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9111TRUETRUEFALSEWhat does the term "blind transmission" mean?A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established but it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission.A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.A transmission of messages relating to en-route weather information which may affect the safety of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.9112TRUETRUEFALSESelect the air traffic service in charge of control of local traffic, take-offs and landings at an airport.TowerRadarControlAir Traffic Centre9112TRUETRUEFALSEWhat does the abbreviation "AFIS" mean?Aerodrome flight information service.Automatic flight information service.Aeronautical flight information system.Aerodrome flashing identification signal.9112TRUETRUEFALSEWhat does the abbreviation "FIR" mean?Flight information region.Flight information required.Flow information received.Flight information radar.9112TRUETRUEFALSEWhat does the abbreviation "HJ" mean?Sunrise to sunset.Sunset to sunrise.No specific working hours.Continuous day and night service.9112TRUETRUEFALSEWhat does the abbreviation "HX" mean?No specific working hours.Sunrise to sunset.Sunset to sunrise.Continuous day and night service.9112TRUETRUEFALSEWhich abbreviation is used for "Co-ordinated universal time"?UTC.CUT.GMT.COUT.9112TRUETRUEFALSEWhich abbreviation is used for the term "control zone"?CTR.CZ.CTZ.CTA.9113TRUETRUEFALSEIf you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you refer ?QFEQNHQDMQBI9113TRUETRUEFALSEWhat does QDM mean?Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)Magnetic bearing from the stationTrue heading to the station (no wind)True bearing from the station9113TRUETRUEFALSEWhat does QDR mean?Magnetic bearing from the stationMagnetic heading to the station (no wind)True bearing from the stationTrue heading to the station9113TRUETRUEFALSEWhat does QTE mean?True bearing from the station.Magnetic bearing from the station.True heading to the station (no wind).Magnetic heading to the station.9113TRUETRUEFALSEWhat is the Q-code for "magnetic bearing from the station"?QDRQTEQDMQFE9113TRUETRUEFALSEWhat is the Q-code for "magnetic heading to the station (no wind)?QDM.QDR.QNE.QTE.9113TRUETRUEFALSEWhat is the Q-code for "true bearing from the station"?QTEQDRQDMQFE9113TRUETRUEFALSEWhich Q-code is used to report altitude ?QNHQFEQFFQNJ9114TRUETRUEFALSEA message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is:A flight regularity message.An urgency message.A flight safety message.A flight security message.9114TRUETRUEFALSEA message concerning an aircraft being threatened by grave and imminent danger, requiring immediate assistance is called:Distress message.Flight safety message.Urgency message.Class B message.9114TRUETRUEFALSEAir traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, etc.) belong to the category of:Flight safety messages.Class B messages.Flight regularity messages.Service messages.9114TRUETRUEFALSEFlight safety messages are:Air traffic control messages.Operation messages concerning non-routine landings.Messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a vessel, any other vehicle or a person.Messages relating to direction finding.9114TRUETRUEFALSEThe clearance: "cleared for immediate take-off runway 03" is:A flight safety message.An urgency message.An unauthorized message.A flight regularity message.9114TRUETRUEFALSEThe message addressed to an Area Control Centre "request radar vectors to circumnavigate adverse weather" is:A flight safety message.A meteorological message.An urgency message.A message relating to direction finding.9114TRUETRUEFALSEThe message to an aeronautical ground station "please call a taxi-cab for us. We will arrive at 1045" is:An unauthorized message.A flight regularity message.A flight safety messages.An urgency message.9114TRUETRUEFALSEThe order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:Distress message, urgency message, direction finding message.Direction finding message, distress message, urgency message.Distress message, flight safety message, urgency message.Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight regularity message.9114TRUETRUEFALSEThe order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:Flight safety message, meteorological message, flight regularity message.Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight safety message.Flight regularity message, distress message, meteorological message.Flight safety message, direction finding message, urgency message.9114TRUETRUEFALSEThe priority of the instruction "taxi to runway 05" is:the same as "line-up runway 07 and wait".greater than "transmit for QDM".greater than "caution, construction work left of taxiway".less than "cleared to land".9114TRUETRUEFALSEThe priority of the pilot's message "request QDM" is:Greater than "turn left heading..."Less than "request climb to flight level..."Less than "descend to flight level..."Same as "latest QNH 1018".9114TRUETRUEFALSEWhich of the messages listed below shall not be handled by the aeronautical mobile service?Radio teletype messages.Meteorological messages.Flight safety messages.Urgency messages.9121TRUETRUEFALSEHow shall a pilot ask for a QFE ?request Quebec Foxtrot Echorequest Queen Fox Easyrequest Quebec Fox Easyrequest Quebec Fox Echo9121TRUETRUEFALSESelect the letter code for HB-FBO.Hotel Bravo Fox-trot Romeo OscarHotel Bravo Fox Roma OlkaHector Brasil Fox-trot Romeo OscarHotel Bravo Foxy Romeo Oscar9121TRUETRUEFALSEWhat is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a radio message?Hotel Bravo Juliett Yankee CharlieHotel Bravo Juliett India KiloHotel Bravo India Yankee CharlieHotel Bravo India Victor Charlie9122TRUETRUEFALSEDuring the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point:The term DECIMAL must always be transmitted.The term DECIMAL can be omitted with friendly ATS units only.The term DECIMAL can be omitted if no chance of misunderstanding exists.The term DECIMAL must be spoken only if followed by three digits.9122TRUETRUEFALSEFrom your cruising altitude at FL 240, you want to descend to flight level 100. Your transmission to the radar controller is:request descent to flight level one-zero-zerorequest flight level one-hundredrequest to descend one-hundredwe would like to start descent to flight level one-zero-zero9122TRUETRUEFALSEIn order to avoid CB a pilot wants to turn right to a magnetic heading of 100 degrees. The correct way to ask the ATC unit for permission is:Request right turn, heading one-zero-zeroRequest right turn to heading one-hundred degreesRequest right turn to heading one-double-0Request right turn to heading one-point-zero-zero9122TRUETRUEFALSEWhat is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH ?QNH one zero zero oneQNH one double "O" oneQNH one thousand and oneQNH one double zero one9122TRUETRUEFALSEWhat is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 when indicating an altitude or an height ?three thousand five hundredthree five zero zerothree five hundredthree five double zero9123TRUETRUEFALSERegardless of your position, time figures are transmitted with reference to:UTCLocal timeWinter timeGreenwich time9123TRUETRUEFALSEThe time is 9:20 A.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is no possibility of confusion about the hour?Two zero.Twenty.Two zero this hour.Nine twenty A.M.9123TRUETRUEFALSEWhen transmitting time, which time system shall be used?Co-ordinated universal time (UTC)Local time (LT), 24-hour clockLocal time (LT) A.M. and P.M.No specific system, as only the minutes are normally required9124TRUETRUEFALSEMy message will be more effective and understandable if I:Maintain the speaking volume at a constant levelUse the words twice methodStress the end of messageStress every beginning of message9124TRUETRUEFALSEWhat is meant by good microphone technique ?Use a normal conversation tone, speak clearly and distinctly.Speak very loudly into the microphone.Keep the microphone far away since it improves the readability.Make large use of hesitation sounds as "er".9124TRUETRUEFALSEYou have been calling a station without getting an answer. How long time it is recommended to wait at least before making a second call?10 sec.Wait until the station calls you.30 sec.3 sec.9125TRUETRUEFALSE What does the phrase "Go ahead" mean:Proceed with your messageTaxi onPass me the following information...Yes9125TRUETRUEFALSE What does the phrase "Read back" mean:Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as receivedLet me know that you have received and understood this messageDid you correctly receive this message?Check and confirm with originator9125TRUETRUEFALSE What does the phrase "Roger" mean:I have received all of your last transmissionA direct answer in the affirmativeA direct answer in the negativeCleared for take-off or cleared to land9125TRUETRUEFALSEHow shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off:Ready for departure or readyReady for take-offReady to line-upReady to go9125TRUETRUEFALSEWhat does the instruction "Go around" mean ?Carry out a missed approachOvertake the aircraft aheadMake a 360 turnProceed with your message9125TRUETRUEFALSEWhat does the instruction "Orbit right" mean ?Make 360 turns to the rightTurn right to avoid other trafficRight-hand circuits are in useLeave the runway to the right9125TRUETRUEFALSEWhat does the instruction "Vacate left" mean ?Turn left to leave the runwayGive way to aircraft from the leftClear the runway immediatelyHold position on the left side of the runway9125TRUETRUEFALSEWhich of these phrases is used to inform the control tower that a pilot perform a missed approach:Going aroundOvershootingWill make another approachPulling up9125TRUETRUEFALSEWhich of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase "Standby" ?Wait and I will call youContinue on present heading and listen outSelect STANDBY on the SSR transponderPermission granted for action proposed9125TRUETRUEFALSEWhich phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire message is required:Say againRepeat your messageWhat was your message?Repeat your last transmission9125TRUETRUEFALSEWhich phrase shall be used if you want to say: "An error has been made in this transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is ...":QNH 1017, correction QNH 1016QNH 1017, negative QNH 1016QNH 1017, negative 1016QNH 1017, negative I say again 10169125TRUETRUEFALSEWhich phrase shall be used if you want to say: "I should like to know..." or "I wish to obtain..."