02 je electronics qp 001

13
Question Booklet Series :ç'u iqfLrdk J`a[kyk %& A Question Booklet No. :ç'u iqfLrdk la[;k %& Time Allowed : 1 Hour 30 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 vuqer le; % 1 ?kaVk 30 feuV ELECTRONICS ç”uksa dh dqy la[;k % 120 Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad % -------------------------------------------- vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k : ----------------------------- Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : vH;FkÊ dk uke % -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;FkÊ ds gLrk{kj % ------------------------------- d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj % ------------------------------------- READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY BEFORE WRITING ANYTHING ON THIS BOOKLET bl iqfLrdk ij dqN Hkh fy[kus ls igys fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+sa 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has all the 120 questions and there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming, intimate the same to your room invigilator and have it changed. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. 1. viuk mÙkj fy[kuk çkjEHk djus ls igys viuh ç'u iq fLrdk dh Hkyh&Hkk¡ fr tk¡ p dj ys a ] ns [k ys a fd bles a 120 ç'u gS a vkS j bles a a fVa x laca/kh vFkok vU; fdLe dh dksbZ deh ugha gSA ;fn fdlh çdkj dh dksbZ deh gks rks i;Z os {kd dks lw fpr djs a rFkk iq fLrdk cny ys a A bl la nHkZ es a fdlh Hkh çdkj dh dksbZ f'kdk;r ij ckn esa dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA 2. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answer. Each question carries equal mark. 2. xyr mÙkj ds fy, _.kkRed vadu ugha gksxkA çR;sd ç”u ds vad leku gSaA 3. Ask invigilator to sign on your admit card. If the same is not got signed by you, your candidature shall be liable to be rejected. 3. d{k&fujh{kd ls vius ços”k&i= ij gLrk{kj vo”; djok,aA ;fn vkius gLrk{kj ugha djok;k rks vkidh ik=rk jí dj nh tk,xhA 4. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet. 4. ;g ,d oLrqijd fdLe dh ijh{kk gS ftlesa çR;sd ç'u ds uhps Øekad (1) ls (4) rd pkj çLrkfor mÙkj fn;s gSaA vkids fopkj esa tks Hkh mÙkj lgh@loZJs"B gS mldks vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i= esa fn;s funsZ'k ds vuqlkj fpfUgr dhft,A vius mÙkj ç'u iqfLrdk esa u yxk,A 5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED. 5. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lHkh dk;ks± ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls fy[ksaA vks-,e-vkj mÙkj if=dk ij vksoy dks iw.kZ :i ls dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj fn, x, mÙkj dks cnyk ugha tk ldrkA 6. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold or staple it. 6. mÙkj&i= ij u rks jQ+ dk;Z djsa u gh vkSj fdlh çdkj dk fu'kku vkfn yxk,a ;k bls eksaM+sA 7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall. 7. dsYdqysVj] LykbM:y] eksckbZy] dsYdqysVj ?kfM+;k¡ ;k bl çdkj dh dksbZ Hkh ;qfä ,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanHkZ lkexzh vkfn dk ç;ksx ijh{kk d{k esa oftZr gSA 8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work. 8. jQ+ dk;Z iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku esa fd;k tkuk pkfg,] vks-,e- vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij dksbZ Hkh jQ+ dk;Z u djsaA fdlh vU; dkx+t ij bls djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA 9. The Question Booklet will be in four series (A, B, C and D). You must write correct Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. 9. ç'u iqfLrdk ¼A, B, C ,oa D½ pkj J` a [kykvks a es a gks xhA vkidks vks -,e- vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç'u iqfLrdk J` a[kyk fy[kuk gSA 10. Return the complete Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take this Question Booklet or any part thereof or OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence. 10. ijh{kk dh lekfIr ds i'pkr~ viuh iwjh ç'u&iqfLrdk rFkk mÙkj&if=dk i;Zos{kd dks okil dj nsaA ç'u iqfLrdk ;k blds fdlh Hkkx vFkok OMR mÙkj if=dk dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj ys tkuk oftZr gS ,slk djuk nUMuh; vijk/k gSA 11 Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes. 11 gj ,d ç'u ds fy, ds oy ,d gh mÙkj ba fxr djsa A ,d ls vf/kd mÙkj ns us ij ç'u dk dks bZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA mÙkj es a dks bZ Hkh dfVa x ;k vks ojjkbZ fVa x ekU; ugha gks xhA iq u% ç'u i= f}Hkk"kh; ¼fgUnh ,oa va xz s th½ es a gS A fgUnh la Ldj.k es a fdlh Hkh fHkérk gks us ij ew Y;ka du ds fy, va xz s th la Ldj.k dks vfUre ekuk tk;s xkA

Upload: balajipeda

Post on 26-Nov-2015

56 views

Category:

Documents


0 download

DESCRIPTION

drmc previous question paper for electronics(juniour engineer)

TRANSCRIPT

  • Question Booklet Series : 'u iqfLrdk J`a[kyk %& A Question Booklet No. : 'u iqfLrdk la[;k %&

    Time Allowed : 1 Hour 30 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120vuqer le; % 1 ?kaVk 30 feuV ELECTRONICS uksa dh dqy la[;k % 120

    Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqekad % -------------------------------------------- vks-,e-vkj- mkj if=dk la[;k : ----------------------------- Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : vH;Fk dk uke % --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;Fk ds gLrk{kj % ------------------------------- d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj % -------------------------------------

    READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY BEFORE WRITING ANYTHING ON THIS BOOKLET

    bl iqfLrdk ij dqN Hkh fy[kus ls igys fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i

  • GENERAL AWARENESS & LOGICAL ABILITY

    1. Where is Sir Creek located: (1) Near Mc Mohan line on India China border in North East (2) Indo Pak boundary along Gujarat (3) Along India Myanmar border (4) Indo Pak boundary along Srinagar

