(1*) 22.4 l (2) 11.2 l (3) 16.8 l (4) 14.93 lelpd.resonance.ac.in/aipmtdownload/xii/1....

1. Insulin contains 3.2% sulphur (atomic mass 32 gmol�1) by mass. Which of the following can be the

maximum molecular weight (gmol�1) of insulin :

bUlqfyu nzO;eku ds vuqlkj 3.2% lYQj (ijek.kq nzO;eku 32 gmol�1) ;qDr gSA fuEu esa ls bUlqfyu dk vf/kdre

v.kqHkkj (gmol�1) gks ldrk gS :

(1) 100 (2) 320 (3) 3200 (4*) 1000

2. What volume of 1 M NaOH is required to react with 44.8 L of CO2 at STP to form Na2CO3?

STP ij 44.8 L, CO2 ds lkFk fØ;k djds Na2CO3 cukus ds fy, 1 M NaOH ds fdrus vk;ru dh vko';drk gS\

(1) 1 L (2) 2 L (3) 3 L (4*) 4 L

Sol. (4)

1 V2

=2, V = 4 L

3. The compound having empirical formula mass 30 u can be

(1) Glucose (2) Formic acid (3) Acetic acid (4*) Both (1) and (3)

ewykuqikrh lw=k nzO;eku 30 u okyk ;kSfxd gks ldrk gSA

(1) Xywdksl (2) QkWfeZd vEy (3) ,lhfVd vEy (4*) (1) ,oa (3) nksuksa

Sol. (4)

Mass of glucose is 108 u and acetic acid 60 u.

Xywdksl dk nzO;eku 108 u rFkk ,lhfVd vEy dk 60 u gSA

4. In a chemical reaction, 4A + 3B + 7C D

the initial number of moles of A, B and C are 0.7, 0.35, 0.25 respectively. The limiting reagent will be

(1) A (2) B (3*) C (4) It is a complete reaction

,d jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k,

4A + 3B + 7C D

esa A, B o C ds izkjfEHkd eksy Øe'k% 0.7, 0.35, 0.25 gSaA rks lhekUr vfHkdkjd gksxk %

(1) A (2) B (3*) C (4) ;g ,d iw.kZ vfHkfØ;k gS

Sol. (3)

"C" will consume completely.

"C" iw.kZ :i ls iz;qDr gksrk gSA

5. One mole P4 will liberate what volume of PH3 at NTP if it undergoes disproportionation into

�

2 2H PO and PH3

in basic medium ?

NTP ij ,d eksy P4 {kkjh; ek/;e esa �

2 2H PO rFkk PH3 ds lkFk fo"kekuqikru ij PH3 dk fdruk vk;ru eqDr djsxk

\

(1*) 22.4 L (2) 11.2 L (3) 16.8 L (4) 14.93 L

6. One mole of KMnO4 will oxidise how many moles of FeC2O4 completely in acid medium ?

,d eksy KMnO4 vEyh; ek/;e esa iw.kZ :i ls FeC2O4 ds fdrus eksy vkWDlhd r djsxk ?

(1) 5 moles (2) 52

moles (3) 25

moles (4*) 53

moles

7. Which of the following is not correct?

fuEu esa ls dkSulk lgh ugha gSa\

(1) n = 4, I = 2, m = �1 (2) n = 4, I = 3, m = +1

(3) n = 2, I = 1, m = 0 (4*) n = 3, I = 3, m = 2

8. A sample of Zn (atomic mass = 65 gmol�1) weighing 1 g reacted completely with 40 mL of 0.1 M

K4[Fe(CN)6] according to the following reaction :

3Zn2+ + 2K4[Fe(CN)6] K2Zn3[Fe(CN)6]2 + 6K+

The % by mass of zinc in the sample is :

,d Zn izkn'kZ (ijek.kq nzO;eku = 65 gmol�1) dk 1 g fuEu vfHkfØ;k vuqlkj 40 mL 0.1 M K4[Fe(CN)6] ds lkFk iw.kZr%

fØ;k djrk gS :

3Zn2+ + 2K4[Fe(CN)6] K2Zn3[Fe(CN)6]2 + 6K+

izkn'kZ esa ftad dk nzO;eku izfr'kr gS :

(1) 19 (2) 29 (3*) 39 (4) 49

9. If a cation has electronic configuration [Ar]3d5 and is represented as M3+ then the metal will be

;fn ,d /kuk;u dk bysDVªkWfud foU;kl [Ar]3d5 rFkk bls M3+ }kjk iznf'kZr fd;k tkrk gS] rks /kkrq gksxh %

(1) Mn (2*) Fe (3) Cu (4) Co

10. Which of the following is a redox reaction ?

fuEu esa ls mikip;u ¼jsMkWDl½ vfHkfØ;k gS \

(1) 4FeCl3 + 3K4[Fe(CN)6] Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 + 12KCl

(2) 2KOH + K2Cr2O7 2K2CrO4 + H2O

(3*) K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 + 4H2O2 2CrO5 + 5H2O + K2SO4

(4) All of these (mijksDr lHkh)

11. How many electrons have (n + ) = 5 in the ground state configuration of Kr (Z=36) ?

Kr (Z=36) dh vk| voLFkk foU;kl esa fdrus bysDVªkWu (n + ) = 5 j[krs gSa \

(1) 18 (2*) 16 (3) 6 (4) 2

12. The formula of oxide of an element M having IE1 = 100 kJ, IE2 = 250 kJ and IE3 = 1500 kJ should be

IE1 = 100 kJ, IE2 = 250 kJ ,oa IE3 = 1500 kJ okys rRo M ds vkWDlkbM dk lw=k gksuk pkfg,

(1) M2O (2) MO2 (3) M2O3 (4*) MO

Sol. (4)

IE3 is high (noble gas configuration)

IE3 mPp gS ¼mRd "V xSl foU;kl½

13. A compound contains 2% sulphur by mass. The minimum molecular mass of the compound is :

,d ;kSfxd nzO;eku ds vuqlkj 2% lYQj j[krk gSA ;kSfxd dk U;wure v.kqHkkj fuEu gS %

(1*) 1600 amu (2) 800 amu (3) 1600 g (4) 800g

Sol. x × 2

100 = 32

x = 1600 amu

14. How many electrons can have m = 0 (magnetic quantum number) in Fe3+ ion (z=26) ?

Fe3+ vk;u (z=26) esa fdrus bysDVªkWu m = 0 (pqEcdh; Dok.Ve la[;k) j[krs gSa \

(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4*) 11

15. Which of the following element has highest third ionization enthalpy (IE3)?

fuEu esa ls fdl rRo dh rrh; vk;uu ,sUFkSYih (IE3) mPpre gS\

(1) Li (2) Ne (3) F (4*) Be

Sol. (4)

Third electron is removed from noble gas configuration

rrh; bysDVªkWu mRd "V xSl foU;kl ls fu"dkflr gksrk gSA

16. Which of the following species do not show disproportion reaction :

dkSulh Lih'kht fo"kekuqikrh vfHkfØ;k ugha n'kkZrh gS %

(1) NO2

(2) ClO2 (3) 2HPO3

(4*) ClO4

Sol. ClO4 does not disproportionate because in this oxoanion chlorine is present in its highest oxidation

state.

ClO4 fo"kekuqikrh ugha gksrk gS D;ksafd bl vkWDlks _ .kk;u esa Dyksjhu mPpre vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk esa mifLFkr jgrh

gSA

17. The fraction of the total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is :

,d ljy ?ku esa mifLFkr ijek.kqvksa }kjk ?ksjs x;s dqy vk;ru dk izHkkt fuEu gS :

(1) 4

(2*) 6

(3) 3 2

(4)

4 2

Sol. For simple cubic Radius (r) = a2

Volume of the atom =43

3

a2

Packing fraction =

3

3

4 a3 2

a

=

6

ljy ?kuh; ds fy, f=kT;k (r) = a2

ijek.kq dk vk;ru =43

3

a2

ladqyu izHkkt =

3

3

4 a3 2

a

=

6

18. In a FCC lattice of X and Y, X atoms are present at the corners while Y atoms are at face centers.Then the

formula of the compound would be if one of the X atoms from a corner is replaced by Z atoms (also

monovalent)?

X o Y ds FCC tkyd esa] X ijek.kq dksuksa ij rFkk Y ijek.kq Qyd ds dsUnz ij mifLFkr gaSA ;fn dksuksa ij mifLFkr X

ijek.kqvksa esa ls ,d dks Z (,dy la;ksth) ijek.kq }kjk cny fn;k tk;s] rc bl ;kSfxd dk lw=k D;k gksxk \

(1) X7Y24Z2 (2*) X7Y24Z (3) X24Y7Z (4) XY24Z

Sol. X = 7x 18

=78

; Y = 12

x 6 = 3. ; Z =18

. X7/8 Y3 Z1/8 = X7 Y24 Z

19. What is the algebric sum of spin quantum numbers of all the electrons in Ni2+ (Z=28) ion ?

Ni2+ (Z=28) vk;u esa lHkh bysDVªkWuksa ds pØ.k Dok.Ve la[;kvksa dk chtxf.krh; ;ksx D;k gksxk?

(1) Zero ('kwU;) (2*) +1 or �1

(3) +4 or �4 (4) None of these (buesa ls dksbZ ugha)

20. Schottky defect occurs mainly in electrovalent compounds where :

(1) positive ions and negative ions are of different size

(2*) positive ions and negative ions are of same size

(3) positive ions are small and negative ions are big

(4) posiive ions are big and negative ions are small.

'kkWV~dh nks"k eq[; :i ls oS|qr la;ksth ;kSfxd esa izkIr gksrk gS tgk¡ :

(1) /kukRed vk;u o _ .kkRed vk;u fHkUu vkdkj ds gSaA

(2*) /kukRed vk;u o _ .kkRed vk;u leku vkdkj ds gSaA

(3) /kukRed vk;u NksVk o _ .kkRed vk;u cM+k gksrk gSaA

(4) /kukRed vk;u cM+k o _ .kkRed vk;u NksVk gksrk gaSA

Sol. Schottky defect ocure in electrovalent compound which has same bond size positive and negative ion.

'kksV~dh nks"k eq[; :i ls oS|qr la;ksth ;kSfxd esa izkIr gksrk gS tgk¡ : /kukRed vk;u o _ .kkRed vk;u leku vkdkj

ds gSA

21. Which of the following is incorrect ?

fuEu esa ls dkSulk xyr gS \

(1) Paramagnetic moment (spin only) for Co3+ (Z=27) ion is 4.9 B.M.

(2) Orbital angular momentum of the unpaired electron in Cu+2 (Z=29) is 3 h

.2

(3*) IIIrd I.E. for Al (Z=13) is less than its IInd I.E.

(4) Na+ is smaller than F�

(1) Co3+ (Z=27) vk;u ds fy, vuqpqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ ¼dsoy pØ.k½ 4.9 B.M gSA

(2) Cu+2 (Z=29) esa v;qfXer bysDVªkWuksa dk d{kh; dks.kh; laosx 3 h

.2

gSA

(3*) Al (Z=13) ds fy, rrh; vk;uu Å tkZ bldh f}rh; vk;uu Å tkZ ls de gksrh gSA

(4) Na+ , F� ls NksVk gksrk gSA

22. For a '3d' electron which of the following values for (n + + m) is not possible :

'3d' bysDVªkWu ds fy, dkSulk eku (n + + m) ds fy,

(1) 6 (2) 7 (3*) 8

(4) All of these are not possible (mijksDr lHkh lEHko ugha gS)

23. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is :

:fcfM;e ijek.kq (Z = 37) ds fy;s osySUlh bySDVªkWuksa ds mfpr pkj DokUVe uEcjksa dk lsV gksrk gS %

(1*) 5, 0, 0, +12

(2) 5, 1, 0, + 12

(3) 5,1, 1, +12

(4) 5, 0, 1, +12

Sol. Z = 37.

Rb is in fifth period.

[Kr]5s1 is its configuration.

So n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = +12

or � 12

gy- Z = 37.

Rb ik¡pos vkorZ dk rRo gSA

bldk foU;kl -Kr]5s1 gS

vr% n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = +12

or �12

24. An ionic solid A+B� has NaCl type crystal structure with edge length of the unit cell equal to 4Å and its

molar mass be 96 gmol�1. The density of the solid will be nearly :

,d vk;fud Bksl A+B�, NaCl izdkj dh fØLVy lajpuk j[krk gS ftldh ,dd dksf"Bdk dksj yEckbZ 4Å gS rFkk

bldk eksyj nzO;eku 96 gmol�1 gSA Bksl dk ?kuRo yxHkx gksxk &

(1*) 10 g/cc (2) 15 g/cc (3) 5 g/cc (4) 2.5 g/cc

25. The number of next nearest atoms in a simple cubic lattice of a metal is :

,d /kkrq ds ,d ljy ?kuh; tkyd esa vxys fudVre ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k gS %

(1) 6 (2*) 12 (3) 4 (4) 8

26. Which is correct for an ideal rock salt type crystal structure ?

,d vkn'kZ jkWd lkYV izdkj dh fØLVy lajpuk ds fy, fuEu esa ls lgh gS \

(1) a (edge length) = 2 (r++r�) (2) Coordination number of cation = C.No. of anion = 6

(3) r+/r� = 0.414 (4*) all are correct

(1) a (dksj yEckbZ) = 2 (r++r�) (2) /kuk;u dh leUo; la[;k = _ .kk;u dh leUo; la[;k = 6

(3) r+/r� = 0.414 (4*) mijksDr lHkh lgh gSaA

27. In zinc blend structure the coordination number of Zn2+ ion is

ZnS ftad CySaM@lajpuk esa Zn2+ vk;uksa dh leUo; la[;k D;k gS

(1) 2 (2*) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8

Sol. Coordination number of Zn2+ ion in Zinc blende = 4.