?RequestReportAcknowledgeConfirm9125TRUETRUEFALSEWhich phrase shall be used if you want to say: "I understand your message and will comply with it":WilcoRogerWill comply with your instructionOK, will do it9125TRUETRUEFALSEWhich phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Pass me the following information...":ReportRequestSay againCheck9125TRUETRUEFALSEWhich phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Yes":AffirmYesRogerAffirmative9125TRUETRUEFALSEWhich phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly:CorrectThat is rightAffirmThat is affirmative9125TRUETRUEFALSEWhich phraseology is to be used to ask the control tower for permission to taxi on a runway in the direction opposite to that in use ?"Request backtrack on runway"."Clearance to backtrack"."To enter back runway"."Backtrack clearance".9125TRUETRUEFALSEWhich word or phrase shall be used if you want to say:"Wait and I will call you"?Standby.Go ahead.Roger.Wilco.9126TRUETRUEFALSEWhat is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing flight information service:INFORMATIONFLIGHT INFORMATION CENTREFLIGHT CENTRECONTROL9126TRUETRUEFALSEWhat is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing surface movement control of aircraft on the manoeuvring area:GROUNDAPPROACHTOWERCONTROL9126TRUETRUEFALSEWhat is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating aerodrome control service:TOWERCONTROLAERODROMEAPRON9126TRUETRUEFALSEWhen may the name of the location or the call sign suffix in the call sign of an aeronautical station be omitted ?When satisfactory communication has been established and provided it will not be confusing to do soNeverOnly after the aeronautical station has used the abbreviated call signIn dense traffic during rush hours9127TRUETRUEFALSEWhen is an aircraft station allowed to use its abbreviated call sign ?After it has been addressed in this manner by the aeronautical ground stationOnly after satisfactory communication has been establishedProvided no confusion is likely to resultIn dense traffic9127TRUETRUEFALSEWhen the aircraft registration marking is used as a call-sign, your first contact with a station shall be in the following form:All characters of the aircraft registration marking.The first letter and the last two characters of the aircraft registration marking.The last three characters of the aircraft registration marking.The first three characters of the aircraft registration marking.9127TRUETRUEFALSEWhich of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct:X-BCXY-BCABCBC9127TRUETRUEFALSEWhich of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XY-ABC is correct:Cherokee BCCherokee XY-BCCherokee X-BCCherokee X-ABC9128TRUETRUEFALSEAircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ?118.7 X-BCWill change to TOWER X-BCChanging over X-BCStephenville TOWER X-BC9128TRUETRUEFALSEAircraft X-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.25, on which information are being broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ?Monitoring 123.25 X-BCChanging to 123.25 X-BCWill contact 123.25 X-BCChecking 123.25 X-BC9128TRUETRUEFALSEHow should aircraft XY-ABC call Stephenville TOWER on initial call ?Stephenville TOWER XY-ABCStephenville TOWER X-BCStephenville XY-ABCTOWER XY-ABC9128TRUETRUEFALSEWhat is the correct way to transmit and read back frequency 120.375 MHz (VHF channel separated by 25 KHz):One two zero decimal three sevenOne twenty decimal three sevenOne two zero decimal three seven fiveOne two zero three seven9129TRUETRUEFALSEAircraft XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission:Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC radio check 118.7Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC pre-flight checkStephenville TOWER XY-ABC signal checkStephenville TOWER XY-ABC frequency check9129TRUETRUEFALSEOn the readability scale what does "Readability 3" mean:Readable but with difficultyNo problem to understandLoud and clearUnreadable9129TRUETRUEFALSEOn the readability scale what does "Readability 5" mean:Perfectly readableUnreadableProblem to understandReadable but with difficulty91210TRUETRUEFALSEAn aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct phraseology to indicate it will follow this instruction ?Holding shortRogerWill stop beforeWilco91210TRUETRUEFALSECherokee XY-ABC receives the following instruction: "X-BC climb straight ahead until 2500 feet before turning right, wind 270 degrees 6 knots, cleared for take-off". What is the correct read back:Straight ahead, at 2500 feet right turn, cleared for take-off, X-BCWilco, cleared for take-off, X-BCRight turn after 2500, roger, X-BCStraight ahead, 2500 feet right turn, wind west 6 knots, cleared for take-off, X-BC91210TRUETRUEFALSEHow should a pilot terminate the read-back of an ATC clearance ?With his own aircraft call signWith the word "wilco"With the ATC ground station call signWith the word "roger"91210TRUETRUEFALSEShall an ATC route clearance always be read back:Yes, unless authorized otherwise by ATS authority concernedNo, if the ATC route clearance is transmitted in a published form (e.g. Standard Instrument Departure Route/SID)No, if the communication channel is overloadedNo, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is likely to arise91210TRUETRUEFALSEWhich elements of instructions or information shall always be read back ?Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructionsRunway-in-use, visibility, surface wind, heading instructions, altimeter settingsSurface wind, visibility, ground temperature, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, heading and speed instructionsTime check, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, level instructions, SSR codes91211TRUETRUEFALSEAn aircraft is flying north-east at 2500 feet. TOWER requests heading and level. What is the correct response:Heading 045 at 2500 feetHeading north-east at level 25Heading 45 at 2500 feet045 and 250091211TRUETRUEFALSEHow shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the aircraft is not equipped with transponder:Negative transponderNo SSRTransponder not availableNegative squawk91211TRUETRUEFALSERADAR informs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC identified". What does this mean:Radar identification has been achievedX-BC is not visible on the radar screenX-BC should perform an identification turnX-BC should operate the IDENT-button91211TRUETRUEFALSERADAR instructs aircraft X-BC:"X-BC squawk ident". What does this mean:X-BC shall operate the IDENT buttonRadar identification has been achieved by correlating an observed radar blip with aircraft XY-ABCX-BC should perform an identification turn of at least 020 degreesX-BC shall reselect his assigned mode and code91211TRUETRUEFALSERADAR instructs aircraft X-BC:"X-BC squawk standby ". What does this mean?X-BC is requested to switch to standby positionX-BC is requested to standby on the frequencyX-BC is requested to standby for radar vectorsX-BC is requested to standby as the radar controller is busy91211TRUETRUEFALSEThe radar controller is transmitting: "Confirm squawk". What does he mean?The controller wants to know which code is set on the transponder.The controller wants you to repeat your last transmission once again.The controller wants you to transmit your bearing.The controller requests the registration of the aircraft.91211TRUETRUEFALSEWhat does the phrase "Squawk 1234" mean:Select code 1234 on the SSR transponderGive a short count for DF (direction finder)Make a test transmission on 123.4 MHzStandby on frequency 123.4 MHz91211TRUETRUEFALSERADAR instructs aircraft XY-ABC: "X-BC reset squawk 1015". What does this mean:X-BC is requested to reselect SSR code 1015X-BC is requested to set new code 1015X-BC has been identified by SSR code 1015X-BC has been identified at 10:15 (UTC)9131TRUETRUEFALSEHow is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) expressed in plain language:Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometresUp to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometresIn feet and nautical milesIn nautical miles only9131TRUETRUEFALSEWhat is "VOLMET"?Meteorological information for aircraft in flight.Meteorological station.Volume control meter.A device used for measuring cloud base.9131TRUETRUEFALSEWhat is the correct way of expressing visibility ?Visibility 1200 metresVisibility 1200 