    1. lj hd dgk fLFkr gSa% (1) mkj iwoZ fLFkr Hkkjr phu lhek ij eSd eksgu js[kk ds lehi (2) xqtjkr ls gksrh gqbZ Hkkjr ikd lhek ij (3) Hkkjr E;kuekj lhek ij (4) Jhuxj ls lVs gq, Hkkjr ikd lhek ij

    2. The first battle of Tarain was fought between: (1) Mohammad Ghori and Prithvi Raj Chauhan (2) Akbar and Hemu (3) Mahmud of Ghazni and Prithvi Raj Chauhan (4) Akbar and Rana Pratap

    2. rjkbZ dk Fke ;q) fdlds e/; gqvk% (1) ekSgEen xksjh ,oa i`Foh jkt pkSgku (2) vdcj ,oa gsew (3) egewn xtuoh ,oa i`Foh jkt pkSgku (4) vdcj ,oa jk.kk rki

    3. Find out the incorrect statement: (1) The council of ministers has to resign if a no confidence

    motion is passed by the majority members of the Lok Sabha (2) Quorum of either house (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) shall

    be one fifth of the total number of members of the house (3) The maximum gap between two sessions of parliament

    can be six months (4) Majority of States in India have unicameral legislature

    3. vlR; dFku dks crk,a% (1) ea=h ifjkn dks R;kx&i= nsuk iM+rk gS ;fn vfookl Lrko yksd

    lHkk esa cgqer lnL;ksa }kjk ikfjr fd;k tkrk gS (2) fdlh Hkh lnu yksd lHkk ;k jkT; lHkk dh x.kiwfrZ ml lnu ds

    dqy lnL; la[;k dh 1/5 gksxh (3) laln ds nks l=ksa ds e/; vf/kdre vUrjky N% eghus dk gks

    ldrk gS (4) Hkkjr esa vf/kdkak jkT;ksa esa ,d lnuh; fo/kku lHkk gS

    4. Anjali Bhagwat is related to the game (1) Equestrian (2) Kayaking (3) Shooting (4) Fencing

    4. vatyh Hkkxor lacaf/kr gSa% (1) ?kqM+lokjh (2) ukSdk;u (3) fu'kkusckt+h (4) ryokjckt+h

    5. Lona word is related to: (1) Atya-Patya (2) Kho-Kho (3) Wrestling (4) Kabaddi

    5. yksuk kCn lacaf/kr gSa% (1) vkV~;k&ikV~;k (2) [kks&[kks (3) dqrh (4) dch

    6. Identify the wrong match: (1) River that does not flow in bay of Bengal Tapti (2) City that never gets the vertical rays of sun all through

    the year Srinagar (3) Kilometer that represents 1 degree latitude 111 km (4) The Shillong declaration which was in news some time

    back was on Right to Education act

    6. xyr tksM+s dks igpkusa% (1) unh tks caxky dh [kkM+h esa ugha fxjrh gS & rkIrh (2) kgj tks iwjs okZ lw;Z dh /okZ/kj fdj.kksa dks dHkh ugha kIr djrk

    & Jhuxj (3) fdyksehVj tks fd 1 fMxzh v{kkak nfkZr djrk gS &111

    fdyksehVj (4) fkykax ?kksk.kk tks fd vHkh dqN le; igys lekpkj lqf[kZ;ksa esa Fkk

    & fk{kk ds vf/kdkj vf/kfu;e ij Fkk

    7. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India gave verdicts which have a direct bearing on CenterState relations? (1) S.R. Bommai case (2) Indira Sawhney Case (3) Keshavananda Bharti case (4) None of the above

    7. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ekeys esa loksZPp U;k;ky; us ;g vknsk fn;k tks fd dsU vkSj jkT;ksa ds lEcU/k ij lh/kk vlj Mkyrk gS% (1) ,l-vkj- cksEebZ dsl (2) bfUnjk lkguh dsl (3) dskokuUn Hkkjrh dsl (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    8. Match ListI with listII and select the correct answer using the codes given below: ListI ListII 1. Chilka Lake A. Kerala 2. Alappuzha B. Odisha 3. Fort aguda C. Port Blair 4. Cellular jail National Memorial D. Goa E. Hyderabad

    (1) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (2) 1-C, 2-D, 3-E, 4-B (3) 1-B, 2-D, 3-E, 4-C (4) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

    8. lwph&I dks lwph&II ls lqesfyr djsa ,oa uhps fn;s x, lgh dksM dks pqudj mkj nsa% lwph&I lwph&II 1. fpydk >hy A. dsjy 2. vYiq>k B. vksfMkk 3. QksVZ vxqMk C. iksVZCys;j 4. lsY;qyj tsy uskuy eseksfj;y D. xksok E. gSnjkckn (1) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (2) 1-C, 2-D, 3-E, 4-B (3) 1-B, 2-D, 3-E, 4-C (4) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

    (Aptitude) A-1 Morning Session

    www.electroark.blogspot.com

  • 9. Match ListI with ListII ListI ListII 1. Jawahar Lal Nehru Port A. Tamilnadu 2. Paradip Port B. Maharastra 3. Kandla Port C. Odisha 4. Ennore Port D. Gujarat (1) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C (2) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A (3) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A (4) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C

    9. lwph&I dks lwph&II ls lqesfyr djsa% lwph&I lwph&II 1. tokgj yky usg: iksVZ A. rfeyukMw 2. ikjknhi iksVZ B. egkjkV 3. dkUnyk iksVZ C. vkfMkk 4. ,ksj iksVZ D. xqtjkr (1) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C (2) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A (3) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A (4) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C

