GE 103-Basic Engineering-IIslutload

The objective of this subject will help us to know the basic knowledge of Electronics. The concept

of semiconductors, transistors, diodes, FET, MOSFET their working principles, construction and working

model. To know about the a.c to dc converting circuits like half wave, full wave rectifiers circuits. Also

the filter operation of ripples using various types of filter circuits.

The various types of transducer working, construction and uses will be discussed briefly and

moving coil and moving iron instruments, thermistors, thermocouple, LVDT their construction and

working principles are discussed.

The basic building of digital gates like AND, NAND, OR, NOR are studied. Also the conversion

types of various number systems like hexa, decimal, octal, binary will be studied.

GE103 Basic Engineering-II

1. The current amplification factor of a common base configuration is the ratio of a)Ic/Ie b)Ib/Ic c)Ie/Ib d)Ie/Ic

2. A charge of 200mv in base emitter voltage causes a change of 100 micro amp in the base current. Find the input resistance of the transistor.a)3kohm b)4kohm c)2kohm d)5kohm

3. The phase difference of ______________ between the signal voltage and output voltage in a common emitter amplifier is known as phase reversal.a) 180 b) 90 c) 0 d) 360

4. A FET is a three terminal semiconductor device in which current conduction is by one type of carrier i.e_______________a)electrons b)holes c)electrons or holes d)none

5. Substrate in n-channel MOSFET is only a single_________________a)p region b)n region c) pn region d) np region

6. ____________ is the maximum anode current, gate being open, at which SCR is turned off from ON conditiona) Forward current b) holding current c) breakdown current d) none

7. The applied input a.c. power to a half wave rectifier is 100 watts. the d.c. output power obtained is 400 watts. What is the rectification efficiency?a)100% b)80% c)40% d)60%

8. The maximum efficiency of a full wave rectifier is__________a)81.2% b)71.4% c)90.3% d)83.4%

9. A zener diode has sharp breakdown voltage called___________ voltagea) Avalanche b) zener c) breakdown d) all

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10. In silicon, the energy required to break their covalent bond is_______________a)0.8v b)0.7ev c)1.1ev d)0.4ev

11. A transducer is a device which converts energy from one from to another form this energy may be a)electrical b)mechanical and chemical c)optical or thermal d)all

12. ___________ is a active transducers.a) Thermocouple b) Photo electric cell c) Piezo electricd) Thermistor e) LVDT

13. The Hall Effect is used to find whether a semi conductor is_______________a)p type b)n type c)n or p type d)none

14. __________ is due to the inertia of the moving system.a) Inertia torque b) control torque c) spring control d) opposing torque

15. Moving iron instruments are ___________ type.a)attraction b)repulsion c)both d)none

16. Moving iron attraction type attraction type instruments can be used to measure d.c or a.c scale is_______________a)uniform b)non uniform c)accurate d)none

17. Thermistor is a______________ terminal semiconductor.a)two b)one c)three d)four

18. The chromel-alumel thermocouple is used for temperature measurement up to ______a)1370C b)760C c)840C d)1400C

19. A moving coil dynamometer type instruments as a ammeter, two coils are electrically in___________a)series b)parallel c)series or parallel d)none

20. Rosette is a _________ wire strain guage.a)bonded b)unbonded c)linear d)none

21. The gate ideally suited for bit comparison isa) XNOR b) XOR c) NAND d) NOR

22. If an input A is given to an inverter, the output will bea) 1/A b) 1 c) Complement of A d) A

23. NAND gate meansa) Inversion followed by AND gate b) Inversion followed by OR gatec) AND gate followed by in inverter d) none of these

24. Boolean algebra can be used toa) Simplify any algebraic expressions b) Minimize number of switchesc) Solve the mathematical problems d) Perform arithmetic calculations

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25. A string of 8-bits is known asa) Quad b) Octet c) Nipple d) Byte

26. A decimal number 6 in excess -3 code isa) 0110 b) 0011 c) 1101 d) 1001

27. The number of digits in a binary number system area) 10 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6

28. The base of hexa-decimal number system isa) 6 b) 8 c) 16 d) 10

29. Which out of the following binary number is equivalent to decimal number 24a) 1101111 b) 11000 c) 111111 d) 11001

30. The 1’ complement of a binary number is obtained by changinga) Each ‘1’ to a ‘0’ b) Each ‘0’ to a ‘1’ c) None of these

Answers

1 A 11 D 21 B2 C 12 A 22 C3 A 13 C 23 C4 C 14 A 24 C5 A 15 C 25 D6 B 16 B 26 D7 C 17 A 27 B8 A 18 A 28 C9 B 19 A 29 B10 C 20 A 30 C

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EC100 – Circuit Theory

Today's Engineering graduates are no longer employed solely to work on the technical design

aspects of engineering problems. To contribute to the solution of the engineering problems an

engineer must acquire knowledge of ELECTRIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS. Emphasis is placed on the

basic circuit concepts, circuit modeling and methods of circuit analysis in time domain and

frequency domain for solving simple and multi dimensional circuits including coupled circuits and

three phase circuits.

Unit I deals with the understanding the concept of circuit elements, lumped circuits,

waveforms, circuit laws and helps to solve the electrical network using mesh and nodal analysis. Unit

II is used to analyze electrical circuits (both AC and DC) using theorems such as Superposition,

thevenin's, Norton's, Maximum power transfer, Compensation, Tellegen's, Millman's and Substitution

theorem.

Unit III explains about the concept of active, reactive and apparent powers, power factor and

resonance in series and parallel circuits. Unit IV is used to know the basic concepts of coupled

circuits, three phase loads and power measurement. Analysis of Transient response of series and

parallel AC circuits and solving problems in time domain using Laplace Transform are to be studied

under Unit V.

EC100 – Circuit Theory

1. A Series circuit consists of a 4.7KΩ, 5.6KΩ, 9KΩ and 10KΩ resistor. Which resistor has the most voltage across it?(a) 4.7KΩ (b) 5.6KΩ (c) 9KΩ (d) 10KΩ

2. The total power in a series circuit is 10W. There are five equal value resistors in the circuit. How much power does each resistor dissipate?(a) 10W (b) 5W (c) 2W (d) 1 W

3. In a four branch parallel circuit, 10mA of current flows in each branch. If one of the branch opens, the current in each of the other branches(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains unaffected (d) Doubles

4. A tree has(a) a Closed path (b) no closed paths (c) none

5. The number of branches in a tree is ___________ the number of branches in a graph(a) less than (b) more than (c) equal to

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6. The tie-set schedule gives the relation between (a) branch current and link currents (b) branch Voltage and link currents(c) branch currents and link voltages (d)none of the above

7. The cut-set schedule gives the relation between(a) branch current and link currents(b) branch Voltages and tree branch voltages(b) branch voltages and link currents (c) branch current and tree currents

8. Mesh analysis is based on (a) KCL (b) KVL (c) Both (d) None

9. If a network contains “B” branches, and “N” nodes, then the number of mesh current equations would be(a) B-(N-1) (b)N-(B-1) (c) B-N-1 (d) (B+N)-1

10. A network has 10 nodes and 17 branches. The number of different node pair voltages would be(a) 7 (b)9 (c)45 (d) 10

11. Three equal resistance of 3Ω are connected in star. What is the resistance in one of the arms in an equivalent delta circuit?(a) 10Ω (b) 3Ω (c) 9Ω (d) 27Ω

12. Three equal resistances of 5Ω are connected in delta. What is the resistance in one of the arms of the equivalent star circuit?(a) 5Ω (b) 1.33Ω (c) 15Ω (d)10Ω

13. Superposition theorem is valid only for(a) linear circuits (b) non-linear circuits(c) both linear and non linear (d) neither of the two

14. Superposition theorem is not valid for (a) voltage responses (b) current responses(c) power responses (d) all the three