feetVisibility 1.2 nautical milesVisibility 1.2 kilometres9131TRUETRUEFALSEWhen the term "Broken" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:5 to 7 octas1 to 4 octas8 octas below 10000 feetNo clouds below 5000 feet9131TRUETRUEFALSEWhen the term "CAVOK" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the values of visibility and clouds are:Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000 feet/GNDVisibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 1500 feet/GNDVisibility more than 8 km, no clouds below 3000 feet/GNDVisibility more than 5000 m, no clouds below 1500 m/GND9131TRUETRUEFALSEWhen the term "Overcast" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:100%50% or moreLess than 50%No clouds but poor ground visibility9131TRUETRUEFALSEWhen the term "Scattered" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:Half or less than half (3 or 4 octas)More than half but less than overcast (5 to 7 octas)Sky entirely covered (8 octas)No clouds below 5000 feet/GND9132TRUETRUEFALSEHow can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained by aircraft in flight:VOLMETATISAFISSIGMET9132TRUETRUEFALSEWhat is normally used for ATIS broadcasts ?Discrete VHF frequency or/and VORVoice channel of an ILSNDB frequenciesDME voice channel9132TRUETRUEFALSEWhich information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOLMET:Aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airportsSPECI and TAFSIGMETRunway reports9140TRUETRUEFALSEA message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due receiver failure" shall be transmitted:On the frequency presently in useOn the regional guard frequencyOn the international emergency frequencyOn all available aeronautical stations9140TRUETRUEFALSEAn aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates:It is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failureIt is diverting to the alternate aerodromeIt is requesting immediate level changeIt is about to make a forced landing9140TRUETRUEFALSEAn aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station on the designated frequency. What action is required by the pilot:Attempt to establish contact with the station on an alternative frequencyContinue the flight to the destination airport without any communicationReturn to the airport of departureLand at the nearest airport without an ATC unit9140TRUETRUEFALSEIf all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot of an aeroplane shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase:"Transmitting blind""Read you one, read you one""How do you read?"PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN9140TRUETRUEFALSEIn the event that a pilot is required to make a blind transmission, this should be made:Twice on the designated frequencyOnly once on the designated frequencyOn the emergency frequency onlyDuring VFR flights only9140TRUETRUEFALSEUnder which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600 ?In case of radio communication failureWhen entering bad weather areasWhen approaching a prohibited areaWhen flying over desert areas9140TRUETRUEFALSEWhat action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station ?Try to establish communication with other aircraft or aeronautical stationsDivert to the alternate airportSquawk mode A code 7500Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight9140TRUETRUEFALSEWhat is the transponder code for radio communication failure:76006700750077009140TRUETRUEFALSEWhen an aircraft station is unable to establish communication due to receiver failure, the following procedure should be undertaken:Transmit reports at scheduled times or positions, preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due to receiver failure".Transmit at regular times or positions, the phrase "Transmitting blind due to receiver failure".Change to frequency 121.5 MHZ and squawk 7700.Land at the nearest uncontrolled airfield.9140TRUETRUEFALSEWhen shall the pilot of an aircraft experiencing communications failure keep a watch for instructions passed by visual signals ?When the aircraft is forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled aerodromeWhen flying VFR above cloudsWhen the aircraft is entering the traffic pattern of an uncontrolled airportWhen entering a FIR during an IFR flight9140TRUETRUEFALSEWhen transmitting a message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due to receiver failure" during an en-route flight, the aircraft station shall also:Advise the time of its next intended transmissionJoin base leg when approaching the airfield for landingLand at the nearest airfield/airportReturn to the airport of departure9151TRUETRUEFALSEAn aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony:MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAYDETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFAPAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PANURGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY9151TRUETRUEFALSEAn aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk:77006700760075009151TRUETRUEFALSEDistress is defined as:A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistanceA condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistanceA condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approachA condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance9151TRUETRUEFALSEThe distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/details:Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilot's intention, present position, level and headingAircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airportAircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and levelAircraft call sign, present position, assistance required9151TRUETRUEFALSEThe frequency used for the first transmission of a "MAYDAY" call shall be:The frequency currently in useThe distress frequency 121.5 MHzAny other international emergency frequencyAny frequency at pilot's discretion9151TRUETRUEFALSEUnder which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk 7700 ?In distressWhen following a SIDWhen flying within controlled airspaceWhen passing the transition level9151TRUETRUEFALSEWhat action should be taken by the aircraft station first receiving a distress message?Immediately acknowledge the distress message.Ask the station to change to frequency 121.5 MHZ.Request the nature of emergency in progress, and request further intentions.Request position of the station in distress.9151TRUETRUEFALSEWhich of the following frequencies is an international emergency frequency:121.500 MHz122.500 MHz6500 KHz121.050 MHz9152TRUETRUEFALSEAn urgency message shall be preceded by the radiotelephony urgency signal:PAN PAN, spoken three timesURGENCY, spoken three timesMAYDAY, spoken three timesALERFA, spoken three times9152TRUETRUEFALSEUrgency is defined as:A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistanceA condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistanceA condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approachA condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance9152TRUETRUEFALSEWhich frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call:The air-ground frequency in use at the timeThe international emergency frequencyThe regional guard frequencyAny frequency at pilot's discretion9160TRUETRUEFALSETo which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong ?Very high frequencyVery low frequencyLow frequencyMedium frequency9160TRUETRUEFALSEUnder which of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception of the TOWER frequency 118.2 MHz:Aircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground stationAircraft at low level but far away from the ground stationAircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hillAircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill9160TRUETRUEFALSEWhat are the propagation characteristics of VHF:Practically straight-line similar to light wavesThe waves are reflected at the ionosphere at the height of about 100 km and reach the earth surface in the form of sky-wavesThe waves travel along the surface of the earth and penetrate into valleys in a way that topographical obstacles have no influenceSimilar to short waves with practically no atmospheric disturbance9160TRUETRUEFALSEWhich is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile Service?118.000 - 136.975 MHZ108.000 - 117.975 MHz1810 - 2850 KHz11650 - 13200 KHz9160TRUETRUEFALSEWhich is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF band:25 KHz50 KHz75 KHz250 KHz9160TRUETRUEFALSEWhich is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 100:About 120 NMAbout 300 NMAbout 30 NMAbout 12 NM9160TRUETRUEFALSEWhich is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 50:About 85 NMAbout 8 NMAbout 15 NMAbout 150 NM9160TRUETRUEFALSEWhich phenomena will normally influence the reception of VHF transmission ?Level of aircraft and terrain elevationsThe ionosphereElectrical discharges as they happen frequently in thunderstormsDay- and night effect9211TRUEFALSETRUEAn "Automatic Terminal Information Service" provides:Routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous and repetitive broadcast .Information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of aircraft operation.Current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of the air navigation within a FIR.Weather reports relating a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight information region (FIR).9211TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the term "air-ground communication" mean?Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the earthOne-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earthOne-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earthAny communication from aircraft to ground station requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN)9211TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the term "broadcast" mean?A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.A radiotelephony transmission from ground station to aircraft in flight.A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations.9211TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the term "clearance limit" mean:The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearanceThe time of expiry of an air traffic control clearanceThe time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearanceThe time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled if the flight has not been commenced9211TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the term "Expected Approach Time" mean:The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landingThe time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landingThe time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodromeThe holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a landing will be initiated9211TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the term "way point" mean:A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the flight path of an aircraft employing area navigationA defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation systemA signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-useA general term meaning the taxiway- and the runway-system of an international airport9211TRUEFALSETRUEWhen flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the term "Visual approach" ?An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrainAn approach executed by an IFR flight unable to maintain VMCA visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the aerodrome of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minimaAn extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in-approach9212TRUEFALSETRUEAmong the following, select the ATC unit in charge of controlling the traffic:DepartureATISAFISAIS9212TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does "SELCAL" mean:A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephone channels linking a ground station with the aircraftA system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft onlyA system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in both directions simultaneouslyA system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS) units9212TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the abbreviation "AIS" mean?Aeronautical information service.Aerodrome identification signal-area.Airport information system.Aerodrome information service.9212TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the abbreviation "ATIS" mean?Automatic terminal information service.Airport terminal information service.Automatic terminal information system.Air traffic information service.9212TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the abbreviation "H24" mean?Continuous day and night service.Sunrise to sunset.Sunset to sunrise.No specific working hours.9212TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the abbreviation "IMC" mean?Instrument meteorological conditions.In most cases.International meteorological channel.In meteorological conditions.9212TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the abbreviation "INS" mean:Inertial navigation systemInstrument navigation systemInternational NOTAM systemInternational navigation service9212TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the abbreviation "MLS" mean:Microwave landing systemMinimum safe levelMean sea levelMinimum sector level9212TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the abbreviation "RNAV" mean:Area navigationRadar aided navigationRoute navigationRadio navigation9212TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the abbreviation "RVR" mean:Runway visual rangeRadar vectors requestedRunway visibility reportRecleared via route...9212TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the abbreviation "SAR" mean?Search and rescue.Surveillance airport radar.Standard arrival route.Secondary altimeter responder.9212TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the abbreviation "SSR" mean:Secondary surveillance radarSearch and surveillance radarSurface strength of runwayStandard snow report9212TRUEFALSETRUEWhich of the following is the correct suffix for the ATC unit controlling the traffic on the ground at an airport?GroundRadarApproachDelivery9213TRUEFALSETRUEQFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate:The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome.The atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit height.The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datum.9213TRUEFALSETRUEQNH is the Q-code to indicate:The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground.The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP).The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome.9221TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is the correct way of spelling out FRI-VOR in a radio message ?Foxtrot Romeo India - VORFoxtrot Romeo Juliett - VORFox Romeo Yankee - VORFox Romeo India - VOR9222TRUEFALSETRUEDuring radar vectoring, the controller asks the pilot of XY-ABC to turn on to heading 360. The correct read back of this instruction is:Heading three six zero, X-BC.Heading north, X-BC.Heading three hundred sixty, X-BC.A read back is not necessary as XY-ABC has been identified9222TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency ?one one eight decimal oneone eighteen oneone one eight oneone one eight point one9222TRUETRUETRUEWhat is the correct way of transmitting the number 13.500 to indicate an altitude or cloud height ?one three thousand five hundredone three five hundredone three five zero zerothirteen thousand five hundred9223TRUEFALSETRUEThe time is 4:15 P.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is any possibility of confusion about the hour ?One six one fiveFour fifteen P.M.Sixteen fifteenFour fifteen in the afternoon9223TRUEFALSETRUEThe time is now 1123. Radar Control requests your estimate for next reporting point, which is AAL VOR/DME. You look at your operational flight plan and estimate 12 minutes (36 NM) to go to the reporting point. Your transmission is:estimate AAL at three-five.estimate AAL at eleven-thirty-five.have one-two minutes to go to AAL.estimate AAL VOR/DME in one-two minutes.9224TRUEFALSETRUEBefore transmitting the pilot should...:Listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station already transmitting will occur.Make sure that the aircraft is levelled off.Always write the message and read it during the transmission.Make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same time.9224TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is the consequence of a microphone button stuck on transmit (switched "on") ?The frequency can not be used by others.None.Other stations will have to use the "words twice" technique.Readability will improve for all stations.9225TRUEFALSETRUE What does the phrase "Verify" mean:Check and confirm with originatorRepeat your last transmissionRead back VDF bearingConsider that transmission as not sent9225TRUEFALSETRUEFastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction:118.0 Fastair 345Changing over Fastair 345Changing to ARRIVAL Fastair 345Stephenville ARRIVAL Fastair 3459225TRUEFALSETRUEHow shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off manoeuvre:StoppingAbandoning take-offAborting take-offCancelling take-off9225TRUEFALSETRUETo indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to the controller:Runway vacated.Runway cleared.Runway free.Clear of runway.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the instruction:"Fastair 345 standby 118.9 for TOWER" mean:Fastair 345 should listen on frequency 118.9 on which TOWER will initiate further communicationsFastair 345 should change frequency to 118.9, on which aerodrome data are being broadcastFastair 345 should contact TOWER on 118.9Fastair 345 should standby on the current frequency9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the phrase "break break" mean ?It indicates the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy environment.It indicates the separation between portions of a message transmitted to an aircraft station.The exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected.My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the word "acknowledge" mean ?Let me know that you have received and understood this message.Pass me the following information.Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received.Repeat all of your last transmission.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the word "approved" mean ?Permission for proposed action granted.That is correct.Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified.I repeat for clarity or emphasis.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the word "cancel" mean ?Annul the previously transmitted clearance.A change has been made to your last clearance.Wait and I will call you.Consider that transmission as not sent.