    10. What is the the salary of ex-officeo chairman of Rajya Sabha: (1) ` 1,25,000/- (2) ` 1,50,000/- (3) ` 1,00,000/- (4) None of the above

    10. jkT; lHkk ds insu v/;{k dk osru D;k gksrk gS\ (1) ` 1,25,000/- (2) ` 1,50,000/- (3) ` 1,00,000/- (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    11. Sitara Devi is associated with which form of dance: (1) Kuchipudi (2) Kathak (3) Bharatnatyam (4) Kathakali

    11. flrkjk nsoh u`R; ds fdl Lo:i ls lEcfU/kr gS% (1) dqphiqMh (2) dRFkd (3) Hkkjr ukV~;e (4) dFkdyh

    12. Rhine valley in France is known for mineral deposits of: (1) Bauxite (2) Copper (3) Nickel (4) Zinc

    12. kal esa fLFkr jkbZu ?kkVh fdl [kfut inkFkZ ds fy, tkuh tkrh gS% (1) ckWDlkbZV (2) rkck (3) fudy (4) tLrk

    13. The gas used for ripening of fruits: (1) Ethylene (2) Phosphine (3) Acetylene (4) None of these

    13. Qyksa dks idkus ds fy, ;q xSl gksrh gS% (1) ,sFkhyhu (2) QkLQhu (3) ,sflVhyhu (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    14. Protein deficiency disease is known as: (1) Cushings disease (2) Fabrys disease (3) Parkinsons disease (4) Kwashiorkor and Marasmus

    14. ksVhu dh deh dk jksx dgykrk gS% (1) dfkax jksx (2) QSczh jksx (3) ikfdZUlu jksx (4) dokfk;ksjdksj rFkk ejklel

    15. A gland that disappears in the adult but is inactive during childhood is: (1) Hypothalamus (2) Parathyroid (3) Adrenal cortex (4) Thymus

    15. ,d xzfUFk tks ckfyx gksus ij yqIr rFkk ckY;koLFkk esa vf;k'khy jgrh gS% (1) gkbZiksFkysel~ (2) iSjkFkk;jk;M (3) ,sfMuy dksjVsDl (4) FkkbZel

    16. Sunderbans are part of the worlds largest delta, where 3 rivers meet. Besides Ganga and Bramputra, which is the third river? (1) Meghna (2) Yamuna (3) Godavari (4) Kosi

    16. laqnjcUl nqfu;k ds lcls cM+s MsYVk dk fgLlk gSa] tgk 3 ufn;k feyrh gSaA xaxk vkSj cziq=k ds vykok rhljh unh dkSu&lh gS\ (1) es?kuk (2) ;equk (3) xksnkojh (4) dkslh

    17. Seven North-Eastern states are called The Seven Sisters. Which one among the followings is not a part of this group: (1) Tripura (2) Sikkim (3) Mizoram (4) Nagaland

    17. lkr mkj&iwo jkT;ksa dks ^lkr cgusa* dgk tkrk gSA fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&lk bl leqnk; esa ugha vkrk% (1) f=iqjk (2) flfe (3) fet+ksje (4) ukxkyS.M

    18. Point out the incorrect statement To qualify for the membership of Rajya Sabha, one has to. (1) Be a citizen of India (2) Be at least 30 years of age (3) Fulfils the qualifications of becoming a member of

    parliament (4) Be a voter in any Lok Sabha constituency of India

    18. vlR; dFku dks igpkus jkT; lHkk dh lnL;rk kIr djus ds fy, fuEufyf[kr dk gksuk vko;d gSA (1) mls Hkkjr dk ukxfjd gksuk pkfg, (2) 30 okZ dh vk;q de ls de gksuh pkfg, (3) laln lnL; cuus ds fy, lHkh vgZrkvksa dks iwjk djuk pkfg, (4) Hkkjr ds fdlh yksd lHkk {ks= ls ernkrk gksuk pkfg,

    19. A instrument used for measurement of blood pressure: (1) Hygrometer (2) Lactometer (3) Sphygomanometer (4) Densitometer

    19. CyM s'kj ekius ds fy, ;q fd, tkus okyk midj.k gksrk gS% (1) gkbZxzksehVj (2) ySDVksehVj (3) LQkbZxkseSuksehVj (4) MsfUlVksehVj

    (Aptitude) A-2 Morning Session

    www.electroark.blogspot.com

  • 20. Who discovered radioactivity for the first time: (1) Madam Curie (2) Henry Bacquerel (3) Neils Bohr (4) J. J. Thomson

    20. jsfM;ks /kfeZrk dh igys [kkst fdlus dh% (1) eSMe D;wjh (2) gSujh ckd;wfjy (3) uhy cksj (4) ts- ts- Fkkelu

    21. Which one of the following is an ore of silver: (1) Argentite (2) Stibnite (3) Haematite (4) Bauxite

    21. fuEu esa jtr dk v;Ld dkSu gS% (1) vtSZuVkbZV (2) fLrcukbZV (3) gSesVkbV (4) ckDlkbZV

    22. Temperature of sun is measured by: (1) Gas thermometer (2) Pyrometer (3) Vapour pressure thermometer (4) Platinum resistance thermometer

    22. lw;Z dk rkieku ukik tkrk gS% (1) xSl rkiekih ls (2) mkki ekih ls (3) okinkc rkiekih ls (4) IysfVue frjks/k rkiekih ls

    23. When a ray of light enters a glass slab from air: (1) Its wave length decreases (2) Its wave length increases (3) Its frequency increases (4) No change

    23. tc dksbZ dkk fdj.k gok ls gksdj fdlh dkap ifdk esa osk djrh gS rks mldh% (1) rjaxnS/;Z c

  • DIRECTIONS: Select the suitable alternative to satisfy the relationship in the following questions.