15. Norton’s equivalent circuit consists of (a) Voltage source in parallel with parallel with impedance(b)Voltage source in series with impedance(c) Current source in series with impedance(d) Current source in parallel with impedance

16. The reciprocity theorem is applicable to (a)linear networks only (b) bilateral networks only(c) linear and non-linear networks (d) neither of the two

17. Compensation theorem is applicable to(a)linear networks only (b) non-linear networks only(c) linear and non- linear networks only (d)neither of the two

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18. Maximum power is transferred when load impedance is(a) equal to source impedance (b)equal to half of the source impedance(d) equal to zero (d) none of the above

19. Indicate the dual of series network consists of voltage source, capacitance, inductance in(a) parallel combination of resistance, capacitance and inductance(b) series combination of current source, capacitance and inductance(c)parallel combination of current source, inductance and capacitance (d) none of the above

20. when the superposition theorem is applied to any circuit, the dependent voltage source in that circuit is always(a)opened (b) shorted (c)active (d) none of the above

21. Power factor of a pure inductor isa) 0 b) 1/2 c) 1 d)3/2

22. Time constant of a series RC circuit equala) CR second b) C/R S c) CR2second d) C/R2second

23. Energy W in an inductor L carrying current I equala) 1/2Li2 b) Li2 c) Ldi/dt d) Li

24. Two resistance are connected in parallel and each dissipates 40 watts. The total power supplied by the source equals a) 40 watts b) 80 watts c) 160 watts d) 20 watts

25. We may neglect a current source, if across the terminals of the source we have a) Open circuit b) short circuit c) an inductor d) capacitor

26. Voltages V1 and V2 in the given circuits are

a) 4V, 8V b) 8V, 4V c) 6V each d) 12V each

27. In electrical network, junction branches at a common point is calleda) loop b) mesh c) node d) joint branch

28. A series RLC circuit resonates at 3 MHz and has 3db bandwidth of 10 KHz. The Q of the circuit at resonate isa) 30 b) 300/2 c) 1300 d) 300/2

29. A series RLC circuits resonates at 1000 KHz at frequency of 1005 KHz, the circuit impedance is a) Resistive b) capacitive c) inductive d) minimum

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30. In a resonant circuit, the power factor at resonance is a) 0 b) unity c) 0.5 d) none

31. In a linear network when the AC input is double, the AC output becomes a) 2 times b) 4 times c) ½ times d) ¼ times

32. When 2 inductor L1, L2, are connected in parallel, the combined inductancea) L1+L2 b) L1 L2/(L1+L2) c) L1+L2/L1 L2 d)1/(L1 L2)

33. In the circuit the equivalent inductance between terminals a and b is

a) L1+L2 b) L1+L2+2M c) L1+L2-2M d) L1-L2

34. Two coupled inductor L1=0.2 H and L2=0.8 H have co-efficient of coupling K=0.7 the mutual inductance M is a) 0.2H b) 0.28 c) 0.112H d) 1H

35. Power factor of purely resistive circuits is a) 0 b)1 c)0.5 d) infinity

36. In the given circuits load ZL is adjusted for maximum transfer power. The power delivered to the load is

a) 25 W b) 62.5 W c) 38.5 W d) 110 W

37. Delta equivalent of the given star connected circuit ZOR is equal to

a) 40 b) (20+j10) c) (5+j10/3) d) (10+j 30)

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38. The power consumed by 5 resistors is 10 W, and then power factor circuit will be

a) 0.8 b) 0.5 c) 0.6 d) 0

39. A balance star connected load with impedance of 20 -30 is supplied from a three phase, 4 wire, 173 volt system, the voltage neutral being 100 -90,100 -30, 100 -150 the current in the neutral isa) 5A b) 8.8A c) 0 d) 50A

40. If V, W, q stand for voltage energy and charge then V can be expressed has a) V = dq/dw b) V= dw/dq c) dv=dw/dq d)dv=dq/dw

41. Transient response occursa) only in resistive circuits b) only in inductive circuitsc) only in capacitive circuits d) both in (b) & (c)

42. The time constant of a series R-L circuit isa) LR b) L/R c) R/L d) e-R/L

43. A Series RL circuit with R=30Ω and L=15H has a constant voltage V=60V applied at t=0. The transient current will bea) 2e-2tA b) 60e-2tA c) 2(1-e-2t))A d) 60(1-e-2t))A

44. The current equation for the series R-C circuit is a) V/Re-t/RC b) V/R(1-e-(R/C)t) c) Ve-t/RC d) -Ve-t/RC+C

45. The time constant of a series R-C circuit is a) RC b) R/C c) 1/RC d) e-RC

46. Transient current in an RLC circuit is oscillatory whena) R=2√(L/C) b) R=0 c) R>2√(L/C) d) R<2√(L/C)

47. The transient current in a loss-free LC circuit when excited from an ac source is an _________ sine wavea) undamped b) over dampedc) under damped d) critically damped

48. A series RLC circuit is excited by an ac source, when R>2√(L/C), the response of transient current isa) over damped b) under damped c) critically damped d) undamped

49. Laplace transform analysis givesa) time domain response only b) frequency domain response onlyc) both (a) & (b) d) none

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50. The current in an RL series circuit is given by 2(di/dt)+4i=0. Express the current in S domaina) i(0+)/(2s+4) b) ) i(0+)/(s+4) c) Zero d) i(0+)/(2s+1)

Answers

1 d 11 a 21 a 31 a 41 d2 c 12 b 22 a 32 b 42 b3 c 13 a 23 a 33 b 43 c4 b 14 c 24 a 34 b 44 a5 a 15 d 25 a 35 b 45 c6 a 16 a 26 a 36 b 46 d7 b 17 c 27 c 37 d 47 a8 b 18 a 28 c 38 c 48 a9 a 19 a 29 c 39 c 49 c

10 c 20 a 30 b 40 a 50 a

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EC201 -DIGITAL SYSTEMS

This course is aimed at developing the skills needed to work effectively in digital electronics. This

is divided into five units

Unit 1 focus on Boolean Algebra, Theorems, Number Systems, Binary arithmetic, Different codes.

Unit 2 covers the logic families like RTL, TTL, ECL and CMOS.

Unit 3 concentrates on combinational circuits like Adders, Subtracters, Comparators, Multiplexers, and

Demultiplexers.

Unit 4 Covers Flip-Flops, Shift registers, Counters and design of Synchronous Sequential Circuits.

Unit 5 is on Semi conductor memories like ROM, RAM, PLA and PAL

EC201 -DIGITAL SYSTEMS

1. The 7-bit even parity hamming code of 1011 is(a) 0011011 (b) 1100100 (c) 1111011 (d) 0000111

2. Subtract 22-17 using 2’s complement, results in(a) 100101 (b) 0000 1010 (c) 11001010 (d) 00000001

3. The Gray code of binary 1101 is(a) 1011 (b) 1100100 (c) 1111011 (d) None of the above

4. The BCD representation of binary number 00100001 is(a) 0011 1000 (b) 0011 0011 (c) 1111 0011 (d)0000 1111

5. The excess 3 representation of addition (5 + 3) is(a) 0011 (b) 10000 (c) 01101 (d) 11101

6. Convert Gray code to excess 3 for the input 1011 is(a) 01111 (b) 10000 (c) 01101 (d) 11101

7. (1 + A) in Boolean algebra is reduced to(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) A (d) 0

8. Demorgan’s theorem is expressed as(a) )(A.B)’=A’+ B’ b) (A.B)’ c) A’ + B’ d) (A.B)’ = A’ B’

9. The ASCII code for letter ‘C’ is(a) 01000011 (b) 11001001 (c) 11110111 (d) 10000111

10. The canonical representation of function f(a,b,c) = C is f = Σm(………………)(a) 1,3,5,7 (b) 1,5,7 (c) 1, 7 (d) 0, 5, 7

11. Emitter Coupled Logic(ECL) belongs to __________________a) Nonsaturated family b) Unsaturated familyc) Saturated family d) None of the above

