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  • 8/9/2019 Xlth Sample Paper

    1/18

    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 1 +1 Model Question Papers

    Adayar Adambakkam East Tambaram Pallavaram Pammal

    + 1 PHYSICS( Entire Syllabus)

    Model Questiom Paper based on NEW PATTERN

    Dur : 3 Hrs Max. Mark : 150

    PART I

    ( 30 x 1 = 30 )

    1. A speck of dust weighs 1.6 X 10-10

    kg. How many such particles would weighs 1.6 kg?

    (a) 10-10

    (b) 1010

    (c) 10 (4) 10-1

    2. The dimensional formula for gravitational constant is .

    (a) M1

    L3

    T-2

    (b) M-1

    L3

    T-2

    (c) M-1

    L-3

    T2

    (d) M1

    L-3

    T2

    3. If a force F is applied on a body and the body moves with velocity V, the power will be

    (a) FV (b) F/V (c) FV2

    (d) F/V2

    4. A bullet hits and gets embedded in a solid block resting on horizontal table which of thefollowing is conserved ?

    (a) momentum and kinetic energy (b) kinetic energy alone

    (c) momentum alone (d) potential energy alone

    5. Unlike vectors have..

    (a) same magnitude and same direction

    (b) same direction but different magnitudes

    (c) same in magnitude but opposite in direction

    (d) different direction and different in magnitude

    6. A water boat moves at a steady speed of 8 ms-1

    . If the resistive force of water is 2000 N, thepower of

    the engine is

    (a) 16 W (b) 16 KW (c) 8 W (d) 18 KW

    7. In how much time a water pump of 500 W can lift 100 Kg of water to water tank situated at height

    of7 m? (g = 10 m sec

    -2)

    (a) 140 s (b) 14s (c) 1400s (d) 144s8. A body of mass 6 kg is acted upon by a force. Its velocity changes from 3ms

    -1to 5ms

    -1. The

    impulse

    of the force for 2 seconds is

    (a) 0.6 N (b) 6 N (c) 60 N (d) 16N

    9. The moment of inertia of a ring of mass 1 kg and radius 10 cm about axis passing through its

    centre and perpendicular to its place is ..

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 2 +1 Model Question Papers

    (a) 1 kg m2

    (b) 0.1 kg m2

    (c) 10 kg m2

    (d) 0.01 kg m2

    10. Compute the rotational kinetic energy of a wheel of moment of inertia 0.0968 kg m2

    completes 6

    revolutions in 1 sec.

    (a) 68.7 J (b) 6.87 (c) 0.68 (d) 69.7

    11. Unit of angular momentum is ..

    (a) kg m2

    s-2

    (b) kgm-1

    s-2

    (c) kg m2

    s-1

    (d) kg ms-1

    12. The weight of a body at earths surface is W. At a depth half way to the centre of the earth, it will

    be

    (a) W (b)W/2 (c) W/4 (d) W/8

    14. The rain drops falling from the sky neither hit us hard nor make holes on the groundbecause they move with .

    (a) constant acceleration

    (b) variable acceleration

    (c) variable speed

    (d) constant velocity

    15. The Youngs modulus of steel is (a) 21 X 10

    11pascals (b) 2 X 10

    9pascals

    (c) 210 pascals (d) 200 giga pascals

    16. The unit of surface tension is ..

    (a) Pascal b) Nm-1

    (c) Nm2

    (d) N

    17. The excess of pressure in a bubble of radius (r) is given by ..

    (a) P = 2T/r (b) P=3T/r (c) P = 4T/r (d) P = T/r

    18. The cohesive force is maximum among the molecules of ..

    (a) water (b) kerosene (c) coconut oil (d) mercury

    19. The unit of force constant is .(a) Nm

    -1(b) Nm (c) Nm

    -2(d) N

    2m

    2

    20. Which one of the following is an idealised case of free oscillation ?

    (a) Maintained oscillation (b) Resonance

    (b) Forced vibration (d) Damped oscillation21. Two springs of spring constants K1 and K2 are connected in parallel. The equivalent spring

