editorship of Balagangadhar Tilak.

2. Amrit Bazar Patrika was started under the

editorship of ____.

3. ____formed the Indian Association in 1876.

4. M.V. Raghavachari, G. Subrahmanya Iyer

founded the ____.

5. Indian National Congress first session was

held at ____.

6. Indian National Congress formed in the

year of ____.

7. A.O. Hume aimed to provide a ____valve to

growing discontentment among the Indians.

8. Dadabhai Naoroji has brought out the

____theory.

9. The main objective of the extremists was

the attainment of ____.

10. ____ reforms, which came in the form of

the 1909 act.

11. The partition of Bengal in 1905 by ____.

12. The ____ movement was launched in

response to the partition of Bengal.

13. The hymn of Vandematharam was written

by ____.

14. ____ toured Andhra regions in the part of

spreading vandematharam movement.

15. Bengal Swadeshi Chemical stores organised

by ____.

16. Prafulla Chaki and ____ threw a bomb on a

carriage carrying Kingsford.

17. Dyarchy was introduced at the provinces

under ____ act.

18. Provincial autonomy was introduced by

____ act.

19. The chairman of the constitution-drafting

committee for India was ____.

20. ____ sacrificed his life in the struggle for

creation of separate Andhra Province.

21. The state that was incorporated into Indian

Union through police action was ____.

22. The Indian Muslims started ____

movement against British in India.

23. In 1916 Annie Besant started her____ is

Madras.

24. The head quarters of Theosophical society

was at ____.

25. ____ organised his home rule activities in

Maharashtra.

26. Annie Besant was elected as the president

of INC for the ____ session in 1917.

27. The____act authorised the government to

imprison any person without trial and

conviction.

28. Mahatma Gandhi was born on 1869 at____.

29. In 1916, Gandhi founded the ____ashram at

Ahmedabad.

30. Gandhi fought against____system at

Champaran.

31. Jallianwala Bagh was a garden place at

____.

32. Khilafath movement was launched on ____.

33. Tilak ____ fund was started to finance the

non-cooperation movement.

34. Gandhiji took very serious view of the ____

incident and called off the non-cooperation

movement.

35. Khilafat Swaraj party president was ____

36. In____, the British appointed Simon

commission to inquire into the working of

the reforms of 1919 act.

37. The Nehru report declared____as the goal.

38. Gandhi started the civil disobedience

movement with his famous ____.

39. In 1930, the First Round Table conference

held at ____.

40. Gandhi -Irwin pact was signed in ____.

41. Gandhiji protested against the ____ award

declared by Mac Donald.

42. Gandhi and Ambedkar signed on

____ pact.

43. In 1940, ____declared "August offer'.

44. ____ proposed a constituent assembly after

the world war.

45. Gandhi gave a ____slogan in the part of

Quit India Movement.

46. The Muslim league founded in ____.

47. I.N.A. means ____.

48. The prime minister of England ____ sent a

cabinet mission to India in 1946.

49. In ____ Gandhiji was assassinated.

50. India became Republic in ____

1. According to population census of

2001, the population of India was ____.

2. India is____ populous country in the world.

3. Telugu stands ____ place in the languages

of the world.

4. So far,____ languages have been recognised

by the Indian constitution.

5. National language of our country is ____.

6. At present there are ____ states and ____

union territories is our country.

7. The drafting of the Indian constitution was

completed in the year ____.

8. ____ gives the right to the citizens to

approach the court of law to safeguard other

fundamental rights.

9. Every citizen gets his right to vote after

completion of ____ years.

10. The Union Territories are directly

administered by ____.

11. ____ is the largest state in India.

12. As per 2001 population census ____

percentage of the people are Hindus.

13. According to the government agencies, app-

roximately there are ____ castes in India.

14. The____of our constitution reflects the ide-

als of the modern state in democratic age.

15. The chief characteric of ____ is all are equal

before law.

16. ____ means separation of religion from the

state affairs.

17. Social justice is to be achieved by

implementing ____ system.

18. The real sovereignty lies in the ____ is

Indian democracy.

19. The state is called republic when its head is

elected by ____.

20. There is no place for____in democratic set

up.

21. No political party is allowed to beg the

votes by using ____ symbols.

22. According to the Directive Principles of

state policy the accumulation of ____

should be in the hands of a few.

23. Practise of untouchability is a ____ in India.

24. ____ is the salient feature of National

Integration.

25. The religion of ____ stood for the equality

of all the races in the ancient times.

26. The expansion of IAS is ____.

27. The feeling of____ is the basic

characteristic of National Integration.

28. India was called ____ during ancient times.

29. The name India is derived from river ____.

30. Indian constitution provided for ____

structure of the government in India.

1. The word "Democracy" is derived

from the Greek words of ____ and ____.

2. In all modern democratic countries, the

governments are ____ in nature.

3. According to____ democracy is the

government of the people, by the people,

and for the people.

4. Electorate means ____.

5. Democracy means ____.

6. The powers of democratic governments are

____ by a constitution.

7. The opinion of the ____ is given much

importance in democratic countries.

8. Right to vote means ____

9. Providing right to vote to everyone of

eighteen years age above without taking any

consideration of caste, zender, region and

religion is called ____.

10. If the representatives of the people elect

someone to a public position, it is called

____ election.

11. If the elections are held at regular intervals

to elect the representatives of the people for

Loksabha and State Assemblies is called

____elections.

12. For the first time, the elections were

conducted to local bodies in ____.

13. The right of choosing the representatives is

called the ____.

14. The Electoral Roll means ____.

15. The minimum age for a candidate to contest

for Loksabha Election is ____.

16. The election officer who conducts the

election at constituency level is called ____.

17. The officer who conducts the polling at

booth level is called ____.

18. The first General Elections were held in the

year ____.

19. According to the article of 326 of the

constitution, the elections to the Loksabha

and State Assemblies should be held on the

basis of ____.

20. There is a ____ government in India.

21. The upper house of our parliament is ____.

22. The members of Legislative Assembly are

elected ____.

23. Gram panchayaths and municipalities are

called ____.

24. ____ takes the responsibility of conducting

the elections in India.

25. The election of any elected member is being

cancelled by a court of law, if he resorted to

____ in the election.

26. The polling agents do have the right to

challenge the ____ of the voter on behalf of

the contesting candidate.

27. The party which is not in power, but seeking

to capture political power with people's

mandate is called an ____.

28. In our country the Sixth General Elections

The First Round Table Conference Held at?Freedom Movement in India

Answers:1. 102.7 crores; 2. The second; 3. 16th; 4. 22;

5. Hindi; 6. 28,7; 7. 1949; 8. The right to con-

stitutional remedies; 9. Eighteen; 10. The cen-

tral government; 11.Rajasthan; 12. 82%; 13.

6748; 14. Preamble; 15. Rule of law; 16. Sec-

ularism; 17. Reservations; 18. People; 19. The

people; 20. Dictatorship; 21. Religions; 22.

Wealth; 23. Crime; 24. Unity in Diversity; 25.

Buddhism; 26. Indian Administrative Service;

27. Oneness and belonging; 28. Bharath

Varsha; 29. Indus; 30. Federal.

Answers:1. Kesari, Maratha; 2. Sisir Kumar Ghosh; 3.

Surendranath Benarji; 4. Madras mahajana

sabha; 5. Bombay; 6. 1885; 7. Safety; 8.

Drain; 9. Swaraj; 10. Minto-morely; 11. Lord

Curzon; 12. Vandematharam; 13. Bankim

Chandra Chatterji; 14. Bipin Chandrapal; 15.

P.C. Roy; 16. Kudiram Bose; 17. 1919; 18.

1935; 19. Ambedkar; 20. Potti Sri Ramulu;

21. Hyderabad; 22. Khilafat; 23. Home rule

league; 24. Adayar; 25. Tilak; 26. Calcutta;

27. Rowlatt; 28. Porbandar; 29. Sabarmati;

30. Tinkathia; 31. Amritsar; 32. August, 1920;

33. Swaraj; 34. Chauri Chaura; 35. Chittaranj-

an Das; 36. 1927; 37. Complete Swaraj; 38.

Dandi March; 39.London; 40. 1931; 41. Com-

munal; 42. Poona; 43. Lord Linlithgo; 44.

Cripps; 45. Do or Die; 46. 1906; 47. Indian

National Army; 48. Atlee; 49. 1948; 50. 1950.

India As a Nation

Indian Democracy

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9

were held in the year ____.

29. To get elected by getting votes through the

malpractices is termed as an ____.

30. The political parties announce their ____

before the elections.

1. ____ and ____ play an important role in the

development of the individual and society.

2. The number of illiterates are more in ____

than any country in the world.

3. According to 2001 population census, the

female literacy rate in India is ____.

4. The literacy rate of Andhra Pradesh in the

year 2001 is ____.

5. The state which has got the lowest literacy

rate is ____.

6. The National Educational Policy of ____

provided free education for school going

children.

7. In the state of Andhra Pradesh out of 100

children only ____ children are completing

their schooling.

8. The national literacy mission was started in

the year ____.

9. In 1947 India was divided into two parts on

the basis of ____.

10. Communalism is a ____ attitude.

11. Andhra state was formed in the year ____

12. The fundamental right which has provided

the right to live is ____

13. Minimum marriageable age for girls is

____.

14. The Anti-Dowry Act came into existence in

the year ____.

15. The rit of ____ provides a remedy for illegal

detention of a person.

16. ____ is coming in the way of development

and communal harmony and unity of the

nation.

17. ____ is constituted for the welfare of the

minorities.

18. Right to religion is a ____ right in our

country.

19. The article of ____ of our constitution

empowered the minorities to safeguard their

languages, religions and the culture.

20. According to____article of our constitution,

the linguistic and religious minorities are

allowed to establish ____ institutions.

21. Andhra Pradesh was formed in____.

22. According to ____there is not only a

division of labour but also the division of

labourers in India.

23. The word "The scheduled castes" was first

mentioned in the act of ____.

24. "Untouchability is a sin" according to ____.

25. The article____of constitution provided for

the eradication of untouchability in India.

26. In India____ percentage of the people

belong to scheduled caste groups.

27. The living conditions of scheduled castes is

better than the living conditions of____ in

India.

28. Only ____ percentage of female children

are completing their secondary education in

the rural areas.

29. Dowry system can be eradicated, if the

____get a half-share in the parental property

30. Prevention of Domestic Violence Act was

introduced to give the protection to ____.

31. Those who are below 14 years of age are

called ____.

32. Article ____ of our constitution prohibits

the employment of children in the

hazardous work in the factories.

1. The member countries of UNO in the year

2002 ____.

2. The first prime minister of independent

India is ____.

3. ____ is defined as a set of guide lines for

protection and promotion of national

interests in the international arena.

4. ____ was formed under leadership of earlier

Soviet Russia.

5. Refusal to align either with the communist

bloc or the non-communist bloc and to

pursue an independent neutral policy in the

international arena is called ____.

6. Bangladesh came into existence in the year

____.

7. Indo-Soviet Treaty was signed in the year

____.

8. Expand the abbreviation NPT ____.

9. The African country which practised the

apartheid was ____.

10. The name of the boundary line between

Tibet and India is ____.

11. The Indo-Chinese war was fought in the

year ____.

12. The U.S.A. had maintained ____ in the

Indo-Pak war in 1965.

13. India supported the cause of ____ in the

Arab Israel war in 1967.

14. CTBT means ____.

15. The final picture of SAARC was emerged at

the summit of ____ in 1985.

16. The UNO charter was ratified at the conf-

erence held at the city of____in USA.

17. The UNO came into existence in ____.

18. The UNO Day is ____.

19. The USSR was disintegrated in the year

____.

20. ____ was an association of countries which

were ruled by the British crown.

21. The commonwealth summit was held in the

year 1983 at ____.

22. ____ problem is the main impediment in the

relations between Pakistan and India.

23. India played an important role in South Asia

and____ played an important role in East

Asia.

24. The Panchasheel agreement reached

between ____ and ____.

25. SAARC means ____.

26. The agriculture information centre of SAA-

RC was established in the country of ____.

27. The event of the demolition of Babri Masjid

happened in the year ____.

28. The tenure of a judge of International court

is ____.

29. The percentage of the forest area of India

in the world forest area is ____.

30. The number of permanent members of

UNO is ____.

31. IMF means ____.

32. ____ conference held in the year 1973

paved the way for the formation of New

International Economic order.

33. The bonding summit was held in the year

____.

34. The developing countries which have got

freedom recently are called as ____ world

countries.

35. India supported the stand of ____ in the

Suez canal crisis.

36. Allied powers founded UNO as the ____

failed to preserve international peace.

37. The primary responsibility of security

council is ____.

38. The number of non-permanent members in

the UNO is ____.

39. The permanent member countries of

security council do have ____ power.

40. IBRD means ____.

41. The main objective of Willy Brandt

commission is narrowing the gap between

the ____ and the ____ nations.

42. The head-quarters of International court of

justice is ____.

43. UNESCO means ____.

44. IBRD is also called ____.

45. India served UNO as a non-permanent

member during the years ____.

46. The first country which raised the issue of

apartheid in the UNO Assembly was ____.

47. India has got____membership in the ILO

48. UNCTAD means ____.

49. The universal declaration of Human Rights

was approved by UNO in the year ____.

50. UNICEF is also called ____.

51. To bring about the reforms in the

international economic structure, the

economically backward countries proposed

____ order.

1. Traffic management mainly depends

on ____.

2. The road accidents can be avoided by using

____ in a disciplined way.

Indo-Soviet Treaty was Signed in?CIVICSTraffic EducationChallenges Facing our Country

Answers:1. Demos and Kratia; 2. Representative; 3.

Abraham Lincoln; 4. The list of voters; 5. The

rule by the people; 6. Limited; 7. The people;

8. Right to choose representatives; 9. Univer-

sal adult franchise; 10. Indirect; 11. General;

12. 1884; 13. The right to vote, franchise or

suffrage; 14. The list of registered votes; 15.

25years; 16. Returning officer; 17. Presiding

officer; 18. 1952; 19. The universal adult Fra-

nchise; 20. Parliamentary form of; 21. Rajy-

asabha; 22. Directly; 23. Local bodies; 24.

Election commission of India; 25. Malpractic-

es; 26. Genuinity; 27. An opposition party;

28. 1977; 29. Election malpractice; 30.

Manifesto's.

Challenges facing ourcountry today

Answers:1. Literacy and education; 2. India; 3.

54.16%; 4. 61.11; 5. Bihar; 6. 1986; 7. 43; 8.

1988; 9. Religion; 10. Narrow; 11. 1953; 12.

Right to Freedom; 13. 18 years; 14. 1961; 15.

Habeas corpus; 16. Communalism; 17.

Minorities commission; 18. Fundamental; 19.

Article 29; 20. Article 30; 21. 1956; 22. Dr.

Ambedkar; 23. 1935; 24. Mahatma Gandhiji;

25. Article 17; 26. 18%; 27. Scheduled tribes;

28. Nine; 29. The girls; 30. Women folk; 31.

Children; 32. 24.