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12. Schottky diode is used in TTL gate to _________________a) Reduce voltage requirement b) Increase noise marginc) Reduce storage time d) To decrease fan in

13. CMOS logic circuit’s primary advantage is ___________a) Less fan out b) High noise marginc) More power consumption d)Less power dissipation

14. In TTL family gate IIL isa) 1.6mA b) 16mA c) 40µA d) 400µA

15. Find out the odd man outa) RTL, DTL, TTL b) ECL, TTL, MOSc) MTL, STL, XTL d) HTL, ECL, CMOS

16. The prefix for low power Schottky gate isa) 74D b) 74LS c) 74LP d)74L

17. Wired AND combination is not permitted ina) Open Collector b) Open Emitterc) Totem pole d) Tristate device

18. ECL family high and low state is represented by a) 5V,4V b) -0.8V,-1.8V c) -1.8V,0.8V d) 5V,0.4V

19. ___________ channel MOS conducts when its gate-to-source voltage is positive.a) p b) pnp c) npn d)n

20. The CMOS family that is pin compatible with TTL isa) 74HC b) 74D c) 74C

21. Multiplexer is a circuit which hasa) many inputs to one output b) one input to many outputc) many inputs to many outputs d) none of the above

22. -------------------- is called as Data Selector a)Demultiplexer b)Decoder c)Multiplexer d)Encoder

23. A decoder has , a) No. of o/ps > No. of i/ps b) No. of o/ps < No. of i/ps c) No. of o/ps = No. of i/ps d) None of the above

24. Which is called a Data Distributor a) Demultiplexer b) Decoder c) Multiplexer d) Encoder

25. The process of taking information from 1 input and transmitting the same over one of the several outputs is called

a) Encoder b) Decoder c) Demultiplexer d) Multiplexer

26. The number of selection lines in a 16 to 1 Mux is a) 2 b)16 c) 4 d) 8

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27. ------------- can be used to drive a display system a) Encoder b) Decoder c) Multiplexer d) Comparator

28. Combinational circuit consists of a) only logic gates b) memory elements and logic gates c) only memory elements d) none of the above

29. To implement a Boolean function with ‘n ‘ variables the required Mux isa) 2 n+1 to mux b)2n to 1 mux c) n to 1 mux d) None of the above

30. If a decoder has ‘n ‘ inputs the number of outputs will be a) 2n b) 2n c) 1 d)None of the above

31. A flip flop is also known as

a) bistable multivibrator b) latch c) toggle (d) all the above

32. . --------- counter can be constructed using minimum hardware.a) ripple counter b)modulus counter c)single mode counter d) multimode counter

33. A down counter using ‘n’ flip flop counts downwards from a maximum count of (a) (2n-1) to zero b) 2n to zero c) 2n+1 to zero d) n to zero

34. Following flip flop is used to eliminate Race around problema) RS flipflop b) JK flip flopc) Master- Slave flip flop d) None of the above

35. Sequential circuit is a one which hasa) no memory element b) atleast one memory elementc) all inputs applied simultaneously d) none of the above

36. Shifting a binary data to the left by one bit position using Shift register amount to a) Addition of 2 b) Subtraction of 2c) Multiplication by 2 d) Division by 2

37. The number of flip flops required for Mod-16 ring counter isa) 4 b) 8 c) 10 (d) 16

38. The type of register in which data is entered into it only one bit at a time ,but has all the data bits available as output is a) Serial in serial out register b) Serial in parallel out registerc) Parallel in serial out register d) Parallel in parallel out register

39. T flip flop is used as a) transfer data circuit b) toggle switchc) time delay circuit d) none of the above

40. If a counter is connected using six flip flops the max no of states that the counter can count area) 6 b) 256 c) 8 d) 64

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41. Which is dynamic RAMa) BBD b) CCD c) DVD d) Register &CMOS cell

42. How many address lines need for 512*4 bit RAMa)8 b)11 c)10 d)13

43. What is the storage capacity for 32*8 ROMa) 32 b) 8 c) 256 d) 1024

44. Which type of ROM can be manufactured by using MOSFET onlya) Mask ROM b) PROM c) EEPROM d) OTHER

45. Select the other name of RWMa) Read window memory b) Row window memory c) Request window memory d) RAM

46. Which combination can take the PLAa) Programmed AND, fixed OR array b) Programmed AND ,Programmed OR arrayc) Fixed AND, programmed OR array d) Fixed AND, fixed OR array

47. How many 1024*1 RAM chips are needed to construct a 1024*8 memory systema) 24 b) 8 c) 6 d) 2

48. How many 16k*4 RAM’s are required to achieve a memory with a capacity of 64k and wavelength of 8 bitsa) 4 b) 16 c) 8 d) 32

49. Select the correct procedure for designing FPGAa) Functional simulation, testing, programming b) Programming, testing, functional simulation c) Functional simulation, programming, testing d) Programming, functional simulation, testing

50. Select the pins for static RAMa)EN,RD b)EN,RD,WR c)EN,RD/(WR)’ d)EN,WR

Answer

1 b 11 a 21 a 31 d 41 b

2 a 12 c 22 c 32 a 42 b

3 d 13 c 23 a 33 a 43 c

4 b 14 a 24 a 34 c 44 c

5 d 15 c 25 b 35 b 45 d

6 b 16 b 26 c 36 c 46 b

7 a 17 c 27 b 37 d 47 b

8 a 18 b 28 a 38 b 48 a

9 a 19 d 29 a 39 b 49 c

10 a 20 d 30 b 40 d 50 c

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EC203 - Electromagnetic field theory

Fundamentals of the electromagnetic model are developed for static and magnetic fields, for the

propagation of electromagnetic waves in various media and for reflection and refraction at material

interfaces. Understand the basic concepts of electric field and magnetic field Compare between field and

circuit theory Get an idea about the concepts of electrodynamics. To enable the students to have a fair

knowledge about the theory and problems of electromagnetic

Unit 1. Explain the Coolumbs Law, electric flex density, concept of divergence and also explain

the brief idea of static electric fields.

Unit – 2. Presence various capacitance (parallel plate, two wire line, cylindrical, spherical) and

also explain the boundary conditions of conductors, poisson’s and Laplace equation and its solutions.

Unit – 3. Explain static magnetic field such as Biot-Savart Law , Ampere’s Circuital law and its

applications

Unit – 4. Presence Lorentz force equation , nature of magnetic material, boundary condition and

inductance calculation.

Unit – 5. Explain the Maxwell Equation in static field, Time varying field and free space and also

explain the pointing theorem and pointing vector.

EC203 - Electromagnetic field theory

1. The expression for differential volume element in terms of spherical co-ordinatesa)dv=r2sindrdd b)dv=dxdydz c)dv= dddz d)dv=dxdd

2. Use of Gauss lawa) Determining the E of a charge distribution with some symmetry conditionb) Determining the E of a charge distribution with some Asymmetry conditionc) Determining the E d) None of the above

3. Coulombs law gives a force between two point chargesa) Repulsive for like charges b) Repulsive for unlike chargesc) Attractive for like charges d) None of the above

4. Unit of electric field intensity isa)N/C b)N c)Volt meter d) C

5. Dielectric strength of air isa) 40kV/cm b) 50kV/cm c) 30kV/cm d) 20kV/cm

6. The force on q due to the electric field isa) F=qE b) F=E/q c) F=q/E d) F=-qE

7. Electrical potential at any point in an electric field is aa)Vector quantity b) Scalar quantity c) Both a and b d) none of the above

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8. Electric flux density isa)Vector quantity, unit is C/m2 b)Vector quantity, unit is C/mc) Scalar quantity, unit is C/m d) Scalar quantity, unit is C/m2

9. Electric flux density D=a) /E b) E/ c) E d) H

10. Electric flux density is also called asa) Displacement flux density b) Line charge densityc) Point charge density d) Surface charge density