    29. Book : Publisher : : Film: (1) Director (2) Writer (3) Producer (4) Audience

    funsZk% fuEufyf[kr uksa esa muds lEcU/kksa dks lUrqV djus okys lgh fodYi dks pqfu,A

    29. iqLrd % dkkd % % fQYe (1) funsZkd (2) ys[kd (3) fuekZrk (4) nkZd

    DIRECTIONS: (Question nos. 30 to 34) The President of a club is appointing nine officials A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I to serve on three committees to study three different aspects of activities of the club. There will be a Games Committee, a Food Service Committee and an Entertainment Committee. The appointment must respect the following Each committee must have exactly three members. No person can serve on more than one committee. H must serve in the Entertainment Committee, G must serve on the Games Committee, E cannot be in Games Committee. C & D must serve in the same committee. A & B cannot serve in the same committee. I cannot serve in the same committee as E. F must serve in the same committee where both B & H.

    30. Which of the following is the correct pair serving food committee? (1) I & G (2) A & D (3) E & D (4) A & C

    funsZk% u la[;k 30 ls 34 ,d Dyc ds v/;{k 9 vf/kdkfj;ksa A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H ,oa I dks Dyc ds f;kdykiksa ds rhu fofHk igyqvksa dk v/;;u djus ds fy, rhu desVh dh fu;qf dj jgs gSaA rhu desfV;k bl dkj gSa & [ksy lfefr] [kku&iku lsok lfefr ,oa euksjatu lfefrA fu;qf;k fuEu krks ds vuqlkj gksuh gSa& R;sd lfefr esa Bhd rhu lnL; gksxsaA dksbZ Hkh O;f ,d lfefr ls T;knk esa lnL; ugha gksxkA H euksjatu lfefr esa gksxkA G [ksy lfefr esa gksxkA E [ksy lfefr esa ugha gks ldrk gSA C ,oa D ,d gh lfefr esa gksxsaA A ,oa B ,d lfefr esa ugha gks ldrsA ml lfefr esa dke ugha dj ldrk ftlesa E gSA F mlh lfefr esa dke djsxk tgk B ,oa H nksuksa gSaA

    30. fuEufyf[kr esa ls [kku&iku lsok lfefr okyk lgh tksM+k dkSu&lk gS\ (1) I & G (2) A & D (3) E & D (4) A & C

    31. Which is the correct combination of Games Committee? (1) GIE (2) ECD (3) AIG (4) CDH

    31. fuEufyf[kr esa [ksy lfefr dk lgh la;qXe dkSu&lk gS\ (1) GIE (2) ECD (3) AIG (4) CDH

    32. If C and D are in the food committee, which of the following must serve in the Games Committee? (1) E (2) F (3) A (4) None of these

    32. ;fn C ,oa D [kku&iku lfefr esa gSa rks fdls [ksy lfefr esa gksuk pkfg,\ (1) E (2) F (3) A (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    33. Which of the following is the correct combination of committee as per condition? (1) ECD (2) CDI (3) GCD (4) CDB

    33. krks ds vuqlkj dkSu&lk lfefr dk la;qXe tksM+k gS\ (1) ECD (2) CDI (3) GCD (4) CDB

    34. The combination of I E B represents _ _ _ respectively? (1) Games, Food, Food (2) Games, Food, Entertainment (3) Games, Games, Food (4) Food, Games, Entertainment

    34. la;qXe I E B ek% _ _ _ nfkZr djrk gS\ (1) [ksy] [kku&iku] [kku&iku (2) [ksy] [kku&iku] euksjatu (3) [ksy] [ksy] [kku&iku (4) [kku&iku] [ksy] euksjatu

    35. Rajesh walked 3 km towards East. Then he turned to his left and walked 6 km. He again turned to his right and walked 3 km. After that he turned to his right and walked 9 km. At last he turned to his right and walked 6 km. At what distance is he from the starting point and in which direction? (1) 2 km South (2) 1 km North (3) 3 km South (4) 3 km North

    35. jktsk 3 fd-eh- iwoZ dh rjQ pykA rc og vius ck;sa eqM+dj 6 fd-eh- pykA og iqu% nkfgus eqM+dj 3 fd-eh- pykA mlds ipkr og nkfgus eqM+dj 9 fd-eh- pykA vUrr% og nkfgus eqM+dj 6 fd-eh- pykA kjfEHkd fcUnq ls og fdruh nwjh ij ,oa fdl fnkk esa gS\ (1) 2 fd-eh- nf{k.k (2) 1 fd-eh- mkj (3) 3 fd-eh- nf{k.k (4) 3 fd-eh- mkj

    (Aptitude) A-4 Morning Session

    www.electroark.blogspot.com

  • GENERAL ENGLISH DIRECTIONS: (Question no. 36 to 38) In the following questions select the choice with the similar meaning of the word.

    36. PREROGATIVE: (1) Opinion (2) Wealth (3) Privilege (4) Knowledge

    37. WONDROUS: (1) Winning (2) Roaming (3) Marvelous (4) Forceful

    38. GREENHORN: Someone who is. (1) Overly sensitive (2) Aggressive (3) Jealous (4) Inexperienced

    DIRECTIONS: (Question no. 39 & 40) In the following questions a word is followed by four choices. Select the choice which is not an antonym of the original word.

    39. CIRCUMSPECT: (1) Careless (2) Negligent (3) Examine (4) Casual

    40. CANDID: (1) Deceitful (2) Diplomatic (3) Wily (4) Skeptic

    DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 41 & 42) A phrase or idea is described in each question followed by four single word choices. Pick the choice which best explains the idea/phrase.