India, United Nations andWorld Problems

Answers:1. 191; 2. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru; 3. Indian

Foreign Policy; 4. Socialist bloc; 5. Non-

alignment; 6. 1971; 7. 1971; 8. Nuclear-Non-

Proliferation Treaty; 9. South Africa; 10. Mac

Mahon; 11. 1962; 12. Neutrality; 13. Arab co-

untries; 14. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty;

15. Dhaka; 16. San Francisco; 17. 1945; 18.

October24, 1945; 19. 1991; 20. Commonwe-

alth; 21. New Delhi; 22. Jammu & Kashmir;

23. China; 24. India and Pakistan; 25. South

Asian Association for Regional Co-operation;

26. Bangladesh ; 27. 1992; 28. 9 years; 29.

1%; 30. Five; 31. International Monetary

Fund; 32. The Algiers; 33. 1955; 34. Third;

35. Egypt; 36. The League of Nations; 37.

Preservation of International Peace; 38. Ten;

39. Veto; 40. International Bank for Reconstr-

uction and Development; 41. Rich and the

poor; 42. The Hague; 43. United Nations Edu-

cational Scientific Cultural Organisation; 44.

The World Bank; 45. 1991-92; 46. India; 47.

Permanent; 48. United Nations Confer- ence

on Trade and Development; 49. 1948; 50.The

united Nations Children's Fund; 51. The New

International Economic Order.

Traffic Education

Ýë„ìS ¿¶æÑ™èl VýS$Æý‡$ÐéÆý‡… 4 Ð]l*Ça, 2010

10

SOCIAL STUDIESIMPORTANT QUESTIONS

Name Important Peaks of Himalayas..3. The vehicles are not supposed to enter the

roads where ____ sign boards appear.

4. Don't stop the cycle without ____.

5. The cyclist is supposed to slowdown his

vehicle at ____.

6. The overtaking of any vehicle is to be done

from ____ only.

7. For driving of power-driven vehicles, one

should have driving ____.

8. The driver of a vehicle should keep his veh-

icle at three ____ distance from front one.

9. ____ is very dangerous while riding two

wheeler.

4 Marks Questions1. What is a sub-continent? Explain how India

can be called as Sub- continent?

2. Describe the importance of the Himalayas?

3. Name the Physiographic units of India and

briefly explain their formation?

4. Compare Coastal plains of east and west?

5. Describe the Thornthwaite's classification

of climatic regions in India?

6. Describe mechanism of monsoon in India?

7. Describe the ecological and economic

significance of forests?

8. Examine the need for forest development in

India?

9. What are the different form of soil erosion

and their occurrence in India?

10. What are the main causes of the rapid

population growth in India?

11. What are the problems of "population

explosion"?

12. What is the need for irrigation development

in India?

13. What do you mean by a multipurpose

project? Mention its main objectives?

14. Distinguish between major, medium and

minor irrigation projects?

15. Explain the important characteristic

features of Indian agriculture?

16. What are the problems of Indian

agriculture?

17. Describe the importance of agriculture in

India?

18. What are the important mineral belts

identified in the country?

19. Describe the silent features about the

distribution of important minerals?

20. what are the favorable factors for the

development of cotton textiles in and

around Mumbai and Ahmedabad centers?

21. What are major industrial regions in India?

22. What are the advantages of road transport

system?

23. Why the means of transport and communic-

ation are called the life lines of country?

24. Name the different types of roads?

25. What are the natural scenic beauties of

Srinagar?

26. Describe the important aspects of Delhi

city?

27. Give the important advantages of Mumbai

to become the largest port in the country?

2 Marks Questions.1. How many coastal states are there in our

country? What are they?

2. What are the extreme places of our land

frontiers?

3. What is the geometrical location of India?

Where does India rank in area among the

countries of the world?

4. Name the countries which share frontiers

with India?

5. Name important peaks of the Himalayas?

6. What is meant by"monsoon burst or break"?

7. Give a brief account on major problems of

rainfall in India?

8. Distinguish between maritime climate and

continental climate with examples?

9. How many seasons are recognized in India?

What are they?

10. Briefly explain the major forest types and

their distribution in India?

11. Explain the spatial distribution of forest

land in India?

12. What is soil erosion? What are the agents of

soil erosion?

13. What are the important measures of soil

conversation?

14. What are the characteristics of alluvial soil?

15. Describe the significance of soils for

economic development of a region.

16. What is density of population? What are the

high rural and urban populated areas?

17. Distinguish between perennial and

inundation canals?

18. what are the three important regions of

hydro-power?

19. What is Green revolution? Explain its

objectives?

20. Explain the significance of livestock in

country's economy?

21. Explain the significance of mineral

resources of a country?

22. Classify the minerals on the basis of their

availability in the country?

23. Why the location of sugar industry is

strictly confine to very close vicinity of

sugarcane growing area?

24. Important steel plants in the country?

25. Different means of communications?

26. Explain the significance of air transport?

27. Explain historical significance of

Hyderabad?

28. Distinguish between a harbor and port?

29. What are the problems faced by the Kolkata

port?

30. What is foreign trade? Why it is a must?

31. Who are the important buyers of Indian

goods?

1 Marks Questions.1. How is the name india derived?

2. What is Mac Mohan Line?

3. How many states and Union Territories are

in India?

4. What is "pass"?

5. What is "Dun"?

6. What is plain?

7. Name the three major river systems of the

Great Plains?

8. What is "Terai"?

9. What is Monsoon?

10. Define "Drought"?

11. What are the two important methods of

climatic classification?

12. Name the important forest based industries?

13. What is "sheet erosion"?

14. What do you mean by "Bhangar"?

15. Which is the highest population state in our

country?

16. What is intensity of irrigation?

17. Which states are administered with joint for

"Bhakra-Nangal Project?

18. Where was Hiracud project located?

19. What is live stock?

20. Name the important crops of commercial

agriculture?

21. What are the important geographical condit-

ions required for the growth of "paddy

22. What are the fuel minerals?

23. Name the four atomic minerals?

24. Expand IREDA?

25. Write any two minerals which India has

exportable surplus?

26. What is industrial region?

27. Name the raw materials required for iron

and steel industry?

28. Expand TISCO.

29. What are the challenges of Indian railways?

30. Where is the Rajiv Gandhi International

Airport?

31. Where was Ooty situated?

32. Expand IGNOU.

33. Expand BHEL.

34. What is meant by man-made port?

35. What do you understand by the direction of

foreign trade?

4 Marks Questions1. What are characterstics of Indian economy

during the British period?

2. Distinguish various economic systems?

3. What are the reasons and forms of land

tenure which gave rise to unequal Socio-

economic structure in India?

4. Distinguish between less developed and

developed economies?

5. What are the factors causing regional

inbalances? Explain the indicators of

regional disparities?

6. Describe the occupational structure of the

Indian economy?

7. Explain the significance of service sector in

Indian economy?

8. Explain the relationship between farm size

and productivity in Indian agriculture?

9. What are the achievements and failures of

planning?

2 Marks Questions1. What is an organised sector?

2. What is the meaning of the unorganised

sector?

3. Role of monsoons in India agriculture?

4. Explain different concepts of inflation?

5. Differentiate involuntary and voluntary

unemployment?

6. Explain various programmes launched by

government for promotion of employment?

7. What is the role of banking and financial

institutions in India?

8. What is the role of public sector in Indian

Industrialisation?

9. What is economic planning?

10. What are the general and specific objectives

of planning in India?

1 Mark Questions1. How do you measure income inequalities?

2. What is meant by 'Earned Income'

3. Define poverty line?

4. Expand the term SFDA?

5. What is the full form of NREP?

6. What do you mean by poverty?

7. Name important problems of afflicting the

Indian economy?

8. What do you understand by Human

Development Index?

9. What do you mean by FERA?

10. Define Basic industries?

11. Name the types of finance in financial

systems?

12. Expand RBI?

13. What was the main objective of third five

year plan?

14. Who is the chairman of India Planning

Commission?

4 Marks Questions1. Give an account of the role played by

bismark In the unification of Germany

Answers:1. Traffic education; 2. Safety cautions; 3. No

entry; 4.Signaling; 5.Zebra crossing; 6. Right;

7. Licence; 8. Feet; 9. Applying sudden break

Important QuestionsGeography

Economics History

Ýë„ìS ¿¶æÑ™èl VýS$Æý‡$ÐéÆý‡… 4 Ð]l*Ça, 2010

11

SOCIAL STUDIESIMPORTANT QUESTIONS

Forms and Methods of Imperialism2. Bring out the way how Italy achieved unifi-

cation under leadership of Sardinia state?

3. What were the causes for the out break of

1848 revolution in France?

4. To what extent can you attribute Charles-

X's responsibility for the out break of 1830

revolt in France?

5. What are the factors responsible for the rise

of imperialism?

6. What are the forms and methods of

Imperialism?

7. What were the terms of Teraty of

Versailles?

8. What were the results of first world war?

9. What were the causes for the out break of

world war-2?

10. What were the political and economic

consequences of the world war -2?

11. Asses the role of UNO in preserving world

peace?

12. What were the problems of disarmament

Movement?

13. Give an account of Revolt of 1857?

14. Give an account of the factors contributing

for the cultural unity of India?

15. Write about Characteristic features of

Indian History?

16. Give a brief account of Indus Valley

civilization?

17. Bring out the factors that contributed to the

growth of national consciousness in India?

18. Discuss the significance of Vandemataram

Movement in India?

19. Explain the role of Gandhiji in Indian

national movement?

20. Write an account on the Non-co-operation

movement?

2 Marks Questions1. What do you understand byEMS Telegram?

2. Write a short notes on Karl Marx?

3. Write a short notes on Louis Blanc?

4. What were the guiding principles of

Congress of Vienna?

5. How did Europeans succeed in colonizing

China?

6. Write a short note on Opium Wars?

7. What are the resources in Indonesia that

attracted by Europeans?

8. What were the aims of League of Nations?

9. Write a short notes on secret alliances?

10. Explain about Marshall Plan?

11. What do you mean by Spanish civil war?

12. Write a short note on Fascism?

13. Write short note on Maltov plan?

14. write about the Bandung conference?

15. Write about the Cuban Crisis?

16. What is meant by Non-Alignment?

17. Write a short note on Bhakthi Movement?

18. write briefly about south Indian Temples?

19. What was the impact of English education

on Indians?

20. What were the contributions of Moguls to

Indian architecture?

21. Give an account on Quit India Movement?

22. Write a short note on Drain Theory?

23. Give an account on salt sathyagrah?

1 Marks Questions1. What do you mean by Red Shirts?

2. What is first international?

3. Who was the founder of the Young Italy?

4. What was called the battle of nations?

5. Define White Man's Burden?

6. What is Imperialism?

7. What was the immediate cause of World

War-1

8. What is meant by aggressive nationalism?

9. What was the Balkan issue?

10. Give an account on Lenin?

11. Expand SWAPO

12. Define Nazism

13. What is Aparthied?

14. Why America entered into the world war-2?

15. Give an account on Sukarno?

16. Expand NATO

17. Define Truman Doctrine?

18. Expand CTBT

19. Name the six schools of Indian philosophy?

20. who were the creators of Vedic civilization?

21. Who were led by Home rule movement?

22. Who was the founder of Indian national

Army?

23. Give a short note about cabinet mission?

4 Marks Questions1. How do you describe 'India as multi-

cultural society'?

2. Describe the fctors that contribute to the

promotion of national integration?

3. Describe the election procedure in India?

4. Mention the basic elements of democracy?

5. Give your views on the future of the status

of women in India?

6. What are the steps to be taken to realise

objective of universal primary education?

7. Suggest some measures for the

improvement of the conditions of scheduled

castes and scheduled tribes in India?

8. What are the ways to curb communalism in

India?

9. Explain the meaning of New International

Economic Order?

10. Describe the problems of environmental

pollution and ecological decay?

11. Explain human rights according to the

Universal Declaration?

12. Explain why India had to choose non-

alignment?

2 marks Questions1. How do political parties promote national

integration?

2. What is the meaning of rule of law?

3. Distinguish between general election and

byelection?

4. What are the malpractices in elections?

5. Explain the damages of drug addiction?

6. What are rights of a child?

7. Define regionalism?

8. What are the aims of United Nations?

9. State the foundational principles of India's

foreign policy?

10. What are the steps to be taken to maintain

ecological balance?

11. Mention the objectives of SAARC?

12. Why are safety measures essential in using

roads?

13. What are the precautions necessary for obs-

ervance by those that ride with fuel energ-

etic vehicles (motorcycles and scooters)?

14. Mention any three safety-measures for

riding bicycles?

1 Marks Questions1. What is secularism?

2. What is social justice?

3. What is federalism?

4. What is meant by Democracy?

5. What do you understand by 'Universal

Adult Franchise'?

6. Give the meaning of 'Corruption'?

7. What do you mean by 'right to live'?

8. Explain the meaning of Casteism?

9. What is 'Panchsheel'?

10. Explain the term 'Third World'?

11. Expand IBRD?

12. Write full form of IMF?

13. Expand the term UNICEF?

Civics

Chapterwise weightage - HISTORYUnit 1 M 2 M 4 M 5 M 1/2 M Total

Nationalist movement 2 1 1 & 2 9Imperialism &----- 1 & & 1 2.5Contemporary World & 1 & & 3 3.5The World up to World War-II 1 & & 1 3 7.5The World after World War-II &- & 1 1 2 10Cultural Heritage in Indian Intellectual

Awakening & 1 1 & 2 7Freedom Movement in India & & 1 --& 2 5

Chapterwise weightage - CIVICS

India as a Nation 1 & 1 & 3 6.5Indian Democracy & 1 1 & 3 7.5Challenges facing our country Today 1 1 1 & 4 9India, United Nations and World Problems 1 1 1 & 4 9Traffic Education & 1 & & 1 2.5

Chapterwise weightage - GEOGRAPHY

Unit 1 M 2 M 4 M 5 M 1/2 M Total

The Locational and spatial setting &- & 1 & 1 4.5Physical Features -Relief and Drainage 1----- & & & 1 1.5Climate & & 1 & 1 4.5Natural Vegetation & & & & 2 1Soils 1- & & & 1 1.5Population & 1 & & 1 2.5Irrigation and Power & & 1 --& 1 4.5Agriculture & & 1 --& 1 4.5Mineral Resources 1 & --& --& 1 1.5Industries & 1 --& --& 1 2.5Transport and Communications & & --& --& 2 1Places of Interest & 1 --& --& 1 2.5Sea ports and Town & & --& --& 1 0.5International Trade & 1 --& --& 1 2.5

Chapterwise weightage - ECONOMICS

Characteristics of Indian Economy 1 1 1 & 3 8.5Problems of Indian Economy 1 1 1 & 4 9Structure of the Indian Economy 1 1 1 & 3 8.5Planning, achievements and Failures & 1 1 & 4 8

Ýë„ìS ¿¶æÑ™èl VýS$Æý‡$ÐéÆý‡… 4 Ð]l*Ça, 2010

12

SOCIAL STUDIESGeography, Economics, History, Civics

Chapter wise Quick ReviewGEOGRAPHY

The location of India: India is located in the northern hemisphere between 80 4' and370 6' north latitudees and 680 7' and 970

25' east longitudes. The total geographical area of India: 3.28

million square kilometers India- North to South distance: 3214 Kilo

Meters East to West distance: 2933 Kilo Meters The length of the Himalayan mountains:

Approximately 2,400 K.M. Geographical area of Himalayas: 5 lakh

square kilometers The Himalayas comprise three parallel

fold ranges1. The Himadri (Greater Himalayas)2. The Himachal (Lesser Himalayas)3. The Shivaliks (Outer Himalayas)

The tributeries of Indus river: Jhelum,Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlez.

The important rivers that flow towardswestern side in peninsular India are:Narmada, Tapathi, Mahi and Sabarmati.