    constant is

    (a) K1 + K2 (b) K1K2/K1+K2 (c) K1+K2/K1K2 (d) K1K2

    22. The time period of a pendulum is 0.2 s. The angular frequency of it is .

    (a) 1 rad s-1 (b) 5 rad s-1 (c) 100 rad s-1 (d) 10 rad s-1

    23. If the diameter of the pipe in resonance column experiment is 2 cm, then the end correction is

    (a) 0.6 cm (b) 0.3 cm (c) 0.6 m (d) 1.2 cm

    24. In a stationary wave the phase difference between two adjacent segments is .

    (a) 0 (b) /2 (c) (d) 3/2

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 3 +1 Model Question Papers

    25. The echo is not produced if the distance between the reflector and the source of sound is

    (a) less than 17 m (b) greater than 17 m

    (c) less than 34 m (d) greater than 34 m

    26. A breaker full of hot water is kept in a room. If it cools from 800C to 75

    0C in t1 minutes, from

    750

    C to 700

    C in t2 minutes and from 700

    C to 650C in t3 minutes then

    (a) t1 = t2 = t3 (b) t1 < t2 = t3 c) t1 < t2 < t3 d) t1 > t2 > t3

    27. The value of universal gas constant (R) is .

    (a) 8.31 J mole-1

    K-1

    (b) 8.13 J mole-1

    K-1

    (c) 1.013 J mole-1

    K-1

    (d) 1.38 x 10-23

    JK-1

    28. If the velocity of light in medium is (2/3) times of the velocity of light in vacuum, then therefractive index of that medium is

    (a) 3/2 C (b) 2 C/3 (c) 2/3 (d) 1.5

    29. The deflection in the deflection magnetometer should lie in between ..

    (a) 00

    to 300

    (b) 300

    to 450

    (c) 300

    to 600

    (d) 00

    to 900

    30. The relative permeability of iron is 2 x 105. The susceptibility of iron is .

    (a) 199999 (b) 200001 (c) 19999 (d) 20001

    Part II( 15 x 3 = 45 Marks )

    Answer any 15 questions

    31. Find out the number of significant figures in the following :

    (i) 0.0006032 and (ii) 0.80.

    32. Define uniform velocity.

    33. What is conservative force? Give examples.

    34. A force 100 N acts on a body for 0.3 sec. Calculate the impulse of the force.

    35. Define moment of inertia in terms of kinetic energy.

    36. Give two examples for couple.

    37. State the law of conservation of angular momentum.

    38. State the universal law of gravitation.

    39. Define interatomic forces.

    40. Define angle of contact.

    41. Give any one practical application of viscosity.

    42. Define force constant. Give its unit and dimensional formula.

    43. Distinguish between linear and angular harmonic oscillator (any two).

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 4 +1 Model Question Papers

    44. State the principle of superposition.

    45. If the intensity is increased by a factor 60 by how many decibels the sound level is increased?

    46. Define Clausius statement.

    47. The surfaces of the sun glasses are curved, yet their power may be zero. Why?

    48. Light of wavelength 5000 A falls on a plane reflecting surface. Calculate the wavelength and

    frequency of reflected light.

    49. What is known as remanance ?

    50. A freely suspended magnet of moment 3 Wb.m is placed at an angle of 600 with the directionof a uniform magnetic field of strength 150 A turns/metre. Find the moment of the couple acting

    on the magnet.

    Part III( 7 x 5 = 35 Marks )

    Answer any 7 questions Answer the Ques. No. 60 COMPULSORILY.

    Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

    51. Check the correctness of the following equation by dimensional analysis.

    (i) F = mv2/r

    2where F is force, m is mass v is velocity and r is radius.

    (ii) n=1/2g/l where n is frequency g is acceleration due to gravity and l is length.

    (iii) 1/2mv2

    = mgh2

    where m is mass, v is velocity a is acceleration due to gravity and h is

    height.