11. The surface charge density in a good dielectrica) Zero b) S c) Infinity d) -s

12. Equation of continuity isa) . J = 0 b) . J = -ev/t c) . J = -D/t d) . J = I

13. Laplace Equation hasa) Two Solutions b) Infinite Solutionsc) No Solution d) only one solution.

14. The Unit of Polarization in dielectric isa) c/m2 b) c/m c) c/m3 d) c.m2

15. If Er=1 for a dielectric medium, its electric susceptibility isa) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 2E0

16. If a charge element whose volume charge density is 2c/m3 is moving with a velocity of 3ax m/s, the current density is a) 6ax A/m b) 6ax A/m2 c) 1.5ax A/m2 d) 1.5ax A/m

17. If Etan1 = ax and En1=0 the electric field E2 in a dielectric medium 2 isa) ax b) 2ax c) ay d) az

18. If the voltage across a capacitor is increased, the capacitance valuea) increases b) decreasesc) remains constant d)becomes infinity

19. The capacitance of Parallel Plate Capacitor is a) d/s b) /s c) d d) s/d

20. If the electric susceptibility of dielectric is 4, its relative permittivity isa) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2

21. Point form of Ohm’s lawa) J = E b) V = I * R c) C=Q/V d) L=N/I

22. Displacement current density is a) D/t b) E c) * E/t d) D

23. Magnetic Field strength due to current I at a distance r equalsa) I / 2r b) I2 / 4r c) I / 4r d) I2 / 2r

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24. Unit of Magnetic flux density isa) Farad / Metre b) Amp / Metre c) Weber /Metre2 d) Ohms / Metre

25. Electric field on dielectric surface isa) Zero b) Infinityc) Always perpendicular to the surface d) Always parallel to the surface

26. Gradient of a Scalar function result ina) Scalar Function b) Unit Functionc) Vector Function d) Periodic Function

27. Maxwell’s Divergence Equation in case of static magnetic field states thata) . B = 0 b) . B = 0J c) . B = 0 / J d) . B = 0

28. AC current can induce voltage because it hasa) Constant Magnetic Field b) Varying Magnetic Fieldc) Stronger Magnetic Field d) High peek value

29. Which of the following relation is true?a) X D = b) . D = c) . B = d) . B = -

30. The Ampers Circuital Lawa) c Bdl = 0 c Idl b) c Bdl = 1/ 0 c Idl c) c Bdl = 0 c Idl d) c Bdl = 1/40 c Idl

31. The mathematical representation of Ampere’s circuital law isa) H.dL= I b)FdL= I c)DdL= I d)EdL= I

32. Self inductance of solenoida) L=N2A/l b) L=N2A/l c) L=N2A/2r d) L=N/l

33. Normal Component of B is ________ at boundarya) Continuous b) Discontinuousc) both a and b d) Non of the above

34. Lorentz force equationa) F=QE Newton b)F=Q VxB Newtonc) F=Fe+Fm Newton d) F=Q(E+V) Newton

35. Reluctance is measured ina) Ampere /m b) N/m c) Ampere d) Ampere turn/Weber

36. Magnetic material in which the orbital magnetic moment and election spin magnetic moment cancel each other making not permanent magnetic moment of each atom zero are calleda) Ferromagnetic material b) Paramagnetic materialc) Diamagnetic material d) Both b and c

37. * E = a) -F/t b) -H/t c) -B/t d) -V/t

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38. Conduction current density isa) E b)H c)H d) E

39. Conduction current is _______ as compared to the displacement current in conductora) very small b) very largec) medium d) none of the above

40. x H = a) JC+JD b) JC c) JD d) 2(JC+JD)

41. Which one of the fundamental equation was modified by Maxwell to form the basis of electromagnetic theory?a) Gauss Law of Electrostatic b) Gauss Law of Magnetostaticc) Faraday Law d) Ampere Law

42. Maxwell inserted the expression for displacement current JD in Ampere’s Law to satisfya) Ampere’s Law for time varying case b) Faraday’s Lawc) Dominant at high frequencies d) Dominant in time independent case.

43. Faraday’s Law is valid for both open and closed loops. The Lenz law is valid for a) Only open loop b) only close loopc) Both open and close loop d) none of the above

44. For a circular loop of constant surface area, the Faraday Law given xE = -B/t. The electric field in this case is a) Conservative b) Non-conservativec) Equal to V d) None of the above

45. Which one of the following is not Maxwell’s equation?a) . D = b) x E = -B/t.c) x H = J + D/t. d) . J = -/t.

46. Direction of Poynting Vector is a) In the direction of E b) In the direction of E. Hc) Perpendicular to both E and H d) In the direction of H

47. In a time varying magnetic field state which of the following is true.a) x E = 0 b) x H = Jc) x E = - B/t. d) None of the above

48. Magnetic flux in time varying electric field a) Diverge b) curlc) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above

49. Poynting vector givesa) Current flow at a point b) Magnetic field strength at a pointc) Power flow at a point d) none of the above

50. Unit for Poynting vector isa) Amp/m2 b) Volts / m2

c) Watts/m2 d) Watts/ m3

17

Answers

1 A 11 a 21 a 31 a 41 b2 b 12 b 22 a 32 b 42 a3 a 13 d 23 a 33 b 43 b4 a 14 a 24 c 34 c 44 a5 c 15 a 25 a 35 d 45 d6 b 16 b 26 c 36 b 46 c7 b 17 a 27 d 37 c 47 a8 a 18 c 28 b 38 a 48 c9 c 19 d 29 b 39 b 49 c

10 a 20 a 30 a 40 a 50 c

EC205 ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS-I

As we have learned already, a transistor must be properly biased in order to operate as an amplifier. DC biasing is used to establish a steady level of transistor currents and voltages called dc operating point or quiescent point (Q-point). In this unit, several types of bias circuits are studied.

18

The things learned about transistor biasing in the previous unit are now applied in this unit where bipolar junction transistor (BJT) circuits are used as a small-signal amplifier. The term small-signal refers to the use of signals that take up a relatively small percentage of an amplifier’s operational range. Additionally, we will also learn how to reduce an amplifier to an equivalent dc and ac circuit for easier analysis, and we will learn about multi-stage amplifiers.

The knowledge of FETs in the last unit are carried forward into this unit where FET circuits are used as small-signal amplifiers. Because of their high input impedance and other characteristics, FETs are often preferred over BJTs for certain types of applications. Many of the concepts that relate to amplifiers using BJTs apply as well as to FET amplifiers. The three FET amplifier configurations are common-source, common-gate and common-drain. These are analogous to common-emitter, common-base and common-collector configurations in BJT amplifiers.

In the previous unit on amplifiers, the effects of the input frequency on an amplifiers operation due to capacitive elements in the circuit were neglected in order to focus on other concepts. The coupling and bypass capacitors were considered to be ideal shorts and the internal transistor capacitances were considered to be ideal opens. This treatment is valid in the frequency is in an amplifiers mid range.

As we know capacitive reactance decreases with increasing frequency and vice-versa. When the frequency is low enough, the coupling and bypass capacitors can no longer be considered as shorts because their reactances are large enough to have a significant effect. Also, when the frequency is high enough the internal transistor capacitance can no longer be considered as opens because their reactance because small enough to have significant effect on the amplifier operation. A complete picture of an amplifiers response must take into account the full range of frequencies over which the amplifiers may operate.

A voltage regulator provides a constant dc output voltage that is essentially independent of the input voltage, output load current, and temperature. The voltage regulator is one part of a power supply. Its input voltage comes from the filtered output of a rectifier derived from an ac voltage or from a battery in the case of portable systems.

Most voltage regulators fall into two broad categories linear regulators and switching regulators. In the linear regulated category, two general types are the series regulator and the shunt regulator. These are normally available for either positive or negative output voltages. A dual regulator provides both positive and negative outputs. In the switching regulator category, three general configurations are step-down, step-up and inverting.