Zn2+ ion present in half of tetrahedral void formed by S2� in fcc unit cells.

ZnS ftad CySaM@lajpuk esa Zn2+ vk;uksa dh leUo; la[;k = 4.

Zn2+ vk;u] S2� vk;u ls fufeZr fcc ,dd dksf"Bdk esa vkèkh prq"Qydh; fjfDr;ksa esa mifLFkr gksrs gSA

28. Total no. of bond, bond & lone pair of electrons in enolic form of acetone is

(1*) 9, 1, 2 lone pair (2) 10, 2, 1 lone pair

(3) 8, 1, 2 lone pair (4) 5, 3, 0 lone pair

,lhVksu ds bZuksfyd :i eas ca/k, ca/k o bysDVªkWuksa ds ,dkdh ;qXe dh dqy la[;k fuEu gS

(1*) 9, 1, 2 lone pair (2) 10, 2, 1 lone pair

(3) 8, 1, 2 lone pair (4) 5, 3, 0 lone pair

29. How many structural isomers are obtain after monochlorination of n-decane?

n-Msdsu ds eksuksDyksjhuhdj.k ls fdrus lajpukRed leko;ooh curs gSa \

(1*) 5 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1

30. Total cyclic structures of C4H6 will be ?

C4H6 dh dqy pfØ; lajpuk,a gksaxh ?

(1) 3 (2*) 5 (3) 2 (4) 6

31. Which one will not give 3-monochloroderivatives ?

fuEu esa ls dkSu 3-eksuksDyksjks O;qRiUu ugha nsxk?

(1*) (2) (3) (4)

32. Which amongst the following carbonyl compounds will not give positive iodoform test ?

fuEu dkcksZfuy ;kSfxd esa ls dkSulk /kukREkd vk;ksMksQkWeZ ijh{k.k ugha nsxk \

(1) (2) CH3�CH=O (3) (4*) CH3�CH2�CH=O

33. Which compound would give 5-keto-2-methylhexanol upon ozonolysis?

fuEu esa ls dkSulk ;kSfxd vkstksuhvi?kVu ij 5-dhVks-2-esfFkygsDlsukWy nsxk?

(1) (2*) (3) (4)

34. How many alcohols give immediate turbidity with lucas reagent having molecular formula (C5H12O)

(C5H12O) v.kqlw=k okys fdrus ,YdksgkWy Y;wdkWl vfHkdeZd ds lkFk rqjUr xanykiu nsrs gSa \

(1*) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Sol.

35. An alkene on ozonolysis produces 2-butanone only. The alkene is :

(1) 2-Butene (2) 2, 3-Dimethyl-2-butene

(3*) 3, 4-Dimethyl-3-hexene (4) 2, 5-Dimethyl-3-hexene

fuEu esa ls dkSulh ,Ydhu vktksuhvi?kVu ij dsoy 2-C;wVsuksu nsrh gS %

(1) 2-C;wVhu (2) 2, 3-MkbesfFky -2-C;wVhu

(3*) 3, 4-MkbesfFky -3-gsDlhu (4) 2, 5-MkbesfFky -3-gsDlhu

Sol.

36. An alkene gives two moles of HCHO, one mole of CO2 and one mole of OHC�CH(CH3)�CHO on

ozonolysis. What is the structure of alkene ?

,d ,Ydhu vkstksuhvi?kVu ij nks eksy HCHO, ,d eksy CO2 rFkk ,d eksy OHC�CH(CH3)�CHO nsrh gSA bl

,Ydhu dh lajpuk gksxh \

(1) (2)

(3) (4*)

Sol. 3 2O / Zn H O 2HCHO + CO2 + OHC�CH(CH3)�CHO

37. In (CH3)4C which kind of carbon atoms are present :

(1) Primary and tertiary (2*) Primary and quaternary

(3) Only primary (4) Only secondary

(CH3)4C esa dkSuls izdkj ds dkcZu ijek.kq mifLFkr gS %

(1) izkFkfed ,oa rrh;d (2*) izkFkfed ,oa prq"d

(3) dsoy izkFkfed (4) dsoy f}rh;d

38. How many C�C sigma () bonds are present in the given compound?

fn;s x;s ;kSfxd esa fdrus C�C flXek () ca/k mifLFkr gS \

(1*) 10 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 5

39. Which is the correct IUPAC name of

(1*) 3-Amino-5-nitro cyclohexane-1-carbonitrile (2) 5-Amino-3-nitro cyclohexane-1-carbonitrile

(3) 3-Cyano-5-nitro cyclohexane-1-amine (4) 1-Amino-3-cyano-5-nitro cyclohexane

;kSfxd dk lgh IUPAC uke dkSulk gSA

(1*) 3-,ehuks-5-ukbVªks lkbZDyksgsDlsu-1-dkcksZukbVªkby (2) 5-,ehuks-3-ukbVªks lkbZDyksgsDlsu-1-dkcksZukbVªkby

(3) 3-lk;uks-5-ukbVªks lkbZDyksgsDlsu-1-,ehu (4) 1-,ehuks-3-lk;uks-5-ukbVªks lkbZDyksgsDlsu

40. Hybridisation of carbon atoms in smallest ketone (Acetone) is :

(1) sp & sp2 (2*) sp2 & sp3 (3) sp & sp3 (4) only sp3

lcls NksVs dhVksu ¼,lhVksu½ esa dkcZu ijek.kq dk ladj.k gS :

(1) sp rFkk sp2 (2*) sp2 rFkk sp3 (3) sp rFkk sp3 (4) dsoy sp3

41. What is incorrect about benzene ?

(1) It has total 12 and 3 bonds. (2) It is the unsaturated compound.

(3) It has CH empirical formula. (4*) It has CnH2n-4 general formula.

csUthu ds fo"k; esa vlR; dFku dkSulk gS \

(1) ;g dqy 12 rFkk 3 ca/k j[krk gSA (2) ;g ,d vlarIr ;kSfxd gSA

(3) bldk ewykuqikrh lw=k CH gSA (4*) bldk lkekU; lw=k CnH2n-4 gSA

42. What is the correct IUPAC name of (CH3)4C ?

(1) Tetramethyl methane (2) Trimethylethane

(3*) Dimethyl propane (4) Pentane

(CH3)4C dk lgh IUPAC uke D;k gS \

(1) VsVªkesfFky esFksu (2) VªkbesfFky ,sFksu

(3*) MkbZesfFky izksisu (4) isUVsu

43. Which is the functional isomers of 2-Butanol ?

(1) Butan-2-one (2) Dimethyl ether (3) 1-Butanol (4*) Diethyl ether

fuEu esa ls dkSulk 2-C;wVsukWy dk fØ;kRed leko;oh gS ?

(1) C;wVsu-2-vkWu (2) MkbZesfFky bZFkj (3) 1-C;wVsukWy (4*) MkbZ,fFky bZFkj

Sol. 2-Butanol is i.e. C4H10O

Diethyl ether is CH3�CH2�O�CH2�CH3 i.e. C4H10O

2-C;wVsukWy vFkkZr~ C4H10O gS

MkbZ,fFky bZFkj CH3�CH2�O�CH2�CH3 vFkkZr~ C4H10O gS

44. Which is/are functional isomers with Butanoic acid?

(1) Methyl propanoate (2) 3-Hydroxybutanal

(3) Ethyl ethanoate (4*) All of these

fuEu esa ls dkSulk@ls ;kSfxd C;wVsukWbd vEy ds fØ;kRed leko;oh gSa ?

(1) esfFky izksisuks,V (2) 3-gkbMªksDlhC;wVsuSy

(3) ,fFky,Fksuks,V (4*) mijksDr lHkh

Sol. All have same molecular formula but different functional group.

lHkh ;kSfxdksa ds v.kqlw=k leku gS ysfdu buds fØ;kRed lewg fHkUu gSA

45. Acetaldehyde and acetylene can not be distinguished by :

(1) Tollen�s reagent (2) Fehling solution (3*) Lucas reagent (4) Iodoform test

fuEu esa ls fdl vfHkdeZd dk mi;ksx djus ij ,lhVSfYMgkbM rFkk ,lhfVyhu ds e/; foHksnu ugha fd;k tk ldrk gS %

(1) VkWysu vfHkdeZd (2) Qsgfyax foy;u (3*) Y;wdkWl vfHkdeZd (4) vk;ksMksQkWeZ ijh{k.k

Sol. Lucas reagent can not be used to distinguished Acetaldehyde and acetylene.

,lhVSfYMgkbM rFkk ,lhfVyhu dks Y;wdkWl vfHkdeZd }kjk foHksfnr ugha fd;k tk ldrk gSA

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This section contains 45 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out

of which ONLY ONE is correct.

lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj

bl [k.M esa 45 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u ds 4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d lgh gSA

46. A particle is moving along straight line with initial velocity 48 m/sec and acceleration �10m/s2. The distance travelled by particle in 5th second is :

,d d.k ljy js[kh; iFk ij izkjfEHkd osx 48 m/sec rFkk Roj.k �10m/s2 ls xfr dj jgk gSA viuh ;k=kk ds 5 osa lsd.M esa d.k }kjk r; dh xbZ nwjh gksxh %

(1) 3m (2) 115 m (3*) 175

m (4) 145

m

Sol. u = 48 m/sec a = � 10 m/s2 so, by v = u + at 0 = 48 � 10 t so, t = 4.8 s this means that the particle comes to rest at t = 4.8 s and turns back covering some distance

backwards for rest of the motion. for the forward journey distance travelled in last 0.8 second before stopping and returning will be (s4.8 � s4) where, s4.8 and s4 are distances travelled in 4.8 seconds and 4 seconds respectively.

s4.8 = 48 × 4.8 +12

× �10 × 4.82 = 48 × 2.4

s4 = 48 × 4 +12

× � 10 × 42 = 16 × 7

(s4.8 � s4) = (48 × 2.4 ) � (16 × 7)

Distance travelled 0.2 s during backward journey = s0.2 = 12

× 10 × 0.22 = 0.2 m

So, total distance travelled = (48 × 2.4 ) � (16 × 7) + 0.2 = 175

m. Ans.

Sol. u = 48 m/sec a = � 10 m/s2 vr%, v = u + at ds vuqlkj 0 = 48 � 10 t vr%, t = 4.8 s

bldk eryc gS fd d.k t = 4.8 s ij fojkekoLFkk esa vk tkrk gS rFkk eqM+dj ckdh le; ds fy, ihNs dh vksj pyrk gSA

vkxs dh fn'kk esa ;k=kk ds fy, :d dj yksVus esa vkf[kjh 0.8 lSd.M esa r; dh xbZ nwjh (s4.8 � s4) gksxh

tgk¡, s4.8 rFkk s4 Øe'k% 4.8 lSd.M rFkk 4 lSd.M esa r; dh xbZ nwfj;k¡ gSaA

s4.8 = 48 × 4.8 + 12

× �10 × 4.82 = 48 × 2.4

s4 = 48 × 4 + 12

× � 10 × 42 = 16 × 7

(s4.8 � s4) = (48 × 2.4 ) � (16 × 7)

ihNs dh vksj ;k=kk ds fy, 0.2 s esa r; dh xbZ nwjh = s0.2 = 12

× 10 × 0.22 = 0.2 m

vr% r; dh xbZ dqy nwjh = (48 × 2.4 ) � (16 × 7) + 0.2 = 175

m. Ans.

47. A particle is projected from ground in vertical direction at t = 0. At t = 0.8 sec, it reaches h = 14m. It will again come to same height at t = [ g = 10 m/s² ]

,d d.k dks iFoh ry ls t = 0 ij m/okZ/kj Å ij dh vksj iz{ksfir fd;k tkrk gSA t = 0.8 sec ij ;g d.k /kjrh ls h = 14m Å apkbZ ij gksrk gSA ;g nksckjk iFoh ls mruh Å apkbZ ij t = ___ ij vkrk gSA [ g = 10 m/s² ]

(1) 2 sec. (2) 145

sec. (3) 3 sec. (4*) 72

sec.

Sol. Taking upward direction as positive initial velocity can be obtained by II equ. of motion i.e. s = ut + 1/2 at2 considering motion from C to A






14 = u × 0.8 � 12

× 10 × 0.82

so, u = 432

m/s

(ii) Let magnitude of velocity at point A = v so, v = u � gt

v = 432

� 10 × 0.8 = 272

m/s

(iii) Hence time taken from A to B i.e. till same level = 2vg

= 2.7 s

Hence the time instant at which the particle comes to same level = 0.8 + 2.7 = 3.5 s Ans.

Sol. Å ij d h vksj fn'kk dks /kukRed ysrs gq,

xfr ds nwljs lehdj.k ls çkjfEHkd osx u Kkr fd;k tk ldrk gS% i.e. s = ut + 1/2 at2 C ls A rd dh xfr ds fy,

14 = u × 0.8 �12

× 10 × 0.82

vr%, u = 432

m/s

(ii) ekuk fd fcUnq A ij osx dk ifjek.k = v

vr%, v = u � gt

v = 432

� 10 × 0.8 =272

m/s

(iii) vr% A ls B rd fy;k x;k le; vFkkZr~ leku ry rd = 2vg

= 2.7 s

vr% og {k.k tc d.k leku Å ¡pkbZ ij gksrk gS = 0.8 + 2.7 = 3.5 s Ans.