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the word "check" mean ?Examine a system or procedure.Confirm your last transmission.Read back my last instruction.I understand your message.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the word "contact" mean ?Establish radio contact with ... .Radar contact established .Listen out on (frequency) .That is correct .9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the word "correct" mean ?That is correct.An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is ... .Permission for proposed action not granted.Negative, the correct version is ... .9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the word "disregard" mean ?Consider that transmission as not sent.An error has been made in this transmission.Annul the previously transmitted clearance.Wait and I will call you.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the word "Monitor" mean:Listen out on (frequency).Wait and I will call youEstablish radio contact with...Examine a system or procedure9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the word "negative" mean ?Permission not granted.Proposed action granted.Disregard last instruction.Consider that transmission as not sent.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the word "negative" mean ?That is not correct.Consider that transmission as not sent.Annul the previously transmitted clearance.I say again.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the word "recleared" mean ?A change has been made to your last clearance.Permission for proposed action granted.An error has been made in my last transmission.Consider that transmission as not sent.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the word "report" mean ?Pass me the following information.Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received.Say again.Examine a system or procedure.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the word "wilco" mean ?I understand your message and will comply with it.I have received all of your last transmission.I read you five.As communication is difficult, I will call you later.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is the correct suffix to be used when establishing radio contact in an area control centre?ControlRadioControl centreCentre9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf has been received:Information GolfWeather Golf receivedWe have the InformationWe have the ATIS Golf9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is the meaning of the phrase "Radar service terminated"?You will no longer be provided with radar control.ATC wants you to continue VFR.ATC wants you to reset transponder.You are now leaving the Terminal Area.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhat phrase shall be used when asking for the readability of a transmission ?How do you read ?Read back .Report readability .Read you loud and clear .9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhen shall the phrase "Take-off" be used by a pilot:To acknowledge take-off clearance onlyNever, it is used only by the control towerTo inform TOWER when ready for departureOnly when the aircraft has already moved onto the active runway9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhich of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: "Consider that transmission as not sent":DisregardCancel my last messageForget itMy last transmission is cancelled9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhich phrase shall be used if you want to say: ''Communication is difficult. Please send every word or group of words twice'' ?Words twiceSay again, say againRepeat twiceMessage second time9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhich phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed approach procedure:Going aroundMissed approachPulling upOvershooting9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhich phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out:Unable to complyNegative instructionImpossible to make itDisregard9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhich word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Reduce your rate of speech" ?Speak slower.Words twice.Repeat.Say again.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhich word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat for clarity or emphasis ?I say again .Confirm .Read back .Verify .9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhich word or phrase shall be used to indicate a separation between portions of a message ?Break.Stop.I say again.Over.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhich word or phrase shall be used to indicate that a change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof ?Recleared.Cleared.Approved.Break break.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhich word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under specified conditions ?Cleared.Go ahead.Approved.I say again: proceed.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhich word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a message, clearance, instruction, etc ?Confirm.Correct.Acknowledge.Verify.9225TRUEFALSETRUEWhich word shall be used to indicate that an error has been made in a transmission or message ?Correction.Correct.Negative.Disregard.9226TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar arrivals:...ARRIVAL...APPROACH...RADAR...DIRECTOR9226TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar departures:...DEPARTURE...CONTROL...RADAR...APPROACH9226TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area control centre (no radar):...CONTROL...CENTRE...APPROACH...RADAR9226TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing approach control (no radar service) ?APPROACHARRIVALRADARCONTROL9226TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating clearance delivery ?DELIVERY.CLEARANCE.CLEARANCE DELIVERY.RADIO.9226TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station providing radar service (in general) ?RADAR.CONTROL.RADAR-CONTROL.RADAR-SERVICE.9227TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off weight of more than 136 tonnes:Fastair 345 heavyHeavy Fastair 345Fastair 345Fastair 345 widebody9227TRUEFALSETRUEWhat, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345 ?No abbreviated formFastair 345Fastair 4523459227TRUEFALSETRUEWhen shall an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence category include the word "Heavy" immediately after its call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy:In the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unitNeverIn all callsIn all calls to the aerodrome tower and the approach control unit9228TRUEFALSETRUEFastair 345 has been instructed "Standby 118.9 for TOWER". What does this instruction mean ?Fastair shall change to frequency 118.9 and listen out, but the TOWER will initiate further communications.Fastair 345 shall change to frequency 118.9 on which information is being broadcast.Fastair 345 shall establish radio contact with TOWER on frequency 118.9.Fastair 345 shall squawk standby and then establish radio contact with TOWER on frequency 118.9.9228TRUEFALSETRUEFastair 345 is instructed to contact Stephenville RADAR on channel 132.010 MHz. How would Fastair 345 advise RADAR that it is not 8.33 KHz equipped ?Negative eight point three three.Negative frequency 132.010.Negative channel 132.0083.Negative on 132.0089228TRUEFALSETRUEHow shall a pilot inform the ATS unit that his aircraft does not have 8.33 KHz capability ?:Negative eight point three three.We do not have this frequency.My aircraft is not equipped with eight point three three.Negative eight point three three frequency equipment.9228TRUEFALSETRUEHow will an ATS unit instruct Fastair 345 to contact Stephenville RADAR on frequency 132.0083 (8.33 KHz frequency spacing) ?:Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR channel 132.010.Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR frequency 132.010.Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR channel 132.0083.Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR on 132.010.9229TRUEFALSETRUE When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one station, the call starts with: "All stations" "General broadcast" "Message to all aircraft on this frequency" "Please listen"9229TRUEFALSETRUEMust a "general call" be acknowledged"?No.Yes, but only from the station first called.Yes, from all stations in the sequence they have been addressed.Yes, from all stations in a random sequence.9229TRUEFALSETRUEOn the readability scale what does "readability 1" mean ?Unreadable.Readable.Perfectly readable.Readable but with difficulty.9229TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is meant by the phrase " readability 4"?Readable.Readable now and then.Perfectly readable.Readable but with difficulty.9229TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is meant by the phrase "readability 2"?Readable now and then.Readable.Unreadable.Readable but with difficulty.9229TRUEFALSETRUEWhich of the following calls is a "general call" ?ALL STATIONS Stephenville CONTROL.YX-ABC, YX-BCD, YX-CDE Stephenville CONTROL.YX-DEF Stephenville CONTROL.YX-EFG, YX-FGH over.92210TRUEFALSETRUEA read back is not needed for the following message:Wind velocityClearance to backtrack on RWY in use.Clearance to take off.Altimeter setting.92210TRUEFALSETRUEWhich elements of instructions or information shall always be read back ?SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructionsQNH, weather information, runway-in-useATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state informationQNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceability92210TRUEFALSETRUEWhich of the following messages sent by ATC to an aircraft in flight must be read back?