Highest rain fall point in India:Mawsynram (1141 cms) Meghalaya

Lowest rain fall point in India: Jaisalmeer(12 cms) Rajasthan

Four seasons are recognised in Indiaaccording to Meteorological Departmentin India

1. The cold weather - Winter season(December to March)2. The hot weather - Summer season(March to June)3. The south-west monsoon - EarlyRainy season (June to September)4. The north-east or the Retreatingmonsoon season (Mid September to MidDecemeber)

The two methods are adopted in the

classification of climate in India. 1.Koppen's method 2.Thorn thwaite'smethod (Based on water balance method)

According to National Forest Policy 33per cent of total land area should forestarea.

There are three important crop seasons inIndia:

a. Kharif (June to October)b. Rabi ( November to March)c. Zayad (Summer- April to June)

Green Revolution: To develop highyielding variety to increase cropproduction.

White Revolution: To increase milkproduction

Blue Revolution: To increase fishproduction

Fuel minerals: coal, lignite, petroleum andnatural gas

The first train track was laid from Thaneto Mumbai ( 1853, 34 kms)

The cities in which International Airportsestablished: Mumbai, Kolkatha, Delhi,Chennai, Tiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad.

The largest National Highway: NationalHighway No.7.

HISTORY

The era of Napolean Bonaparty was endedwith: Leipzing War (1813) (The Battle ofNations). The Waterloo Battle (1815)

Unification of Italy was achieved with theefforts of Joseph Mazzini,Count Cavour,Garibaldi and Victor Emmanuel -II.

'The Equality of Wealth' was advocated bythe Greek Philosopher Plato.

'The history is nothig but a class-warbetween haves and havenots' according toKarl Marx.

The works of Karl Marx: "Communist

Manifesto" and "Das Capital". The immediate cause for World War-I:

The murder of Ferdinand (1914). The countries participated in the I World

War (1914-1918)1. Central Powers: Austria, Germany,Turkey, Italy2. Allied Powers: Serbia, Russia, France,England, America, Japan

The uniform of the Fascists: Black shirts. The founder of Nazi party in Germany:

Hitler USSR was established in 1922 and

collapsed in 1991. Immediate cause of Second World War:

As Poland refused to close the Polishcorridor, Hitler attacked Poland on IstSeptember 1939.

The countries participated in the SecondWorld War (1939 September- 1945August)

1. Central powers: Germany, Italy, Japan2. Allied powers: Poland, France,England, USA,Russia

Indus Valley Civilization was brought tolime light in the wake of the excavationscarried out during 1921-22 flourishedfrom 3000 BC to 1500 BC.

The Aryan civilization was beingflourished in India, after the end of IndusValley civilization.

The Sultante style of architecture is calledthe Indo-Saracenic style.

The Britishers established supremacy overIndia after the Battle of Plassey in 1757.

After out break of 1857 Sepoy Mutiny,the Company rule was ended in its placethe Britisher's rule was started in India.

The first President of National Congress:W.C. Benerji

The Indian National Movement is broadlydivided into three phases

1. The Moderate phase of Nationalism(1885-1905)2. The Extremist Nationalism (1905-1915)3. The Gandhian Phase (1919-1947)

Annie Besant in 1916 started Home-ruleleague in Madras. The same league wasstarted by Tilak in Maharastra.

General Dyer, British military commanderbrutally killed about 1000 people whoassembled at Jallian wala bagh in 1919.

Gandhiji conducted Non-CooperationMovement in 1920, Dandi Salt Movementin 1930 and Quit India Movement in 1942.

India and Pakistan were divided in 1947as per the Mount Botten plan.

The French left Pondicherry in 1956, ThePortugese left Goa in 1961.

CIVICS

Definition of Democracy is 'Governmentof the people by the people and for thepeople ' according to Abraham Lincoln.

If every adult person ofa prescribed age isgiven the voting right regards ofeducation, property and gender, it is calledUniversal Adult Franchise.

The Election Commission of Indiaconducted the elections impartially inIndia.

The General Elections are held in everyfive years in India.

ECONOMICS

Organised Sector: Automobiles,Chemicals, Engineering Goods, Textiles,Electronics

Unorganised Sector: Rural Industries,Beedi Industries, Khadi Industies,Agarbatti

Jamindari System: The land owners used tocollect land tax from the Tenant farmers.

Rayatwari System: The peasants pay taxesto the government directly without anymiddlemen.

Mahalwari: A small group of families whoare locally powerful pay the taxes to thegovernment.

Earned Income: Income earned throughwork, labour

Unearned Income: Income earned throughwealth and Property.

Capitalist Economy: The existence ofprivate industries in the process ofproduction.

Socialistic Economy: The production ofgoods and the supply of goods aremanaged by the government undertakings.

Mixed Economy: The existence of bothprivate industries and the publicenterprises in the production and supplyof goods and services.

Primary Sector: (Agriculture) Agriculture,Plantations, Mines, Fishing

Secondary Sector: (Industrial Sector)Small and big industries, Buildingconstruction.

Tertiary Sector: (Service Sector) Banking,Commerce, Communications,Computers

The Planning Commission wasestablished in 1950. The first Five YearPlan was started in 1951.

At present 11th Five Year Plan (2007-12)is in progress in India.

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Important Multipurpose River valley projectsS.No.

1.2.3.4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Project

Bhakra-NangalBeasDamodar valleyHirakud

Nagarjuna Sagar

Tunga Bhadra

Kosi

Chambal

Gandak

Ram Ganga

Location

Built on river Sutlez in H.P.Across Beas near Pang, Punjab.Built on the river Damoder, BiharAcross Mahanadi nearSambalpur, OrissaAcross the river KrishnaNandikonda (A.P)Built on the river ThungaBhadra, Mallapur, KarnatakaBuilt across Kosi near Hanumannagar, BiharBuilt across the river chambalMadhya PradeshBuilt across the river Gandak,Valmika nagar, BiharAcross Ram Ganga river

State or States whose needsservedPunjab, Haryana and RajasthanPunjab, Haryana and RajasthanWest Bengal, BiharOrissa

Andhra Pradesh

Karnataka, A.P.

Bihar, Nepal

M.P., Rajasthan

Bihar,U.P., Nepal

Uttar Pradesh

W W W . S A K S H I . C O M / V I D Y A / B H A V I T H A

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2

1. Symbol for existantial quantifier is ____2. p∨ (q∧ r) = (p∨ q) ∧ (p∨ r) is an example

for ____ law.3. The symbol for universal quantifier is

____4. The compound statement formed by

using the connective "if and only if" iscalled ____

5. ∼ (p ⇔ q) =6. The law of ∼ (p∨ q) = (∼ p) ∧ (∼ q) is ____ 7. The law of p∨ p = p is ____8. "For all real values of x, x2 ≥0" write by

using quantifier ____9. Counter example of "all primes are odd"

is ____10. The true value of 4+3 = 7 or 5×4 = 9 is

____11. The true value of 5×4 = 20 ⇒ 5+4 = 8 is

____12. A––p°––q°––B In this series the current

flows A to B case ____13. The true value of 4+3 = 7 and 5×3 = 10 is

____14. The inverse of the statement ∼ p ⇒ ∼ q is

____15. The law of p∧ t = p is ____16. Always true statement is called ____17. An implication and its contra positive are

____ statements.18. The quantifier "for some" or "there exists

atleast one" is called the ____19. p∧∼ p is the example for ____20. In an implication p ⇒ q then p is called

____21. The inverse of the statement "All natural

numbers are even numbers" is ____22. The disjunction of the "5 is odd ; 5 is

positive" is ____23. p is a statement then the value of ∼ (∼ p) is

____24. The compound statement which uses the

connective "AND" is called ____25. (∼ p) ⇒ (∼ q) is in which statements contra

positive ____26. "In a triangle ABC, AB > AC then ∠ C >

∠ B" the statement inverse is ____27. The true value of "10+15 = 20 and 15–10

= 5" is ____28.

The current flows from A to B is ____

case.29. The symbolic form of x = –3 if and only

if x+3 = 0 is ____30. "All the students scored well in their unit

test" The above statement is an exampleof ____ quantifier.

31. The statement obtained by modifying byusing the word "not" of a given statementis called ____

32. p∧ q true value is T then p, q true valuesare ____

33. The algebraic law of p∨ (∼ p) = t is ____34. Symbolic form of "p or not p" is ____

1. A ⊆ B and B ⊆ A then ______2. A ⊂ B and n(A) = 5, n(B) = 6 then

n(A∪ B) = ______3. A ⊂ B then A ∪ B = ______4. A, B are disjoint sets then A ∩ B =

______5. A = 1, 2, B = 4, 5, C = 6, 7. Then

the number of elements in A×(B∩C) is______

6. n(A) = 7, n(B) = 5 then the number ofmaximum possible elements in A∩B is______

7. A = 1, 2, 3, B = 3, 6, 7 then n(A∩B)= ______

8. A, B are disjoint sets then A – B = ______9. A⊂ B then A – B = ______10. (A∪ B)1 = A1∩ B1 is ______ law11. (A∪ B)∪ C = A∪ (B∪ C) is ______ law12. A, B are disjoint. n(A) = 4, n(A∪ B) = 10

then n(B) = ______13. n(A) = 4, n(B) = 3, n(A∪ B) = 5. Then

n(A∩B) = ______14. A, B are two sets. A⊂ B. Then A∩B =

______15. B = 1, 8, 27, 64, 125 then write the set

- builder form ______16. A is a set then A ∪ A1 = ______

17. Power set of µ is ______18. A⊂ B, n(A) = 12, n(B) = 20. Then n

(B–A) is ______19. A∪ A1 = µ, A∩A1 = φ are the algebraic

law of ______20. The elements in the set is 4. Then the total

number of subsets in that set is ______

21. A∩B1 = ______22. A∆B = ______23. A, B are two sets. Then x∉ (A∪ B) =

______24. A is a set, then the value of (A1)1 is

______25. A is a set A∪ A = A, A∩A = A then the

algebraic law is ______26. The algebraic law of A∩(B∪ C) = (A∩B)

∪ (A∩C) is ______27. The algebraic law of A ∪ φ = A, A ∩µ =

Α is ______28. The sets which are having same cardinal

number are called ______29. The set of prime numbers in 13 and 17 is

______30. The law of A ⊂ B, B ⊂ C then A ⊂ C is

______31. In a group of 15 students 10 students are

brilliant in mathematics and 8 studentsare in social. Then the number of studentswho are brilliant in both subjects are______

32. A ∩ B = φ then B ∩ A1 = ______33. n(µ) = 10, n(A) = 6 then n(A1) = ______34. n(A) = 50, n(B) = 20 and n(A∩B) = 10

then n(A∆B) = ______

1. 'f' is bijection means it is ____2. The range of the function f(x) = 3 is ____3. A function f : A→B is said to be ____

function, if for all y∈ B their exists x∈ A,such that f(x) = y

4. If I is an identity function then f–1(4) =____

5. f(x) = 2x–3, then zero of the function is____

6. If f = (1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4), (4, 1). Thenfof = ____

7. If f(x) = 2x+3, g(x) = x–1 then gof(3) =____

8. If f = (x, a), (y, b), (z, c) and f–1 = g theng–1 = ____

9.

From the above figuregof = ____

10. f : A→B is said to be real valued functionif ____

11. f = (1, 2), (2, 2), (3, 2) then the range off is ____

12. If the function f : A→B is ____ function,then the inverse f–1 : B→A is again afunction.

13. The function f : A→R (A⊆ R) isintersecting x-axis at (a, 0). Then the zeroof the function is ____

14. The mapping f : A→5 is defined by ∀x∈ A, f(x) = 5. Then it is ____

15.

From the above figure the zero value ofthe given function is ____

16. f : A→B is a bijective and n(A) = 4 thenn(B) = ____

17. f : A→B to be a function and if f(x1) =f(x2) ⇒ x1 = x2 then f is ____

18. f = (x, 2008) / x∈ N then f is ____function

19. If y = f(x) = 3x–1 then f–1(y) = ____20. f = (4, 5), (5, 6), (7, 8) then f–1(8) =

____21. f(x) = x then f is ____ function.22. If f(A) = B then f: A→B is a/an ____

function.23. Let f : R→R be defined by f(x) = 3x+2,

then the element of the domain of f whichhas 11 as image is ____

24. Range of a constant function is a ____ set25. f : A→B is bijective then f–1 : B→A is

____26. Let f : N→N be defined by f(x) = 12/x–3,

x≠3 then the Domain of this function is____

27. f : N→N is constant function defined byf(x) = 15 then f(10) = ____

28. The domains of f(x) and g(x) are equal.Then the functions are called ____

29. The function f : A→B is a ____ functionif there is an element C∈ B such that f(x)= C ∀ x∈ A.

30. f : A→B is a function, if A⊆ R, B⊆ R thenf is called ____

31. Let f : x→ 2x + 3, Domain of f = x/0 ≤x ≤ 3 then the range of f = ____

32. The set builder form of R = (1, 3), (2, 4),(3, 5) is ____

33. If f(x) = x+1 / x–1 then f(1/2) = ____

MathematicsFUNCTIONSSETS

The law of p∧∧ t = p is?

STATEMENTS

FUNCTIONS (MAPPINGS)

SETS

Answers:1. ∃ ; 2. Distributive ; 3. ∀ ; 4. Bi-implication ; 5. p⇔(∼ q) or (∼ p)⇔q ; 6. DeMorgan's law ; 7. Idempotent ; 8. ∃ x∈ R,x≥0 ; 9. 2 ; 10. T (True) ; 11. F (False) ; 12.p∧ q ; 13. False ; 14. p⇒ q ; 15. Identity law;16. Tautology; 17. Equivalent; 18.Existential quantifier; 19. Contradiction;20. Hypothesis ; 21. All natural numbersare odd numbers; 22. (5 is odd) ∨ (5 ispositive) ; 23. p ; 24. Conjunction ; 25.q⇒ p ; 26. In a triangle ABC, AB < AC then∠ C < ∠ B ; 27. False ; 28. p∨ q ; 29. x = –3⇔ x+3 = 0 ; 30. Universal quantifier ; 31.Negation statement ; 32. True ; 33.Complement law ; 34. p∨ (∼ p)

Answers:1. A= B ; 2. 6 ; 3. B ; 4. φ ; 5. 0 ; 6. 5 ; 7. 1; 8. A ; 9. B ; 10. De Morgan's ; 11.Associative ; 12. 6 ; 13. 2 ; 14. A ; 15. B =x/x = n3, n ∈ N and n ≤ 5; 16. µ ; 17. φ ;18. 8 ; 19. Complement ; 20. 24 or 32 ; 21.A–B ; 22. (A–B) ∪ (B–A) ; 23. x ∉ A ∩ x∉ B ; 24. A ; 25. Idempotent ; 26.Distributive ; 27. Identity ; 28. Equivalencerelation ; 29. Null Set (φ) ; 30. Transitive ;31. 3 ; 32. B ; 33. 4 ; 34. 50

K.UmaMaheshwar ReddySr. Teacher, A.P.R.S.