48. Two particles are projected vertically upwards with the same velocity on two different planets with acceleration due to gravities g1 and g2 respectively. If they fall back to their initial points of projection after lapse of time t1 and t2 respectively, then

nks d.k Å /okZ/kj Å ij dh vksj fofHkUu xzgksa ij leku osx ls iz{ksfir fd;s tkrs gaS] tgk¡ xq:Roh; Roj.k Øe'k% g1 rFkk g2 gSA ;fn ;s d.k Øe'k% le; t1 o t2 le; ds i'pkr~ iz{ksi.k fcUnq ij fxjrs gSa] rks

(1) t1 t2 = g1 g2 (2*) t1g1 = t2 g2 (3) t1 g2 = t2 g1 (4) t1 + t2 = g1 + g2

Sol. t1 = 1

2ug

and rFkk t2 = 2

2ug

where, u is initial velocity of each ball and t1, t2 are total times of flight. from here, g1 t1 = g2t2 = 2u

tgkW u izR;sd xsan dk izkjfEHkd osx gS ,oa t1, t2 mM~M;u dky gSA ;gka ls g1 t1 = g2t2 = 2u

49. A particle at a height ' h ' from the ground is projected with an angle 30° from the horizontal, it strikes

the ground making an angle 45° with horizontal. It is again projected from the same point with the same

speed but with an angle of 60° with horizontal. Find the angle it makes with the horizontal when it strikes the ground :

tehu ls h Å ¡pkbZ ij ,d d.k dks {kSfrt ls 30° ds dks.k ij iz{ksfir fd;k tkrk gSA ;g tehu ¼{ksfrt½ ls 45°

dks.k ij Vdjkrk gSA bldks iqu% mlh Å ¡pkbZ ls mlh leku pky ls ijUrq {kSfrt ls 60° dks.k ij iz{ksfir fd;k tk; rks tehu ls Vdjkrs le; {kSfrt ls cuk;k x;k dks.k gS &

(1) tan1 (4) (2) tan1 (5) (3*) tan1 ( 5 ) (4) tan1 ( 3 )

Sol. Using v = 2u 2gh ds iz;ksx ls






v = 2 2u sin 2gh (vertical comp. when striking) m/okZ/kj ?kVd] tc Vdjkrs gS

Now vc tan 45° = 1

u cos = 2 2u sin 2gh

u2 cos2 = u2 sin2 + 2gh .....(1)

u2 3 14 4

= 2gh

u2 = 4gh u = 2 gh

tan = H

VV =

34gh. 2gh

41

2 gh2

= 5gh

gh = 5

50. A particle moves in the xy plane with only an x-component of acceleration of 2 m s�2. The particle starts from the origin at t = 0 with an initial velocity having an x-component of 8 m s�1 and y-component of �15 ms�1. Velocity of particle after time t is :

(1*) [(8 + 2t) �i � 15 �j ] m s�1 (2) zero

(3) 2t �i + 15 �j (4) directed along z-axis.

x-y ry esa xfr'khy d.k ds Roj.k dk x�?kVd 2 ms�2 gSA d.k t = 0 ij ewy fcUnq ls xfr izkjEHk djrk gSA izkjfEHkd osx dk x-?kVd 8 ms�1 rFkk y-?kVd �15 ms�1 gks rks t le; i'pkr d.k dk osx gksxk &

(1*) [(8 + 2t) �i � 15 �j ] m s�1 (2) 'kwU;

(3) 2t �i + 15 �j (4) z-v{k ds vuqfn'k funsZf'kr

51. A projectile is thrown with velocity v making an angle with the horizontal. It just crosses the top of two poles, each of height h, after 1 second and 3 second respectively. The time of flight of the projectile is

,d iz{kSI; dks {kSfrt ls dks.k ij v osx ls Qsadk tkrk gSA ;g leku Å ¡pkbZ h ds nks [kEcksa ls Øe'k% le; 1

lSd.M rFkk 3 lSd.M i'pkr~ xqtjrk gSA rks iz{ksI; dk mM~M;u dky gS & (1) 1 s (2) 3 s (3*) 4 s (4) 7.8 s.

Sol. t(OS) = 1 sec t(OT) = 3

or ;k t(ST) = t(OT) � t(OS) = 3 � 1 = 2 sec






t(SM) = 12

t(ST) = 1 sec.

` t(OM) = t(OS) + t(SM) = 1 + 1 = 2sec.

Time of flight mM~M;u dky = 2 × 2 = 4 sec. Ans. "C"

52. A body has an initial velocity of 3 ms�1 and has an acceleration of 1 ms�2 normal to the direction of the initial velocity. Then its velocity, 4 second after the start is

(1) 7 ms�1 along the direction of initial velocity (2) 7 ms�1 along the normal to the direction of the initial velocity (3) 7 ms�1 mid-way between the two directions

(4*) 5 ms�1 at an angle of 1 4tan

3 with the direction of the initial velocity

,d xasn dk izkjfEHkd osx 3 ms�1 rFkk izkjfEHkd osx dh fn'kk ds yEcor~ Roj.k 1 ms�2 gSA rks izkjEHk gksus ds 4 sec i'pkr osx gksxk &

(1) izkjfEHkd osx dh fn'kk esa 7 ms�1 (2) izkjfEHkd osx dh fn'kk ls yEcor~ 7 ms�1

(3) nksuksa fn'kkvksa ds e/; esa 7 ms�1 (4*) izkjfEHkd osx dh fn'kk ls 1 4tan

3 ds dks.k ij 5 ms�1

Sol. u= 3m/s �l a = �j m/s

a is u (a, u ds yEcor~ gS)

so V after 4 sec rks 4 ls- ckn v v = a × t = 4 × 1 = 4 �j m/s

RV

= 2 2u v = 2 23 4

RV

=5 m/s

and vkSj tan =43

= tan �1 43

with the direction of the initial velocity. izkjfEHkd osx dh fn'kk ds lkFk

53. A mass M is suspended by a rope from a rigid support at A as shown in figure. Another rope is tied at the end B, and it is pulled horizontally with a force F. If the rope AB makes an angle with the vertical in equilibrium, then the tension in the string AB is :

fp=kkuqlkj ,d M nzO;eku dks jLlh dh lgk;rk ls n< vk/kkj ij fcUnq A ls yVdk;k x;k gSA ,d nwljh jLlh fcUnq B ij ca/kh gS vkSj bldks {kSfrt fn'kk esa cy F ls [khapk tkrk gSA ;fn jLlh AB Å /okZ/kj ls dks.k cukrh gks rks jLlh AB esa ruko gksxk &






(1) F sin (2) F/sin (3) F cos (4*) F/cos

Sol.

Point A is mass less so net force on it most be zero otherwise it will have acceleration. fcUnq A nzO;ekujfgr gS blfy;s bl ij dqy cy 'kwU; gksxk vU;Fkk bldk Roj.k gksxkA F � T cos = 0 [Equilibrium of A in horizontal direction] [{kSfrt fn'kk esa A dh lkE;koLFkk]

T = F

cos

54. If a projectile is thrown such that range [R] is four times than the height [h] attained then angle of projection is-

;fn ,d iz{ksI; bl izdkj Qsadk tk;s dh bldh ijkl (R) Å ¡pkbZ (H) dh pkj xquh gks rks iz{ksi.k dks.k gksxk& (1) 30° (2*) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90°

Sol. R = 2u sin2

g

H = 2 2u sin

2g

R = 4 H

2u sin2

g

= 4 2 2u sin

2g

sin 2 = 2 sin2 2 sin cos = 2 sin2 tan = 1 = 45º

55. A particle of mass 0.01 kg is projected with velocity v = 2 i m/s from point (x = 0, y = 20). After 2 second, its position coordinates are-

fcUnq (x = 0, y = 20) ls 0.01 fdxzk nzO;eku dk ,d d.k v = 2 i eh-@ls- osx ls iz{ksfir fd;k tkrk gS] 2 lsd.M i'pkr~ blds fLFkfr funsZ'kkad gksxsa&

(1*) (4, 0) (2) 20, 4 (3) 0, 4 (4) 4, 20

56. A boat is rowed across a r iver at the rate of 4.5 km/hr. The r iver f lows at the rate of 6 km/hr. The velocity of boat in m/s is:

,d uko 4.5 km/hr dh pky ls unh dks ikj dj jgh gS rFkk unh 6 km/hr dh pky ls cgrh gS rks uko dh pky crkvksA uko dk osx m/s esa gS :

(1) 3.1 (2*) 2.1 (3) 2.9 (4) 5

Sol. Vboat , r iver = 4.5 km/m






Vrim , ground = 6 km/hr.

Vboat , ground = � �(6i 4.5 j) km/m = � �(6i 4.5 j) ×5

18m

Vboat , ground = 2 26 4.5 ×5

18 = 1.5 × 5 ×

518

=37.518

= 2.1 m/sec.

57. A boat is moving towards east with velocity 4 m/s with respect to still water and river is flowing towards north with velocity 2 m/s and the wind is blowing towards north with velocity 6 m/s. The direction of the flag blown over by the wind hoisted on the boat is:

,d uko 'kkUr ikuh ds lkis{k ds 4 m/s ds osx ls iwoZ dh vksj xfreku gSA unh 2 m/s ds osx ls mÙkj dh vksj cg jgh gS rFkk gok 6 m/s ds osx ls mÙkj dh vksj cg jgh gSA uko ij Qgjk;k x;k >.Mk fdl fn'kk esa QgjsxkA

(1*) north-west (2) south-east (3) tan112

with east (4) north

(1*) mÙkj-if'pe (2) nf{k.k-iwoZ (3) iwoZ ds lkFk tan1 12

(4) mÙkj

Sol. Vboat , river = �4i

Vriver , ground = �2i

Vwind , ground = �6 j

w

N

V

wind, boat = wg rbV Vgr V

= � � �6 j � 2j � 4i = � �4i 4 j

so flag blown in north west.

58. A balloon of gross weight w newton is falling vertically downward with a constant acceleration a(<g). The magnitude of the air resistance is : (Neglecting buoyant force)

a (<g) fu;r Roj.k ls uhps fxj jgs xqCckjs dk dqy Hkkj w U;wVu gS rks gok ds izfrjks/k dk ifjek.k gksxk \¼mRIykou cy dks ux.; gSA½

(1) w (2) a

w 1g

(3*)

aw 1

g

(4)

aw

g

Sol.

w � f = ma w � ma = g

w m

1� aw

= f w m

1� amg

= f w a

1�g

= f

59. Two particles are moving along a straight line as shown . The velocity of approach between A and B is fn[kk;s vuqlkj nks d.k lh/kh js[kk esa xfreku gSA A rFkk B ds chp lkehI; osx gS &

(1) VA + VB (2) | VA � VB | (3) VA � VB (4*) VB � VA






Sol.

velocity of approach = B AV V

60. Rain is falling vertically with a velocity of 3 kmh�1. A man walks in the rain with a velocity of 4 kmh�1. The rain drops will fall on the man with a velocity of

ckfj'k 3 kmh�1ls m/okZ/kj fxj jgh gSA ,d O;fDr 4 kmh�1 ls ckfj'k esa pyrk gSA ckfj'k dh cwan O;fDr ij fdl osx ls fxj jgh gSA

(1*) 5 kmh�1 (2) 4 kmh�1 (3) 3 kmh�1 (4) 1 kmh�1

Sol. RG

� �V 3j 4i

i � 4 Vm g

j � 3 VR G VRG = 5 km/sec.

61. Two boats A and B having same speed relative to river are moving in a river. Boat A moves normal to the river current as observed by an observer moving with velocity of river current. Boat B moves normal to the river as observed by the observer on the ground.

nks ukosa A rFkk B ,d unh ds lkis{k leku pky ls xfr dj jgh gSaA uko A ,d izs{kd ds }kjk] tks unh dh /kkjk ds osx ls xfr dj jgk gS] unh dh /kkjk ds yEcor~ xfr djrh gqbZ izsf{kr gksrh gSA uko B tehu ij fLFkr ,d izs{kd ds }kjk unh dh /kkjk ds yEcor~ xfr djrh gqbZ izsf{kr gksrh gSA

(1) To a ground observer boat B moves faster than A (2*) To a ground observer boat A moves faster than B (3) To the given moving observer boat B moves faster than A (4) To the given moving observer boat A moves faster than B (1) tehu ij fLFkr izs{kd ds fy, uko B, uko A ls rst pyrh gqbZ iszf{kr gksxhA (2*) tehu ij fLFkr izs{kd ds fy, uko A, uko B ls rst pyrh gqbZ izsf{kr gksxhA (3) fn;s x;s xfr djrs gq;s izs{kd ds fy, uko B, uko A ls rst pyrh gqbZ izsf{kr gksxhA (4) fn;s x;s xfr djrs gq;s izs{kd ds fy, uko A, uko B ls rst py rh gqbZ izsf{kr gksxhA

Sol. (Moderate) Speed of river is u and speed of boat relative to water is v.

Speed of boat A observed from ground = 2 2u v

speed of boat B observed from ground = 2 2v u

From river frame, speed of boat A and B will be same. gy% (Moderate) unh dh pky u gS rFkk ty ds lkis{k uko dh pky v gSA

tehu ls izsf{kr uko A dh pky = 2 2u v

tehu ls izsf{kr uko B dh pky = 2 2v u






unh ds funsZ'k rU=k esa] uko A rFkk B dh pky leku gksxhA

62. To a stationary man, rain appears to be falling at an angle 30º with the vertical. As he starts moving

with a speed of 0.5 m/s he finds that the rain is falling vertically. Then the speed of rain w.r.t. the moving man is :

,d fLFkj O;fDr dks] o"kkZ Å /okZ/kj ls 30º dks.k cukrs gq, fxjrh gqbZ izfrr gksrh gSA tSls gh og vkxs dh vksj 0.5

m/s dh pky ls xfr izkjEHk djrk gS mls o"kkZ Å /okZ/kj fxjrh gqbZ izrhr gksrh gSA rc o"kkZ dh xfr'khy O;fDr ds lkis{k pky gSA

(1) 0.5 m/s (2) 1 m/s (3*) 0.5 3 m/s (4) 3 m/s Sol. Vr,m = (0.5) (cot 30º)

= 0.5 3 m/s

63. A wooden block is dropped from the top of a cliff 100 m high and simultaneously a bullet of mass 10 g is fired from the foot of the cliff upwards with a velocity of 100 m/s. Then the bullet and wooden block will meet after how much time (in sec)?