    41. A person who does not speak too much: (1) Candid (2) Outspoken (3) Reticent (4) Defiant

    42. A person who is shirking: (1) Absent (2) Truant (3) Shy (4) None of these

    DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 43 & 44) In the given statement a phrase in underlined and three choices are given for the underlined portion. If you consider the existing phrase alright select no change, other wise select the most appropriate choice.

    43. Never in my entire career of 30 years have I come against such a situation: (1) With such a (2) Across such a (3) Along such a (4) No change

    44. The poem is full of illusions to mythology: (1) Allusions to mythology (2) Illustrations of mythology (3) Stories of the past (4) No change

    DIRECTIONS: Arrange the following sentences/phrases in a coherent sequence and select the corresponding choice from (1), (2), (3) and (4).

    45. Jumbled sentences/phrases: M and took him to hospital N His friend came and O He cried for help P Killed the snake Q A snake bit the gardener (1) QPONM (2) ONQPM (3) QONPM (4) NMOQP

    (Aptitude) A-5 Morning Session

    www.electroark.blogspot.com

  • TECHNICAL AWARENESS (ELECTRONICS)

    46. The transistor in the given circuit has common emitter current amplification factor . Its input resistance will be, approximately:

    (1) RE (2) RE(3) 2RE (4) RE/

    46. fn, x, ifjiFk esa VkaftLVj esa lkekU; /kkjk o/kZu ?kVd gSA bldk buiqV frjks/k fdlds yxHkx gksxk%

    (1) RE (2) RE(3) 2RE (4) RE/

    47. The following gates are universal: (1) NAND, NOR and EXCLUSIVEOR (2) NAND and EXCLUSIVEOR (3) NOR and EXCLUSIVEOR (4) NAND and NOR

    47. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls xsV lkoZf=d gSa% (1) NAND, NOR rFkk EXCLUSIVEOR (2) NAND rFkk EXCLUSIVEOR (3) NOR rFkk EXCLUSIVEOR (4) NAND rFkk NOR

    48. The given circuit realises a gate of the following

    (1) NAND (2) NOR (3) EXCLUSIVEOR (4) None of these

    48. fn;k x;k ifjiFk fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk xsV kIr djrk gS%

    (1) NAND (2) NOR (3) EXCLUSIVEOR (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    49. Negative feedback in an RC-coupled amplifier: (1) Increases the bandwidth as well as the gain (2) Increase the bandwidth but decreases the gain (3) Decreases the bandwidth but increases the gain (4) Decreases the bandwidth as well as the gain

    49. _.kkRed iquHkZj.k ,d RC ;q o/kZd gS tks% (1) yfC/k ds lkFk&lkFk cSaM dh pkSM+kbZ dks c

  • 53. The method of working in which current flows for 85% of duration of DOT or DASH and no current flows during the rest 15% is: (1) Morse code (2) Normal Code (3) 7.5 unit Code (4) Cable Code

    53. dk;Z djus dh fdl i)fr esa DOT ;k DASH dh 85% vof/k esa /kkjk okfgr gksrh gS vkSj ksk 15% vof/k esa /kkjk okfgr ugha gksrh gS% (1) ekslZ dksM (2) lkekU; dksM (3) 7.5 ;wfuV dksM (4) dscy dksM

    54. The modulation index can be greater than unity in: (1) AM (2) FM (3) Both AM and FM (4) Neither AM nor FM

    54. ekMqyu lwpdkad fdlesa 1 ls vf/kd gks ldrk gS% (1) AM (2) FM (3) AM rFkk FM nksuksa (4) u rks AM vkSj u gh FM

    55. A Yagi antenna produces a pattern of the following type: (1) Figure of Eight (2) Broadside (3) End-fire (4) Omnidirectional

    55. ;kxh ,sUVhuk fuEufyf[kr esa fdl dkj ds iSVuZ cukrk gS% (1) vkB dk vad (2) czkWM lkbM (3) vuqnS/;Z ,sM Qk;j (4) loZfnfkd

    56. The measurement range of an ammeter can be increased by using a: (1) High resistance in shunt (2) Low resistance in shunt (3) High resistance in series (4) Low resistance in series

    56. ,ehVj dh ekiu ijkl fdlds mi;ksx ls c

  • 64. Which impurity atom will give P-type semiconductor when added to silicon Intrinsic semiconductor: (1) Phosphorus (2) Antimony (3) Boron (4) Arsenic

    64. dkSu&lk vkq) v.kq P&dkj dk v/kZpkyd nsrk gS tc ;g flfydkWu vkUrfjd v/kZpkyd ls tksM+k tkrk gS% (1) QkslQksjl (2) ,UVheuh (3) cksjksu (4) vklsZfud

    65. Which of the following metals has the highest conductivity: (1) Aluminium (2) Silver (3) Platinum (4) Iron

    65. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl /kkrq esa loksZPp pkydrk gksrh gS% (1) ,Y;qfefu;e (2) jtr (3) IysfVue (4) ykSg

    66. Which of the following is a basically a voltage controlled capacitance: (1) Zener diode (2) Photo diode (3) Varactor diode (4) LED

    66. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d ewyr% oksYVrk fu;af=r /kkfj= gS% (1) t+huj Mk;ksM (2) QksVks Mk;ksM (3) oSjsDVj Mk;ksM (4) LED

    67. In a JFET the width of channel is controlled by: (1) Gate current (2) Drain current (3) Source current (4) Gate voltage

    67. JFET esa pSuy dh pkSM+kbZ fdlds }kjk fu;af=r dh tkrh gS% (1) }kj /kkjk (2) Msu /kkjk (3) lzksr /kkjk (4) }kj oksYVrk

    68. When a BJT is operated under saturated condition: (1) EB junction is forward biased and CB junction is reversed

    biased (2) EB junction is reversed biased and CB junction is forward

    biased (3) Both junction are forward biased (4) Both junction are reversed biased