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34. Every identity function is ____ function.35. f = (1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4) ; g = (2, 5), (3,

6), (4, 7) then fog = ____36. The graph of a relation is a function if no

line parallel to y-axis cut the graph ____37. f(x) = 2x, g(x) = x–1, h(x) = x+1 then

[ho(gof)] (2) = ____38. f = (x, 3) / x∈ N then f is ____ function.39. Let I : B→B then I(x) = x then the

function is called ____40. If f : x→ log2

x then f (16) = ____41. y = sinx function range is ____42. f : A→B is bijection, n(A) = 4. Then n(B)

= ____43. f = (1, 3), (2, 5), g = (1, 6), (2, 10)

then f + g = ____44. If f–1(y) = y–3 then f(x) = ____

1. Inequation having solution "–3≤x≤4" is______

2. Remainder where ax + b divides f(x) is______

3. If the sum of the co-efficients of apolynomial is zero, then ______ is afactor to it.

4. Sum of the roots of 6x2–5 = 0 is ______5. The discriminant of the quadratic

equation 2x2–7x+3 = 0 is ______6. The rationalising factor of a1/3+b1/3 is

______7. The graph of y = mx2 (m > 0) is

symmetric about ______ axis.8. Sum of the binominal co - efficients of

the expansion of (x/y + y/x)4 is ______9. If nC8 = nC7 then n = ______10. If x + 1 is a factor of ax2+bx+c then the

condition is ______11. The solution of x2–x (α+β) +αβ>0

______ between α and β12. If there is no common point for the graph

y = x2 and y = 4x – 5 then the equation______ does not have real roots.

13. If the number of terms in a binominalexpansion is 4 the exponent of thebinominal is ______

14. If 2 is a root of the equation x2–px+q = 0and p2 = 4q then the other root is ______

15. If x2–5x+4 < 0 then x lies between______

16. (a1/3+b1/3) (a2/3–a1/3b1/3+b2/3). = ______17. If f(b/a)=0 then the factor of f(x) is

______18. The number of terms of the expansion

(1+x)n+1 is 6 then n = ______19. If the roots of the equation px2+qx+r = 0

are equal then ______20. If x2–x–2<0, then the value of x is

______21. The last term in the expansion of (x+2/x)5

is ______22. If (x–y) is a factor of xn–yn , then 'n' is

______23. Middle term in the expansion of (x/y +

y/x)8 is ______24. The graph of x = my2 (m>0) lies in

______ quadrants.

25. If .Then x = ______

26. The nature of the roots of 4x2–5x+4 = 0 is______

27. The product of the roots of √3x2+9x+6√3= 0 is ______

28. The graph y = mx2 (m > 0) lies in ______quadrants.

29. x = my2 (m < 0) parabola lies in ______quadrants.

30. 8C2+8C4= ______31. The equation whose roots are √3+1 and

√3–1 is ______32. The constant term in the expansion of

(5/√x+6√x)20 is ______33. If (x–α) (x–β) <0 then x lies between

______34. If the roots of 2x2+Kx+2 = 0 are equal

then K value is ______35. If (x+y) is a factor of xn + yn then the

condition is ______36. (x–2) is the factor of the function f(x)

then f(2) = ______37. The equation whose roots 2, –5 are

______38. "The sum of the co-efficients of even

powers of 'x' is equal to sum of the co-efficients of odd powers of x'' then thefactor of f(x) is ______

39. If x4–2x3+3x2–mx+5 is divisible byx–3then the value of m is ______

40. The solution set of the inequation x2–6 x+8 > 0 is ______

41. The other name of the pascal's triangle is______

42. The exponent of the binomial is 4 then

the co-efficients of the expansions are______

43. If one root of ax2+bx+c=0 is five timesthe other root then the condition is______

44. The (r+1)th term of (1+x)n is ______45. The sum of the co-efficients of (x+y)7

expansion is ______46. The discriminant of px2–10x+8 is 4 then

p = ______47. If the roots of x2–7x–8 = 0 are p, q then

p2+q2 = ______48. Which is the maximum value of K if the

roots of Kx2+10x+4 = 0 are real andunequal ______

49. If (x+1) is a factor ofax5+bx4+cx3+dx2+ex+f then thecondition is ______

50. If 2x+1 = 4x+1 then x = ______51. If 30C2r+3=30C3r+3 then r value is ______52. If α, β are the roots of x2–px+q = 0 then

the value of α/β + β/α = ______53. The standard form of second degree

homogeneous equation in two variables xand y is ______

54. Which term is independent of 'x' in theexpansion of (x+1/x)8 is ______

55. ______ is a factor of 32n+7 for all n∈ N56. f(x,y) is algebraic function in x and y. If

f(x, y) = f(y, x) then f(x, y) is ______

57. If f(x, y, z) = f(y, z, x) = f(z, x, y) then f(x,y, z) is ______ expression.

58. The sum of the roots of the quadraticequation is 7 and their product is 12 thenthe equation is ______

59. If x+1/x = 3 then x2+1/x2 = ______60. If nC2=21 then n value is = ______61. If 2x4–7x2+ax+b is divisible by x–3 then

the relation between a and b are ______62. The first term of (5/√x+6√x)20 is ______63. (2, K) is the point on the parabola y =

2x2–3 then K = ______64. The arrangement of Binominal co-

efficient was in the form of a diagramcalled Meru-prastara provided by ______

65. The two factors of x3+3x2–x–3 are (x–1),(x+1) then the other factor is ______

1. If ISO profit line coincides with a side ofpolygon, then it has ____ solutions.

2. In linear programming, the expressionwhich is to be minimised or maximised iscalled ____

3. If the profit line moves away from theorigin, then the values of the objectivefunction f is ____

4. The minimum value of f = x+y based onthe conditions x+y ≥ 6, 2x+y ≥ 8, x ≥ 0and y ≥ 0 is ____

5. y = x passes through ____

6. Given then the value of P

at the point (0, 12) is ____

7. "The value of x+y should not be less than15". This can be written as ____

8. Any point (x, y) in the feasible regiongives a solution to LPP is called ____

9. In a linear programming, the function f =ax+by is called ____

10. The line x = K is ____ axis.11. The point (–2, –4) lies on ____ quadrant.12. The slope of x-axis is ____13. Q1, Q2 are two quadrants then Q1 ∩ Q2 =

____14. The knowledge of Linear Programming

help to solve the problems in ____ sector.15. "The Maximum or Minimum value of f

occurs on atleast one of the vertices of thefeasible region". This is the statement ofthe ____ theorem of LinearProgramming.

16. The solution set of constraints of a Linear

1 3P x y

4 2= +

x 1 3+ =

MathematicsLINEAR PROGRAMMINGPOLYNOMIALS

POLYNOMIALS

Answers:1. Injection, surjection ; 2. 3 ; 3.Surjection ; 4. 3 ; 5. 3/2 ; 6. (1, 3), (2, 4),(3, 1), (4, 2); 7. 8 ; 8. (x, a), (y, b), (z, c); 9. (1, 7), (2, 6) ; 10. B⊆ R ; 11. 2; 12.Bijection ; 13. a ; 14. Constant ; 15. ±2; 16.4 ; 17. Injection function ; 18. Constantfunction ; 19. y+1 / 3 ; 20. 7 ; 21. Identityfunction ; 22. Surjection ; 23. 3; 24. One-element ; 25. Inverse function ; 26. N–3; 27. 15 ; 28. Equal functions ; 29.Constant; 30. Real function ; 31. 5, 7, 9 ;32. R = (x, y) / y = x+2 ; 33. 3 ; 34.Bijection function ; 35. Not Define ; 36.One ; 37. 4; 38. Constant ; 39. Identityfunction ; 40. 4 ; 41. 0, 1 ; 42. 4 ; 43. (1,9), (2, 15); 44. x+3

Answers:1. x2 – x – 12 ≤ 0 ; 2. f(–b / a) ; 3. x – 1 ; 4.0 ; 5. 25 ; 6. a2/3 – a1/3 b1/3 + b2/3 ; 7. y-axis ;8. 16 ; 9. 15 ; 10. a + c = b ; 11. does not ;12. x2 – 4x + 5 = 0 ; 13. 5 ; 14. 2 ; 15. 1 and4 ; 16. a+b ; 17. ax – b ; 18. 4 ; 19. q2 = 4pr;20. lies between –1 and 2 ; 21. 32 / x5 ; 22.Even Number ; 23. 6th term ; 24. Q1 and Q4

; 25. 8 ; 26.Complex numbers ; 27. 6 ; 28.Q1 and Q2 ; 29. Q2 and Q4 ; 30. 98 ; 31. x2

– 2√3x + 2 = 0 ; 32. 20C10 . 510 . 610 ; 33.

lies between α and β ; 34. ±4 ; 35. n is odd; 36. 0; 37. (x–2) (x+5) =0 or x2+3x–10 = 0; 38. x + 1; 39. 23 ; 40. x < 2 or x > 4 ; 41.Arithmetic Triangle ; 42. 1, 4, 6, 4, 1; 43.5b2 = 36ac; 44. ncr x

r; 45. 27 ; 46. 3 ; 47. 65; 48. 6 ; 49. a + c + e = b + d + f ; 50. –1;51. 5 ; 52. p2 – 2q / q ; 53. ax2 + bxy + cy2 ;54. 8C4 ; 55. 8 ; 56. Symmetric expression;57. Cyclic ; 58. x2 – 7x + 12 = 0 ; 59. 7 ; 60.7 ; 61. 3a + b + 27 = 0 ; 62. 520 / x10 ; 63. 5; 64. Pingala; 65. (x + 3).

Sum of the roots of 6x2–5 = 0 is?

LINEAR PROGRAMMING

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MathematicsPROGRESSIONSREAL NUMBERS

Programming problem is a convex setcalled ____

17. The solution set of x≥y, x≤y is ____18. The function f = ax+by which is to be

____ is called L.P.P.19. Any line belonging to the system of

parallel lines given by the objectivefunction for various values of theobjective function f is called ____ line.

20. If the line segment joining any two pointsin a set lines entirely in a set then it iscalled ____

21. The slope of y-axis is ____22. A set of points which satisfy all the

constraints of a L.P.P. is called ____23. If the point (–3, –2) lies on 3x–5y+k > 0

then the Minimum Value of k is ____24. If the point (2, 3) lies on x–3y+p < 0 then

the Maximum Value of p is ____25.

The graph that represents ____inequation.

26. The polygonal region which is theintersection of finite number of closedhalf planes is called ____

27. ISO-profit lines are ____28. The line divides the plane into ____ point

of sets.29. The line x–y = 0 is passing through ____30. If c < 0 then ax+by+c < 0 represents the

region ____31. The point of intersection of x = 2 and y =

–1 is ____32. If none of the feasible solution Maximises

or Minimises the objective function, thenthe problem has ____

33. The solution of x≥0, y≥0, 2x+3y ≤6 lies is____ quadrant.

1. ax–1 = bc; by–1 = ca; cz–1=ab thenxy+yz+zx = ______

2. x3/2 = 0.027 then the value of x is ______

3. The value of = ______

4. If a+b+c= 0 then a3+b3+c3 = ______

5. = ______

6. ∑n = 10 then ∑n3 value = ______

7. x = 256 then value = ______8. The value of (xp–q)r.(xq–r)p. (xr–p)q. is

______9. If (x2/3)P = x2 then P value is ______

10. = ______

11. The value of (32)–4/5 = ______12. The product of x3/5.x4/3.x–2/5 = ______

13. if x > 0, then then x value is______

14. |x| < a, if a > 0 then the solution set x is______

15. |6–9x| = 0 then x value is ______

16. = ______

17. ∑n = 66 then n value is ______

18. f(x) = 3√x then = ______

19. =______

20. value ______

21. a≠0 and p+q+r = 0 then a3p+3q+3r = ______

22. = ______

23. The limiting position of a secant of acircle is ______

24. (64)x = 2√2 then x value ______25. ax=b, by=c, cz = a then the value of xyz

is______26. If x = –8 then |x – 1| = ______27. The modulus of a real number is never

______28. The solution set of |x| ≤ a is ______

29. = ______

30. If 5x –√5 = 15 – √5 then x2 value is______

31. The solution set of |x|>a is ______32. Rationalising factor of √3 + 7 is ______

33. a2/3 [a1/3 (a1/4)4] = ______

34. = ______

35. =

36. numbers, which number is

greatest ______

37. The rationalising factor of is______

38. = ______

39. Value of (0.001)1/3______

40. If 2x = 3y = 12z then = ______

41. a1/3+b1/3+c1/3 = 0 then (a+b+c)3 = ______42. If xx√x = (x√x)x then x = ______43. If 64x = 2√2 then the value of x ______44. If ax = by = cz, and abc = 1 then

xy+yz+zx = ______

45. If a1/x = b1/y = c1/z and b2 = ac then(x+z)/2y = ______

46. 1/a + 1/b = 12, 1/a – 1/b = 6 then the valueof a is ______

1. If there are 'n' Arithmetic Means betweena and b then d = ____

2. If arithmetic mean and geometric mean oftwo numbers are 16 and 8 then theirharmonic mean is ____

3. If x, y, z are in Harmonic Progression theny = ____

4. If the first and 4th terms of a G.P. are 1and 27 respectively then the commonratio r = ____

5. Geometric mean of 5 and 125 is ____6. If TanA, TanB, TanC are in A.P., then

CotA, CotB, CotC are in ____progression.

7. Sum of the n terms of the series 1, 4, 9,16, ......... is ____

8. Harmonic mean of 3 and 5 is ____9. If a, b, c are in A.P., then 1/a, 1/b, 1/c are

in ____ progression.10. The 'n'th term of the series a, ar, ar2, ar3,

......... is ____11. 'n'th term of the progression 8, 16, 32, 64,

........ is ____12. The common ratio of the G.P., 1/2, –1/4,

1/8, –1/16, ......... is ____13. 3/2, 3/4, 3/8, ......... progression, the 10th

term is ____14. Sum of the first 'n' natural numbers is

____15. The 7th term of the progression 1, –1/2,

1/4, ........ is ____16. The nth term in an A.P. is 2n+5 then the

common difference 'd' is ____17. The Harmonic mean between 1/a, and 1/b

is ____18. If |r| < 1, then the sum to infinite terms of

the series a+ar+ar2+ ......... is ____19. The nth term of G.P. is tn = 5 (0.3)n–1 then

the common ratio is ____ 20. In a G.P., a = 2, S= 6 then r = ____ 21. The relation between A.M, G.M. and H.M

is ____22. If there are 'n' Geometric means between

a and b then the common ratio is ____23. If 7 times the 7th term = 11 times the 11th

term, then 18th term is equal to ____24. The A.M of 4 and 20 is ____25. ____ term in A.P., 10, 8, 6, ............. is

–22.26. a, b are positive, then A.M, G.M, H.M, are

in ____ progressions.27. If 5 Arithmetic means are between a and

b. what is the common difference is ____28. –2/7, x, –7/2 are in G.P. then x value is

____29. The 'n'th term of the series 2.5 + 4.7 + 6.9

+........ is ____30. In an A.P, the sum of three terms is 39

then the middle term is ____31. In an A.P, the first term is a, common

difference d then the 15th term in H.P., is____

32. The number of 9 multiples in between 1and 1000 is ____

33. In an G.P, the first term is 50, 4th term is1350 then 5th term is ____

34. p/q form of is ____

35. If a, b, c are in Arithmetic progressionthen Ka, Kb, Kc are ____ progression.

36. The nth term of 1+(1+3) + (1+3+5)+........is ____

37. a–2d, a–d, a, a+d, a+2d are in ____progression.