    52. Two masses if 2 kg and 5 kg are moving with equal kinetic energies. Find the ratio of

    magnitudes of respective linear momenta.

    53. The following forces act at a point (i) 20 N inclined at 300 towards north to east. (ii) 25 N

    towards north (iii) 30 N inclined at 450

    towards north of west. (iv) 35 N inclined at 400 towards

    south of west. Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant force.

    54. Prove that the acceleration due to gravity varies with depth or altitude

    55. Derive expression for the excess of pressure inside a liquid drop and hence inside a bubble.

    56. Discuss the oscillations of mass connected to a set of two springs connected in parallel.

    57. How do you determine the surface temperature of the sun?

    58. If the refractive index of diamond be 2.5 and glass 1.5 then how faster does light travel in glass

    than in diamond?

    59. List out the properties of ferromagnetic materials.

    60. Calculate the viscous force on a ball of radius 1mm moving through a liquid of viscosity

    0.2 Ns m-2

    at a speed of 0.07 m/s.

    61. State and explain tangent law

    62. Show that the oscillations of a simple pendulum are simple harmonic. Hence deduce the

    expression for the time period.

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 5 +1 Model Question Papers

    Part II

    ( 4 x 10 = 40 Marks ) Answer any 4 questions

    63. Obtain the expression for magnitude and direction of the resultant of two vectors when they are

    inclined at an angle with each other.

    64. (a) Explain the motion of a projectile thrown horizontally and show that the path of it is a

    parabola. Derive expressions for resultant velocity, time of flight and range.

    65. Obtain the expression for the moment of inertia of solid sphere about its diameter.

    66. What is orbital velocity ? Obtain an expression for it.

    67. Explain the formation of stationary waves along a stretched string using a sonometer. Derive

    expression for overtones in it.

    68. Derive an expression for pressure exerted by a gas.

    69. State and prove Bernoulli theorem

    70. Expali Michelsons method to determine the velocity of light.

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 6 +1 Model Question Papers

    Adayar Adambakkam East Tambaram Pallavaram Pammal

    + 1 CHEMISTRY( Entire Syllabus)

    Model Questiom Paper based on NEW SYLLABUS

    Dur : 3 Hrs Max. Mark : 150

    A. Choose and write the correct answer.

    ( 30 X 1 = 30 )

    1. A mole of ethanol contains..

    (a) 6.023 X 1023

    atoms (b) 6.023 X 1023

    molecules of oxygen

    (c) one molecule (d) 1.8069 X 1023

    molecules of hydrogen.

    2. Which one among the following is the standard for atomic mass?

    (a) H (b) 6C12

    (c) 6C14

    (d) 8O16

    3. Poisonous gas in exhaust fames of a car is .

    (a) CH4 (b) C2H2 (c) CO (d) CO2

    4. Ore of Uranium is

    (a) Pitch (b) Pitch blende (c) Zinc blende (d) Calamine

    5. The number of orbitals in a p-shell is .

    (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 6

    6. Which one among the following species has the largest atomic radius?

    (a) Na (b) Mg (c) Al (d) Si

    7. is used as a propellant in nucleus.

    (a) H2O2 (b) D2O (c) ND3 (d) CH2 = CH2

    8. Plaster of paris is .

    (a) CASO4.2H2O (b) CaCl2 (c) CASO4 (d) CASO4.2H2O

    9. The general electronic configuration of carbon group element is ..

    (a) ns2np

    6(b) ns

    2(c) ns

    2np

    1(d) ns

    2np

    2

    10. Pick out the correct statements .(i) Halides in lower oxidation state is largely ionic

    (ii) Iodides and bromides are ionic

    (iii) Halides in higher oxidation state is largely ionic(iv) Fluorides are more ionic

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 7 +1 Model Question Papers

    (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)

    11. The oxide which is amphoteric .

    (a) Bi2O3 (b) N2O5 (c) PbO (d) SO3

    12. There are classes of unit cells.

    (a) four (b) five (c) six (d) seven

    13. For an ideal gas, the plot of PV verses P is ..

    (a) a straight line of parallel of pressure axis

    (b) a curve with a minimum and then increases with increasing pressure

    (c) a straight line parallel to PV axis(d) curve

    14. Which one among the following is highly covalent?

    (a) LiCl (b) NaCl (c) KCl (d) RbCl

    15. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to .