    68. tc ,d BJT lar`Ir voLFkk esa pkfyr fd;k tkrk gS% (1) EB taDku vxz vfHkufr gksrk gS ,oa CB taDku O;qRe

    vfHkufr gksrk gS (2) EB taDku O;qRe vfHkufr gksrk gS ,oa CB taDku vxz

    vfHkufr gksrk gS (3) nksuksa taDku vxz vfHkufr gksrs gSa (4) nksuksa taDku O;qRe vfHkufr gksrs gSa

    69. The emitter follower is widely used in electronic instruments because: (1) Its input impedance is high and output impedance is low (2) Its input impedance is low and output impedance is high (3) Its voltage gain is very high (4) Both input and output impedances are very high

    69. bysDVkWfud midj.kksa es mRlt Qkyksvj T;knkrj ;q gksrs gSa D;ksafd% (1) budh vkxr frck/kk mPp gksrh gS ,oa fuxZr frck/kk

    fuEu gksrh gS (2) bldh vkxr frck/kk fuEu gksrh gS ,oa fuxZr frck/kk

    mPp gksrh gS (3) buesa oksYVrk yfC/k cgqr mPp gksrh gS (4) nksuksa vkxr ,oa fuxZr frck/kk cgqr mPp gksrh gS

    70. A TRIAC is equivalent to: (1) One thyristor and one transistor (2) One thyristor and one diode (3) Two thyristor in parallel (4) Two thyristor in series

    70. TRIAC led{k gksrk gS% (1) ,d FkkbZfjLVj ,oa ,d VkfUtLVj ds (2) ,d FkkbZfjLVj ,oa ,d Mk;ksM ds (3) lekukUrj esa nks FkkbZfjLVj ds (4) Ja`[kyk esa nks FkkbZfjLVj ds

    71. The binary number 10101 is equal to the decimal number: (1) 17 (2) 45 (3) 21 (4) 11

    71. f}vk/kkjh la[;k 10101 fuEu nkeyo la[;k ds cjkcj gS% (1) 17 (2) 45 (3) 21 (4) 11

    72. The decimal number 37 is equal to the binary number: (1) 100101 (2) 101000 (3) 010110 (4) 101101

    72. nkeyo la[;k 37 fuEu f}vk/kkjh la[;k ds cjkcj gS% (1) 100101 (2) 101000 (3) 010110 (4) 101101

    73. The most suitable logic gate for comparing two bit is: (1) AND (2) OR (3) NAND (4) XOR

    73. nks fcVksa dh rqyuk djus gsrq lokZf/kd mi;q rdZ }kj gS% (1) AND (2) OR (3) NAND (4) XOR

    74. The output of a gate is high if and only if all its inputs are high, it is true for: (1) NOR (2) NAND (3) AND (4) OR

    74. ,d }kj dh fuxZr mPp gksrh gS dsoy ,oa ;fn blds lkjs vkxr mPp gksrs gSa] ;g fuEu ds fy, lgh gS% (1) NOR (2) NAND (3) AND (4) OR

    (Electronics) A-8 Morning Session

    www.electroark.blogspot.com

  • 75. A 3 variable karnaugh map has: (1) Four cells (2) Eight cells (3) Sixteen cells (4) Three cells

    75. ,d 3 ifjor djukQ ekufp= esa gksrk gS% (1) pkj lsy (2) vkB lsy (3) lksyg lsy (4) rhu lsy

    76. The AND operation can be produced with: (1) One NOR gate (2) Two NAND gate (3) Three NAND gate (4) Three NOR gate

    76. AND pkyu dks fuEu ds lkFk mRi fd;k tk ldrk gS% (1) ,d NOR }kj (2) nks NAND }kj (3) rhu NAND }kj (4) rhu NOR }kj

    77. Which one of the following power amplifier has the maximum efficiency: (1) Class A (2) Class B (3) Class C (4) Class AB

    77. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl kf ,EiyhQk;j esa vf/kdre n{krk gksrh gS% (1) Class A (2) Class B (3) Class C (4) Class AB

    78. A Darlington pair consists of: (1) Two cascaded CC amplifier (2) Two cascaded CE amplifier (3) Two common Base amplifier (4) Two common collector amplifier

    78. MkfyxVu tksM+s esa gksrk gS% (1) nks dSldsMsM CC ,EiyhQk;j (2) nks dSldsMsM CE ,EiyhQk;j (3) nks dkWeu vk/kkj okys ,EiyhQk;j (4) nks dkWeu laxzkgh ,EiyhQk;j

    79. A 16-bit address bus width can address: (1) 16 KB memory location (2) 64 KB memory location (3) 32 KB memory location (4) 8 KB memory location

    79. ,d 16&fcV irk pkSM+kbZ okyk cl ,Msl dj ldrk gS% (1) 16 KB Le`fr fLFkfr (2) 64 KB Le`fr fLFkfr (3) 32 KB Le`fr fLFkfr (4) 8 KB Le`fr fLFkfr

    80. Which one of the following is a 32 bit Microprocessor: (1) Z-8000 (2) 8085 (3) 80386 (4) 80286

    80. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d 32&fcV okyk ekbZkskslslj gS% (1) Z-8000 (2) 8085 (3) 80386 (4) 80286

    81. A Half Adder is constructed by: (1) 2-input OR gate and EX-OR gate (2) 2-input AND gate and EX-NOR gate (3) 2-input OR gate and EX-NOR gate (4) 2-input AND gate and EX-OR gate