1.56

Z(x 2y)

xy

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2x 3x 5→−

− ++ +

3 35 3−

( ) 332 23 and 3

5 5

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x aLt

x a

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→

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The Slope of Y-Axis is...?REAL NUMBERS

PROGRESSIONSAnswers:1. Infinite; 2. Objective function ; 3.Increase ; 4. 6 ; 5. Origin ; 6. 18 ; 7. x+y ≥15 ; 8. Feasible point ; 9. Objectivefunction or profit function ; 10. y-axis ; 11.Q3 ; 12. 0 ; 13. φ ; 14. Business, Transport,Industry etc., ; 15. Fundamental Theorem ;16. Feasible region ; 17. x = y ; 18.Minimum or Maximum ; 19. ISO profitline ; 20. Convex set ; 21. Undefined ; 22.Feasible region ; 23. 0 ; 24. 6; 25.3x–4y+12 > 0 ; 26. Polyhedral set ; 27.Parallel ; 28. 3 ; 29. Origin ; 30. Below theorigin ; 31. (2, –1) ; 32. No solution ; 33. Q1

B(–4,0)

(0,3)AY

X

Answers:1. xyz ; 2. 0.09 ; 3. 0 ; 4. 3 abc ; 5. n an–1 ; 6.100 ; 7. 4 ; 8. 1 ; 9. 3 ; 10. m/n a m–n ; 11.1/16 ; 12. x ; 13. 2/3 ; 14. –a<x<a ; 15. 2/3; 16. 2/3 ; 17. 11 ; 18. 9 ; 19. 5 ; 20. √a + √b; 21. 1 ; 22. 1 ; 23. Tangent Line ; 24. 1/4 ;25. 1 ; 26. 9 ; 27. Negative ; 28. –a ≤ x ≤ a; 29. 9 ; 30. 9 ; 31. x < –a or x > a ; 32. √3 – 7 ; 33. a2 ; 34. 1 ;35. –5/3 a–8 or –5/3a8 ; 36.

37. ; 38. –2/7 ;

39. 0.1 or 1/10; 40. 1; 41. 27 abc ; 42. 9/4;43. 1/4; 44. 0; 45. 1; 46. 1/9

3 3 325 15 9+ +

323

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5

38. g1,g2 are the two geometric means between

a and b the common ratio of G.P. is ____

39. The nth term of A.P. is 3n+1 then the sumof n terms is ____

40. The sum of three terms in A.P. is 21 andtheir product is 315 then the terms are____

41. K+2, 4K–6, 3K–2 are in A.P. then thevalue of K is ____

42. The 12th term of an A.P., x, 4x/3, 5x/3,.............. is ____

43. The reciprocals of A.P., is ____progression.

44. x–3b, x+b, x+5b are in Arithmetic progre-ssion then common difference is ____

45. 1+x, 6, 9 are in G.P. then value of x is____

46. The sum of the first 'n' natural numbers is15 and the sum of cubes of first 'n' naturalnumbers is ____

47. The relation between Σn, Σn3 is ____48. a, b, c are in G.P. then log a, log b, log c

are in ____49. If a, b, c, d, ............. are in Geometric

progression then aK, bK, cK, dK......... arein ____ progression.

50. The sum of 'r' terms of the series (a–1) +(a–2) + (a–3) +........ is ____

51. The cotangent of π/3, π/4, π/6 are in ____progression.

52. Σn = 55 then n value is ____53. In A.P. the first term is a, last term is l then

Sn = ____54. The Geometric mean of x1, x2, x3, x4 is

____

1. ∆ABC ∼ ∆ DEF, if ∠ A = 50°, then ∠ E +∠ F = ______

2. If two circles touch externally, thennumber of their common tangents is______

3. If a line divides any two sides of a trianglein the same ratio then the line is ______ tothe third side.

4. The point which is equidistance from thevertices of a triangle ______

5. The length of the direct common tangentto externally touching circles whose radiiare 5cm and 6cm is ______

6. The vertical angle bisector of ∠ X of the∆XYZ , intersects the side YZ at p, then______

7. If ABCD is cyclic quadrilateral with ∠ C= 120° then ∠ A = ______

8. The point of intersection of angle bisectorof a triangle is ______

9. The number of circles drawn throughthree non - collinear point is ______

10. The diagonal of a square is ______ timesto its side.

11. If ∆ABC ∼ ∆ PQR then =______

12. Angle in the same segment are ______13. The distance between the centres of two

circle is 'd'. If the radii are r1 and r2 thenthe length of transverse common tangentis ______

14. The angle in the major segment of a circleis ______

15. If two circles of radii 3cm and 5cm touchinternally, then the distance between theircentres is ______ cm.

16. In ∆ABC, ∠ B = 90°, ∠ CAB = 30° andAC = 10, then BC = ______

17.

In the adjacent figure is a tangent tothe circle at A ∠ CAX= 80° and AB = AC then ∠ ABC = ______

18. The ratio of corresponding sides of twosimilar triangles is 3:4 then the ratio oftheir areas is ______

19. The height of an equilateral triangle withside 2√3 is ______

20. Opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateralare ______

21. If the two circles touches externally withradii are 6 cm and 7 cm. Then distancebetween their centers is______

22.

'O' is the centre of the circle, If ∠ BOA=140° and ∠ COA = 100° then ∠ BAC =______

23. ∆ABC ∼ ∆ PQR, AB = 3.6, PQ = 2.4, AC= 8.1cm then PR = ______

24. Angle in semi circle is ______25. If a Rhombus is cyclic then it is ______26. Two circles touch internally, then the

number of their common tangents are______

27. The point of concurrence of the mediansof a triangle ______

28. The perpendicular bisectors of the sidesof a triangle is ______

29. In a triangle, a line dividing the two sidesin the same ratio is ______ to the thirdside.

30. The bisector of the vertical angle of atriangle divides the base in the ratio of theother ______ sides.

31. If R, r are radii of the circles and d is thedistance between the centres of twocircles. If R = r + R then the two circles is______

32. The angle between a line drawn throughthe end point of a radius and its tangent tothe circle is ______

33. A line drawn through the end point ofradius and perpendicular to it is ______ tothe circle.

34. The number of tangents drawn from anexternal point to a circle is ______

35. In ∆ABC ∠ A = 90° AD ⊥ BC then AD2 =______

36. If an arc subtends an angle of 80° at thecentre, its corresponding are subtends anangle of ______ at the circumference.

37. The number of tangents drawn to the non- intersecting and non - touching circle is______

38. The length of the tangent drawn to a circlewith radius 'r' from a point 'p' which is 'd'cm away from the centre is ______

39. In ∆ABC , the circle drawn asdiameter passes through A then thetriangle ABC is ______

40.

'O' is the centre of the circle if ∠ AOC =130° then ∠ B = ______

41. If is a secant to a circle

intersecting the circle at A and B and PTis a tangent segment then PT2 = ______

42. If R, r are the radii of the circles. 'd' is thedistance between the centres of twocircles and if R + r < d then the two circlesare ______

43. If x,y,z are the midpoints of AB, BC and

CA respectively then the ratio of ∆XYZ :∆ABC = ______

44. The line which intersects a circle in twodistinct points is called a ______ of thecircle.

45. The number of common tangents drawnto the concentric circles is ______

46. The number of circles drawn throughthree non - collinear points is ______

47.

In this circle the chords AB and CDintersects at E. AE = 8, EB = 6, CE = 4then ED = ______

48. In ∆ABC, the bisector of ∠ A meets BC atD and BD = 6cm, DC = 8 cm then theratio of AB:AC = ______

49. The Indian mathematician who provedpythagorean theorem is ______

PAB

BC

XY

AB: AC

GEOMETRY

Answers:1. 130°; 2. 3 ; 3. Parallel; 4. Circum center; 5. 2√30cm ;

6. ; 7. 60° ;

8. Incenter of the circle ; 9. 1 ;

10. √2 ; 11. ; 12. equal ;

13. ; 14. acute angle ;

15. 2 cm ; 16. 5 cm ; 17. 80° ; 18. 9: 16 ;19. 3 ; 20. Supplementary ; 21. 13 cm ; 22.60° ; 23. 5.4 ; 24. 90° or Right angle ; 25.Squire ; 26. 1 ; 27. Centroid ; 28. CircumCenter ; 29. Parallel ; 30. 2 Sides ; 31.Externally ; 32. 90° ; 33. Tangent ; 34. 2 ;35. BD.DC ; 36. 280° ; 37. 4 ; 38. ;

39. equilateral Triangle ; 40. 115° ; 41.PA.PB ; 42. Do not intersect circles ; 43.1:4 ; 44. Secant line ; 45. 0 ; 46. 1; 47. 12;48. 3:4 ; 49. Bhaskaracharya

2 2d r−

( )221 2d r r− +

PQ;PR

XY YP

XZ ZP=

MathematicsGEOMETRYPAPER - II

The relation between ΣΣn, ΣΣn3 is?

Answers:1. b–a / n+1 ; 2. 4 ; 3. 2xz / x+z ; 4. 3 ; 5.25 ; 6. Harmonic Progression ; 7. n(n+1)(2n+1) / 6 ; 8. 15/4 ; 9. HarmonicProgression ; 10. arn–1 ; 11. 2r+2 or 8×2r–1 ;12. –1/2 ; 13. 3/1024 ; 14. 5050 ; 15. 1/64 ;16. 2 ; 17. 2/a+b ; 18. a/1–r ; 19. 0.3 ; 20.2/3 ; 21. A.M ≥ G.M ≥ H.M. or (G.M.)2 =A.M × H.M ; 22. (b/a)1/n+1 ; 23. 0 ; 24. 12 ;25. 20 ; 26. G.P. ; 27. q–p/6 ; 28. ±1 ; 29.2n(2n+3) or 4n2 + 6n ; 30. 13 ; 31. 1/a+14d;32. 111 ; 33. 4050 ; 34. 155/99 ; 35.Geometric Progression ; 36. n(n+1)(2n+1) /6 ; 37. Arithmetic Progression ; 38. (b/a)1/3;39. n(3n+5) / 2 ; 40. 5, 7, 9 ; 41. 3 ; 42.14x/3 ; 43. Harmonic Progression ; 44. 4b ;45. 2 ; 46. 225 ; 47. Σn3 = (Σn)2 ; 48. A.P. ;49. G.P. ; 50. r/2 [2a–r–1] ; 51. G.P. ; 52. 10;53. n/2(a + l) ; 54. (x1 . x2 . x3 . x4)

1/4

C

AX80°

Y

B

C

A

°O B

A

O

B

C

A

D

BC

E64 8

130°

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6

MathematicsTRIGONOMETRYANALYTICAL GEOMETRY

1. The slope of the straight line joining thepoints (3, –1), (5, 3) is ____

2. The equation of the line passing through(1, 2) and is parallel to 2x–3y+8 = 0 is____

3. The equation of a straight line that makesintercepts of 5 and 3 units respectively onx-axis and y-axis is ____

4. Equation of the line whose slope is 5 andy-intercept is –3 is ____

5. The centroid of the triangle, whose sidesare given by x = 0, y = 0 and x+y = 6 is____

6. Distance between the points (a Cosθ, 0),(0, a Sinθ) is ____

7. The line x = my+c, cuts the y-axis at ____point.

8. The angle between the lines x–2 = 0, y+3= 0 is ____

9. The slope of a straight line which isperpendicular to x–2y+5 = 0 is ____

10. The lines y = 2x–3, y = 2x+1 are ____11. The points (P, 2), (–3, 4), (7, –1) are

collinear then P = ____12. The equation of y-axis is ____13. The slope of a line making an angle 45°

with the positive direction x-axis is ____14. The distance from origin to the given

point (a, b) is ____15. If the slope of a line joining the points (3,

2) and (4, k) is 2 then k = ____16. The slope of the line perpendicular to

3x+4y = 10 is ____17. If ax+by+c = 0 represents a straight line

then condition is ____18. The distance between the points (0, 1)

and (8, k) is 10 then k value is ____19. The centroid of the triangle with vertices

(–1, 0), (5, –2) and (8, 2) is ____20. The area of the triangle with vertices (0,

0), (0, 2) and (1, 0) is ____21. y = mx line as known as ____ form.22. The line x = 3y+1 cuts x-axis at ____23. The slope of the line ax+by+c = 0 is ____24. Slope-point form of a line is ____25. The intercepts form of a line is ____26. Area of a triangle whose vertices are (x1,

y1), (x2, y2) and (x3, y3) is ____27. The sum of the intercepts made by 3x+4y

= 12 on the axis is ____28. Slope of the line y = 5 is ____29. Who has introduced analytical geometry

is ____

30. If two straight lines are parallel, theirslopes are ____

31. The slope of x/a + y/b = 1 is ____32. x-intercept of the line zx–y+7 = 0 is ____33. Three points are in the straight line then

the points are called ____34. The slope of ax+7y = 0 is 2 then a value

is ____35. The centroid of the triangle whose

vertices are (x1, y1), (x2, y2), (x3, y3) is____

36. The mid point of the line join of (Sin2α,Sec2α) and (Cos2α, – Tan2α) is ____

37. Two lines are perpendicular then theproduct of the slopes = ____

38. The slope of the line parallel to y-axis is____

39. The equation of a straight line passing(x1, y1) and (x2, y2) is ____

40. One end of the diameter of a circle is (–3,4) and the center is (0, 0) then the otherend point of the diameter is ____

41. The equation of a straight line passingthrough the origin and slope 2/3 is ____

42. The line y = x makes the angle with x-axis is ____

43. If the slope of the line is 2/5 then slope ofthe line perpendicular to the above line is____

44. The equation of the straight line passingthrough (2, –3) and equal intercepts withthe axis is ____

45. The line √3x – y + 50 makes an angle ofx-axis is ____

46. ____ diagram is formed the vertices of (0,0), (5, 0), (5, 5) and (0, 5)

47. The centroid divides the median in theratio ____

48. The peremeter of the vertices of thetriangle (0, 0), (4, 0), (0, 3) is ____

49. (9, 3) and (1, –1) are the end points of thediameter of the circle then the center is____

50. Equation of a straight line parallel to x-axis and it makes an intercept 4 units ony-axis is ____

1. Tan230 + Tan260° = ______2. If (Secθ + Tanθ) = m the value of (Secθ –

Tanθ) = ______3. Eliminate 'θ' from x = 2sinθ; y = 2cosθ

then ______4. If Tan(A+B) = √3, Tan A = 1 then ∠ B =

______5. If a wheel makes 360 revolutions in one

minute, then through how many radiansdoes it turn in one second is ______

6. Eliminate 'θ' from x = a Secθ, y = b Tanθthen ______

7. A minute hand of a clock is 3 cm. long,the distance moved in 20 minutes is______

8. The value of Sinθ interms of Sec θ is______

9. One radian is equal to ______ degrees.10. Eliminate θ from x = Cosecθ + Cotθ, y =

Cosecθ – Cotθ is ______11. If Cosθ = √3/2 then the value of Sinθ

______12. The value of Tan250 – Sec250 = ______13. The circular measure of 72° = ______14. Sin225 + Cos225 = ______15. The value of Cosθ . Tanθ = ______16. If Sinθ = Cos2θ then Cotθ value ______17. If x = Secθ + Tanθ, y = Secθ – Tanθ then

xy = ______18. The sexagesimal measure of πc/6 is

______19. The value of Cos(π/3) = ______20. Cos (A+B) = ______21. Sin 90° + Cos 0° +√2Sin45° = ______22. If Sinθ = 5/13 than Cos(90–θ) = ______

23. = ______

24. value = ______

25. = ______

26. The value of (Sinθ + Cosθ)2 + (Sinθ –Cosθ)2 = ______

27. One degree is equal to ______ radians28. If 8Tanθ = 15 then Cotθ = ______29. Cos2A is equal to ______30. The radius of a circle is 14 cms. The

angle subtented by an arc of the circle atthe centre 45°. Then the length of the arcis ______

31. The centesimal measure of 150° is______

32. The centesimal measure of 5πc/2 is______

33. The circular measure of 30g is ______34. The sexagesimal measure 150g of is

______35. Secθ (1–Sinθ) (Secθ + Tanθ) value is

______36. (1–Cosθ) (1+Cosθ) (1+Cot2θ)= ______37. If Tanθ = 1 then Cos2θ – Sin2θ = ______

38. The value of = ______

39. The Range of Sinθ is ______40. The Minimum value of Cosθ is ______41. Cos1°.Cos2°.Cos3°....... Cos17° =

______42. The value of Sin 420° = ______43. The value of Tan 30°, Tan 45°, Tan 60°

are in ______ progression.44. Cot π/20. Cot 3π/20. Cot 5π/20.