    (a) Mole fraction of solvent (b) Mole fraction of solute

    (c) Molality (d) Molarity

    16. is not an extensive property.

    (a) Mass (b) Volume (c) Heat capacity (d) Surface tension

    17. H and U are related as ..

    (a) H = U + P (b) H = U + PV (c) H = U P (d) H = U PV

    18. In Habers process,which combination of pressure and temperature give more amount of

    ammonia ?

    (a) High pressure and high temperature (b) High pressure and low temperature(c) Low pressure and low temperature (d) Low pressure and high temperature

    19. The IUPAC name of isobutyric aldehyde is .

    (a) 2-methyl propanol (b) 2-methyl-2-propanal

    (c) 2-methyl propanal (d) 1 butanol.

    20. When the stationary phase is solid, then the compounds can be separated on the basis of

    (a) Adsorption (b) Partition

    (c) Both partition and adsorption (d) Either

    21. In steam distillation, the organic substance to be purified is .

    (a) soluble in water (b) insoluble in water

    (c) decomposed (d) precipitated

    22. The colour of lead sulphide is ..

    (a) black (b) white (c) orange (d) red

    23. 0.24 g of an organic compound gave 0.287 g of AgCl in Carius method. The percentage

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 8 +1 Model Question Papers

    of chlorine in the compound is

    (a) 29.59 % (b) 35.46 % (c) 71 % (d) 42.36 %

    24. The order of stability of conformations of ethane.

    (a) Staggered > skew > eclipsed (b) Staggered > eclipsed > skew

    (c) Eclipsed > skew > staggered (d) Skew > eclipsed > staggered

    25. When alkyl halides are treated with alcoholic KOH, the products are .(a) olefins (b) alcohols (c) alkanes (d) aldehydes

    26. The catalyst used in the reduction of ethene to ethane is

    (a) copper (b) iron (c) nickel (d) sodium

    27. Soda lime is

    (a) caustic soda (b) quick lime

    (c) both (a) and (b) (d) caustic soda and lime stone

    28. An example of polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon

    (a) pyridine (b) pyrole

    (c) naphthalene (d) cyclohexane

    29. Bromobenzene is converted into biphenyl by .

    (a) Wurtz reaction (b) Wurtz Fittigs

    (c) Fittigs (d) Friedal crafts reaction

    30. The halogen compound used as anaesthetic is .

    (a) CCl4 (b) CHCl3 (c) CCl2F2 (d) CH3Cl

    PART II( 15 x 3 = 45 )

    31. How many molecules are there in 34 mg of NH3 ?

    32. Using the approximate exponential notation, express 34.5 in terms of SI units.

    33. How many electrons can have S + in a d- sub-shell ?

    34. Arrange in the order of increasing atomic volumes in C,N and O.

    35. Why alkali metals have strong electropositive character ?

    36. NH3 is soluble in water whereas other hydrides of group 15 elements are insoluble in

    water.

    37. How is pure borax obtained from tincal ?

    38. What is long-range order ?

    39. Write the limitation of Vanderwaals equation of state.

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 9 +1 Model Question Papers

    40. How are sigma and pi-bonds formed ?

    41. What are the advantages of Berkeley Hartley method ?

    42. Define enthalpy of combustion.

    43. What is the influence of pressure on the dissociation of PCl5 ?

    44. What is rate constant ?

    45. What is an electrophile ? Give two examples each of neutral and ionic electrophile.

    46. Distinguish between paper and thin layer chromatography

    47. 0.530g of an organic compound gave 0.90g of BaSo4 in carius determination of sulphur.