    81. ,d v/kZ;kstd fuEu ds }kjk cuk;k tkrk gS% (1) 2&vkxr OR }kj ,oa EX-OR }kj (2) 2&vkxr AND }kj ,oa EX-NOR }kj (3) 2&vkxr OR }kj ,oa EX-NOR }kj (4) 2&vkxr AND }kj ,oa EX-OR }kj

    82. A 4-bit binary counter has a maximum modulus of: (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 32

    82. ,d 4&fcV f}vk/kkjh xf.k= esa ekMqyqdksa dh vf/kdre la[;k gksrh gS% (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 32

    83. In communication system PAM stand for: (1) Phase angle modulation (2) Pulse angle modulation (3) Pulse amplitude modulation (4) Phase amplitude modulation

    83. lapj.k ra= esa PAM dk rkRi;Z gksrk gS% (1) dyk dks.k ekWMqysku (2) LiUn dks.k ekWMqysku (3) LiUn ,EiyhV~;wM ekWMqysku (4) dyk ,EiyhV~;wM ekWMqysku

    84. Which one of the following semiconductor diode is used as switching diode in Microwave frequency range: (1) Gunn Diode (2) Varactor Diode (3) Photo Diode (4) PIN Diode

    84. ekbZksoso vko`fk ijkl esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d v/kZpkyd Mk;ksM fLopu Mk;ksM ds :i esa ;ksx gksrk gS% (1) xu Mk;ksM (2) oSjsDVj Mk;ksM (3) QksVks Mk;ksM (4) fiu Mk;ksM

    85. In the color TV system the primary color are: (1) Yellow, Green, Blue (2) Red, Green, Blue (3) Red, Yellow, Blue (4) Red, Green, Yellow

    85. jaxhu Vhoh ra= esa /kku jax gksrs gSa% (1) ihyk] gjk] uhyk (2) yky] gjk] uhyk (3) yky] ihyk] uhyk (4) yky] gjk] ihyk

    86. If the diameter of a wire is doubled its current carrying capacity becomes: (1) One fourth (2) One half (3) Two times (4) Four times

    86. ;fn ,d rkj dh O;kl dks nqxquk fd;k tkrk gS rks /kkjk ogu {kerk gks tkrh gS% (1) ,d pkSFkkbZ (2) vk/kk (3) nqxquk (4) pkjxquk

    (Electronics) A-9 Morning Session

    www.electroark.blogspot.com

  • 87. A 32 bit data word consists of: (1) 2 bytes (2) 3 bytes (3) 4 bytes (4) 4 nibbles

    87. ,d 32&fcV MkVk kCn esa gksrk gS% (1) 2 ckbZV~l (2) 3 ckbZV~l (3) 4 ckbZV~l (4) 4 fuCcYl

    88. Emitter follower works as a: (1) Buffer amplifier (2) Common plate amplifier (3) Cathode follower (4) Both (1) & (3)

    88. mRlt Qkyksvj dk;Z djrk gS% (1) cQj ,EiyhQk;j (2) dkWeu IysV ,EiyhQk;j (3) dSFkksM Qkyksvj (4) nksuksa (1) ,oa (3)

    89. Semiconductors have ...............: (1) Negative temperature co-efficient of resistance (2) Positive temperature co-efficient of resistance (3) Fully electron charged atom (4) None of these

    89. v/kZpkyd esa gksrs gSa% (1) frjks/k dk _.kkRed rkie xq.kkad (2) frjks/k dk /kukRed rkie xq.kkad (3) iw.kZr% bysDVkWu vkosfkr v.kq (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    90. A PNP transistor is made of: (1) Silicon (2) Germanium (3) Either Silicon or Germanium (4) None of these

    90. ,d PNP VkfUtLVj cuk gksrk gS% (1) flfydkWu dk (2) tesZfu;e dk (3) ;k rks flfydkWu ;k tusZfu;e dk (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    91. In NPN transistor, when emitter junction is forward biased and collector junction is reversed biased, the transistor will operate in: (1) Active region (2) Saturation region (3) Cut off region (4) Inverted region

    91. NPN VkfUtLVj esa tc mRlt taDku vxz vfHkufr gksrh gS ,oa laxzkgh taDku O;qReh; vfHkufr gksrh gS rks VkfUtLVj pkyu djsxk% (1) lh; {ks= esa (2) lar`Ir {ks= esa (3) dV vkWQ {ks= esa (4) buoVsZM {ks= esa

    92. The modulation index of an AM is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is: (1) Unchanged (2) Halved (3) Doubled (4) Increased by 50

    92. AM ds ekWMqyu lwpdkad dks 0 ls 1 esa ifjofrZr fd;k tkrk gSA rks lapfjr kf gksxh% (1) vifjofrZr (2) vk/kh (3) nqxquh (4) 50 ls c

  • 98. One joule is equal to: (1) 1012 ergs (2) 1010 ergs (3) 107 ergs (4) None of these

    98. ,d twy cjkcj gksrk gS% (1) 1012 ergs (2) 1010 ergs (3) 107 ergs (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    99. One electron volt is equivalent to: (1) 1.6 1010 J (2) 1.6 1013 J (3) 1.6 1016 J (4) None of these

    99. ,d bysDVkWu oksYV fdlds led{k gksrk gS% (1) 1.6 1010 J (2) 1.6 1013 J (3) 1.6 1016 J (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    100. A Silicon atom contains: (1) Four conduction electronics (2) Three conduction electronics (3) Four valence electronics (4) Three valence electronics

    100. ,d flfydkWu v.kq esa fufgr gksrk gS% (1) pkj pkyd bysDVksfuDl (2) rhu pkyd bysDVksfuDl (3) pkj la;ksth bysDVksfuDl (4) rhu la;ksth bysDVksfuDl

    101. Purest form of semiconductor is called: (1) PType semiconductor (2) Extrinsic semiconductor (3) NType semiconductor (4) Intrinsic semiconductor