Cot7π/20.Cot 9π/20 = ______45. The value of Sin0°.Sin1°.Sin2° .........

Sin90° = ______46. If Sin70° = Cos θ then θ = ______47. Sin31°Cos59° + Cos31°Sin59° = ______48. Angle of elevation of the top of the

electric pole from man 40 mts from itsfoot is 60°. Then the height of the pole is______

49. Tan 1°. Tan 2°. Tan 3° ....... Tan89° =______

50. The value of Sec (270-θ) = ______

2Cosec 1

Cosec

θ −θ

4 4

2 2

Sin A Cos A

Sin A Cos A

−−

Sin18

Cos72

°°

2 2 2Sin Cos Tanθ + θ + θ

The value of Sinθθ interms of Secθθ is?

TRIGONOMETRY

Answers:1. 2 ; 2. 2x–3y+4 = 0 ; 3. x/5 + y/3 = 1 ; 4.5x–y–3 = 0 ; 5. (3, 3) ; 6. a ; 7. (0, –c/m) ;8. 90° ; 9. –2 ; 10. Parallel ; 11. 1 ;

12. x = 0 ; 13. 1 ; 14. ;

15. 4; 16. 4/3; 17. |a| + |b| ≠ 0; 18. 7; 19. (4,0) ; 20. 1 sq. unit ; 21. Slope ; 22. (1, 0); 23.–a/b ; 24. y–y1=m(x–x1); 25. x/a + y/b = 1;

26. ;

27. 7 ; 28. 0 ; 29. Rene Decarde; 30. Parallel; 31. –3/2 ; 32. –7/2 ; 33.Collinear ; 34. –14 ;

35. ;

36. (1/2, 1/2) ; 37. –1 ; 38. Not define ; 39.(y – y1) (x1– x2) = (x – x1) (y1 – y2) ; 40. (3,–4) ; 41. 2x–3y = 0 ; 42. 45° ; 43. –5/2 ; 44.x+y–1 = 0 ; 45. 60° ; 46. Square ; 47. 2:1 ;48. 12 ; 49. (5, 1) ; 50. y = 4

1 2 3 1 2x x x y y y3,

3 3

+ + + +

( ) ( ) ( )1 2 3 2 3 1 3 1 2

1x y y x y y x y y

2− + − + −

2 2a b+

ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY

Ýë„ìS ¿¶æÑ™èl VýS$Æý‡$ÐéÆý‡… 25 휺Ð]lÇ, 2010

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1. The average of 2, 3, 4 and x is 4. Thevalue of x is ____

2. The formula for finding out A.M. bydeviation Method is ____

3. The median of 10, 12, 13, 15, 17 is ____4. The median of x/5, x, x/4, x/2 and x/3 is 8

then the value of x is ____5. The mode of 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 6, 7, 6, 5, 10

is ____6. The class interval of the frequency

distribution having the classes 10–20,20–30, 30–40 is ____

7. Class middle value is used in ____8. If arithmetic mean is 48.5, median is

46.25 a data, then mode is ____9. In finding mode, ∆2 = ____10. The median of natural numbers from 1 to

9 is ____11. The mid value of the class 40–50 is ____12. If the mean of 10 observations is 7 and

the mean of 15 observations is 12, thenthe mean of total observations is ____

13. The value of ∆1 while calculating themode in delta method is ____

14. The observation which occurs frequentlyin a data is ____

15. The formula to the empirical relationamong mean, median and mode of agiven data is ____

16. In a histogram, the breadths of therectangles represent the ____

17. The range of the first 9 natural numbers is____

18. The mean of the first 'n' natural numbersis ____

19. The class interval of the class 10–19 is____

20. The median of scores x1, x2, 2x1 is 6 and

x1 < 2x1 < x2 then x1 = ____21. In the classes 1–5, 6–10, 11–15, ........the

upper limit of the class 1–5 is ____22. In a data the A.M. is 39 and mode is 34.5

then median = ____23. In the data sum of 15 observations is 420

then the mean is ____24. The range of 20, 18, 37, 42, 3, 12, 15, 26

is ____25. For the construction of a frequency

polygon ____ and frequencies are takeninto consideration.

26. Formula for finding the mode of groupeddata is ____

27. In a frequency distribution the mid valueof class is 35 and the lower boundary is30. Then its upper boundary is ____

28. If a data have two modes, then its is called____

29. The lower limit of the class 10–19 is ____30. Formula for finding mean by deviation

method is ____31. Formula for finding the median of

grouped data is ____32. Father of statistics is ____33. The difference between two consecutive

lower limits of the classes is ____34. A histogram consists of ____35. Central tendency value is based on all

observations of the data36. The formula for mean of grouped data is

____37. The greater than cumulative frequency of

a class is 83 and that of the next class is73 then the frequency of that class is ____

38. Mean = where A is called

____39. The most reliable measure of mean,

median and mode is ____

40. The cumulative frequencies are used tomeasure the ____

41. The range of first 'n' natural numbers____

42. The mean of 11 observations is 10.5. If anobservation is deleted then the mean ofthe remaining observations ____

43. The mean of the squires of first 'n' naturalnumbers is ____

44. ____ is not affected by the extremevalues.

45. The mode of 4, 8, 9, P, 7, 6, 4, 2 is 9 thenthe value of P is ____

1. A square Matrix whose determinant is zero is called ______

2. In a Matrix, if the rows and columns areinterchanged then the Matrix obtained iscalled ______ of the given Matrix.

3. If then AB =

______

4. If then |A| = ______

5. If = 0 then d =______

6. If has no Multiplicative

inverse then a = ______

7. If then A–1 =

______

8. If = (1, 2) then the order of

A is ______

9. Ifthen A+B

= ______ 10. The Matrix is introduced by ______

11. The product=______

12. The determinate of the singular Matrix is______

13. Ifthen x = ______

14. If and ad = bc then

A is ______ Matrix.15. The element of the second row and third

columns of

is ______

16. Order of matrix A is 3×4, order of MatrixB is 5 × 3 then the order of BA is ______

17. The determinate of the Matrix

is ______

18. If then a = ______

19. A, B are two Matrices then (AB)T =______

20. If

is a scalar Matrix, then λ = ______ 21. While solving the equation 3x+4y = 8 and

x – 6y = 10 by Cramer's method, theMatrix B1 = ______

22. A, B are two Matrices then (AB)–1 =______

23. If then A + AT= ______

24. A is square Matrix and A = AT then A iscalled ______ Matrix.

25. The product is ______

26. If then |A| =

______ 27. The Multiplicative unit matrix of order

3×3 is ______ 28. The inverse of the Identify Matrix is

______ 29. If AB = I then 'B' is called ______ of 'A' 30. If A is a square Matrix, A.A–1. A–1A =

______

31. If the T = ______

32. If X + 2I = then Matrix X =

______

3 1

1 2

−

T

4 3 4 3

2 16 2 2

− − =

Cos SinA

Sin Cos

θ − θ = θ θ

( )1 2 32

3

4

1 3A

5 6

=

4 0P

0

= λ

a 3 2 7

1 2 1 0

− =

Sec Tan

Tan Sec

θ θ θ θ

1 8 5

2 3 4

2 7 0

− −

a bA

c d

=

2 0

5 1

= −

x y x y

2x 3y 2x 3y

+ − + −

( )x ya

b

1 3 1 2A ,B

2 1 3 0

= = − −

1 1A

0 2

×

1 4A

0 1

= −

2a 5

6 3

−

d 2 5

4 2

−−

4 3A

2 1

= −

1 0 0 1A ,B

0 1 1 0

= =

fxA C

N

Σ+ ×

STATISTICS

Answers:

1. 7 ; 2. ; 3. 13 ;

4. 24 ; 5. 6 ; 6. 10 ; 7. Mean ; 8. 41.75 ; 9.f–f2 ; 10. 5 ; 11. 45 ; 12. 7 ; 13. f–f1 ; 14.Mode ; 15. Mode = 3 Median–2 Mean ; 16.Length of the class interval ; 17. 8 ; 18.n+1/2 ; 19. 10 ; 20. 3 ; 21. 5.5 ; 22. 38.5 ;23. 28 ; 24. 39 ; 25. Mid value of the class;

26. ; 27. 40 ;

28. Bimodal ; 29. 9.5 ;

30. ; 31. ;

32. R. A. Fisher ; 33. Class-interval ; 34.Rectangles ; 35. Mean ; 36. Σιx/n ; 37. 11 ;38. Expected mean ; 39. Mean; 40. Median;41. n–1 ; 42. 10.65 ; 43. (n+1) (2n+1) / 6 ;44. Median ; 45. 9

N F2L Cf

−+ ×i if x

A CN

Σ+ ×

1

1 2

CL

∆+∆ + ∆

fdA C

N

Σ+ ×Answers:

1. 10/3 ; 2. 1/m ; 3. x2 + y2 = 4 ; 4. 15° ; 5.12πc ; 6. b2x2 – a2y2 = a2b2 ; 7. 44/7 cm ;

8. ;

9. (57.3)° or 57°16' ; 10. xy = 1 ; 11. 1/2 ;12. – 1 ; 13. 2πc/5 ; 14. 1 ; 15. Sinθ ;

16. ; 17. 1 ; 18. 30° ; 19. 1/2 ;

20. CosACosB – SinASinB ; 21. 3 ; 22.5/13 ; 23. Secθ ; 24. 1 ; 25. 1 ; 26. 2 ; 27.0.01745c ; 28. 8/15 ; 29. Cos2A – Sin2A ;30. 11 cm ; 31. 500g/3 ; 32. 500g ; 33. 27° ;34. 5πc/6 ; 35. 1 ; 36. 1 ; 37. 0 ; 38. Cos θ ;39. [–1, 1] ; 40. – 1 ; 41. 0 ; 42. √3/2 ; 43.G.P. ; 44. 1 ; 45. 0 ; 46. 20° ; 47. 1 ; 48.40√3 m.; 49. 1 ; 50. – Cosecθ

1

3

Sec 1

Sec

θ −θ

MATRICES

MathematicsMATRICESSTATISTICS

Who is the Father of Statistics?

Ýë„ìS ¿¶æÑ™èl VýS$Æý‡$ÐéÆý‡… 25 휺Ð]lÇ, 2010

8

MathematicsWEIGHTAGE ANALYSISCOMPUTING

33. If and A = B

then the value of x + y is =______ 34. A is a Matrix then (A–1)–1 = ______ 35. If A is a Matrix then AT = – A then the

Matrix is called ______

36. If and P+R = I then

Matrix R = ______ 37. A and B are two Matrices. The product

AB is defined ______

38. If A is Matrix, A + B = 0 when 0 is a nullMatrix. Then B is called ______ of A.

39. 2x+3y–4 = 0, 5x–7y+8=0 express theabove equations in Matrix equation formAX = B then Matrix B = ______

40. If and A+B = Athen A

Matrix is ______ 41. If A,B,C are three Matrices A(B+C) = AB

+ AC is ______ law42. A is a Matrix if AX = B then X = ______

43. If then AB =

______

44. then A = ______

45. K is a Scalar, A is a Matrix then (KA)T =______

46. Additive inverse Matrix is ______ Matrix

47. then the order ofB Matrix is ______

48. Ifthen B2 = ______

49. Ifthen

3A+2B = _____50. If A is a Matrix then A.A–1 = ______

1. ____ is used to make a diagrammaticrepresentation of an algorithm.

2. The Rhombus shaped box is used in aflow chart for ____

3. The second generation computers ____were used.

4. An example for input unit is ____5. Large scale circuits are used in ____

generation computers.6. Father of the computers is ____7. The language known to computers is

called ____8. A language used in computers is ____9. Expand C.P.U. is ____10. To express the algorithm in a language

understandable by a computer is called____

11. All parts of a computer are controlled by____

12. The present day computers are make as____ generation computers.

13. The set of instructions of solving aproblem by a particular method, writtenin a language understands by a computeris called ____

14. Small translators are used in ____generation of computers.

15. A component of hardware is ____16. Input, output, CPU are ____ of the

computer.17. "Vacuum tubes" are used in ____

generation computers.18. All the parts of a computer are controlled

by ____19. Large amount of information is stored in

____ unit of a computer.20. Electronic circuits are used in ____

generation of computers.21. The number of major parts in a computer

is ____

22. The systematic step by step procedure ofsolving a problem is called ____

23. All arithmetic operations are performedin ____ of computer.

24. ____ unit is received the result by C.P.U.

25. BASIC stands for ____ 26. Yes/No box in flow chart is ____ 27. Present computers are called ____ 28. ____ is used entry/exist from another part

of the flow chart.29. A set of instruction which leads to a step

by step procedure for solving a problemon a computer called an ____

30. The example of output is____ 31. In a flow chart, a rectangular box is used

for ____ 32. Shape box is used for ____ 33. A.L.U. means ____

2 4 4 3A ,B

6 5 5 7

− = = −

xX

y

=

3 8 7A ,B ,

6 1 31

= = −

( ) ( )1 2 3 B 3 4× =

( )1 1A 1 2

0 2

=

( ) xA a b ;B

y

= =

5 6A

7 8

=

3 5P

4 2

− = −

2 4 y xA ;B

6 5 6 5

= =

The Number of Major Parts in Computer?