100 m Å ¡pkbZ dh ,d ehukj ds 'kh"kZ ls ,d ydM+h dk xqVdk NksM+k tkrk gS rFkk mlh le; ehukj dh ryh ls 10 g nzO;eku dh ,d xksyh dks Å ij dh vksj 100 m/s ds osx ls nkxk tkrk gSA rc xksyh rFkk ydM+h dk xqVdk fdrus le; (lSd.M esa) i'pkr~ feysaxs ?

(1*) 1 sec. (2) 2 sec. (3) 3 sec. (4) 4 sec. Sol. Srel = urel t (arel = 0) 100 = 100 t t = 1 sec.

64. A river flowing with a speed u. A man can swim in still water with speed v. Width of river is d, then find the minimum time in which man can cross the river. unh u pky ls çokfgr gSA ,d vkneh :ds gq, ikuh esa v pky ls rSj ldrk gSA unh dh pkSM+kbZ d gS rks unh dks ikj djus esa fy;k x;k U;wure le; Kkr djksA

(1) 2 2

d

v u (2*) t =

dv

(3) du

(4) None of these

Sol.

t = dv

65. A rider on horse falls back when horse starts running, all of a sudden because- (1) rider is taken back (2) rider is suddenly afraid of falling (3*) inertia of rest keeps the upper part of body at rest while lower part of the body moves forward with

the horse (4) none of the above






?kksM+s ds vpkud py iM+us ds dkj.k] bldh ihB ij cSBk lokj ihNs dh vksj fxj iM+rk gS] D;ksafd& (1) ?kqM+lokj ihNs gV tkrk gSA (2) ?kqM+lokj Mj ds dkj.k fxjrk gSA (3*) tM+Ro ds dkj.k lokj ds 'kjhj dk Å ijh Hkkx fLFkj jgrk gS tcfd fupyk Hkkx ?kksM+s ds lkFk xfr esa vk tkrk

gSA (4) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ughaA Sol. inertia of rest keeps the upper part of body at rest while lower part of the body moves forward with the

horse tM+Ro ds dkj.k lok ds 'kjhj dk Å ijh Hkkx fLFkj jgrk gS tcfd fupyk Hkkx ?kksM+s ds lkFk xfr esa vk tkrk gSA

66. The average force necessary to stop a hammer having momentum 25 N-s in 0.05 second is- ,d gFkkSM+s dk laosx 25 U;wVu&lsd.M gSA bldks 0.05 lsd.M esa jksdus ds fy;s vko';d vkSlr cy gksxk& (1) 25 N (2) 50 N (3) 1.25 N (4*) 500 N

Sol. F = dp 25dt 0.05

= 500N

67. A force vector applied on a mass is represented as � � �F 6i � 8 j 10k and accelerates with 1 m/s2. What

will be the mass of the body-

fdlh fi.M ij yxk;k x;k cy � � �F 6i � 8 j 10k gS] rFkk ;g 1 eh@ls-2 ls Rofjr gksrk gS rks fi.M dk nzO;eku

D;k gksxk&

(1*) 10 2 kg (2) 2 10 kg (3) 10 kg (4) 20 kg

(1*) 10 2 fdxzk (3) 2 10 fdxzk (3) 10 fdxzk (4) 20 fdxzk

Sol. mass nzO;eku m =| F || a |

=2001

= 10 2

68. The engine of a car produces acceleration 4 m/s2 in the car. If this car pulls another car of same mass.

What will be the acceleration produced- ,d dkj dk batu 4 eh@ls-2 dk Roj.k mRiUu djrk gS ;fn ;gh dkj leku nzO;eku dh nwljh dkj dks [khaprh gS rks

vc Roj.k gksxk&

(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 1.5 m/s

2 (3*) 2 m/s

2 (4) 4 m/s

2

Sol.

In 1st case F = m × 4

In 2nd case F = 2m × a

so a = 2m/s2

F = m × 4 izFke fLFkfr ds fy,

F = 2m × a f}rh; fLFkfr ds fy,

vr% a = 2m/s2

69. A force 10 N acts on a body of mass 20 kg for 10 sec. Change in its momentum is- (1) 5 kg m/s (2*) 100 kg m/s (3) 200 kg m/s (4) 1000 kg m/s






,d oLrq dk nzO;eku 20 fdxzk gSA bl ij 10 lsd.M ds fy;s 10 U;wVu cy yxk;s tkus ij blds laosx esa ifjorZu

gksxk&

(1) 5 fdxzk-eh@ls- (2) 100 fdxzk-eh@ls- (3) 200 fdxzk-eh@ls- (4) 1000 fdxzk-eh@ls-

Sol. P = F × T = 10 × 10 = 100 kg m/s 70. A uniform thick rope of length 5m is kept on frictionless surface and a force of 5N is applied to one of its

end. Find tension in the rope at 1m from this end-

,d 5 eh- yEckbZ dh jLlh ?k"kZ.k jfgr lrg ij j[kh gqbZ gSA blds ,d fljs ij 5N dk cy yxk;k tkrk gS] rks bl

fljs ls 1 eh- dh nwjh ij ruko dk eku gksxk&

(1) 1N (2) 3N (3*) 4N (4) 5N Sol. F = ma

a = 5m

F � T = m

a5

T = 4N

71. An elevator weighing 6000 kg is pulled upward by a cable with an acceleration of 5 ms�2

. Taking g to be

10 ms�2

. Then the tension in the cable is-

,d fy¶V dk otu 6000 fdxzk gSA ,d dscy ds tfj, bls 5 eh@ls-2 ds Roj.k ls Å ij [khapk tkrk gS] ;fn g = 10

eh@ls-2 gks rks dscy esa ruko gksxk&

(1) 6000 N (2) 9000 N (3) 60000 N (4*) 90000 N Sol. T = mg + ma = 90000 N 72. The linear momentum p of a body moving in one dimension varies with time according to the equation

p = a + bt2 where a and b are positive constants. The net force acting on the body is :

,d foeh; xfr djrh gqbZ oLrq dk js[kh; laosx p, le; ds lkFk lehdj.k p = a + bt2 ds vuqlkj ifjofrZr gksrk gS]

tgk¡ a rFkk b /kukRed fu;rkad gSA oLrq ij yxus okyk ifj.kkeh cy gksxk &

(1) a constant (2) proportional to t2

(3) inversely proportional to t (4*) proportional to t

(1) ,d fu;rkad (2) t2 ds lekuqikrh

(3) t ds O;qRØekuqikrh (4*) t ds lekuqikrh

Sol. F =dpdt

=ddt

(a � bt2) = 2bt F t.

73. A body of mass m collides against a wall with a velocity v and rebounds with the same speed. Its

change of momentum is :

nzO;eku m dh ,d oLrq v osx ,d nhokj ls Vdjkrh gS rFkk Vdjkdj mlh pky ls okil ykSV vkrh gSA oLrq ds

laosx esa ifjorZu gksxk &

(1*) 2 mv (2) mv (3) �mv (4) zero 'kwU;

Sol. p = pi � pf = mv � (�mv) = 2 mv.






74. A force F1 acting on a free mass �m� at rest produces in it an acceleration of 2m/s2. Another force F2 acting on the same mass at rest can produce in it a velocity of 20 m/s in 5 sec. The maximum acceleration of mass m, when both forces F1 and F2, act on it simultaneously will be

fojke ij fLFkr eqDr æO;eku m ij dk;Zjr ,d cy F1 blesa 2m/s2 dk Roj.k mRiUu djrk gSA fojke ij fLFkr leku æO;eku ij dk;Zjr vU; cy F2 5 sec esa blesa 20 m/s dk osx mRiUu djrk gSA æO;eku m dk vf/kdre Roj.k tc nksuksa cy F1 rFkk F2 bl ij ,d lkFk dk;Zjr gSa, gksxk

(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2 (3*) 6 m/s2 (4) 8 m/s2

75. A body of mass 8 kg is hanging from another body of mass 12 kg. The combination is being pulled up by a string with an acceleration of 2.2 m/sec2. The tension T1 will be

8 kg nzO;eku dk ,d fi.M] ,d 12 kg ds nwljs fi.M ls yVdk gqvk gSA ;g fudk; 2.2 m/sec2 ds Roj.k ls Å ij dh vksj ,d jLlh dh lgk;rk ls [khapk tkrk gS] rks ruko T1 gksxk

(1) 260 N (2*) 240 N (3) 220 N (4) 200 N

76. When the rectangular metal tank is filled to the top with an unknown liquid, as observer with eyes level with eyes level with the top of the tank can just see the corner E; a ray that refracts towards the observer at the top surface of the liquid is shown. The refractive index of the liquid will be

,d /kkrq ds vk;rkdkj VSad dks fdlh vKkr nzo ls Å ij rd Hkjk x;k gSA tc fp=kkuqlkj ,d izs{kd VSad ds Å ijh ry ds vuqfn'k ns[krk gS] rks og dksus E dks Bhd ns[k ikrk gSA ,d fdj.k tks nzo ds Å ijh lrg ij isz{kd dh vksj viofrZr gksrh gS] fp=k esa fn[kk;h x;h gSA nzo dk viorZukad gSA

(1*) 1.2 (2) 1.4 (3) 1.6 (4) 1.9 Sol. (1) Light ray is going from liquid (Denser) to air (Rarer) and angle of refraction is 90º, so angle of

incidence izdk'm fdj.k nzo ¼l?ku½ ls ok;q ¼fojy½ esa tk jgh gS] ,oa viorZu dks.k 900 gS] blfy, vkiru dks.k] Økafrd dks.k

ds cjkcj gksuk pkfg, fp=k ls

sin C45

,oa 1 5

1.2sinC 4

77. When a ray is refracted from one medium to another, the wavelength changes from 6000 Å to 4000 Å.

The critical angle for the interface will be






tc ,d fdj.k ,d ek/;e ls nwljs ek/;e esa viofrZr gksrh gSS] rc rjaxnS/;Z 6000 Å ls ifjofrZr gksdj 4000 Å gks tkrh gSA vUrjki"B ds fy, ØkfUrd dks.k gS

(1) cos�1 23

(2) sin�1 2

3

(3*) sin�123

(4) cos�12

3

Ans. (3) 12 =1

sin C 2 1

2 2

1sinC

60004000

= 1

sinC C = sin�1

23

78. A thin rod of 5 cm length is kept along the axis of a concave mirror of 10 cm focal length such that its

image is real and magnified and one end touches the rod. Its magnification will be

,d 10 cm Qksdl nwjh okys vory niZ.k ds v{k ij ,d 5 cm yEch iryh NM+ ysVh gqbZ gSA bldk izfrfcEc

okLrfod ,oa vkof/kZr gS] rFkk izfrfcEc dk ,d fljk NM+ ds ,d fljs dks Li'kZ djrk gSA bldk vko/kZu gSA

(1) 1 (2*) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Ans. (2)

End A of the rod acts as an object for mirror and A� will be its image so u = 2f�1 = 20 � 5 = 15 cm NM+ dk fljk A niZ.k ds fy, oLrq dk dk;Z djsxk ,oa A' bldk izfrfcEc gS] blfy, u = 2f�1 = 20 � 5 = 15 cm

1 1 1f v u

1 1 110 v 15

v = � 30 cm.

Now m = Length of imageLength of object

= 30 20

25

vc 30 20

m 25

izfrfcEc dh yEckbZ

oLrq dh yEckbZ

79. An equilateral prism is placed on the prism table of a spectrometer in the position of minimum deviation. If the angle of incidence is 600, the angle of deviation of the ray is

,d leckgq fizTe dks U;wure fopyu dh fLFkfr esa LisDVªksehVj ds fizTe dh Vscy ij j[kk x;k gSA ;fn vkiru dks.k 600 gks rks fdj.k dk fopyu dks.k gksxk&

(1) 900 (2*) 600 (3) 450 (4) 300

Sol. i e A for minimum i = e = 60º U;wure ds fy, i = e = 60º A = 60º given fn;k gqvk gSa then minimum = 60º rc U;wure = 60º






80. There is a prism with refractive index equal to 2 and the refracting angle equal to 300. One of the refracting surfaces of the prism is polished. A beam of monochromatic light will retrace its path if its angle of incidence over the refracting surface of the prism is

,d fizTe ftldk vorZukad 2 ds cjkcj rFkk viorZu dks.k 300 ds cjkcj gSA fizTe dh fdlh viorZd lrg dks ikWfy'k fd;k x;k gSA ,d o.khZ; izdk'k dk iqat blds iFk ls xqtjrk gS ;fn bldk vkiru dks.k fizTe dh viorZd lrg ds Å ij gks &

(1) 00 (2) 300 (3*) 450 (4) 600

Sol.

sini

2sin30º

sin i =1 1

22 2

i = 45º

81. Two thin lenses, when in contact, produce a combination of power + 10 D. When they are 0.25 m apart, the power reduces to + 6D. The focal lengths of the lenses (in m) are

(1*) 0.125 and 0.5 (2) 0.125 anda 0.125 (3) 0.5 anda 0.75 (4) 0.125 anda 0.75

tc nks irys ysUl lEidZ esa gS] rc buds la;kstu dh {kerk + 10 D gSA tc ;s ysUl 0.25 m dh nwjh ij gS] rc budh la;kstu {kerk + 6D gSA ySUlksa dh Qksdl nwjh ¼ehvj esa½ gSA

(1*) 0.125 ,oa 0.5 (2) 0.125 ,oa 0.125

(3) 0.5 ,oa 0.75 (4) 0.125 ,oa 0.75

Ans. (1) When lenses are in contact tc ysUl ds lEidZ esa gS] rc

P = 1 2

1 1 1F f f 10 =

1 2

1 1f f ....(i)