    48. What happens when acetylene is passed through red hot tube ?

    49. Define Markownikoffs rule.

    50. How benzene is prepared commercially ?

    51. What is fittig reaction ?

    PART III

    ( 7 x 5 = 35 )

    Answer any 7 questions by attending atleast 2 from each section

    Section A

    52. How will you determine the equivalent weight of an element by oxide method ?

    53. What do you understand by the following terms (i) roasting (ii) smelting ?

    54. What are the various types of elements based on modern periodic table?

    55. What is the difference between benzene and borazole.

    Section B

    56. Explain PF or density of packing for BCC structure

    57. Calculate the lattice enthalpy of CaCl2 given that the enthalpy of

    sublimation of Ca is 121 KJmol-1

    dissociation of Cl2 to 2 Cl is 242.8 KJ mol-1 ionisation of Ca to Ca2+ is 2422 KJ mol-1

    electron gain for Cl to Cl- is -355 KJ mol-1

    H(o) over all is 795 KJ mol-1

    58. State laws of osmotic pressure and how will you determine the molecular weight of a solute fromosmotic pressure ?

    59. Derive expression for KC for the equilibrium

    H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 10 +1 Model Question Papers

    Section C

    60. Write Lassignes test for nitrogen

    61. Write the Canonical structures of benzene.

    62. Explain Nucleophilic aromatic substitution.

    63. Explain the mechanism of bromination of benzene.

    PART IV

    ( 10 x 4 = 40 )

    Answer any 3 questions from Q.No. 64 to 69 Ques. No. 70 is compulsory

    64. (i) Write a short note on Hydrosphere

    (ii) What is the principle involved in Bessemer process?

    65. (i) What are transition elements ? Name the different transition series.

    (ii) Write a short note on fixation of nitrogen.

    66. (i) Derive the values of gas constant (R) in different units.

    (ii) Write short notes on VSEPR theory.

    67. (i) Distinguish reversible and irreversible processes.(ii) Describe the difference between the rate of reaction and rate constant of reaction

    68. (i) Write the characteristics of homologous series(ii) Explain fractional distillation.

    69. (i) Explain Newman projection and Sawhorse projection for ethane

    (ii) How are grignard reagent prepared ?

    70. (a) Calculate the mass of lime that can be prepared by heating 200kg of limestone that is 90%

    pure CaCO3.

    (b) An element occupies group No.16 and period 3. This element forms a grey solid A on

    heating with iron filings A on treatment with dil. HCl gives a colourless gas B with

    rotten egg smell and turns lead acetate paper black. The element on burning in oxygen

    produces a colourless gas C which decolourises acidified KMnO4. Identify A B and

    C

    (or)

    (c) On complete combustion 0.246 g of an organic compound gives 0.198 g of CO2 and

    0.1014 g of H2O. Calculate the percentage of carbon and hydrogen

    (d) In the reaction N2 + O2 2NO at 298k the partial pressure of NO , O2 at equilibrium

    are 0.9 , 0.3 , 0.01 atm . Calculate the value ofkp

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 11 +1 Model Question Papers

    Adayar Adambakkam East Tambaram Pallavaram Pammal

    + 1 MATHEMATICS( Entire Syllabus)

    Model Questiom Paper based on NEW PATTERN

    Dur : 3 Hrs Max. Mark : 200

    PART-A( 40 x 1 = 40 )

    All the questions are COMPULSORY Each question carries 1 mark Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives

    1. Matrix A is of order 3 X 4. Matrix B is of order 4 X 3. Then order of matrix AB is

    (1) 3 X 4 (2) 4 X 3 (3) 3 X 3 (4) 4 X 4

    2. If a = i + j - 2k, b = -i + 2j +k, c = i -2j + 2k, then a unit vector parallel toa + b+ c is.

    (1) i - 2j + k (2) i - j + k (3) 2i +j +k (4) i + j + k

    6 3 6 3

    3. The number of possible outcomes when a coin is tossed 5 times is .

    (1) 25

    (2) 52

    (3) 5 (4) 16

    4. Sum of the binomial coefficients is

    (1) 2n (2) n2

    (3) 2n

    (4) n+17

    5. The sum to the first 25 terms of the series 1 + 2 + 3+is

    (1) 305 (2) 325 (3) 315 (4) 335

    6. When the terms of a G.P. are written in reverse order the progression formed

    (1) A.P. (2) G.P (3) H.P (4) A.P and H.P.