COMPUTING

Answers:1. Singular Matrix ; 2. Transpose Matrix ;

3. ; 4. 10 ; 5. – 8 ; 6. 5 ;

7.;8. 1 × 2 ; 9. ;

10. J.J.Sylvester ; 11. ;

12. Zero ; 13. 1 ; 14. Singular ; 15. 4 ;16. 5 × 4 ; 17. 1 ; 18. – 2 ; 19. BTAT ;

20. 4; 21. ; 22. B–1A–1

23. ; 24. Symmetric Matrix ;

25. ; 26. 1 ;

27. ; 28. Unit Matrix ;

29. Inverse Matrix ; 30. I ; 31. 4 ;

32. ; 33. 6 ; 34. A ;

35. Skew Symmetric Matrix ;

36. ;

37. Number of Columns of the Matrix A isequal to the number of rows of the MatrixB ; 38. Additive Inverse ;

39. ; 40. Null Matrix

41.Distributive law ; 42. A–1B; 43. (ax+by);

44. ; 45. KAT

46. Null Matrix ; 47. 2×3 ;

48. ; 49. ; 50. I14 6

8 29

−

3 7

6 31

11

2

4

8

−

4 5

4 3

− −

1 1

1 0

−

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

2 4 6

3 6 9

4 8 12

2 8

8 12

8 4

10 6

−

ax ay

bx by

2 5

1 1

− −

1 4

0 1

−

0 1

1 0

Answers:1. Flow Chart; 2. Decision making; 3.Transistor ; 4. Key Board or Mouse ; 5. 4th;6. Bobbage; 7. Software; 8. BASIC,COBAL, FORTRAN, PASCAL etc.,; 9.Central Processing Unit; 10. Software orprogramming language ; 11. Control unit ;12. 4th; 13. Software ; 14. 2nd ; 15. C.P.U.;16. Hardware ; 17. 1st; 18. Control unit ;19. Memory unit; 20. IIIrd ; 21. 3 ; 22.Algorithm; 23. Arithmetic and Logical Unit(ALU); 24. Output; 25. Beginners Allpurpose Symbolic Instruction Code; 26.Rhombus box; 27. Numan computers; 28.Loop; 29. Algorithm; 30. Monitor; 31.Calculations; 32. Start/Stop; 33. Arithmeticand Logical Unit ;

Paper - IChapter 5 Marks 4 Marks 2 Marks 1 Mark 1/2 MarkStatements & Sets & 1 2 1 5Functions (Mappings) & 2 1 1 5Polynomials 1 1 1 1 6Real Numbers & 1 2 1 6Linear Programming 1 1 1 1 3Progressions & 2 1 1 5

Paper - IIChapter 5 Marks 4 Marks 2 Marks 1 Mark 1/2 MarkGeometry 1 1 1 1 5Analytical Geometry & 2 2 1 5Trignometry 1 1 1 1 5Statistics & 1 1 1 5Matrices & 2 1 1 5Computing & 1 2 1 5

Mathematics Chapter wisemarks weightage analysis chart

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9

POLYNOMIALS1. Using graph y = x2 solve the equation

x2–x–2 = 02. Draw the graph y = x2+5x–6 and solve

the equation x2+5x–6 = 0

LINEAR PROGRAMMING1. Maximise f = 5x+7y subject to the

condition 2x + 3y ≤ 12, 3x + y ≤ 12, x ≥0, y ≥ 0

2. Maximise f = 3x+y subject to theconstraints 8x + 5y ≤ 40, 4x + 3y ≥ 12, x≥ 0, y ≥ 0

3. Minimise f = x+y subject to the 2x + y ≥10, x + 2y ≥ 10, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

4. A shop keeper Sells not more than 30shirts of each colour. Atleast twice asmany white ones are sold as green ones.If the profit on each of the white be Rs.20 and that of Green be Rs. 25 how manyof each kind be sold to give him amaximum profit?

5. A sweet shop makes gift packet of sweetscombines two special types of sweets Aand B which weight 7 kg. Atleast 3 kg. ofA and no more than 5 kg of B should beused. The shop makes a profit of Rs. 15on A and Rs 20 on B per kg. Determinethe product mix so as to obtain maximumprofit.

STATEMENTS & SETS1. Define Conditional and write truth table?2. Prove that A – (B∪ C) = (A–B) ∩ (A–C)3. A, B, C are three sets then prove that

A∩(B∪ C) = (A∩B) ∪ (A∩C) 4. If A, B are two subsets of a universal Set

µ, then prove that (A∪ B)1 = A1 ∩ B1

5. Show that (p∧ (~q)) ∧ ((~p)∨ q) is acontradiction

FUNCTIONS1. Let f be given by f(x) = x+2 and f has the

domain x ; 2 ≤ x ≤ 5 find f–1 and itsdomain and Range.

2. Let f: R → R be defined by f(x) = 3x – 5.Show that f has an inverse and find aformula inverse function f–1

3. Let f, g, h be functions defined by f(x) =x, g(x) = 1 – x, h(x) = x + 1 prove that(hog)of = ho(gof)

4. Given f(x) = x–1, g(x) = x2–2, h(x) = x3 –3 for x ∈ R find i) (fog)oh ii) fo(goh)

POLYNOMIALS1. The expression ax2 + bx + c equals – 2

where x = 0, leaves remainder 3 when

divided by (x–1) and remainder – 3 whendivided by (x+1). Find the values of a, band c.

2. Factorize the expression 4x4 – 12x3 + 7x2

+ 3x – 2 using the remainder theorem.3. Find a quadratic function in 'x' such that

when it is divided by x–1, x–2 and x–3leaves remainders 1, 2 and 4 respectively.

4. Find the independent term of x in

the expansion

REAL NUMBERS

1. If . show that 3y3 – 9y = 10

2. If lmn = 1, show that

3. If ax–1 = bc, by–1 = ca, cz–1 = ab show thatxy+yz+zx = xyz

4. Show that

5. Evaluate

6. Show that

PROGRESSIONS1. The A.M., G.M and H.M of two numbers

are A,G,H respectively show that A ≥ G ≥H

2. If the sum of the first 'n' natural numbersis S1 and that of their squares S2 andcubes S3. Show that 9s2

2 = s3 (1 + 8s1)3. Find the Sum of 'n' terms of the series 0.5

+ 0.55 + 0.555 +........n terms4. Insert 6 H.M's between 1/12 and 1/425. If (b + c), (c + a), (a + b) are in H.P. Show

that 1/a2, 1/b2, 1/c2 will also be H.P.

STATEMENTS and SETS1. Define Disjunction and write truth table?2. Write the inverse and contrapositive of

the statement ''If in a triangle ABC, AB >AC then ∠ C > ∠ B"

3. Prove that if x is even then x2 is even4. Prove that A ∩ B = A – B1 = B – A1

5. If A ∩ B = φ show that B ∩ A1 = B6. Show that (A ∩ B)1 = A1 ∪ B1

7. Show that (~p) ∨ (p∧ q) = p ⇒ q

FUNCTIONS1. Let f(x) = x2+2, g(x) = x2–2 for x∈ r find

(fog)(x), (gof) (x) 2. Show that f(x) = 3x+4 is bijective

function.3. If f:R-3→R, is defined by f(x) = x+3/x–3

show that f = 3x+3/x–1 = x for x ≠1

4. If f(x) = x2+2/x–15 for x∈ R findf(x2+2x–15)

5. If f(x) = x+2, g(x) = x2–x–2 find

POLYNOMIAS1. Find the value of m in order that

x4–2x3+3x2–mx+5 may be exactlydivisible by x–3.

2. If 4x2–1 divides 4x4–12x3+ax2+3x–bexactly find the values of a and b

3. If a and b are unequal and x2+ax+b andx2+bx+a have a common factor show thata+b+1=0

4. Solve x2–6x+5<05. Solve x2–4x–21>06. Find the middle term of the expansion of

7. Find the number which exceed its

reciprocal by

LINEAR PROGRAMMING1. Define convex set and profit line?2. Define objective function and feasible

solution?3. For the given vertices (0, 0), (2, 3), (3, 0),

(0, 5) at which point the objectivefunction 2x+3y will have Maximumvalue?

4. Indicate the polygonal region representedby the systems of inequations x≥0, y≥0,x+y ≤ 1.

5. In Linear programming problem theobjective function values 6 and 15 are atthe point of the vertices A(3, 0) and B(0,5) then find the objective function?

REAL NUMBERS

1. If then show that x = 1/2(a – a–1)

2. If a1/3+b1/3+c1/3=0 show that (a+b+c)3 =27abc

3. If a+b+c=0 show that

4. If ax = by = cz, b/a = c/b show that y/z =2z/x+z

5. Show that

6. Evaluate

7. Solve

PROGRESSIONS1. Insert 5 arithmetic means between 4 and

22.2. The sum of first 3 number is 12 and the

product is 48. Find the numbers.3. In an A.P. the 4th term is 7 and 7th term is

4 then show that 11th term is zero.4. The 8th term of G.P. is 192 and common

ratio is 2 then find 12th term.5. The sum of n terms of an A.P. is 2n+3n2

find the 'r'th term6. Which term of the A.P., 5, 2, –1, ....... is –

22.

STATEMENTS and SETS1. Define Tautologies and contradications?2. Write true table "3×6 = 20 ⇒ 2+7 = 93. Write true table of Disjunction?4.

Determine when the current flows from Ato B?

5. If A = 2, 4, 6, 8, B = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 thenfind A ∆ B?

6. Prove that (A1)1 = A7. If n(A∪ B) = 50, n(A) = 16, n(B) = 46

find n(A∩B)?8. If A ⊂ B then show that B1 ⊂ A1

FUNCTIONS1. If f(x) = x+1/x–1 then find f(x) + f(1/x)?2. Find the Range and Domain of R = (x,

y): x = 2y, x, y ∉ N3. Define constant function and Indetity

function?4. If f(x) = 3x–5 then find f–1?5. If f(x) = 2x+3 then find f–1(x): 2≤x≤36. If f(x) = 1+2x, g(x) = 3–2x then find the

values of (fog) (3) and (gof) (3)7. If f = (1, 3), (2, 5), (3, 7), g = (3, 7),

(5, 9), (7, 10) Find gof8. Let f: R→R, f(x) = 2x+3 is difines show

taht f(x) is bijective?

POLYNOMILAS1. Find the roots of the equation x2+x(c–b)

+(c–a) (c–b) = 02. Find the sum and the product of the roots

of the equation √3x2 + 9x + 6√3 = 03. Write the quadratic equation whose roots

are 2+√3 and 2–√3

4x 86

2

− <

2

2x 2

2x 7x 6Lt

5x 11x 2→

− +− +

m mm n

n nx a

x a mLt a

x a n−

→

− =−

2 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2a b c a b c a b c 3x .x .x x− − − − − −

=

2a x x 1= + +

22

3

13x

2x

7 +

( ) ( ) ( )g 1 g 2 g 3

f ( 4) f ( 2) f (2)

+ +− + − +

a b a c b c b a c a c b

1 1 11

1 x x 1 x x 1 x x− − − − − −+ + =+ + + + + +

x a 2a

x a

+ −−

x 1

x 1Lt 4

x 3 2→

− =+ −

1 1 1

1 1 11

1 m 1 m n 1 n− − −+ + =+ + + + + +l l

3

3

1y 3

3= +

8

22

56x

x −

4 Marks Questions

5 Marks Questions

2 Marks Questions

1 Marks Questions

Draw the Graph X2+5x-6MathematicsPaper - 1IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

°°p

qA B

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10

4. Define Ramainder theorem?5. Find the remainder when

x4+4x3–5x2–6x+7 is divided by (x–2)6. The product of two consecutive numbers

is 56. Find the numbers?7. Find the 5th term in the expansion (x/y +

y/x)8

8. Define Mathematical induction?9. Expand Σ a2(b2–c2)

LINEAR PROGRAMMING1. Define open convex region?2. Define feasible region?3. What is Linear programming problem?

REAL NUMBERS1. Simplify (ap/aq)p+q . (aq/ar)q+r . + (ar/ap)r+p

2. Solve if 23x = 4x+1

3. Solve |3 – 12x| = 0

\4. Find the volume of

5. Find

6. Evaluate

7. If x = ap, y = bq and xq.yp = a2/r. Show thatpqr = 1

PROGRESSIONS1. The first term of a G.P. is 2 and the sum to

infinity is 6 find the common ratio?2. –2/7, x, –7/2 are in G.P. then find x value?3. x, 4x/3, 5x/7, ........ are in A.P. then find

10th term?

4. Find the rational number of

5. The nth term of the G.P., 100, –110, 121,..........

6. Find the Harmonic mean of 6 and 247. In an A.P., n = 50, a = 12 and l = 144 then

find Sn= ?

GEOMETRY1. Construct a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD,

where AB = 3cm, BC = 6cm, AC = 4cmand AD = 2cm.

2. Construct a triangle ABC in which BC =7cm, ∠ A = 70° and foot of theperpendicular D on BC from A is 4.5cmaway from B.

3. Construct a triangle ABC in which BC =5cm. ∠ A = 70° and median. AD throughA = 3.5 cm.

TRIGONOMETRY1. Two pillars of equal height stand at a

distance of 100 mts. At a point in betweenthem, the elevation of their tops are foundto be 30° and 60° respectively. Determinethe height of the pillars and the positionof the point of observation.

2. There are two temples, one on each bankof a river, just opposite to each other. Oneof the temples A is 40 mts high. Asobserved from the top of this temple A,the angles of depression of the top andfoot of the other temple B are 12°30' and21°48' respectively. Find the width of theriver and the height of the temple B.

3. An aeroplane at an altitude of 2500 mtsobserve the angles of depression ofopposite points on the two banks of ariver to be 41°20' and 52°10'. Find inmetres, the width of the river.

4. From the ground and first floor of abuilding, the angle of elevation of the topof the spire of a church was found to be60° and 45° respectively. The first floor is5 mts high. Find the height of the spire.

GEOMETRY1. Prove that alternate segment theorem.2. Define and prove Basic proportionality

(Thales) theorem.3. Prove that Pythagorean theorem.4. Prove that the converse of alternate

segment theorem.5. Prove that vertical angle bisector

theorem.

ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY1. Find the equation of the line

perpendicular to the line joining (3, –5),(5, 7) and passing through (2, –3).

2. Find the equation of a line passingthrough (4, 3) and making intercepts onthe co-ordinate axis whose sum is equalto –1.

3. Find the equation of a line that cuts offintercepts a and b on the x and y axis suchthat a+b = 3 and ab = 2.

4. If the three points A(2, 3/2), B(–3, –7/2)and C(x, 5/2) are collinear. Find the valueof 'x'.

5. In what ratio is the segment joining thepoints (–3, 2) and (6, 1) divided by y-axis.

6. Find the point of intersection of themedians of a triangle whose vertices are(2, –5), (–3, 4) and (0, –3).

7. If A(–1, 2), B(4, 1), C(7, 16) are the threevertices of the parallelogram ABCD.Find the co-ordinates of the fourth vertexD and find its area.

8. Find the equation of a line whose slope is4/5 and which bisects the line joining the

points P(1, 2) and Q(4, –3).

TRIGONOMETRY1. If Secθ + Tanθ = P then show that

2. Show that 3(Sinx – Cosx)4 + 6(Sinx +Cosx)2 + 4(Sin6x + Cos6x) = 13.

3. Prove that

4. Eliminate 'θ' for the following equations.xCosθ + ySinθ = a, xSinθ – y Cosθ = b.

5. If Sinθ = 15/17 then find

STATISTICS1. Find the median of the following

frequency distribution.Class60–64 65–69 70–74 75–79 80–84 85–89Frequency

13 28 35 12 9 32. Find the mean of the data using short-cut

method.Class21–40 41–60 61–80 81–100 101–120Frequency

10 25 40 20 5

MATRICES

1. Given that find

the matrix D, satisfying AD = DA = A.

2. If then show that A(BC) = (AB)C

3.3. If

then show that (AB)–1 = B–1A–1.4. Solve the given equations by using

Cramer's Method4x–y = 16 and 3x–7 / 2 = y

5. Solve the equations by matrix inversionmethod2x–3y+6 = 0, 6x+y+8 = 0.

COMPUTING1. Given the principal amount and the rate

of interest, write an algorithm to obtain atable of simple interest at the end of each

year for 1 to 5 years and draw a flowchart.

2. Execute the flow chart, obtain the totalamount to be paid at the end of 6 years, ifP = Rs. 1000 and r = 12% and also writealgorithm.

3. Explain the structure of a computer bymeans of a block diagram.

4. Find the selling price of an item, giventhe gain percentage and the C.P. of anitem. Execute the flow chart for a gain of25% and C.P. = Rs. 300.