1 - "descend to (altitude) 3.000 feet"2 - "wind 240, 15 knots, gusts 30 knots"3 - "turn right heading 210"4 - "reduce speed to 160 knots"5 - "squawk 1723"6 - "braking action poor"1, 3, 4, 5all1, 2, 3, 51, 3, 4, 5, 692211TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does the instruction "Fastair 345 recycle 1240" mean ?:Fastair 345 is requested to reselect assigned mode and code 1240.Fastair 345 is requested to set new code 1240.RADAR informs Fastair 345 that radar service is terminated at time 1240.RADAR instructs Fastair 345 to stop squawk 1240 immediately.92212TRUEFALSETRUEATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct read back by the pilot:Leaving flight level 100 descending to flight level 80, Fastair 345Descending to 80, Fastair 345Down to flight level 80, Fastair 345Leaving 100 to 80, Fastair 34592212TRUEFALSETRUEThe aircraft has started a descent. Select the correct radiotelephony transmission.LEAVING FL 200, DESCENDING TO FL 120.LEAVING FL 200.LEAVING LEVEL 200 FOR LEVEL 120.STARTING DESCENT.92212TRUEFALSETRUEWhat shall the pilot's read back be for "Climb to FL 280":Climbing to flight level two eight zeroClimbing to flight level two eightyClimbing two eight zeroClimbing to two eighty92212TRUEFALSETRUEWhat shall the pilot's rea-dback be for "climb to 2500 feet":Climbing to two thousand five hundred feetUp to two thousand five hundredClimbing to two point fiveClimbing to two thousand five hundred92212TRUEFALSETRUEWhich elements of a position report cannot be omitted ?Aircraft identification, position, timeAircraft identification, position, time, levelAircraft identification, position, levelAircraft identification, position, next position9230TRUEFALSETRUEA departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight under radar vectors has to:Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan in the most direct mannerSquawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight planSquawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest waySquawk 7600 and thereafter, regardless of any limitation instructed by ATC, return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way9230TRUEFALSETRUEAn aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome (no EAT received):At, or as close to, the ETA resulting from the current flight plan5 minutes after the last expected approach time acknowledgedImmediately after reaching in any caseAfter 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged9230TRUEFALSETRUEAn aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to hold over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome:Until the expected approach time last received and acknowledgedUnder no circumstances5 minutes in any case3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged9230TRUEFALSETRUEAn aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to land, if possible, within:30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is later30 minutes after noticing the radio failure30 minutes after waiting for the EAT15 minutes after vacating the transition layer9230TRUEFALSETRUEAn aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to:Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrivalLeave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspaceSquawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodromeContinue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case9230TRUEFALSETRUEAn aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC is assumed to:Proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodromeProceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight rulesDivert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flightExecute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome9230TRUEFALSETRUEAn aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to:Land at the nearest suitable aerodromeReturn to the aerodrome of departureLand at the alternate aerodromeLand at the destination aerodrome9230TRUEFALSETRUEBlind transmission shall be made:On the designated frequency (frequency in use)To all available aeronautical stationsOn regional guard frequencies onlyDuring IFR flights only9230TRUEFALSETRUEIn case of a SSR transponder failure occurring after departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall:Inform the current ATC unit immediatelyLand at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repairSquawk 7600Continue the flight in VMC9230TRUEFALSETRUEIn case the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR flight, the pilot shall:Obtain prior permission by ATC to conduct the flightInform FIS for relay to AISInsert under item 18 of the flight plan "transponder unserviceable"Inform ATC after departure9230TRUEFALSETRUEThe expression " transmitting blind due to receiver failure" implies that no answer is expected. It shall be used by:An aircraft station being aware of receiver failureAn aircraft station doing blind transmissions at a "non-towered" airfieldA radar controller performing a PAR or SRE final approach.A ground station broadcasting information to all listening stations.9230TRUEFALSETRUEWithin the European Region, an aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR departure has to squawk 7600 and:Maintain the level last assigned by the ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then climb in accordance with the flight planClimb immediately to the cruising level indicated in the flight planLand at the departure aerodrome in any caseMaintain the altitude last assigned by ATC for a period of 5 minutes and then continue in accordance with the flight plan9241TRUEFALSETRUEA message concerning a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportation shall be preceded by the signal:PAN PAN MEDICALMEDICAL TRANSPORTPROTECTED TRANSPORTPAN PAN TRANSPORT9241TRUEFALSETRUEWhat do the spoken words '' PAN PAN MEDICAL '' mean ?The message which follows concerns a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportationThe aircraft has a sick passenger on board and requests priority to landThe aircraft has an urgent need of medical care upon landing at destination airportThe phrase/signal is inadmissible in radiotelephony9242TRUEFALSETRUEA signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY means:Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is requiredThe aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or vehicleThe aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along its route of flightThe aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure9242TRUEFALSETRUEAn aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that:The aircraft is in distressThe aircraft is being hijackedThe aircraft's transceiver is unserviceableThere is a sick passenger on board9242TRUEFALSETRUERadio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in case of:Distress traffic.Urgency communication.Overload of the frequency.Technical difficulties.9242TRUEFALSETRUEThe distress communication and silence conditions shall be terminated by transmitting a message. Which words shall this message include ?Distress traffic endedEmergency communication finishedMAYDAY traffic endedDisregard distress communication, OUT9242TRUEFALSETRUEThe distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress be on:The air-ground frequency in use at the timeThe emergency frequency in any caseThe regional guard frequencyThe FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned9242TRUEFALSETRUEThe frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as:An international emergency frequencyA frequency for air-to-air communicationA regional UHF frequencyAn airline operation frequency9242TRUEFALSETRUEWhen an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include ?... cancel distress... MAYDAY, resuming normal operations... MAYDAY cancelled... distress condition terminated9242TRUEFALSETRUEWhen an aircraft station receives the call "ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, distress traffic ended" it is requested:To resume normal communication with Stephenville RADAR.To impose silence to other stations in its vicinity.Acknowledge receipt of this message.Discontinue communication with Stephenville RADAR.9242TRUEFALSETRUEWhen an aircraft station receives the call "ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, stop transmitting MAYDAY" it is requested:Not to interfere with the distress communication.To continue normal communication on the frequency in use.To assist Stephenville RADAR in handling the distress traffic.To leave the frequency in use.9242TRUEFALSETRUEWhich of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence ?Stop transmitting, MAYDAYStop transmitting, DISTRESSStop transmitting, EMERGENCYAll stations in this frequency, MAYDAY traffic9243TRUEFALSETRUEA signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN means:The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not requiredImminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is requiredThe aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for immediate reclearanceAn aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure9243TRUEFALSETRUEOn