When they are distance d apart tc ;s d nwjh ij gSa] rc

P� = 1 2 1 2

1 1 1 dF' f f f f

6 = 1 2 1 2

1 1 0.25f f f f ....(ii)

From equation (i) and (ii) f1f2 =1

16 ....(iii)

lehdj.k (i) o (ii) ls f1f2 = 1

16

From equation (i) and (iii) f1 + f2 = 58

....(iv)

lehdj.k (i) o (iii) ls f1 + f2 = 58

Also ,oa (f1�f2)2 = (f1+f2)

2 � 4f1f2

Hence tc (f1�f2)2 =

258

�4 ×1 9

16 64 f1�f2 =

38






82. A plano convex lens is made of glass of refractive index 1.5. The radius of curvature of its convex surface is R. Its focal length is

,d lery mÙky ySl 1.5 viorZukad okys dkap dk cuk gS] mldh mÙky lrg dh oØrk f=kT;k R gS] rks mlh Qksdl nwjh gS&

(1) R2

(2) R (3*) 2R (4) 1.5 R

Sol. 1 1 1

(1.5 1)f R

f = R

0.5

f = 2R

83. A prism of refractive index 2 and apex angle A is shown. Light is incident from PQ side at angle of incidence i (0 < i 90º). Then which option is incorrect :

2 viorZukad o 'kh"kZ dks.k A dk ,d fizTe fp=k esa iznf'kZr gSA izdk'k Hkqtk PQ ls vkiru dks.k i (0 < i 90º)

ij vkifrr gS rks fuEu esa ls dkSulk fodYi xyr gS &

(1) If A = 40º then light incident at all angles will be refracted from surface PR. (2) If A = 80º then light incident at some angles will be refracted and at some other angles light will be

reflected. (3) If A = 92º then light incident at all angles will be reflected from the face PR. (4*) Whatever is the value of A, light definitely emerge from the surface PR. (1) ;fn A = 40º gS rks lHkh dks.kksa ij vkifrr izdk'k lrg PR ls viofrZr gksxkA (2) ;fn A = 80º gS rks dqN dks.k ij vkifrr izdk'k viofrZr gksxk rFkk dqN vU; dks.k ij izdk'k ijkofrZr gksxkA (3) ;fn A = 92º gS rks lHkh dks.kksa ij vkifrr izdk'k lrg PR ls ijkofrZr gksxkA (4*) A ds eku dqN Hkh gks izdk'k lrg PR ls fuf'pr :i ls mRlftZr gksxkA

Sol. sin C = 1

2 c = 45º

for A > 2C no. refraction A > 2C ds fy, viorZu ugha gksxkA C < A < 2C some refraction, some reflection C < A < 2C dqN viorZu] dqN ijkorZu A < C all refraction. A < C lHkh viorZu






84. Light travelling in air falls at an incidence angle of 2° on one refracting surface of a prism of refractive index 1.5 and angle of refraction 4º. The medium on the other side is water (n = 4/3). Find the deviation

produced by the prism. 1.5 viorZukad rFkk fizTe dks.k 4º okys fizTe ds viorZd ry ij gok ls xqtjrh gqbZ fdj.k 2° ds vkiru dks.k ij

vkifrr gksrh gSA nwljs rjQ dk ek/;e ikuh (n = 4/3) gSA fizTe }kjk mRiUu fopyu Kkr djksA (1*) 1º (2) 2º (3) 3º (4) 4º

Sol.

we can use sin x = x (where x is in radians) ge sin x = x dks mi;ksx dj ldrs gS

(tgk¡ x jsfM;u esa gSA is in radians)

sin2° =32

sin r1°

r1 =43

; r2 = A � r1 =83

32

sin r2 =43

sine e =98

r2 = 3°

= i + e � A = 2° + 3° � 4° = 1°

85. The focal length of a convex lens of refractive index 1.5 is 2 cm. The focal length of the lens when immerged in liquid spirit of refractive index 1.25 is

1.5 viorZukad ds dk¡p ls cus ,d mÙky ySUl dh Qksdl nwjh 2 cm gSA tc ySUl 1.25 viorZukad ds ,d æo esa Mqcks;k tkrk gS rks bldh Qksdl nwjh gksxh %

(1) 5 m (2) 2.5 cm (3) 4cm (4*) 5 cm

Sol. 1f

= rd 1 1 2

1 1R R

12

= (1.5 � 1) 1 2

1 1R R

1 2

1 1R R

= 1

now in medium vc ek/;e esa

1f

=1.5

11.25

1 2

1 1R R

1f

=0.251.25

× 1 f2 = 5cm

86. A ray of light travelling in the direction 1 � �i 3 j2

is incident on a plane mirror. After reflection, it

travels along the direction . 1 � �i 3 j2

The angle of incidence is :

,d lery niZ.k ij vkifrr çdk'k fdj.k dh çxkeh fn'kk 1 � �i 3 j2

gSA ijkorZu ds ckn çxkeh fn'kk

1 � �i 3 j2

gks tkrh gSA fdj.k dk vkiru dks.k gS :

(1*) 30º (2) 45º (3) 60º (4) 75º






Sol. Angle between given rays is 120° so angle of incidence is 30°

Hindi. nh xbZ fdj.kksa ds e/; dks.k 120° gS vr% vkiru dks.k 30° gS

87. In the f igure shown a convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm is shown. An object O is placed in front of this mirror. Its ray diagram is shown. How many mistakes are there in the ray diagram (AB is its principal axis):

fp=k esa 20 cm oØ rk f=kT;k oky k mÙky niZ.k n'kkZ;k x;k gSA ,d oLrq O niZ.k d s lkeus j[kh t krh gSA bld k fd j.k fp=k n'kkZ;k x;k gSA bld s fd j.k fp=k esa fd ruh xy fr;ka (AB bld h eq[; v{k gS) gS \

(1) 3 (2*) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0

Sol. Error �






Error �

88. Which of the following is a correct graph of relation between u, v & f (where u, v, f have standard meaning) for a concave mirror.

fuEu esa ls dkSulk vory niZ.k ds fy, u, v rFkk f ds e/; lEcU/k ds fy, mi;qDr xzkQ gS (tgk¡ u, v, f ds ekud vFkZ gS)�

(1) (2)

(3*) (4)

89. The minimum sum of the distances of a real object and a real image from a concave mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm is:

vory niZ.k ] ftldh oØrk f=kT;k 20 cm gS] ds fy;s okLrfod oLrq o okLrfod izfrfcEc dh nwfj;ksa dk U;wure ;ksx gSA

(1) 10 cm (2*) 40 cm (3) 20 cm (4) none of these buesa ls d ksbZ ugh

90. An equiconvex lens is cut into two halves along (i) XOX� and (ii) YOY� as shown in the figure. Let f, f �,f ��

be the focal lengths of the complete lens, of each half in case (i), and of each half in case (ii), respectively.

Choose the correct statement from the following : (1) f � = f, f �� = f (2) f � = 2f, f �� = 2f (3*) f � = f, f �� = 2f (4) f � = 2f, f �� = f ,d leksÙky ySal dks nks v/kZdksa esa (i) XOX� rFkk (ii) YOY� ds vuqfn'k fp=kkuqlkj dkVk x;k gSA ekuk f, f �,f �� Øe'k%

iw.kZ ySal dh] izdj.k (i) esa izR;sd v/kZd dh rFkk izdj.k] (ii) esa izR;sd v/kZd dh Qksdl nwfj;k¡ gS %






fuEu esa ls lgh dFku pqfu;sA (1) f � = f, f �� = f (2) f � = 2f, f �� = 2f (3*) f � = f, f �� = 2f (4) f � = 2f, f �� = f Sol. Initially, the focal length of equiconvex lens is izkjEHk esa leryksÙky ySUl dh Qksdl nwjh

1f

= ( � 1) 1 2

1 1R R

1f

= ( � 1) 1 1R R

=2( 1)

R

Case I : When lens is cut along XOX� then each half is again equiconvex with fLFkfr I tc ySaUl XOX� ds vuqfn'k dkVk tkrk gS rc izR;sd vk/kk Hkkx iqu% leryksÙke ySUl gksxk R1 = + R, R2 = � R

Thus, 1f

= ( � 1) 1 1R ( R)

= ( � 1) 1 1R R

= ( � 1) 2R

= 1f '

f � = f Case II : When lens is cut along YOY�, then each half becomes plano-convex with fLFkfr I tc ySaUl YOY� ds vuqfn'k dkVk tkrk gS rc izR;sd IysV leryksÙky ySUl gksxh R1 = R, R2 =

Thus vr%, 1f ''

= ( � 1) 1 2

1 1R R

= ( � 1) 1 1R

= ( 1)

R

= 12f

Hence vr% f � = f, f �� = 2f



1

Course: MR - 1 (AIPMT) ELPD

Test Date: 16/08/2015

Paper Test Type: Cumulative 1 (CT -1)

Test Pattern: AIPMT

Time Duration: 3 Hrs.

Subject: Botany

Syllabus: Reproduction in Flowering plants, Cell Biology + Plant Morphology - Root, Stem, Leaves only

91. Which of the following is not a function of ER.

(1) Synthesis of steroid hormone (2) Formation of nuclear membrane

(3) Detoxification of toxic substances (4*) Maintain shape and size of cell

fuEu esa ls dkSulk ER dk dk;Z ugha gS

(1) LVhjkWbM gkeksZu dk la'ys"k.k (2) dsUnzd dyk dk fuekZ.k

(3) fo"kSys inkFkksZa dk fujkfo"khdj.k (4*) dksf'kdk dh vkÑfr o vkdkj dks cuk;s j[kuk

92. Prickles are found in

(1) Citrus (2) Cacti (3) Acacia (4*) Rose

rh{.ko/kZ fdlesa ik;s tkrs gSa\

(1) flVªl esa (2) dsDVkbZ esa (3) vdsfl;k esa (4*) xqykc esa

93. The edible part of Garlic is

(1) Stem (2) root (3) buds (4*) fleshy leaves

yglqu esa [kkus ;ksX; Hkkx gS

(1) ruk (2) ewy (3) dfydk;sa (4*) ekaly ifÙk;k¡

94. An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm and involves in many

functions such as mechanical support, motility, maintenance of the shape of the cell. It is

(1) RER (2) Microtubules (3) Centrioles (4*) Cytoskeleton

izksVhu;qDr foLrr tkfydkor Lkajpuk,a] tks dksf'kdknzO; esa feyrh gS rFkk fofHkUu dk;Z tSls& ;kaf=kd lgk;rk] xfr o dksf'kdk ds

vkdkj dks cuk, j[kus esa mi;ksxh gS] ;g gS&

(1) RER (2) lw{eufydk,sa (3) rkjddsUnz (4*) lkbVksiatj

95. Sucker is found in

(1) Turmeric (2) Ginger (3) Colchicum (4*) Chrysanthemum

vUr% HkwLrkjh fdlesa ik;k tkrk gSa&

(1) gYnh (2) vnjd (3) dkWfYpde (4*) ØkbZtsfUFkee

2

96. 9 + 0 arrangement of filaments is observed in

(1) Cilia (2) Flagella (3*) Centriole (4) Both (1) and (2)

fdlesa rarqvksa dh 9 + 0 O;oLFkk izsf{kr dh xbZ gSA

(1) i{ekHk (2) d'kkHk (3*) rkjd dsUnz (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa

97. Assimilatory roots are observed in

(1) Tinospora and Typha (2) Podostemon & Dodder

(3*) Trapa and Tinospora (4) Typha & Trapa

Lokaxhdkjh ewysa fdlesa izsf{kr dh tkrh gSa&

(1) VhuksLiksjk vkSj VkbQk (2) iksMksLVheksu rFkk vejcsy

(3*) Vªkik rFkk VhuksLiksjk (4) VkbQk rFkk Vªkik

98. You have studied mitosis in onion root tip cells. If it has 14 chromosomes in each cell. (a) Can you tell how

many chromosomes will the cell have at G1 phase after S-phase and after M-phase? (b) Also what will be the

DNA content of the cells at G1 after S and at G2 if the content after M phase is 2 C

vki I;kt dh ewy 'kh"kZ dksf'kdkvksa esa ekbVksfll dk v/;;u dj pqds gSa ;fn bldh izR;sd dksf'kdk esa 14 xq.klw=k gSaA rks

(a) D;k vki crk ldrs gSa fd bl dksf'kdk esa G1 izkoLFkk] S-izkoLFkk rFkk M-izkoLFkk ds ckn Øe'k% fdrus xq.klw=k gksaxsA

(b) rks crkb;s DNA dh ek=kk G1, S-izkoLFkk ds ckn rFkk G2 izkoLFkk esa Øe'k% D;k gksxh ;fn M izkoLFkk ds ckn bldh

ek=kk 2 C gS

(1) (a) - 14 , 28, 14 (b) - 2n , 4n, 2n (2) (a) - 14, 14, 28 (b) 2n, 4n, 4n

(3*) (a) - 14, 14, 14 (b) 2n, 4n, 4n (4) (a) - 14, 28, 28 (b) 2n, 4n, 2n

99. The diameter of plasma membrane is

(1) 90Å � 110Å (2*) 7.5 nm � 9.0 nm (3) 40 � 60 Å (4) 6 � 7 nm

IykTek dyk dk O;kl gS&

(1) 90Å � 110Å (2*) 7.5 nm � 9.0 nm (3) 40 � 60 Å (4) 6 � 7 nm

100. Which of the following is correct about water hyacinth?

(1) Runner (2) Sucker (3*) Offset (4) Stolon

fuEu esa ls dkSulk okVj gkbflUFk ds ckjs esa lgh gS\

(1) Å ifjHkwLrkjh (2) vUr%HkwLrkjh (3*) HkwLrkfjdk (4) HkwLrkjh

101. If the position of centromere is subterminal in a chromosome then it is called

(1*) Acrocentric (2) Telocentric (3) Submetacentric (4) Metacentric

;fn ,d xq.klw=k esa rkjd dsUnz dh fLFkfr mi'kh"kZ ij gksrh gS] rks bls dgrs gSaA

(1*) ,ØkslsfUVªd (2) VhykslsfUVªd (3) lcesVklsfUVªd (4) esVklsfUVªd

102. Grapevine has

(1) Leaf tendril (2) Thorns (3) Spines (4*) Stem tendril

vaxwj esa gksrs gSa&

(1) i.kZ izÙkku (2) dk¡Vsa (3) daVd (4*) LrEHk izrku

3

103. Crossing over is also enzyme mediated process and the enzyme involved is called

(1) Acid Phosphatase (2) DNA polymerase (3) Dehydrogenase (4*) Recombinase

thu fofue; Hkh ,Utkbe fuHkZj izfØ;k gS rFkk blesa 'kkfey ,Utkbe dgykrk gS

(1) ,flM QkWLQsVst (2) DNA ikWyhejst (3) MhgkbMªksftust (4*) jhdkWEchust

104. Match the column.

Column I Column II

a. G0 stage i. Zygotene

b. Kinetochore ii. Diplotene

c Congression iii.