    7. The slope of a straight line 2x - 3y + 1 = 0 is

    (1) -2/3 (2) -3/2 (3) 2/3 (4) 3/2

    8. The length of the tangent from (4, 5) to the circle x2

    + y2

    = 25 is.

    (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 25 (4)16

    9. In any triangle ABC , a2

    is equal to

    (1) b2

    + c2

    - 2bc cos A (2) a2

    + b2

    - 2bc cos A

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 12 +1 Model Question Papers

    (3) b2

    + c2

    - 2bc cos B (4) a2

    + b2

    - 2bc cos B

    10. If in a triangle ABC , a cos A = b cos B then the triangle is .

    (1) scalene (2) equilateral (3) obtuse angle scalene (4) isosceles

    11. The principle value of sin-1

    (3/2) is

    (1) /2 (2) (3) /3 (4) /4

    12. X={a, b}, Y={c, d, e} and f={(a, c),(b, d)}. The function is..

    (1) an onto function (2) an into function(3) an identity function (4) a constant function

    13. The solution set of x2 9 is

    (1) (3, -3) (2) (-3, 3) (3) [-3, 3] (4) (-3, -3)

    14. f(x) = x + 1, g(x) = x - 1, fog(0) is equal to

    (1) 1 (2) 0 (3) -1 (4)

    15. Lim (ex e ) / ( x 1 ) is.

    x -> 1

    (1) 1 (2) 0 (3) (4) e

    16. The function f(x) = (x2+1) / (x

    2-3x+2) is continuous at all points of R except at

    (1) x = 1 (2) x = 2 (3) x = 1, 2 (4) x = -1, -2

    17. The derivative of f(x) = x2xat x = 0 is.

    (1) 0 (2) -1 (3) -2 (4)1

    18 dx/ex = .

    (1) logex

    + c (2) (-1/ex) + c (3)(1/e

    x) + c (4)x + c

    19. ( 6x + 5) dx / 3x2 + 5x + 6

    (1) 3x2

    + 5x + 6 + c (2) 2 (3x2

    + 5x + 6) + c

    (3) 3x2 + 5x + 6 + c (4) 2 3x2 + 5x + 6 + c

    20. P(A) =0.2, P(B)=0.5 A and B are independent events. P (A B) = .

    (1)0.1 (2)0.5 (3)0.2 (4)0.8

    21. If [ 2 x -1 ] 0

    x = [ 13 ] then the value of x is

    3

    (1) 5 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

    22. If the position vector of P and Q are 2i + 3j - 7k, 4i - 3j + 4k, then the direction cosines of PQ are

    (1) 2/161, -6/161, 11/161 (2) -2/161 , -6/161 , -11/161

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 13 +1 Model Question Papers

    (3) 2, -6, 11 (4) 1, 2 , 3

    23. 20 persons are invited for a party. The number of ways in which they and the host can be seated at

    a circular table if two particular person be seated on either side of the host is equal to

    (1) 18! 2! (2)18! 3! (3) 19! 2! (4) 20! 2!

    24. Range of a constant function is .

    (1) not equal to the co-domain (2) a set of two elements(3) a null set (4) a singleton

    25. If a, H, b are in H.P, then H =..

    (1) 1/(a+b) (2) 2ab/(a+b) (3) a/(a+b) (4) b/(a+b)

    26. (ex

    +e x

    )/2 = ..

    (1) 1 + x/1! + x2/2! + x

    3/3!.... (2) x + x

    3/3! x

    4/4!..

    (3) x - x2/2! + x

    3/3! - x

    4/4!.... (4) 1+x

    2/2!+x

    4/4!