hearing an urgency message a pilot shall:Monitor the frequency to offer assistance if requiredAcknowledge the message immediatelyImpose radio silence on the frequency in useChange the frequency, because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use9243TRUEFALSETRUEThe urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall contain at least the following elements/details:Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, pilot's intention, present position, level and headingAircraft call sign, destination airport, ETA at destination, route of flightName of the station addressed, present position, assistance requiredAircraft identification, aerodrome of departure, level and heading9243TRUEFALSETRUEWhich of the following statements is correct ?The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications, except distressThe urgency communications have priority over all the other communicationsThere is no difference regarding priority between distress communications and urgency communicationsATC clearances have the same priority as urgency communications9251TRUEFALSETRUEIf you are requested to "Report flight conditions", what does that mean: Indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMCIndicate weather conditions as wind, visibility, temperatureIndicate if visibility is sufficient for landingIndicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR9251TRUEFALSETRUEUnder what runway conditions is the braking action reported to be "Unreliable":Runway covered with wet snow and slushRunway covered with iceRunway covered with dry snowRunway conditions normal9251TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does "Friction coefficient 20" in a runway report mean:Braking action poorBraking action mediumBraking action goodBraking action unreliable9251TRUEFALSETRUEWhat does "Friction coefficient 45" in a runway report mean:Braking action goodBraking action mediumBraking action poorBraking action not measurable9251TRUEFALSETRUEWhen transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC should use the following phrase:RVR runway 16 touchdown ... metres, mid-point ... metres, stop end ... metresThe values of the transmissometer are: ... metres and ... metresRVR at the beginning of runway 16 is ... metresRVR runway 16 ... metres diagonal ... metres diagonal ... metres9260TRUEFALSETRUEWhat is the maximum distance at which you may expect strong VHF reception over flat terrain at FL 140 ?About 140 NMAbout 300 NMAbout 240 NMAbout 40 NM

010AIR LAWSubjectTopicParaAtplCplIrQuestionAnswer AAnswer BAnswer CAnswer D1011TRUETRUETRUEAn airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighbouring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised?2nd freedom1st freedom3rd freedom4th freedom1011TRUETRUETRUEThe International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.aeronautical standards adopted by all states.proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes. standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.1011TRUETRUETRUEThe International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of:ChicagoThe HagueWarsawMontreal1011TRUETRUETRUEThe objectives of ICAO was ratified by the:Chicago convention 1944Warsaw convention 1929Geneva convention 1948Geneva convention 19361011TRUETRUETRUEOne of the main objectives of ICAO is to:develop principles and technique for international aviationapprove the ticket prices set by international airline companiesapprove new international airlines with jet aircraftapprove new international airlines1011TRUETRUETRUEThe 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national differenceadvice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member statesbinding for all member statesbinding for all air line companies with international traffic1011TRUETRUETRUEWhich body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption?the Air Navigation Commissionthe Assemblythe Councilthe Regional Air Navigation meeting1012TRUEFALSEFALSEAny contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denounciation shall take effect :6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments2 months following the date ICAO is informed4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governements1012TRUEFALSEFALSEAny contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressedInternational Civile Aviation Organisationthe other Contracting StatesUnited Nationsto all States Members of United Nations1012TRUETRUEFALSEThe aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal lawmay deliver such person to the competent authoritiesmay request such person to disembarkmay require the assistance of passengers to restrain such personmay not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members1012TRUEFALSEFALSEThe convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:the convention of Tokyothe convention of Paristhe convention of Romethe convention of Chicago1012TRUETRUEFALSEThe Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:limitation of the operator's liability for damage caused to passengers and goods transportedthe regulation of transportation of dangerous goodsoperators licence for international scheduled aviationthe security system at airports1012TRUETRUETRUEWhich of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the conventionICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connectionsICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulationsICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses1012TRUETRUETRUE"Cabotage" refers to:domestic air services ;a national air carrier;a flight above territorial waters;crop spraying1012TRUETRUETRUEThe first freedom of the air is:The right to overfly without landing.The right to land for a technical stop.The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state.1012TRUETRUEFALSEThe second freedom of the air is the:right to land for a technical stopright to overfly without landingright to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.1012TRUETRUEFALSEThe convention of Tokyo applies to damage :caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in , by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction stateonly caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting statecaused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft regardless the registrationthe above convention does not deal with this item1012TRUETRUEFALSEThe convention which deals with offences against penal law, isthe convention of Tokyothe convention of Warsawthe convention of Romethe convention of Madrid1012TRUETRUEFALSEThe international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:Warsaw Convention.Tokyo Convention.Hague Convention.Montreal Convention.1014TRUEFALSEFALSEAny person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by:the Rome Conventionthe Chicago Conventionthe Warsaw Conventionthe Montreal Convention1014TRUEFALSEFALSEThe convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:the Rome Conventionthe Warsaw Conventionthe Paris Conventionthe Tokyo Convention1014TRUEFALSEFALSEThe Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surfaceRegulation of transportation of dangerous goodsDamage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surfaceoffences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft1020TRUETRUEFALSEAccording to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the:Laws of the State of registryLaws of the State in which is operatedLaws of the State of registry and operationRequirements laid down by ICAO1020TRUETRUEFALSEThe loading limitations shall include:all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadingall limiting mass and centres of gravityall limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravityall limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading1020TRUETRUEFALSEThe state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes:over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off massover 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing massup to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off massup to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass1020TRUETRUEFALSEWhen letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with thefive letter combinations used in the international code of signalsfour letter combinations beginning with Qthree letters combinations used in the international code of signalsletters used for ICAO identification documents1030TRUETRUEFALSEAccording to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:the state of registry or common mark registering authoritythe state of registry onlythe International Civil Aviation Organisationthe International Telecommunication Union1030TRUETRUEFALSEThe assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by :the International Civil Aviation Organisationthe state of registrythe state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Unionthe International Telecommunication Union1030TRUETRUEFALSEThe common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated :to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Unionto the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisationto the State of registry by the International Telecommunication Unionto state of the operator1030TRUEFALSEFALSEThe height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:at least 30 centimetresat least 40 centimetresat least 20 centimetresat least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres1030TRUEFALSEFALSEThe height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:at least 50 centimetresat least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetresat least 60 centimetresat least 75 centimetres1030TRUETRUEFALSEWhen letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for exampleTTTFFFRCCLLL1030TRUETRUEFALSEWhen letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for examplePANRCCLLLDDD1030TRUETRUEFALSEWhen letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for exampleXXXDDDRCCLLL1040TRUETRUEFALSEAccording to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew licence license issued by a non JAA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a JAA Member StateAt the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of basic licenceAt the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one yearAt the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.1040TRUETRUEFALSEAccording to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least:150 hours of flight time200 hours of flight time150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time1040TRUEFALSETRUEAccording to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours:Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes.Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.1040TRUEFALSEFALSEAccording to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23.500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23, as pilot-in-command500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23, of which up to 150 hours may be as flight engineer.500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23, including 200 hours of night flight as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot.1040TRUEFALSEFALSEAccording to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:a minimum crew of two pilots under IFRthe carriage of passengers at night.a minimum crew of two pilots plus a flight engineer.operations by pilots under training.1040TRUETRUETRUEAccording to JAR-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for:Not more than three yearsNot more than two yearsThe period of validity of the class/type rating.The period of validity of the medical certificate.1040TRUEFALSETRUEAccording to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:one yeartwo yearsThe period of validity of the licence.Indefinitely1040TRUETRUEFALSEAccording to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter1040TRUETRUEFALSEAccording to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including:All self.-sustaining gliders.All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.1040TRUETRUEFALSEAccording to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has:Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator trainingHandling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew memberA certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.1040TRUETRUETRUEAccording to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:More than 12 hoursMore than 12 daysMore than one weekAny period1040TRUETRUETRUEAccording to JAR-FCL, Medical certificates classes are:1 and 21, 2 and 31,2,3 and 4class 1 only.1040TRUETRUETRUEAccording to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for:Two yearsOne yearTwo years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.Five years after licence issue.1040TRUEFALSEFALSEAccording to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shall be required to:Obtain the first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanesObtain the first class rating on multi-engine aeroplanesObtain a professional pilot licenceRevalidate any rating or licence1040TRUETRUETRUEAccording to JAR-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are:FI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A)/IRI(A) and SFI authorisationFE(A)/TRE(A)/CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorisation.FI(A)/TRI(A)CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorisationFI(A) and IRI(A).1040TRUETRUEFALSEAccording to JAR-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the rating:On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and , in addition, has supervised at least 25 student solo flights.On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has supervised at least 100 solo flights.On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has completed a competency test.On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has supervised at least 100 solo flights and completed a competency test.1040TRUETRUEFALSEAccording to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to conduct flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A):Provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes including at least 200 hours of flight instructionProvided that the FI(A) has completed not less than 15 hours on the relevant type in the preceding 12 months.Provided that the FI(A) has completed 200 hours of flight instructionWithout restriction1040TRUETRUETRUEAccording to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date:Of issueOf the skill testThe application is received by the Authority.Of the last medical certificate1040TRUETRUEFALSEAn applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)1040TRUETRUEFALSEAn applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command1040TRUETRUEFALSEAn applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time.20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command1040TRUETRUEFALSEAn applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall holda current class I medical assessmenta current class II medical assessmenta current class III medical assessmenta current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence1040TRUETRUEFALSEAn applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are:20 hours and 540 km (300NM)10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)15 hours and 540 km (300NM)20 hours and 270 km (150NM)1040TRUEFALSEFALSEAn applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively:250 hours and 100 hours200 hours and 75 hours200 hours and 100 hours150 hours and 75 hours1040TRUEFALSEFALSEAn applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground time150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time.75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time.1040TRUEFALSEFALSEAn applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot75 hours of night time only as pilot in command1040TRUEFALSETRUEAn applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively50 hours and 10 hours40 hours and 10 hours40 hours and 15 hours50 hours and 15 hours1040TRUETRUEFALSEFor commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot in command5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot in command1040TRUETRUETRUEIf a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed:After 21 days of consecutive "illness"as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21daysafter one calendar month of consecutive illnessif still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires1040TRUETRUEFALSEIn accordance with annex 1, when a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorisation:Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.Is only considered for PPL.1040TRUETRUEFALSEIn certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations.Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operationsA single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months1040TRUETRUEFALSEThe age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than:18 years of age21 years of age17 years of age16 years of age1040TRUEFALSEFALSEThe applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively:200 hours and 100 hours250 hours and 10 hours150 hours and 75 hours200 hours and 75 hours1040TRUEFALSETRUEThe applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine _________.Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.Land/inactive.Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive.Single-engine/inactive.1040TRUETRUETRUEThe duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:the medical assessment is issuedthe licence is issued or validatedthe licence is issued or renewedthe licence is delivered to the pilot1040TRUEFALSEFALSEThe holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licencein full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licencethe flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence1040TRUEFALSEFALSEThe holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than:50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence1040TRUETRUETRUEThe holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is:213060901040TRUETRUETRUEThe International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is:Annex 1Annex 2Annex 11Annex 121040TRUEFALSEFALSEThe licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of:100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer1040TRUETRUETRUEThe minimum age for obtaining a PPL is:17 years16 years18 years21 years1040TRUETRUEFALSEThe prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.1040TRUETRUEFALSEThe privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be:to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportationto act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportationto act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in commercial air transportationn