Discshaped

structure as the

site of attachment

of spindle fibres

d. Chiasmata iv. Quiescent stage

e. Synaptenemal

complex v

Bringing of

chromosomes

over equator of spindle

(1) a iii , b iv, c v , d i , e ii (2) a iv, b iii, c ii, d v, e i

(3*) a iv, b iii, c v, d ii, e i (4) a iii, b iv, c v, d ii, e i

dkWye lqesfyr dhft;s

LrEHk I LrEHk II

a. G0 izkoLFkk i. tkbxksVhu

b. dkbusVksdksj ii. fMIyksVhu

c duxzs'ku iii.

rdqZ rarqvksa

ij tqM+us ds fy;s

LFky ds :i esa

fMLd vkÑfr

dh lajpuk

d. dkbZTesVk iv. Quiescent izkoLFkk

e. flusfIVuhey

dkWEIysDl v

rdqZ ds bDosVj

ij xq.klw=kksa dks ykuk

(1) a iii , b iv, c v , d i , e ii (2) a iv, b iii, c ii, d v, e i

(3*) a iv, b iii, c v, d ii, e i (4) a iii, b iv, c v, d ii, e i

105. The site of synthesis of ribosome is

(1) RER (2) Nucleus (3) Plasma membrane (4*) Nucleolus

jkbckslkse ds la'ys"k.k dk LFky gSA

4

(1) RER (2) dsUnzd (3) IykTek dyk (4*) dsfUnzdk

106. Which of the following is not correct about ribosome?

(1) It represents organelle with in organelle in Eukaryotes

(2) 0.001 M concentration of Mg++ is required for association of subunit of ribosomes

(3) It is composed of r-RNA + protein

(4*) Free ribosome synthesizes those proteins that are used outside the cell.

fuEu esa ls dkSulk jkbckslkse ds ckjs esa lgh ugha gS\

(1) ;g ;wdsfj;ksV~l esa dksf'kdkax ds Hkhrj dksf'kdkax dks n'kkZrk gS

(2) Mg++ dh 0.001 M lkUnzrk jkbckslkse dh mibZdkb;ksa dks tksM+us ds fy, vko';d gS

(3) ;g r-RNA + izksVhu dk cuk gksrk gS

(4*) eqDr jkbckslkse mu izksVhUl dk la'ys"k.k djrs gSA tks dksf'kdkvksa ds ckgj mi;ksx dh tkrh gSaA

107. Microsomes are the parts of

(1) Golgibody (2) SER (3*) RER (4) Cytoskeleton

ekbØkslksEl fdlds Hkkx gSa&

(1) xkWYthdk; (2) SER (3*) RER (4) dksf'kdk dadky

108. Which of the following is not involved in endomembrane system

(1*) Peroxisome (2) Vacuole (3) Lysosome (4) Golgibody

fuEu esa ls dkSulk var%dyk ra=k esa 'kkfey ugha gSA

(1*) ijkWDlhlkse (2) fjfDrdk (3) ykblkslkse (4) xkWYthdk;

109. The diameter of perinuclear space is

(1) 100�1000 Aº (2*) 10�50 nm. (3) 1�5 nm (4) 50�800 Aº

ifjdsfUnzdh; vodk'k dk O;kl gksrk gSA

(1) 100�1000 Aº (2*) 10�50 nm. (3) 1�5 nm (4) 50�800 Aº

110. If DNA content is C in egg. Than the DNA Content in Metaphase � I will

;fn v.Ms esa DNA ?kVd C gS] rks esVkQst -I esa DNA ?kVd gksxk

(1) 2C (2*) 4C (3) C (4) 3C

111. Which of the following synthesize nucleolus?

(1) Satellite (2*) NOR

(3) Primary Constriction (4) None of these

5

fuEu esa ls dkSu dsfUædk dk la'ys"k.k djrk gS?

(1) lsVsykbZV (2*) NOR

(3) izkFkfed ladqpu (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

112. How many kinetochores will present in 64 bivalents of metaphase I stage.

(1) 128 (2*) 256 (3) 64 (4) 512

esVkQst I voLFkk dh 64 ;qxfy;ksa esa fdrus dkbusVksdksj gksxsaA

(1) 128 (2*) 256 (3) 64 (4) 512

113. r-RNA is synthesized by

(1) Nucleus (2) NOR (3*) Nucleolus (4) Ribosome

r-RNA fdlds }kjk la'ysf"kr gksrk gSA

(1) dsUnzd (2) NOR (3*) dsfUnzdk (4) jkbckslkse

114. Which of the following are found in Ginger, Jamikand, Onion respectively?

(1) Corm, bulb, rhizome (2) Rhizome, bulb and corm

(3) Bulb, rhizome, corm (4*) R hizome, corm, bulb

fuEu esa ls dkSuls Øe'k% vnjd] tehdan] I;kt esa ik;s tkrs gSa\

(1) ?kudan] 'kYddan] izdan (2) izdan] 'kYddan] ?kudan

(3) 'kYddan] izdan] ?kudan (4*) izdan] ?kudan] 'kYddan

115. Select the correct statement.

(1) Dioeceous plant promotes both Geitonogamy and Xenogamy

(2) Predetermined seed formation is a feature of both Cleistogamy and Geitonogamy

(3*) Absence of Nectar and scent is a common feature between Anemophily and Hydrophily

(4) Perisperm provides nourishment to the developing embryo sac in angiosperms

lgh dFku pqfu;s&

(1) ,dfyaxkJ;h ikni] ltkrh; iq"i ijkx.k rFkk thuksxseh nksuksa dks gksus nsrk gSA

(2) iwoZ fu/kkZfjr cht fuekZ.k] vUewyh;rk o ltkrh;iq"iijkx.k nksuksa dk y{k.k gSA

(3*) edjUn rFkk lqxa/k dh vuqifLFkfr] ok;q ijkx.k rFkk ty ijkx.k ds chp mHk;fu"B y{k.k gSaA

(4) ifjHkzw.kiks"k] vkorchth;ksa esa fodkl'khy Hkzw.kdks"k dks iks"k.k iznku djrk gSA

116. Select the correct statement.

(1) Mesosome is out growth of plasma membrane in Bacteria

(2) The cell sap of vacuole is hypotonic & having mostly non-living inclusions

(3*) Replication of DNA takes place in S-phase

(4) Replication of centrioles occurs in G2 � phase only

lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,&

(1) ehtkslkse thok.kq essa IykTek dyk dh cfgZ%of) gSA

(2) fjfDrdk dk dksf'kdk jl vYiijkljh gksrk gSA rFkk vf/kdka'kr% blesa vthfor varoZLrq,¡ gksrh gSa

6

(3*) DNA dk izfrd fr;u S-izkoLFkk esa gksrk gSA

(4) rkjd dsUnzksa dk izfrd fr;u dsoy G2 � izkoLFkk esa gksrk gSA

117. Which of the following chromosome will not transfer in next generation?

(1) Metacentric (2) Telocentric (3) Acrocentric (4*) Acentric

fuEu esa ls dkSulk xq.klw=k vxyh ih<h eas LFkkukUrfjr ugha gksxkA

(1) esVklsfUVªd (2) VhykslsfUVªd (3) ,ØkslsfUVªd (4*) ,lsfUVªd

118.

iii i ii iv On the basis of above diagram, given below the following statements

a. Diagram (iii) represents reappearance of golgi body, ER, NM & Nucleolus in telophase

b. Diagram (i) represent anaphasic movement of bivalents after reduction division.

c. Diagram (ii) represent single metaphasic plate of metaphase stage

d. The segregation of mendelian factors is shown by diagram (iv)

e. Diagram (iv) shows amphiastral spindle of animal cell

How many above statements are wrong?

(1) 4 (2*) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

iiiiii i iioiio iviv

mijksDr fp=k ds vk/kkj ij fuEu dFku fn;s x;s gaS&

a. fp=k (iii) VhyksQst esa xkWYthdk;] ER, NM rFkk dsfUnzdk dh iqu%mifLFkfr dks n'kkZrk gSA

b. fp=k (i) U;wudkjh foHkktu ds ckn ;qxyh dh ,ukQsftd xfr dks n'kkZrk gSA

c. fp=k (ii) esVkQst izkoLFkk esa ,dy esVkQsftd IysV dks n'kkZrk gSA

d. fp=k (iv) }kjk es.Msfy;u dkjdksa dk iFkDdj.k n'kkZ;k x;k gSA

e. fp=k (iv) tarq dksf'kdk esa ,fEQ,LVªy rdqZ dks n'kkZrk gSA

mijksDr esa ls fdrus dFku xyr gS\

(1) 4 (2*) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

119. Terminalization is observed in

(1*) Diakinesis (2) Diplotene (3) Prophase (4) Anaphase I

mikfUrHkou fdlesa izsf{kr fd;k tkrk gSA

(1*) Mkbdkbusfll (2) fMIyksVhu (3) izksQst (4) ,ukQst I

120. Procaryotic cell shows difference with eukaryotic cell in having

(1) Ribosome (2*) Fimbriae and pili (3) Cilia/Flagella (4) Cell wall

izksdsfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk fdldh mifLFkfr esa ;wdsfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk ls fHkUurk n'kkZrh gSA

7

(1) jkbckslkse (2*) >kyj rFkk jkse (3) i{ekHk@d'kkHk (4) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk

121. The presence of which of the following in secondary wall shows difference with primary wall

(1*) Lignin (2) Hemicellulose (3) Pectin (4) Cellulose

fuEu esa ls fdldh mifLFkfr esa f}rh;d fHkfÙk] izkFkfed fHkfÙk ls fHkUurk n'kkZrh gSA

(1*) fyfXuu (2) gsehlsY;wykst (3) isfDVu (4) lsY;wykst

122. Crossing over takes place in

(1) Diplotene (2*) Pachytene (3) Zygotene (4) Diakinesis

thu fofue; fdlesa gksrk gS

(1) fMIyksVhu (2*) isfdVhu (3) tkbxksVhu (4) Mk;dkbusfll

123. Which of the following is homologous of sweet potato

(1) Ginger (2) Potato (3*) Turnip (4) Banana

fuEu esa ls dkSulk ehBs vkyw ds letkr gS&

(1) vnjd (2) vkyw (3*) 'kyte (4) dsyk

124. Palmately compound leaves are found in

(1) Neem (2) Acacia (3*) Silk cotton (4) Cassia

gLrkdkj la;qä i.kZ fduesa ikbZ tkrh gS

(1) uhe (2) ccwy (3*) flYd dkWVu (4) dsfl;k

125. Opposite and decussate phyllotaxy is found in

(1) Alstonia (2) Mustard (3*) Calotropis (4) Guava

lEeq[k rFkk ØkWflr i.kZfoU;kl fdlesa feyrk gS

(1) ,YLVksfu;k (2) ljlksa (3*) dsyksVªkWfil (4) ve:n

126. Select wrong pair

(1) Spines � Cactus

(2) Thorn � Citrus

(3*) Phyllode � Asparagus

(4) Phylloclade � Opuntia

xyr ;qXe dks NkafV;s

(1) daVd � dsDVl

(2) dk¡Vsa � flVªl

(3*) i.kkZHkoar � ,Lisjsxl

(4) i.kkZHkLrEHk � ukxQuh

127. Which of the following can be vegetatively propogated by axillary buds?

(1*) Potato (2) Mango (3) China rose (4) Mustard

fuEu esa ls dkSulk d{kLFk dfydkvksa }kjk dkf;d :i ls izof/kZr fd;k tk ldrk gS&

(1*) vkyw (2) vke (3) xqM+gy (4) ljlksa

128. Some plants of arid regions modify their stems into fleshy cylindrical structures. They contain chlorophyll and

carry out photosynthesis.