Many types of integrated circuit (IC) regulators are available. The most popular types of linear regulator are the three-terminal fixed voltage regulator and the three-terminal adjustable voltage regulator. Switching regulators are also widely used.

19

EC205 ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS-I

UNIT-1 BIAS AND BIAS STABILITY

FILL IN THE BLANKS1. For faithful amplification, the output shape should be ----------------- of the input shape.2. As an ideal condition, the operating point should be at the ----------------- of the load line.3. The coordinates ----------------- are called Q-point.4. If transistor is not properly biased ----------------- will take place.5. For a silicon transistor, the value of VBE is equal to ----------------- & for germanium transistor it is ---------.6. For a silicon transistor, the value of VCE is ----------------- and for a germanium transistor it is ----------.7. Two transistors of the same type are not identical due to difference in their -----------------.8. The stability factor is the ratio of IC and -----------------.9. A dc feedback provides ----------------- and an ac feedback reduces -----------------.10. A resistor in the emitter circuit provides ----------------- of the operating point.11. In a potential divider biasing circuit, if R1 is opened or R2 is shortened, the transistor will be ----------.12. In a potential divider biasing circuit, if R2 is opened or R1 is shortened, the transistor is dragged into -----------13. The intersection of dc loadline and the base current curve is called -----------.14. For good stabilization in potential divider circuit, the current through R1 and R2 should be ----------- times IB.15. The operating point means zero signal -----------.16. Field effect transistor works on the principle of applying an --------- field at its gate.17. The most important application of a FET is as --------- amplifier.

CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER1. The dc load line of a transistor circuit

a. has a negative slopeb. is a curved line

c. gives graphic relation between IC and IB.d. does not contain Q-point.

2. The positive swing of the output signal in a transistor circuit starts clipping first when Q-point of the circuit movesa. To the centre of the loadlineb. Two-third way up the loadline

c. Towards the saturation pointd. Towards the cut-off point.

3. In the case of a BJT amplifier, bias stability is achieved bya. Keeping the base current constantb. Changing the base current in order to keep the IC

and VCB constant

c. Keeping the temperature constantd. Keeping the temperature and base current

constant.4. The universal bias stabilization circuit is most popular because

a. IC does not depend on transistor characteristicsb. its β-sensitivity is high

c. voltage divider is heavily loaded by transistor base

d. IC equals IE

5. Improper biasing of a transistor circuit leads toa. excessive heat at collector terminalb. distortion in output signal

c. faulty location of load lined. heavy loading of emitter terminal

6. The negative output swing in a transistor circuit starts clipping first when Q-pointa. has optimum valueb. is near saturation point

c. is near cut-off pointd. is in the active region of the loadline

7. Which of the following method used for biasing a BJT in integrated circuits is considered independent of transistor βa. fixed biasingb. voltage divider bias

c. collector feedback biasd. base bias with collector feedback

8. The maximum value of collector current in a biased transistor isa. βIB b. IC(sat) c. greater than IE d. IE - IB

9. Ideally, a dc load line is a straight line drawn on the collector characteristics curves betweena. the Q-point and the cut-offb. the Q-point and saturation

c. VCE(cut-off)

d. IB=0 and IB = IC / βDC

10. The input resistance at the base of a biased transistor depends mainly on a. βDC b. RB c. RE d. βDC and RE

11. In a certain voltage divider biased npn transistor circuit, VB is 2.95V. The dc emitter voltage is approximatelya. 2.25 V b. 2.95 V c. 3.65 V d. 0.7 V

12. Voltage divider biasa. cannot be independent of βDC

b. can be essentially independent of βDC

c. is not widely usedd. requires fewer components than all other methods

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13. The disadvantage of base bias is thata. it is very complexb. it produces low gain

c. it is too beta dependentd. it produces high leakage current

14. Emitter bias isa. essentially independent of βDC

b. very dependent of βDC

c. provides a stable Q-pointd. answers (a) and (c)

15. Collector feedback bias isa. based on the principle of positive feedbackb. based on the principle of negative feedback

c. based on beta multiplicationd. not very stable

16. A JFET always operates witha. the gate-source junction reverse biasedb. the gate-source junction forward biased

c. the drain connected to groundd. the gate connected to ground

17. For VGS = 0 V, the drain current becomes constant when VDS exceedsa. cut-off b. VDD c. VP d. 0 V

18. For a n-channel JFET, VGS(off) = 8 V. The value of VGS for an approximate midpoint bias isa. 4V b. 0V c. 1.25V d. 2.35V

ANSWER TO THE PROBLEMS

Fill in the blanks1. Same as that of2. Center3. VCE and IC

4. Distortion5. 0.7V and 0.5V6. 0.5V and 0.2V7. Inherent parameters8. ICO

9. Stability, gain

10. Stability11. Cut-off12. Saturation13. Q-Point14. 1015. Values of IC and VCE

16. Electric17. buffer

Choose the correct answer

Question No

Answer

1 A2 C3 D4 A5 B6 C7 B8 B9 C10 A11 A12 B13 C14 D15 B16 A17 C18 D

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UNIT-2 TRANSISTOR SMALL-SIGNAL MODELS

Fill in the blanks1. Hybrid parameters are used for small signal analysis as the results obtained are ---------------.2. The h11, h12, h21 and h22 are hybrid parameters for any --------------- network.3. The hi, hr, hf and ho are hybrid parameters for a --------------- when considered as a two-port network.4. For a transistor, the typical value of hf in CE circuit is ---------------.5. The hi in hybrid parameter is analogous to --------------- in non-hybrid parameters.6. The hf is similar to --------------- in non-hybrid transistor model in CE.7. The negative sign in the expression for voltage gain in hybrid parameters shows ---------------.8. The h-parameters can be used only for analysis of --------------- amplifiers.9. When Q-point changes, h-parameters ---------------.10. The h-parameters for two transistors of the same type are ---------------.11. To determine hf and hi, the output of the transistor is ---------------.12. To determine hr and ho, the input of the transistor is ---------------.

Choose the correct answer1. The phase difference between the output and input voltages of a CE circuit is

a. 180o

b. 360oc. 0o

d. none of the above2. It is generally desired that a transistor should have ------------ input impedance

a. lowb. very low

c. highd. very high

3. If a transistor draws 2 mA when the input voltage is 10 V, then its input impedance isa. 20 KΩb. 0.2Ω

c. 10 KΩd. 5 KΩ

4. If the power and current gains of a transistor amplifier are 16500 and 100 respectively, then voltage gain isa. 165b. 165 X 104

c. 100d. none of the above

5. In the ac equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier, the capacitors are considered -----------a. shortb. open

c. partially opend. none of the above

6. A transistor amplifier has high output impedance becausea. emitter is moderately dopedb. collector-base junction is reverse biased

c. collector is wider than emitter or based. base is lightly doped

7. For highest power gain, one should use, -------------------- configurationa. CCb. CBc. CEd. None of the above

8. CC configuration is used for impedance matching because itsinput impedance is very high

a. input impedance is lowb. output impedance is very lowc. output impedance is very high

22

ANSERS TO THE PROBLEMS

Fill in the blanks1. accurate2. linear two-port network3. transistor circuit4. 505. Input impedance6. Forward current gain7. 180o phase shift between input and output signal8. Small signal9. Also changes10. Different11. Short12. Open

Choose the correct answer

Question no Answer1 A2 B3 D4 A5 A6 B7 C8 A

UNIT III TRANSISTOR AMPLIFIERS AND ANALYSIS

1. The gain of the cascade amplifier is equal toa) Product of individual gains b) sum of individual gains c) ratio of stage gains d) none of these

2. In a darlington paira) two transistors are connected in parallel b) the emitter of the first transistor feeds the base of the second c) the collector of the first transistor feeds the base of the second

3. for a CE amplifier having a small unbypassed emitter resistance (RE) the input resistance is approximately equal to a) RE b) hfe c) hfe.RE d) RE/hfe