    101. v/kZpkyd dk lcls kq) :i dgykrk gS% (1) P&dkj dk v/kZpkyd (2) ckgjh v/kZpkyd (3) N&dkj dk v/kZpkyd (4) vkUrfjd v/kZpkyd

    102. At absolute zero temperature a semiconductor behaves like: (1) A super conductor (2) Insulator (3) Conductor (4) None of these

    102. ,d lEiw.kZ kwU; rkie ij v/kZpkyd fdldh rjg O;ogkj djrk gS% (1) vfrpkyd (2) bUL;wysVj (3) pkyd (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    103. An electron in valence band: (1) Has higher energy than the electron in conduction band (2) Has lower energy than the electron in conduction band (3) Has same energy as in the electron in conduction band (4) None of these

    103. la;ksth cSUM esa ,d bysDVkWu% (1) pkyu cSUM esa bysDVkWu dh rqyuk esa vf/kd tkZ j[krk gS (2) pkyu cSUM esa bysDVkWu dh rqyuk esa de tkZ j[krk gS (3) pkyu cSUM esa bysDVkWu dh rqyuk esa ogh tkZ j[krk gS (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    104. When a semiconductor is doped, its electrical conductivity: (1) Depend on doped material (2) Remains same (3) Decreases (4) Increases

    104. tc ,d v/kZpkyd ekfnr fd;k tkrk gS] rks bldh fo|qrh; pkydrk% (1) eknu inkFkZ ij fuHkZj djrh gS (2) ogh jgrh gS (3) ?kVrh gS (4) c

  • 110. Lissajous pattern obtained on CRO is used to determine: (1) Rise time of applied signal (2) Fall time of input signal (3) Amplitude of the signal (4) Phase shift and frequency

    110. CRO ij kIr fd;k x;k fyTtklw iSVuZ fdls fu/kkZfjr djus esa ;q gksrk gS% (1) ;q ladsrd dk mn~xe dky (2) vkxr ladsrksa dk ikr dky (3) ladsrksa dk ,EiyhV~;wM (4) dyk foLFkkiu ,oa vko`fk

    111. Audio frequency range is: (1) 0 Hz to 20 K Hz (2) 20 Hz to 20 KHz (3) 20 K Hz to 20 MHz (4) 2 Hz to 20 KHz

    111. JO; vko`fk ijkl gksrh gS% (1) 0 Hz to 20 K Hz (2) 20 Hz to 20 KHz (3) 20 K Hz to 20 MHz (4) 2 Hz to 20 KHz

    112. For the fabrication of Integrated Circuit: (1) Silicon is used (2) Silicon and Germanium both can be used (3) Germanium is used (4) None of these

    112. lekdfyr ifjiFk fuekZ.k gsrq% (1) flfydkWu ;q djrs gSa (2) flfydkWu ,oa tesZfu;e nksuksa ;q djrs gSa (3) tesZfu;e ;q djrs gSa (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    113. If the voltage and current are out of phase by 90, the power is: (1) Maximum (2) Zero (3) Minimum (4) None of these

    113. ;fn oksYVrk ,oa /kkjk nksuksa 90 ls dyk ds ckgj gSa] rks kf gksxh% (1) vf/kdre (2) kwU; (3) U;wure (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    114. Calculate the voltage regulation of a power supply having V (no load) = 50 Volt and V (full load) = 48 Volt: (1) 2 % (2) 4.17 % (3) 98 % (4) 4.71%

    114. ,d kf vkiwfrZ] ftlesa V kwU; Hkkj = 50 oksYV ,oa V iw.kZ Hkkj = 48 oksYV gS] dh oksYVrk fofu;eu ifjdfyr djsa% (1) 2 % (2) 4.17 % (3) 98 % (4) 4.71%

    115. Which of the following BUS is bi-directional? (1) Address bus (2) Control bus (3) Data bus (4) None of these

    115. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk cl f}&fnkkRed gS% (1) irk cl (2) fu;a=.k cl (3) MkVk cl (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    116. What is the unit of parameter hO? (1) Volt (2) Ampere (3) Ohm (4) Siemens

    116. hO kpy dh bZdkbZ gS% (1) oksYV (2) ,fEi;j (3) vkse (4) lhesUl

    117. Which of the following devices has the smallest turn-off time? (1) SCR (2) SCS (3) GTO (4) LASCR

    117. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh ;qf dk lcls de VuZ&vkWQ le; gS% (1) SCR (2) SCS (3) GTO (4) LASCR

    118. What is one disadvantage of an S-R flip-Flop? (1) It has no enable input (2) It has only a single input (3) It has no clock input (4) It has an invalid state

    118. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d S-R myV&iyV dh gkfu gS% (1) blesa dksbZ Hkh lf; vkxr ugha gksrk (2) blesa dsoy ,d vkxr gksrk gS (3) blesa dksbZ ykWd vkxr ugha gksrk (4) blesa ,d O;FkZ voLFkk gksrh gS

    119. What is the level of IG in an FET? (1) Equal to ID (2) Zero amperes (3) Depends on VDS (4) All of these

    119. FET esa IG dk Lrj D;k gS% (1) ID ds cjkcj (2) kwU; ,fEi;j (3) VDS ij fuHkZj djrk gS (4) mi;qZ lHkh

    120. What kind of diode is formed by joining a doped semiconductor region with a metal? (1) Tunnel (2) Schottky (3) PIN (4) LASER

    120. ekfnr v/kZpkyd {ks= dks ,d /kkrq ds lkFk tksM+us ij cuh gqbZ Mk;ksM dk dkj D;k gS% (1) lqjax (2) kkWVh (3) fiu (4) ystj

    (Electronics) A-12 Morning Session

    www.electroark.blogspot.com