8

(1) Opuntia (2*) Euphorbia (3) Asparagus (4) Australian acacia

'kq"d {ks=kksa ds dqN ikniksa esa muds LrEHk ekaly csyukukdkj lajpukvksa esa :ikarfjr gks tkrs gSa] ;s fdlesa feyrs gSa&

(1) ukxQuh (2*) ;wQksfcZ;k (3) ,Lisjsxl (4) vkLVªsfy;u vdsfl;k

129. Which of the following is found in Ruscus?

(1*) Cladode (2) Phylloclade (3) Phyllode (4) Staminode

fuEu esa ls dkSulk jldl esa ik;k tkrk gSa

(1*) i.kkZHkioZ (2) i.kkZHkLrEHk (3) i.kkZHkoUr (4) LVsfeuksM

130. Which of the following is wrongly matched?

(1) Prop roots � Banyan

(2) Pneumatophores� Rhizophora

(3) Stilt roots � Maize

(4*) Hygroscopic roots� Sweet potato

fuEu esa ls dkSulk xyr lqesfyr gS\

(1) izkWi ewysa & cjxn

(2) U;wesVksQkslZ & jkbtksQksjk

(3) LVhYV ewysa & eôk

(4*) vknzZrkxzkgh ewysa & ehBk vkyw

131. Synthesis of glycolipid and glycoprotein is a function of

(1) SER (2) Ribosome (3*) Dictyosome (4) Chondriosome

XykbdksfyfiM rFkk XykbdksizksVhu dk la'ys"k.k fdldk dk;Z gS\

(1) SER (2) jkbckslkse (3*) fMfDV;kslkse (4) dkWfUMª;kslkse

132. If in the leaf cell of Angiospermic plant has 2n = 24 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in its central

cell of embryo sac will

(1) 12 (2*) 24 (3) 3 (4) 8

;fn vkorchth; ikni dh i.kZ dksf'kdk esa xq.klw=k la[;k 2n = 24 gSa rks blds Hkzw.kdks"k dh dsUnzh; dksf'kdk esa xq.klw=kksa dh la[;k

D;k gksxh\

(1) 12 (2*) 24 (3) 3 (4) 8

133.

On the basis of above diagram, select the correct labeling of a, b, c, d & e respectively.

(1) a Nuclear Pore, b Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum, c Nucleus, d Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum,

e Ribosome

(2) a Nucleus, b Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum, c Nuclear Pore, d Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum,

e Ribosome

9

(3) a Nucleus, b Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum, c Ribosome, d Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum, e

Nuclear Pore

(4*) a Nucleus, b Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum, c Nuclear Pore, d Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum,

e Ribosome

mijksDr fp=k ds vk/kkj ij Øe'k% a, b, c, d & e ds lgh ukekadu dk p;u dhft,

(1) a dsUæd jU/kz, b [kqjnjh vUr%izæO;h tkfydk, c dsUæd , d fpduh vUr%izæO;h tkfydk, e jkbckslkse

(2) a dsUæd , b fpduh vUr%izæO;h tkfydk, c dsUæd jU/kz, d [kqjnjh vUr%izæO;h tkfydk, e jkbckslkse

(3) a dsUæd , b [kqjnjh vUr%izæO;h tkfydk, c jkbckslkse, d fpduh vUr%izæO;h tkfydk, e dsUæd jU/kz

(4*) a dsUæd , b [kqjnjh vUr%izæO;h tkfydk, c dsUæd jU/kz, d fpduh vUr%izæO;h tkfydk, e jkbckslkse

134. Select the wrong pair.

(1) Spherosome � Synthesis and storage of fat

(2) Peroxisome � Detoxification of H2O2

(3*) Zone of exclusion � Around mitochondria

(4) Packaging of material � Dictyosome

xyr ;qXe dk p;u dhft,

(1) LQhjkslkse � olk dk la'ys"k.k ,oa laxzg.k

(2) ijkWDlhlkse � H2O2 dk fujkfo"khdj.k

(3*) viotZu dk {ks=k � ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k ds pkjks vksj

(4) inkFkZ dh iSadsftu � fMfDV;kslkse

135. Which of the following is a modification of stem?

(1*) Tendril of Cucurbita (2) Tendril of pea

(3) Stipular tendril of Smilax (4) All of the above

fuEu esa ls dkSulk] rus dk ,d :ikUrj.k gSa?

(1*) dqdjfcVk ds izrku (2) eVj ds izrku

(3) LekbysDl ds daVdh; izrku (4) mijksDr lHkh

1

Course: MR - 1 (AIPMT) ELPD

Test Date: 16/08/2015

Paper Test Type : Cumulative 1 (CT -1)

Test Pattern : AIPMT

Time Duration: 3 Hrs.

Subject : Zoology

Syllabus : Diversity in the Living World and Animal Kingdom (Basis of animal classification, Animal

classification, Phylum-Protozoa, Porifera, Coelenterata, Ctenophora, Platyhelminthes,

Ascahelminthes, Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinodermata, Hemichordate, Chordata (Uro

and cephalochordata, cyclostomata, chondrichthyes, Osteichthyes, Amphibia)

136. Scale found in Chondrichthyes is/are

(1*) Placoid (2) Cycloid (3) Ctenoid (4) All

dkfUMªDFkht esa dkSuls 'kYd ik;s tkrs gSa

(1*) IysdkWbM (2) lkbDyksbM (3) fVuksbM (4) lHkh

137. External fertilization is found in

(1) Sting ray (2*) Flying fish (3) Saw fish (4) Dog fish

cká fu"kspu feyrk gS&

(1) fLVax js (2*) ¶ykbax fQ'k (3) lkW fQ'k (4) MkWx fQ'k

138. Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both marine and fresh water species

(1) Echionoderms (2) Ctenophroa (3) Cephalocoradata (4*) Cnidaria

crk;s x, VsDlksuksa esa mldk pquko dhft, ftlesa nkasuksa leqnzh vkSj LoPN tyh; tkfr;k¡ gksrh gSa\

(1) ,dkbuksMElZ (2) VsuksQksjk (3) flQsyksdkMsZVk (4*) fuMsfj;k

139. Respiration occur through organs like gills, book gills, book lungs or tracheal system found in phylum

(1) Mollusca (2) Annelida (3*) Arthropoda (4) None of these

'olu tks fxYl] cqd fxYl] cqd yaXl ;k Vªsfd;y ra=k tSls vaxksa ds ek/;e ls gksrk gS] ;g fdl la?k esa ik;k tkrk gS\

(1) eksyLdk (2) ,suhfyMk (3*) vkFkzksZiksMk (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

140. Which fish posses poison sting?

(1) Scoliodon (dog fish) (2*) Trygon

(3) Torpedo (4) Pristis (saw fish)

dkSulh eNyh esa fo"kSyk dk¡Vk gksrk gS\

(1) Ldksfy;ksMkWu¼dqÙkk eNyh½ (2*) VªkbxkWu

2

(3) VksjihMks (4) fizfLVl ¼lkW fQ'k½

141. An animal which is radially symmetrical as adult but bilaterally symmetrical as larva is -

(1*) Sea lily (2) Sea squid

(3) sea hare (4) Sea fan

,d ,slk izkf.k] tks izkS<+ voLFkk esa vjh; lefefr gksrk gS vkSj fMEHk voLFkk esa f}ik'oZ lefefr gksrk gS] dkSu lk gS \

(1*) leqnzh fyyh (2) leqnzh blD;qM

(3) leqnzh [kjxks'k (4) leqnzh ia[k

142. Select from the following the total number of organism that belongs to phylum arthropoda.

Locust, Butterfly, Scorpion, Prawn, Salpa, doliolums, Pila, Chiton, Antedon, Hyla,

Myxine, limulus, Loligo, Culex, Cucumaria, Cuttle fish.

fuEu esa ls dqy thoksa dk p;u djs tks la?k vkFkzksiksMk ls lacaf/kr gS

yksdLV] cVj¶ykbZ] LdkZfi;ksu] izkWu] lkYik] Mksfyvksyl] ikbyk] dkbVu] ,UVsMkWu] gk;yk

feDtkbu] fyeqyl] yksfyxks] D;qysDl] dqdqesfj;k] dVy fQ'k

(1) 4 (2*) 6 (3) 8 (4) 12

143. Which of the following are sensory organs in phylum Arthropoda?

I. Simple or compound eye.

II. Statocyst or balance organ.

III. Malphigian tubules

IV. Antennae

(1) All except IV (2) All except I (3) All except III (4*) All of these

la/k vkFkzksZiksMk esa] fuEu esa ls dkSuls laosnh vax gksrs gSa\

I. ljy ;k la;qä us=k

II. LVsVksflLV ;k larqyu vax

III. esfYi?kh ufydk,sa

IV. ,fUVuh

(1) IV ds vYkkok lHkh (2) I ds vYkkok lHkh (3) III ds vYkkok lHkh (4*) ;s lHkh

144. Select the total number of organism which of posses two chambered heart and are poikilothermal. Scolidon

Pristis, Clarias, Pterophyllum, Echinus, Devil Fish, Cuttle fish, Sea lily, Exocoetus, Labeo, catla, Torpedo,

Trygon

mu thoksa dh dqy la[;k dk p;u dhft;s] tks f}dks"Bh; ân; j[krs gSa rFkk vlerkih gksrs gSaA

Ldksfy;ksMksu] fizfLVl] Dysfj;l] VsjksfQYye] ,fdul] Msfoy fQ'k] dVy fQ'k] lh fyfy] ,DlkslhVl] ysfc;ks] dVyk]

VksjfiMks] VªkbxkWu

(1) 7 (2*) 9 (3) 11 (4) 13

145. Select correct matching.

A. Bufo 1. Salamander

B. Frog 2. Rana

C. Hyla 3. Limbless amphibian

3

D. Salamandra 4. Tree frog

E. Icthyophis 5. Toad

lgh feyku dk pquko dhft;s&

A. cwQks 1. lkykes.Mªk

B. esa<+d 2. jkuk

C. gkbyk 3. iknjfgr mHk;pj

D. lsykes.Mªk 4. o{koklh esa<+d

E. bDFkh;ksfQl 5. VksM

(1) A 2, B 5, C 4, D 1, E 3 (2*) A 5, B 2, C 4, D 1, E 3

(3) A 2, B 4, C 5, D 1, E 3 (4) A 5, B 4, C 2, D 1, E 3

146. I. Stream-lined body

II. Both marine and fresh water

III. Mouth terminal

IV. Caudal fin homocercal

V. 4 pair of gills with operculum

Which class has the above characters?

(1) Cyclostomata (2) Chondricthyes (3*) Osteicthyes (4) Amphibia

I. /kkjkjsf[kr 'kjhj

II. leqnzh ,oa LoPN tyh; nksuksa

III. vUrLFk eq[k

IV. dkWMy fQu gkseksldZy

V. vkWijdwye ;qä 4 tksM+h Dykse

dkSulk oxZ mijksä y{k.k j[krk gS\

(1) lkbDyksLVksesVk (2) dkWfUMªDFkht (3*) vkWLVhDFkht (4) ,EQhfc;k

147. Common name of which organism contain �sea� in their name?

(1) Chaetopleura (2) Dentalium (3) Sepia (4*) Aplysia

og lkekU; uke ftlesaa tarq ds uke esa *lh* lfEefyr gSA

(1) dhVksIywjk (2) MsUVsfy;e (3) lsfi;k (4*) vIykbfl;k

148. Following are marine bony fishes.

(1) Exocoetus (flying fish) (2) Hippocampus (sea- horse)

(3*) Both (1) and (2) (4) Saw fish (pristis)

fuEu leqnzh vfLFky eNfy;k¡ gSa&

(1) ,DlkslhVl ¼¶ykbax fQ'k½ (2) fgIiksdsEil ¼lh&gkslZ½

(3*) (1) o (2) nksuksa (4) lkW fQ'k ¼fizfLVl½

4

149. Which of the following is true about reproduction in echinoderms?

(1) Unisexuality

(2) Usually external fertilization

(3) Indirect development through free swimming larva

(4*) All of these

bdkbuksMElZ eas iztuu ds fy, fuEu eas D;k lR; gSA

(1) ,dfyaxrk

(2) lkekU;r% cká fu"kspu

(3) eqä Iykoh ykokZ ds }kjk vizR;{k ifjo/kZu

(4*) mijksDr lHkh

150. Which of the following is incorrect about Cartilaginous fish?

(1) Teeth are modified placoid scales which are backwordly directed

(2) Separate gill slites for respiration but without operculum (i.e. gill cover)

(3) Air bladder absent so they have to swim constantly to avoid sinking

(4*) In males pelvic fins claspers are absent

mikfLFky eNyh ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk lgh gS\

(1) nk¡r :ikarfjr 'kYd gksrs gSa tks ihNs dh vksj funsZf'kr gksrs gSaA

(2) 'olu ds fy;s iFkd Dykse fNnz ijUrq vkWijdqye ¼Dykse vkPNn½ jfgr

(3) ok;q vk'k; vuqifLFkr] vr% bUgsa Mqcus ls cpus ds fy;s fu;fer :i ls rSjuk iM+rk gSA

(4*) ujksa esa isfYod fQu esa DykLij vuqifLFkr gksrs gSa

151. Following are spiny-bodied animals:

Pila, Pinctada, Asterias, Echinus, Antedon, Cucumaria, Brittle star, Octopus

fuEu esa dafVdk ;qDr 'kjhj okys tarq gSA

ikbyk] fiadVkMk] ,LVsfj;kl] bdkbul] ,UVsMksu] dqdqesfj;k] fczVy LVkj] vkWDVksil

(1) 4 (2*) 5 (3) 6 (4) 3

152. Select total number of bony fishes from the following.

Exocoetus, Hippocampus, labeo, Catla, Clarisas, Betta, Pterophyllum, Trygon, Torpedo, Pristis, Scoliodon,

Carcharodon.

fuEu eas ls vfLFky eNfy;ksa dh dqy la[;k dk p;u dhft,A

,DlkslhVl , ghIiksdsEil , ysfc;ks, dVyk, Dysfj;l , csV~Vk, VsjksfQye, VªkbxksUk, VksjihMks, fifLVl , LdksfyvksMksu, dkjdsjksMksu

(1*) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 12

153. Select the total number of lizards from the following

Chelone, calotes, crocodilus, hemidactylus, columba, neophron

fuEu esa dqy fNidfy;ksa dk p;u dhft;s&

dhyksu] dsyksVht] ØksdksMkby] gsfeMsDVkbyl] dksywEck] fu;ksÝksu

(1*) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

5

154. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two charcters and its phylum are not correctly matched,

where as the remaining three are correct?