4. the current gain of an emitter follower is a) unity b) greater than unity

c) less than unity d) all of them5. which of the following transistor amplifier has the highest voltage gain

a) CB b) CC c) CE d) none of them

6. which of the following transistor amplifier has the high impedance a) CB b) CC c) CE d) none of them

7. cascode amplifier is the series connection of a) CE-CB b)CE-CC c) CB-CC d) CC-CC

8. A change in the value of the emitter resistance RE in a differential amplifiera) affects the differential mode gain Ad b) affects the common mode gain Ac c) affects both Ad and Ac d) doesn’t affects either Ad and Ac

9. The major advantage of a direct coupled amplifier is that a) it uses less number of components b) it has a very good temperature stability c) it does not use frequency sensitive component d) it can amplify direct current and low frequency signals

10. The voltage gain of a CB amplifier is a) zero b)less than unity c) unity d)greater than unity.

ANSWERS: 1) a 2)b 3)c 4)b 5)c 6) b 7)a 8) b 9)d 10)dUNIT-4 FREQUENCY LIMITATION OF AMPLIFIERS

1. The bandwidth or (pass band) of each system is determined by f1 & f2.(i.e).a) f2-f1 b) f1-f2 c) f2*f1 d) f2/f1

2. The piecewise linear plot of the asymptotes and associated break points is calleda) Plot b) Bode plot c) Polar Plot d) None of these

3. Bode plot is plotted between gain and ……….a) Input b) output c) frequency d) power

4. The midband voltage gain is given by the formulaa) Av=Vi/Vo b) Av=Vo/Vi c) Av = VoVi d) None of these

5. Miller effect input capacitance is defined bya) CMI=(1-Av)CF b) CMI=(AV-1)c) CMI=(1-AV) CI d) CMI=(1-AV)

6. At high frequency end, there are two factors that define the -3dB cutoff pointa) Network capacitance & the frequency of hfe ()b) Resistor & the frequency of the hfe ()c) Network inductance & the frequency of hfe ()d) All the above

7. For a high frequency FET amplifier CMO is given asa) CMO=(1-1/Av)Cgd b) CMO=(1-1/Av)Cgsc) CMO=(Av -1)Cgd d) CMO=(Av-1)Cgs

8. For any inverting amplifier, the input capacitance will be increased by a Miller effect capacitance sensitive to the ……………………….

a) Frequency b) Power c) Input d) gain

9. If R1=40K, R2=10K, re=15.76, =100. Calculate the input impedancea) 2.15K b) 5.5K c) 1.32K d) 10K

10. The multiplier 0.707 was chosen because at this level the output power is half the bandwidth power output (i.e). midfrequencies.

a) P0mid = |Vo|2 / Ro b) P0mid = |AVmid Vi|2 / Roc) P0mid = |Ro|2 / Vo d) both a & b

Answers

1) a 2) b 3) c 4) d 5) a 6) a 7) a 8) a 9) c 10) d

11. UNIT-5 POWER SUPPLIES

1. Which of the following is not an essential element of a d.c power supplya )Rectifier b)filter c)voltage regulator d)Voltage amplifier

2. A voltage regulator is a circuit whicha) Converts the a.c voltage to d.c voltage b) Smoothens the a.c variation in d.c voltagec) Maintains a constant d.c output voltage inspite of the fluctuation in a.c input Voltage or load current d) None of the above

3. The percentage voltage regulation of voltage supply providing 100V unloaded and 95V at

full load isA) 5.3% b) 5.0% c) 0.53% d) None of the above

4. Which of the following voltage regulator is preferred for providing large value of load

currenta) Zener diode shunt regulator b) transistor series regulator c) transistor shunt regulator d) none of the above

5. A pre-regulator is used with a transistor series regulator in order toa) Increase the input resistance of the series transistor b) Decrease the input resistance of the series transistor c) Increase the output resistance of the series transistor d) Increase the current gain of the series transistor

6. A SCR is a semiconductor devices which is made up ofa) Two layers and one junction b) Three layers and two junctions c) Four layers and three junctions d) None of the above

7. The power delivered to the load in maximum when the SCR firing angle is a) Zero b) 90 c) 180 d) between 90 and 180

8. Which of the following is preferred for controlling the amount of power supplied to the loada) Controlling the transformer secondary voltage b) Inserting a resistor in the load circuit c) Use of SCR d) None of the above

9. An SCR cab be turned on bya) Applying anode voltage at an adequately fast rate b) Applying sufficient large anode current c) Applying sufficiently large gate current

d) All the above

10. The turn off time of an SCR is measured from the instanta) Anode current becomes zero b) Anode voltage becomes zero c) Anode voltage and anode current become zero at the same time d) Gate current becomes zero

ANS: 1.d 2.c 3.a 4.b 5.d 6.c 7.a 8.c 9.d 10.a

EC207 Network analysis and synthesis

The purpose of introducing this course is to describe the basic principles used in the design

of networks. By undergoing this course the student will learn to analyze and design passive,

active and switched capacitor filters. The theory as well as the tools for classical and modern

filter design will be covered where applicable computer design aids will be used.

the knowledge of the concepts of the complex frequencies, time domain,laplace

transform and frequency transformation

properties of LC,RC networks

pole zero concept through dependent sources

synthesis of foster and cauer input impedance and transfer function

determination of Butterworth and chebyshev transfer functions of the filter starting

from the filter specifications

understanding of the concept of system functions and their interpretation in the

analysis and design of filters

active filter design using op-amp

understanding of the concept of state variable topology

application of computer tools for computer aided design and analysis

EC-207 – Network Analysis and Synthesis

1. A tree has (a) a closed path (b) no closed paths (c) none

2. The number of branches in a tree is_______ the number of branches in a graph. (a) less than (b) more than (c) equal to

3. The tie-set schedule gives the relation between (a) branch currents and link currents (b) branch voltages and link currents (c) branch currents and link voltages (d) none of the above

4. The cut-set schedule gives the relation between (a) branch currents and link currents (b) branch voltages and tree branch voltages (c) branch voltages and link voltages (d) branch current and tree currents

5. Mesh analysis is based on a) Kirchhoff’s current law (b) Kirchhoff’s voltage law (c) Both (d) None

6. If a network contains B branches, and N nodes, then the number of mesh current equations would be (a) B-(N-1) (b) N-(B-1) (c) B-N-1 (d) (B+N)-1

7. A network has 10 nodes and 17 branches. The number of different node pair voltages would be (a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 45 (d) 10

8. A practical voltage source consists of (a) an ideal voltage source in series with an internal resistance (b) an ideal voltage source in parallel with an internal resistance (c) both (a) and (b) are correct (d) none of the above

9. A practical current source consists of (a) an ideal current source in series with an impedance (b) an ideal current source in parallel with an impedance (c) both are correct (d) none of the above

10. A circuit consists of two resistors, R1 and R2 in parallel. The total current passing through the circuit is IT. The current passing through R1 is (a) IT R1/R1+R2 (b) IT(R1+R2)/R1 (c) ITR2/R1+R2 (d) ITR1+R2/R2

11. A network has seven nodes and five independent loops. The number of branches in the network is (a) 13 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 10

12. The nodal method of circuit analysis is based on (a) KVL and Ohm’s law (b) KCL and Ohm’s law (c) KCL and KVL (d) KCL, KVL and Ohm’s law

13. The number of independent loops for a network with n nodes and b branches is (a) n-1 (b) b-n (c) b-n+1 (d) independent of the number of nodes

14. Relative to a given fixed tree of a network (a) link currents & branch voltage form an independent set (b) branch currents form an independent set (c) link voltages form an independent set (d) branch voltages form an independent set

15. The function is said to be non-recurring when it (a) appears for a particular time interval (b) appears for all time (c) both a and b (d) neither of the two 16. The Laplace transform of a ramp function is (a) 1 (b) 1/s (c) 1/s2 (d) 1/s3