GEOMETRY1. ABCD is a rhombus, prove that

AB2 + BC 2 + CD2 + AD2

= AC2 + BD2.2. In an equilateral triangle with side 'a'

prove that the altitude is

of length

3. If PAB is secant to a circle intersectingthe circle at A and B and PT is a tangentsegment than show that PT2 = PA.PB.

4. Show that the lengths of the two tangentsdrawn from an external point to a circleare equal.

5. ∆ABC is an obtuse triangle, obtuseangled at B. If AD⊥ CB prove that AC2 =AB2 + BC2 + 2BC.BD

6. A vertical stick 12 cm long casts ashadow 8cm long on the ground. At thesame time a tower casts the shadow 40mlong on the ground. Determine the heightof the tower.

7. In a triangle ABC, AD is drawperpendicular to BC. Prove that AB2 –BD2 = AC2 – CD2.

ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY1. Find the point on x-axis that is equi

distant from (2, 3) and (4, –2).2. Find the co-ordinates of the point which

divides the join of (2, –4) and (5, 6) in theratio 5:3 externally.

3. Find the point of intersection of themedians of a triangle whose vertices are(–1, 0), (5, –2) and (8, 2).

4. Find the co-ordinates of the points oftrisection of a segments joining A(–3, 2)and B(9, 5).

5. Find the area of the triangle whosevertices are A(–4, –1), B(1, 2) and C(4,–3).

6. Find the equation of the line passingthrough (1, 1) and is parallel to 4x–5y+3= 0.

7. Find the equation of the line passingthrough (4, –3) and perpendicular to the

3a.

2

2 1 2 0A , B

3 1 5 3

− = = − −

2 4 2 5 1 2A , B , C

3 6 6 1 3 0

− = = =

1 2A ,

3 4

− = −

15Cot 17Sin

8Tan 16Sec

θ + θθ + θ

Tan + Sec 1 1 Sin

Tan Sec 1 Cos

θ θ − + θ=θ − θ + θ

2

2

P 1Sin

P 1

−θ =+

0.234

2

x 0

x 5xLt

x→

+

( )( )( )x

(3x 1) 2x 5Lt

x 3 3x 7→∞

− +− +

3

x 3

x 27Lt

x 3→

−−

MathematicsIMPORTANT QUESTIONS

Prove that alternate segment theorem

4 Marks Questions

2 Marks Questions

Matehmatics Paper-25 Marks Questions

Ýë„ìS ¿¶æÑ™èl VýS$Æý‡$ÐéÆý‡… 25 휺Ð]lÇ, 2010

11

line 2x–5y+4 = 0.8. Find the area of the triangle formed by

the line 2x – 4y –7 = 0 with the co-ordinate axis.

TRIGONOMETRY1. If Sinθ = 12/13 then find Cosθ and

Tanθ.2. If Tan(A–B) = 1/√3, SinA = 1/√2 find the

value of θ in circular measure.3. Show that 4(sin4 30 + cos460) –3 (cos245

– sin290) = 2.4. Prove that

5. Eliminate 'θ' x = aSinθ – bCosθ, y =aCosθ + bSinθ.

6. If sec θ =

then find sinθ.7. The angle of depression of a point 100

mts from the foot of the tree is 60°. Findthe height of the tree.

8. Show that (1–sin6θ + cos6θ) = 3sin2θ.cos2θ.

9. Find the value of 32 cot2π/4 – 8sec2π/3 +8cot3π/6.

MATRICES

1. If find order of M

and determine the matrix M.

2. If find m if AB = BA.

3. If show that

A2–(a+d) A = (bc–ad)I

4. If

then find B+A–1.

5. If then show that

A+A–1 = A–1A = I6. If

find x, y.

7. if find 'P'.

STATISTICS1. Write the merits of arithmetic mean.

2. Write the formula for mean by short cutmethod.

3. The mean of 20 observations is 12.5. Byan error, one observation is registered as–15 instead of 15. Find the correct mean.

4. Observation of some data arex/4, x, x/5, x/3, x/2, where x > 0.If the median of the data is 5. Find thevalue of x.

5. The mean and median of uni-modalgrouped data are 39 and 38 respectively.Find the mode.

6. Find the mean of 2/5, 5/3, 1/3, 5/6, 1/6.

COMPUTING1. What are the different boxes used in a

flow chart?2. State any four languages you have to

known, that are used in computers.3. What should be kept in mind while

writing an algorithm?4. Define algorithm and flow chart.5. What is meant by computer?

GEOMETRY1. When two polynomials are similar?2. Define converse of Pythagorian theorem.3. A man goes 150m due east and then

200m due north. How far is he from thestarting point?

4. If two circles of radii 5cm and 6cm. touchexternally, then the length of theirtransverse common tangent is ____

5. Write two conditions of similar triangles.6. Define Appollonius theorem.7. There is a circle of radius 3. From a point

P which is at a distance of 5cm from thecentre of the circle, a tangent is drawn tothe circle. Find the length of the tangent?

8. The circles of radii 5cm and 7cm. touchexternally, find the distance between theircenters.

9. In ∆ ABC, D and E are the points on ABand AC respectively. D is the mid point ofAB and DE||BC find AE/EC.

10. Define converse of alternate segmenttheorem.

ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY1. Find the slope and y-intercept of the line

x/a + y/b = 1.2. Find the slope of the perpendicular to

2x+3y+5 = 0.3. Two end points of the diameter in the

circle are (9, 3) and (1, –1). Find thecenter of the circle.

4. Find the area of the triangle enclosedbetween the co-ordinate axis and the linejoining the points (3, 0) and (0, 4).

5. Write the equation of the line passing

through (3, –5) and slope is 7/3.6. Write the equation of the line passing

through the points (4, –7) and (1, 5).7. Find the equation of the line 60° with the

positive direction of x-axis and having y-intercept is 3.

8. Find the distance between the two pointsA(7, 5) and B(2, 4).

9. Find the equation of the line makingintercepts 4 and –7 on the x and y-axis.

10. Find the equation of the line passingthrough (–2, 3) and making equalintercepts of x and y-axis.

TRIGONOMETRY1. Express the centesimal measure of 5πc/2.2. Eliminate 'θ' from x = 2Sinθ, y = 2Cosθ.3. Find the value of Cos0° + Sin90° + √2

Sin 45°.4. Prove that (Sinθ + Cosθ)2 + (Sinθ –

Cosθ)2 = 2.5. Show that Secθ (1–Sinθ) (Secθ + Tanθ) =

1.6. Find the value of Cot 240°.7. Prove that 1/Cosθ – Cosθ = Tanθ . Sinθ.8. Express Tanθ value interms of Secθ.9. Eliminate 'θ', x = Cosecθ + Cotθ and

y = Cosecθ – Cotθ.10. The radius of a circle is 14 cms. The

angle subtend by an arc of the circle at thecentre is 45°. Find the length of the arc.

MATRICES

1.find the

matrix 'X' satisfying A–B+x = 0.

2. Given find the matrix R

satisfying P+R = I.

3. If find A–1.

4. Define scalar and non-scalar matrices.5. Inverse does not exist the matrix

of

then find 'a'.

6. If find 'd'.

7. If

then find 3A+2B.

8. If find A + AT.

9. Iffind AB.

STATISTICS1. The observations of an ungrouped data are

x1, x2 and 2x1 and x1 < x2 < 2x1. If the mean

and median of the data are each equal to 6.

Find the observations of the data.

2. The sum of the 15 observations is 420then find mean.

3. The mean of 9, 11, 13, P, 18, 19 is P thenfind the value 'P'.

4. The mean of the ungrouped data is 9. Inevery observation multiplied by 3 and 1then find the mean of the new data.

5. Write Median formula for grouped data?6. The mean of 11 observations is 17.5. If an

observation 15 is deleted. Find the meanof the remaining observations.

COMPUTING1. In which bases the ability of the computer

is decided?2. Define Loop?3. Expand C.P.U.4. Draw the structure of computer block

diagram.5. What is meant by hardware?6. What are the different parts of C.P.U.?7. What is computer?

2 4 2 6A , B

6 0 1 3

− − = = −

1 3A

5 6

=

2 4 4 3A , B

6 5 5 7

− = = −

d 2 50

4 2

−=

−

2a 5

6 3

2 3A

5 1

=

3 5P ,

4 2

− = −

1 2 2 4A ; B ,

3 4 3 5

= =

1 3 2 P

0 1 1 1

= − −

3x 2y 6 5 6

2 2x 3y 2 1

+ = − −

7 4A

5 3

=

1 2 2 0A , B

1 3 5 3

= = −

a b 1 0A and I

c d 0 1

= =

1 4 2 mA , B ,

0 1 0 1 / 2

= = − −

( )1 2M 2 3

0 5

× =

m n

2 mn

+

1 CosCosec Cot

1 Cos

+ θ = θ + θ− θ

MathematicsIMPORTANT QUESTIONS

What is Meant by HardWare?

1 Marks Questions

Important symbols

1. Negation2. And3. Or4. Implie5. If and only if6. For all7. For some8. Belongs9. Not belongs10. Subset11. Superset12. Union13. Intersection14. Powerset15. Null set16. Complement of A17. Cartesion product of A, B is18. Identify function19. Discriminant20. Transpose of A21. Inverse of A22. Fistle funciton A to B23. Composite function of f and g24. Sum of first 'n' natural numbers

25. nth term26. Sum of 'n' terms27. Arithmetic mean28. Sum of frequencies

∼∼∧∧∨∨⇒⇒⇔⇔∀∀∃∃∈∈∉∉⊂⊂⊃⊃∪∪∩∩µµφφ

A1 / Ac

A × BI (A)∆∆ or D

A T

A–1

f:A→→BgofΣΣ ntnsnx

ΣΣf or N

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12

MathematicsDiscriptionsFormulas

PolynomialsItem

1. (x - α) (–x –β) < 0 ( α < β)2. (x - α) (x–β) > 0 ( α < β)

Explanation/formula1. Solution: α < x < β2. Solution: x < α ∪ x > β

Real Numbers

Item Problem1. Modules of a real number |x|2. |x| = a solution3. |x| ≤ a4. |x| ≥ a

5.

6.m m

n nx a

x aLt

x a→

− =−

n n

x a

x aLt

x a→

− =−

Formula1. |x| = x, if x > 0 = – x if x < 0 = 0 if x = 02. x = a or x = –a3. – a ≤ x ≤ a4. x ≥ a or x ≤ – a

5. nan–1

6. m/n am–n

Progressions

Item1. nth term in A.P.2. Sum of n terms in A.P.3. Arithmetic Mean of a, b4. nth term in G.P.5. Sum of n terms of G.P.

6. Geometric Mean of a, b7. nth term in H.P.8. Harmonic mean of a, b9. Σn10. Σn2

11. Σn3

Explanation / Formula1. tn = a+(n–1) d2. Sn = n/2[2a+(n–1) d] or = n/2 [a + l]3. A.M. = a+b/24. tn = a.rn–1

5. Sn = a(rn –1)/r–1 if r > 0 or= a(1–rn)/1–r if r < 0

6. G.M. = √ab7. tn = 1/a+(n–1) d8. H.M. = 2ab/a+b9. n(n+1)/210. n(n+1) (2n+1)/611. n2 (n+1)2/4

Discoveries in MathematicsTopic

1. Sets; 2. Binominal Theorem ; 3. Arithmetic Triangle ; 4. Σn, Σn3 formula5. Σn2 formula ; 6. Basic proportionality theorem; 7. Analytical Geometry ; 8. Trigonometrty; 9. Statistics ;10. Matrices ;

MathematicianGeorge ComptorNewtonPascalAryabhattaArchimedesThalesRene descartesHipparchusR.A. FisherAuthor Cayley

Analytical GeometryName1. Slope 'm'

2. Distance between two points

3. General equation of line4. Slope of ax+by+c = 05. Mid point6. Division of a segment internally m:n is7. Divisional of a segment externally in

the ratio8. Gradiant or slope form of line9. Slope - intercept form of line10. Slope - point form of line11. Two intercepts form of line12. Two points form of line13. Area of a triangle14. Centroid

Formula1. m = y2–y1/x2–x1

2.

3. ax + by + c = 04. m = –a/b5. (x1+x2/2, y1+y2/2)6. (mx2+nx1/m+n, my2+ny1/m+n)7. (mx2–nx1/m–n, my2–ny1/m+n)

8. y = mx9. y = mx+c10. y–y1 = m(x–x1)11. x/a + y/b = 112. (y–y1) (x2–x1) = (x–x1) (y2–y1)13. 1/2 | x1(y2–y3) + x2(y3–y1) + x3 (y1–y2) | 14. (x1+x2+x3 / 3, y1+y2+y3 / 3)

( ) ( )2 2

2 1 2 1x x y y− + −

Geometry

Item1. Basic proportionality

theorem2. vertical Angle

Bisector theorem3. Pythagorean theorem4. Appolonius theorem5. Circum Center

6. In center7. Centroid8. Orthocenter

Discription1. In ∆ABC, DE || BC then AD/DB = AE/EC

2. In ∆ABC, the Bisector of A intersect BC inD then AB/AC =BD/DC

3. In ∆ABC, right angled at B then AC2 = AB2 + BC2

4. ∆ABC, AD is Median, AN ⊥ BC then AB2 + AC2=2(BD2+AD2)5. Concurrence of perpendicular bisectors of the sides of the

Triangle6. Concurrence point of Angles bisects of the Triangle7. Concurrence of the Medians of a Triangle8. Concurrence of the heights of a Traingle

Matrices

Linear Programming1. Convex set

2. Linear ProgrammingProblem

3. Objective Function

4. Feasible Region5. ISO Profit line

1. x is convex if the line segment joining any two points P, Qin x is contained in x

2. Minimising or Maximising a function f = ax + 1 a, b ∈ R

3. In L.P.P, the expression f = ax+by, which is to be Maximisedor Minimised.

4. A set of points which satisfy all the constraints of L.P.P.5. Any line belonging to the system of parallel lines given by

the objective function for various values of the objectivefunction.

1. A = AT is Symmetric Matrix2. AT = –A is non-Symmetric Matrix.3. If AB = BA = I then B = A–1

4. If A = then

A–1 = 1/ad–bc

5. If number of columns of the matrix A isequal to number of rows of the matrixthen AB is exist.

6. If AX = B then X = A–1B.

d b

c a

− −

a b

c d

Trigonometry1. Sinθ. Cosecθ = 1

Cosθ.Secθ = 1Tanθ.Cotθ = 1

2. Sin2θ + Cos2θ = 1Sec2θ – Tan2θ = 1Cosec2θ – Cot2θ = 1

3. Sin0° = Cos90° = 0Sin 30° = Cos 60° = 1/2Sin 45° = Cos 45° = 1/√2Sin 60° = Cos 30° = √3/2 Sin 90° = Cos0° = 1

4. Range of Sinθ = [–1, 1]Range of Cosθ = [–1, 1]Range of Tanθ = (–α, α)

Statistics1. Ungrouped data mean = Σx/n2. Grouped data mean = Σfx/N3. By-short cut method mean =

4. Grouped data median =

5. Grouped data mode =

6. The relation between Mean, Median andMode isMode = 3 Median – 2 Mean.

( )( )

11

1 2 1 2

f f CCL or L

2f f f

−∆+ +∆ + ∆ − +

fdA C

N

Σ+ ×

N / 2 FL C

f

−+ ×

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