    27. Which of the following is the equation of a straight line that is neither parallel nor perpendicular to

    the straight line given by x + y = 0.

    (1) y = x (2) y x + 2 = 0 (3) 2y = 4x + 1 (4) y+x = 2

    28. If the terminal side is collinear with the initial side in the opposite direction, then the angle

    included is

    (1) 00

    (2) 900

    (3) 1800

    (4) 2700

    29. In ABC, cos B is equal to ..

    (1) (c2

    +a2

    -b2) / 2ca (2) (c

    2+ b

    2- a

    2) / 2bc

    (3) (a2

    + b2

    - c2) / 2ab (4) (a

    2+ b

    2+ c

    2) / 2ab

    30. Value of sin (-1200) is ..

    (1) (2) 2/3 (3) -2/3 (4) -1/2

    31. A polynomial function of degree 2 is called

    (1) a linear function (2) an exponential function

    (3) a hyperbolic function (4) a quadratic function

    32. If f : AB f-1 is .

    (1) BA (2) AB (3) BB (4) AA

    33. f and g are two functions. f.g and fog are

    (1) equal (2) unequal (3) cannot be compared (4) product functions

    34. lim [ 1 (1/x) ]x

    is .

    x->

    (1) e (2) e (3) 1/e (4) 0

    35. The left hand limit sinx ..

    x->0+ x

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 14 +1 Model Question Papers

    (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) -1 (4) does not exists

    36. The function f(x) = sin x is continuous at all points of .

    (1) R (2) N (3) Z (4) Q

    37. tanx dx = .

    (1) log(cos x) + c (2) log(sec x) + c(3) sec

    2x + c (4) (tan

    2x) / (2) + c

    38. -dx/sin2x =.

    (1) cotx +c (2) cosx+c (3) cotx + c (4) -cosx + c

    39. The probability of a sure event is..

    (1) 0 (2) >1 (3)

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 15 +1 Model Question Papers

    49. (a) Find the derivative of (x2

    - 1) / (x2

    + 1) with respect to x.(b) Find dy/dx when tan (x + y) + tan (x - y) = 1.

    50. Show that the equation 4x2

    + 4xy + y2

    - 6x 3y 4 = 0 represents a pair of

    parallel lines and also find the distance between them.

    51. (a) Integrate: 1/(x2+5x+7) (b) Evaluate: dx/(x+5)x+4

    52. Evaluate : ( 1/ x2 ) log ( 1/ x2) dx

    53. A can hit a target 4 times in 5 shots, B 3 times in 4 shots, C 2 times in 3 shots.

    What is the chance that the target is damaged by exactly 2 hits?

    54. Evaluate: dx / (a2 - x2)

    tan-1

    x55. If y = e , Prove that ( 1 + x

    2) y2 + ( 2x 1) y1 = 0.

    PART-C( 10 x 10 = 100)

    Answer 10 questions Choose 9questionsfrom 56 to 68 and 1 questionfrom 69 and 70 Each question carries 10 marks

    56. Prove that (b+c)2

    a2

    a2

    b2

    (c+a)2

    b2

    = 2abc ( a+ b + c)3.

    c2

    c2

    (a+b)2

    57. If ABCD is a quadrilateral and E and F are the mid-points of AC and BD respectively,

    Prove that AB + AD + CB + CD = 4 EF.

    58. A candidate is required to answer 7 questions out of 12 questions which are divided into twogroups, each containing 6 questions. He is not permitted to attempt more than 5 questions from

    either group. In how many ways can he choose the 7 questions.

    59. (i) Find the constant term in the expansion of (x - (2/x2)10

    (ii) If the 21st term and 22nd term in the expansion of (1 + x)44 are equal, find the value of x.

    60. If x is so large prove that x2 + 25 - x 2 + 9 = 8/x nearly.

    61. Show that the triangle formed by straight lines 4x - 3y 18 = 0, 3x - 4y +16 = 0 and x + y 2 = 0

    is isosceles.