17. The inverse transform of S is (a) impulse (b) ramp (c) step (d) unit doublet

18. The driving point impedance is defined as (a) the ratio of transform voltage to transform current at the same port (b) the ratio of transform voltage at one port to the transform current at the other port (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above

19. The transfer impedance is defined as (a) the ratio of transform voltage to transform current at the same port (b) the ratio of transform voltage at one port to the current transform at the other port (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above 20. The function is said to be having simple poles and zeros and only if (a) the poles are not repeated (b) the zeros are not repeated (c) both poles and zeros are not repeated (d) none of the above

21. The necessary condition for a driving point function is (a) the real part of all poles and zeros must not be zero or negative (b) the polynomials P(s) and Q(s) may not have any missing terms between the highest and lowest degree unless all even or all add terms are missing. (c) the degree of P(s) and Q(s) may differ by more than one (d) the lowest degree in P(s) and Q(s) may differ in degree by more than two

22.The necessary condition for the transfer functions is that (a) the coefficients in the polynominals P(s) and Q(s) must be real (b) coefficients in Q(s) may be negative (c) complex or imaginary poles and zeros may not conjugate (d) if the real part of pole is zero, then that pole must be multiple 23. The system is said to be stable, if and only if (a) all the poles lie on right half of the s-plane (b) some poles lie on the right half of the s-plane (c) all the poles does not lie on the right half of the s-plane (d) none of the above24. The two-port network is simply a network inside a black box, and the network has only (a) two terminals (b) two pairs of accessible terminals (c) two pairs of ports

25. The number of possible combinations generated by four variables taken two at a time in a two-port network is (a) four (b) two (c) six (d) eight

26. In describing the transmission parameters (a) the input voltage and current are expressed in terms of output voltage and current (b) the input voltage and output voltage are expressed in terms of output current and

input current (c) the input voltage and output current are expressed in terms of input current and output voltage

27. If Z11=2E; Z12=1E; Z21=1E and Z22=3E, what is the determinant of admittance matrix (a)5 (b) 1/5 (c) 1

28. For a two-bilateral network, the three transmission parameters are given by A=6/5; B=17/5 and C=7/5 (a) 1 (b) 1/5 (c) 7/5

29. If the Z parameters of a two-port network are Z11=5E; Z22=7E; Z12=Z21=3E then the A,B,C,D parameters are respectively given by (a) 5\3; 26\3; 1\3; 7\3 (b) 10\3; 52\3; 2\3; 14\3 (c) 15\3; 78\3; 3\3; 21\3

30. For a two-port network to be reciprocal (a) Z11=Z22 (b) y21=y22 (c) h21=-h12 (d) AD-BC=0

31. Two-port networks are connected in cascade. The combination is to be represented as a single two port network. The parameters of the network are obtained by adding the individual (a) Z parameter matrix (b) h parameter matrix (c) A1 B1 C1 D1 matrix (d) ABCD parameter matrix

32. The h parameters h11 and h12 are obtained (a) By shorting output terminals (b) By opening input terminals (c) By shorting input terminals (d) By opening output terminals

33. Which parameters are widely used in transmission line theory (a) Z parameters (b) y parameters (c) ABCD parameters (d) h parameters

34. A low pass filter is one which (a) passes all low frequencies (b) attenuates all high frequencies (c) passes all frequencies up to cut-off frequency, and attenuates all other frequencies

35. A high pass filter is one which (a) passes all high frequencies (b) attenuates all low frequencies (c) attenuates all frequencies below a designated cut-off frequency, and passes all frequencies above cut-off

36. A band pass filter is one which(a) attenuates frequencies between two designated cut-off frequencies and passes all other frequencies

(b) passes frequencies between two designated cut-off frequencies, and attenuates all other frequencies

(c) passes all frequencies

37. An ideal filter should have (a) zero attenuation in the pass band (b) infinite attenuation in the pass band (c) zero attenuation in the attenuation band 38. The values of L and C for a low pass filter with cut-off frequency of 2.5KHZ to operate with a terminated load resistance of 450 ohms are given by (a) 57.32 mH; 0.283 F (b) 28.66 mH; 0.14 F (c) 114.64 H; 0.566 F

39. In the m-derived low pass filters, the resonant frequency is to be chosen so that it is (a) above the cut-off frequency (b) below the cut-off frequency (c) none of the above

40. In the m-derived high pass filters, the resonant frequency is to be chosen so that it is (a) above the cut-off frequency (b) below the cut-off frequency (c) none of the above

41. A band elimination filter is one (a) which attenuates all frequencies less than lower cut-off frequency f1 (b) which attenuates all frequencies greater than upper cut-off frequency f2 (c) frequencies lying between f1 and f2 are attenuated and all other frequencies are passed

42. A polynomial must satisfy the condition that (a) Z(s) is a real function (b) all the roots of P(s) have zero real parts, or negative real parts (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above

43. Hurwitz polynomial possesses one of the conditions that (a) all the quotients in the polynomial P(s) must be positive (b) the roots of P(s) must lie on the right half of the S-plane (c) The ratio of P(s) and P’(s) gives negative quotients (d) P(s) may have missing terms

44. The function is said to be positive real, when (a) the poles and zeros lie on the right half of the S-plane (b) the poles and zeros lie on the left half of the S-plane (c) the poles and zeros are simple and lie on the imaginary axis (d) both (b) and (c)

45. The driving point impedance with poles at w=0 and w=~ must have the (a) s terms in the denominator and an excess term in the numerator (b) s term in the numerator and an excess term in the denominator

(c) s term in the numerator and equal number of terms in the numerator and the denominator (d) s term in the denominator and equal number of terms in the numerator and the denominator

46. In the first foster form, the presence of first element capacitor Co indicates (a) pole at w=0 (b) pole at w=~ (c) zero at w=0 (d) zero at w=~

47. In the first foster form, the presence of last element inductor L~ indicates (a) pole at w=0 (b) pole at w=~ (c) zero at w=0 (d) zero at w=~

48. Pole at infinity indicates that the (a) degree of numerator is greater than that of denominator (b) degree of denominator is greater than that of numerator (c) degree of numerator is equal to the degree of denominator (d) none of the above

49. In the first Cauer LC network, the first element is a series inductor when the driving point function consists of (a) pole at w=~ (b) zero at w=~ (c) pole at w=0 (d) zero at w=0

50. In the second Causer LC network, the last element is an inductor, when the driving point function consists of (a) pole at w=0 (b) pole at w=~ (c) zero at w=~ (d) zero at w=0

ANSWERS

1 B 11 C 21 B 31 A 41 C2 A 12 B 22 A 32 A 42 C3 A 13 C 23 C 33 C 43 A4 B 14 A 24 B 34 C 44 D5 B 15 A 25 C 35 C 45 A6 A 16 C 26 A 36 B 46 A7 C 17 D 27 C 37 A 47 B8 A 18 A 28 C 38 A 48 A9 B 19 B 29 A 39 A 49 A10 C 20 c 30 C 40 b 50 B

EC 209 SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS

The course is to provide a modern introductory coverage of a traditional electrical

engineering course on signals and systems. The main objective is to help second year

engineering students acquire the essential skills, both intuitive and formal, to prepare them

for the study of such disciplines as signal processing, communication and control.

Specifically, students will learn the formal mathematical representations and methods of

analysis of LTI systems, will gain a physical and intuitive understanding of the subject and

the experience the practice of implementing signal processing algorithms and data

manipulation on a computer.

Introduction to the theory of linear signals and systems. Analysis of continuous time

and discrete-time signals and systems. Linear, time-invariant (LTI) system properties and

representations; differential and difference equations, convolution, Fourier analysis, Laplace

and Z transforms. Selected topics in sampling, filter design, discrete signal processing and

modulation.