Genus

name

Two

characters

Phylum

(1*) Pila (a) Body

Segmented

Mollusca

(b) Mouth

with Radual

(2) Asterias (a) Spiny

Skinned

Echinodermata

(b) Water

vascular

system

(3) Sycon (a) Pore bearing Porifera

(b) Canal

system

(4) Periplaneta (a) Jointed

appendages

Arthropoda

(b) Chitinous

exoskeleton

fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ,d esa ,d thul uke mldh nks fof'kf"Vrkvksa rFkk blds Qkbye dks xyr feyk;k x;k gS tcfd

'ks"k rhu lgh gS\

thul uke nkss Yk{k.k Qkbye

(1*) ikbyk (a) nsg [kaM;qDr ekSyLdk

(b) jsM~yk ls

;qDr eq[k

(2) ,sLVsfj;e (a) 'kwyh; Ropk

bdkbuksMesZVk

(b) ty laokgd

ra=k

(3) lkbdkWu (a) fNæ/kkjh iksjhQsjk

(b) uky ra=k

(4) isfjIySusVk (a) laf/kr mikax vkFkzksiksMk

(b) dkbfVuh

cká dadky

6


(1) Asterias � Sea urchin

(2) Pila � Pearl oyster

(3*) Ophiura � Brittle star

(4) Loligo � Cuttle fish

lgh lqesfyr dk p;u dhft,&

(1) ,LVsfj;k & lh vfpZu

(2) ikbyk & iyZ vks,LVj

(3*) vkWfQ;wjk & fczVy LVkj

(4) yksfyxks & dVy fQ'k

156 Following are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water, after spawning, within a few days, they die.

Their larvae, after metamorphosis, return to ocean. Specify the correct one.

(1) Petromyzon (Lamprey) (2) Myxine (Hagfish)

(3) Scoliodon (4*) Both (1) and (2)

fuEu tarq leqnzh gksrs gSa ijUrq v.Ms nsus ds fy;s LoPN ty dh vksj izokl djrs gSa] v.Msa nsus ds i'pkr~ dqN gh fnuksa esa

ej tkrs gSaA muds ykokZ dk;kUrj.k ds i'pkr~ okil leqnz esa ykSV tkrs gSaA lgh dks igpkfu;sA

(1) isVªksekbtksu ¼ysEisz½ (2) feDlhu ¼gsxfQ'k½

(3) Ldksfy;ksMksu (4*) (1) o (2) nksuksa

157. Select incorrect matching.

(1) Asterias � Star fish

(2) Echinus � Sea urchin

(3) Antedon � Sea lily

(4*) Cucumaria � Sea fan

vlR; feyku dk p;u dhft,&

(1) ,LVsfj;kl & LVkj fQ'k

(2) bdkbul & lh vfpZu

(3) ,UVsMksu & Lkh fyfy

(4*) dqdqesfj;k & lh Qsu

158. Following are character of cyclostomata.

(1) 6�15 pairs of gill slits for respiration

(2) Sucking and circular month without jaws

(3) Body is devoid of scales and paired

(4*) All

fuEu y{k.k lkbDyksLVksesVk ds gSa&

(1) 'olu ds fy;s 6 ls15 Dykse fNnz

(2) tcM+ksa jfgr] pw"kd izdkj dk ,oa oÙkkdkj eq[k

(3) 'kjhj 'kYdksa ,oa ;qfXer i{eksa jfgr

(4*) lHkh

7

159. Which of the following is a gregarious pest?

(1) Laccifer (2*) Locusta (3) King crab (4) Both (1) and (2)

fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d fxzxsfj;l isLV gS\

(1) ysflQj (2*) yksdLV (3) fdax Øsc (4) (1) o (2) nksuksa

160. The mouth contain file-like rasping organ for feeding called radula found in

(1*) Mollusca (2) Hemichrodata (3) Echinodermata (4) Arthropoda

eq[k esa fLFkr Qkby leku jkfLiax vax tks iks"k.k ds fy, gksrk gS] mls jsMqyk dgrs gS] ;g fdlesa ik;k tkrk gSA

(1*) eksyLdk (2) gsehdkWMsZVk (3) bdkbuksMesZVk (4) vkFkksZiksM+k

161. Which of the following is not a fish?

(1) Devil fish (2) Cuttle fish (3) Jelly fish (4*) All of these

fuEu esa ls dkSu ,d eNyh ugha gS \

(1) Msfoy fQ'k (3) dVy fQ'k (3) tSyh fQ'k (4*) mijksDr lHkh

162. How many of the following belongs to subphylum cephalochordata?

Ascidia, Salpa, Doliolium, Branchiostoma

fuEu esa ls fdrus la?k flQsyksdkWMsZVk ls lacaf/kr gS&

,slhfM;k] lkYik] Mksfyvksye] czsfUd;ksLVksek]

(1*) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

163 Excretory organ proboscis gland is present in-

(1) Ascidia (2) Salpa (3) Doliolum (4*) Saccoglossus

mRlthZ vax izkscksfll xzafFk fdlesa mifLFkr gksrh gS-

(1) ,flfM;k (2) lkYik (3) Mksyhvksye (4*) lsdksXyksll

164. Osteichthyes possess which kind scales?

(1) Placoid (2) Cycloid (3) Ctenoid (4*) Both (2) And (3)

vkWLVhDFkht esa dkSuls 'kYd ik;s tkrs gSa

(1) IysdkWbM (2) lkbDyksbM (3) fVuksbM (4*) (2) o (3) nksuksa

165. First vertebrate which are warm-blooded

(1) Reptilia (2) Amphibian (3*) Birds (4) Mammals

izFke d'ks:dh tks Å ".k jä okys gksrs gSa&

(1) jsfIVfy;k (2) ,fEQfc;k (3*) i{kh (4) Lruh

166. Following are the features of choradates.

I. Notrchord present

II. CNS is dorsal, hollow and single

III. Pharynx perforated by gill slits

IV. Heart ventral

V. A post-anal is present

(1) All expert IV (2) All expert II (3*) All (4) All expert V

8

fuEu y{k.k dkWMsZV~l ds gSa&

I. ukWVksdkWMZ mifLFkr

II. CNS i"Bh;] [kks[kyk ,oa ,dy

III. xzluh] Dykse fNnzksa }kjk fNfnzr

IV. ân; v/kjh;

V. ,d xqnk i'p iwaN mifLFkr

(1) IV ds vykok lHkh (2) II ds vykok lHkh (3*) lHkh (4) V ds vykok lHkh

167. Which fish possess electric organs?

(1) Scoliodon (dog fish) (2) Trygon

(3*) Torpedo (4) Pristis (saw fish)

dkSulh eNyh esa fo|qr vax gksrk gS\

(1) Ldksfy;ksMkWu ¼dqÙkk eNyh½ (2) VªkbxkWu

(3*) VksjfiMks (4) fizfLVhl ¼lkW fQ'k½

168. In which subphyla, Notochord is present in tail of larva only?

(1) Hemichordata (2*) Urochordata (3) Cephalochordata (4) All

fdl mila?k esa] ukWVksdkWMZ dsoy ykokZ dh iwaN esa mifLFkr gksrs gSa\

(1) gsfedkWMsZVk (2*) ;wjksdkWMsZVk (3) flQsyksdkWMsZVk (4) lHkh

169. Select incorrect statement from the following

(1) In veretebrates notochord is replaced by cartilaginous or bony vertebral column.

(2) In cephalochordates, notochord extended from head to tail region and persistent throughout life.

(3) Protochordates are exclusively marine.

(4) Notochord is present in tail of adult in urochordata.

fuEu esa ls vlR; dFku dk p;u dhft;s&

(1) d'ks:fd;ksa esa ukWVksdkWMZ] mikfLFky ;k vfLFky d'ks:d n.M }kjk izfrLFkkfir gks tkrh gSA

(2) lhQsyksdkWMsZV~l esa ukVksdkWMZ 'kh"kZ ls iwaN {ks=k rd foLrkfjr gksrh gS rFkk thou Hkj jgrh gSA

(3) izksVksdkWMsZV~l iw.kZr leqnzh gksrs gSaA

(4*) ;wjksdkWMsZVk esas ukWVksdkWMZ] o;Ld dh iwaN esa mifLFkr gksrh gSa

170. Which of the following organism posses cartilaginous cranium, vertebral column, closed Circulatory system

(1) Ascidia (2) Scolidon (3*) Petromyzon (4) All

fuEu esa ls dkSulk tho mikfLFky diky] d'ks:d n.M] can ifjlapj.k ra=k j[krk gSA

(1) ,flfM;k (2) Ldksfy;ksMksu (3*) isVªksekbtksu (4) lHkh

171. Urochordata and cephalochordata are referred as

(1) Non chordate (2) Vertebrates (3*) Proctochordata (4) All of these

;wjksdkWMsZVk rFkk flQsyksdkWMsZVk dks dgk tkrk gS

9

(1) ukWu dkWMsZV (2) ofVZcszV~l (3*) izksVksdkWMsZVk (4) buesa ls lHkh

172. The body of______is unsegmented with a distinct head, muscular foot and visceral mass

(1) Asterias (2) Ophiura (3) Balonoglossus (4*) Devil fish

______dk 'kjhj v[kf.Mr rFkk flj] is'kh; ikn] ,oa foljy nzO;eku ;qDr gksrk gSA

(1) ,LVsfj;kl (2) vkWfQ;wjk (3) cSysuksXyksll (4*) Msfoy fQ'k

173. Other name of branchiostoma is

(1) Amphioxus (2) lancelet (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None

cszfUd;ksaLVksek dk vU; uke gS&

(1) ,fEQvksDll (2) ysUlhysV (3*) (1) & (2) nksuksa (4) dksbZ ugh

174. a. Marine with streamlined body

b. Cartilaginous endoskeleton

c. Mouth ventral

d. Clasper in pelvic fin of male

e. Notochord is Persistent throughout life

Above character belongs to which of the following organism (select total number)?

Dog fish, Saw fish, Flying fish, Fighting fish, Star fish, Trygon, Torpedo, Rohu katla, Magur

a. /kkjk jsf[kr 'kjhj leqnzh

b. mikfLFky vUr%dadky

c. v/kjh; eq[k

d. uj ds isfYod fQu esa DykLij

e. ukWVksdkWMZ thouHkj jgrh gS

mijksä y{k.k fdu thoksa ¼dqy la[;k dk p;u dhft;s½ ls lEcfU/kr gSa\

MkWx fQ'k] lkW fQ'k] ¶ykabx fQ'k] QkbfVax fQ'k] LVkj fQ'k] Vªkbxksu] VkWjihMks] jksgw] dVyk] esxqj

(1) 3 (2*) 4 (3) 6 (4) 7

175. Skin in moist and a tympanum represents ear, is found in

(1) Hyla (2) Frog (3) Ichthyophis (4*) All of these

ue Ropk rFkk d.kZ dks iznf'kZr djrk gqvk fVEisue fdlesa ik;k tkrk gS

(1) gkbyk (2) esa<d (3) bDFkk;ksfQl (4*) buesa ls lHkh


(1) Petromyzon � Hagfish

(2) Myxine � Lamprey

(3*) Carcharodon � Great white shark

(4) Trygon � Torpedo

lgh feyku dk p;u dhft;sA

(1) isVªksekbtksu � gsxfQ'k

(2) feDlhu � ysEisz

10

(3*) dkjdsjksMkWu � fo'kky lQsn 'kkdZ

(4) VªkbxkWu � VksjfiMks

177. Air bladder which regulate buoyancy is present in

(1) Cyclostomata (2) Cartilaginous fish (3*) Bony fishes (4) Amphibians

ok;q vk'k; tks mRIykodrk dks fu;fer djrk gS] ik;k tkrk gS&

(1) lkbDyksLVksesVk esa (2) mikfLFky eNyh esa (3*) vfLFky eNfy;ksa esa (4) ,EQhfc;Ul esa

178. Common feature in earthworm and cockroach is

(1) Cuticle (Exoskeleton) (2*) Solid and ventral nerve cord

(3) Nephridia (4) Malpighian tubules

dsapqvk ,oa dkWdjksp esa leku y{k.k gS

(1) D;wfVdy ¼cká dadky½ (2) dBksj ,oa v/kj raf=dk jTtq

(3) usÝhfM;k (4) eSYih?kh ufydk

179. Following are fresh water bony fishes.

(1) Betta (fighting fish) (2) Catla (katla) (3) Clarias (magur) (4*) All

fuEu LoPN tyh; vfLFky eNfy;k¡ gSa&

(1) csêk ¼QkbfVax fQ'k½ (2) dVyk ¼dVyk½ (3) Dysfj;l ¼esxqj½ (4*) lHkh

180. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic and the taxon?

Animals Characteristic Taxon

(1) Millipede Ventral

nerve cord

Arachnida

(2) Duck

billed

platypus

Oviparity Mammalia

(3) Silver fish Pectoral

and pelvic

fins

Chordate

(4) Sea anemone Triploblastic Cnidaria

fuEu esa ls dkSuls ,d tUrq y{k.k o mlds VsDlkWu ls lqesfyr gS\

tUrq y{k.k VsDlkWu

(1) ehyhihM v/kj rafU=kdk

dkWMZ

,jsfDuMk

(2) MdckbYM

IysVhil

v.M iztdrk Lru/kkjh

11

(3) flYoj ehu isDVksjy o

isfYod fQu

dksMsZVk

(4) lh ,uheksu VªhIyksCykfLVd fuMsfj;k

(1*) 22.4 l (2) 11.2 l (3) 16.8 l (4) 14.93 lelpd.resonance.ac.in/aipmtdownload/xii/1....

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