    62. Solve: 2tan - cot = -1.

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 16 +1 Model Question Papers

    x + 363. Evaluate : lim x+3

    x-> x-1

    64. Differentiate w.r.t. x , y = tan-1

    (cotx) + cot-1

    (tanx).

    65. Find dy/dx if xy + x.e -y + yex = x 2

    66. Evaluate: ex cos 2x dx.

    3

    67. Evaluate the definite integral as the limit of a sum : x2 dx.2

    68. A consulting firm rents car from three agencies such that 20% from agency X , 30% from agencyY and 50% from agency Z. If 90% of the cars from X, 80% of the cars from Y and 95% of the

    cars from Z are in good condition.

    (i) What is the probability that the firm will get a car in good condition?

    (ii) If a car is in good condition what is the probability that it has come from Y ?

    69. Prove that (1 + co t A + tan A) (sin A cos A) = [ (sec A)/(cosec 2A) ] [ (cosec A)/(sec 2A)]

    70. Find the equation of the circle which passes through (1,-1) and cuts

    orthogonally each of the circle x2

    + y2

    + 5x - 5y + 9 = 0 and x2

    + y2

    - 2x + 3y 7 = 0.

    We also offer

    The ULTIMATE intensive coaching for

    Ours is a COMPLETE course which ensures NOT JUST A B.E. SEAT, but

    A VALUABLE ENGG. SEATin a

    REPUTED ENGG. COLLEGE

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 17 +1 Model Question Papers

    Appl ication Form

    Centre :

    Pallavaram

    Adayar

    Adambakkam

    Tambaram

    Pammal Affi x a recent passport size photograph

    Pudukottai

    Name of the Student :

    Address for communicat ion :

    Fathers Name :

    Fathers Occupation :

    Telephone Number :

    Name of the School :

    % of Marks in 10th Std :

    I hereby declare that the above details furnished me are correct

    Signature of the student.

    for OFFICE USE only

    Batch : Register Number :

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    PRAKASH INSTITUTE 18 1 M d l Q ti P

    Our Win Centum Coaching Program for +2 powered with

    Excellent Coaching by the EXPERTSwith rich experience in the field Coaching will be given in Maths , Phy and Che

    Memory Refresher ( Study Material ) will be given for each subject

    Assignment in the important questions will be given

    Periodical Testswill be conducted

    Answer sheets will be valued promptly

    One to one interactionwith the teachers for doubt clarification

    Phase I : (with special fee concession)

    (a) +2 Classes commence from January 8th , 2008

    (b) Free Revision Classes andTestswill be conducted in +1 Syllabus

    (c) 40% of the +2 First Midterm Portions will be finished before 04.02.2008

    and the remaining portions will be finished during May 2008.

    (d) Free +1 Revision Classes , Testswill be conducted after 04.02.2007

    Phase II :

    (a) +2 Classes commence from 2ndweek of April, 2007

    (b) +2 First Midterm Portions will be finished before 14.05.2007

    (c) Classes will be re-started from June 1st, after summer vacation

    Merit Scholarships

    In order to honour and encourage the meritorious students we offer the followingconcessions on our coaching fee

    Group A : Overall percentage ( for 100 )mark in 10 th Public Exam

    Group B : Overall percentage ( for 100 ) mark in our 5 unit tests in +1 Free Class

    Group C : Overall percentage ( for 100 ) mark in our +1 Pre common Examination

    S c h o l a r s h i p

    T i t l eS ch ola rs h ip d e t a i ls Dis cou n t

    Achiever

    DIAMOND

    Mo r e t h a n 2 7 0

    ( in Groups A,B,C) out of 300

    100% discount in fee.

    FREE +2 COACHING

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    GOLD

    Le s s t h a n 2 7 0 a n d m o re t h a n 2 4 0

    ( in groups A,B,C) out of 300

    75% discount in

    +2 coaching fee

    Achiever

    SILVER

    Le s s t h a n 2 4 0 a n d m o re t h a n 2 0 0

    ( in groups A,B,C) out of 300

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    L imi t ed Per iod o f fe r