Topics:Signals and Systems:

basic continuous and discrete-time signals

elementary complex signals

periodic signals

generalized functions

fundamental properties of LTI system

Linear Time-Invariant Systems:

convolution sum and integral

difference and differential equations

Fourier Analysis of Signals and Systems:

CT and DT Fourier series

CT and DT Fourier transform

frequency response of CT and DT LTI systems

Lap lace and z-transforms

EC 209 SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS

1. The signals that are defined for every instant of time are

(a).continuous time signals. (b).Discrete time signals. (c).Digital signals.

2. The signal that are discrete in time and quantized in amplitude are(a).continuous time signals. (b).Discrete time signals. (c).Digital signals

3. Unit step signal is defined as

4. A signal exhibiting no uncertainty of value at any instant of time is (a).random signal (b).deterministic signal. c).periodic signal.

5. Find the period T of the continuous time signal x(t)=je^j5t(a).0.4Πsec (b).1/25sec (c).1/5sec.

6. A __________ system is one for which the output at any time “t” depends on the present values and past inputs but not future inputs.(a).non causal (b).causal. (c).static.

7. Find whether the following signal x (t)= cos 2ft is(a) Periodic (b) A periodic (c) None of these

8. Check whether the following system y (t) =t2x (t)(a) Linear (b) Non linear (c) None of these

9. Check whether the following system y (t)=Ax(t)+B is (a)static (b) Dynamic ( c) Linear (d) Non linear

10. A continuous time signal x(t) is said to be periodic if it satisfies(a).x(t)=cos(2Πn) (b).x(t)=20cos(2n) (c).x(t)=x(t+T)

11. The Fourier series expansion for ______periodic function contains only sine terms. (a) Even (b) Odd (c) Half wave symmetry

12. The condition for half-wave symmetry is (a) x(t) = - x(t ± T/2) (b) x(t) = ½ [x(t) + x(-t)] (c) x(t) = ½ [x(t) – x(-t)]

13. If FS [x(t)] is Cn then FS[x(-t)] is(a) –Cn (b) C-n (c) –C-n

14. In cosine representation, the Fourier Coefficients presents only for positive frequency and may be called as ___________ spectra.(a) One-sided (b) two-sided

15. The operation y(t) = 1/ -∞∫∞x(τ)/t-τ dτ is called the ______________ transform.(a) Hilbert (b) Fourier (c) Laplace (d) Z

16. F[x(t-to)] is(a) e -jωto

X(jω) (b) e -jωot X(jω) ( c) e -jωto

X(jωo)17. F[x(at)] is

(a) 1/a X(jω/a) (b) 1/-a X(-jω/a) (c) 1/a X(jω/a)

18. F[X(t)] is

(a) 2x(-jω) (b) 2x(jω) ( c) 2X(jω) (d) 2X(-jω)

19. F[(t)] is(a) 1 (b) h(t) ( c) 2 (d) -1

20. F-1[(ω)] is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) -1 (d) 1/2

21. The value of x() when X(s) given as 1/ s is (a) ∞ (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) none of these

22. The Laplace Transform of x(t) =t n ,X(s)=a. 1 b. 1/s c. 1/s2 d. n!/sn+1

23. Initial value theorem of Laplace transform is given bya) lim t 0 x(t) = lim s sX(s) b) lim s 0 x(t) = lim t sX(s)c) lim t 0 x(t) = lim s0 sX(s) d) lim t x(t) = lim s0 sX(s)

24. Region of Convergence of X(s) is the set of all values of ……….. for which Laplace Transform ……a. , converges b. s, infinity c. t, infinity

25. Natural response of the system is the response for which a) Initial conditions are zero b) Input to the system is zero c) Both a & b

26. ROC for the signal x(t)=e-at u(t) is a) > -a b) > a c) <- a d) < a

27. Condition for the existence of laplace transform isa. | x(t) et| dt < b. . | x(t) et| dt = 0c. | x(t) et| dt > d | x(t) et| dt =1.

28. Poles are the roots of ………polynomial & Zeros of ……….…. the transfer function.a) numerator, denominator b) denominator , numerator c) . none of these

29. The Transfer function of an ideal delay element of T seconds is a. esT b.1/s c.1/s2 d. e-sT

30. The convolution property of Laplace Transform is [x1(t)*x2(t)] =a. X1(t) X2(t) b. X1(S) X2(S) c.x1 (t)x2(t) d. X1(S)* X2(S)

31. Discrete Fourier series of a periodic sequence x(n)

N-1

(a)Ck = 1/N ∑ x(n) e-j2πkn/N

k=0 N-1(b) Ck = 1/N ∑ x(n) e-j2πkn/N

n=0 N-1

(c) Ck = 1/N ∑ x(n) e-j2πkn/N

N=0 N -1

(d) Ck = 1/N ∑ x(n) ej2πkn/N

n=0

32. The Parsevals relation for discrete time periodic signal N-1 N-1 (a) 1 ∑ x(n)2 = ∑ Ck2

N n=0 k=0

N-1 N-1 (b) 1 ∑ x(n)2 = ∑ Ck N n=0 k=0

N-1 N-1 (c) ∑ x(n)2 = ∑ Ck2

n=0 k=0

N-1 N-1 (d) 1 ∑ x(n) = ∑ Ck2

N n=0 k=0

33.The sufficient condition for the existence of DTFT for a sequence x(n) is

∞(a) ∑ x(n)< ∞ n= - ∞

∞(b) ∑ x(n)< ∞ n= 0 ∞(c) ∑ x(n)> ∞ n= 0 ∞(d) ∑ x(n)> ∞

n= - ∞

34. The N- point DFT of a sequence is given by

N-1(a) X(k) = ∑ x(n) e-j2πnk/N

n=0 N-1(b) X(k) = 1 ∑ x(n) e-j2πnk/N

N n=0 N-1(c) X(k) = N ∑ x(n) e-j2πnk/N

n=0 N-1(d) X(k) = ∑ x(n) ej2πnk/N

n=0

35. Fourier Transform give continuous spectrum (a) True (b) False

36. The Z – transform for an unit impulse signal is (a) 0 (b) Z (c) 1 (d) 1/Z

37. Time shifting property of Z- Transform with initial conditions is zero (a) Z[x(n –m)] = Z-m X(z)(b) Z[x(n –m)] = Zm X(z) (c) Z[x(n –m)] = Z2m X(z)

38. The initial value theorem of Z- Transform(a) x(o) = lim X+(Z) Z ∞(b) x(o) = lim X+(Z) Z 0(c) x(o) = lim X -(Z) Z ∞

39. The inverse Z- Transform of the Z/(Z – a) is(a) a-n (b) an u(n) (c) n an – 1 u(n) (d) an – 1 u(n)

40. The ROC of an LTI stable system contains the (a) r > 1 (b) r < 1 (c) r =1 (d) none of the above

41. The equation for the system to be stable is a. h(n)<∞ b. x(n)< ∞ c. y(n)< ∞42. A system function is defined by a. H(Z)=Y(Z)/X(Z) b .Y(Z)=I(Z)/V(Z) c. X(Z)=V(Z)/I(Z)

43. The ROC cannot contain a, zeros b .poles c . Poles & zeros

44. The ROC of an LTI stable system contains a. unit circle b. unit square c. Rectangle

45. Which one of the types of realization has a common delay? a. Parallel form b Direct form I C.Direct form II

46. Pick the circular shifting property of DFT a. DFT [x(n)]=X(K) b. x(n)=Δ(n) c. x(n)=a^nu(n)

47. The DFT requires _________ no of multiplicationsa.N^2 b. .N(N-1) c. Log N

48. The FFT requires __________ no of multiplications a.N^2 b. .N(N-1) c. N/2LogN

49. Find DFT of the sequence x(n)= Δ(n) a.1 b.0 c. ∞

50. The linear convolution of two sequences x1(n) &x2(n) produces a. N1+N2-1 b. N1-N2+1 c. N1-N2+1

Answer

EC 200-ANALOG COMMUNICATION

Analog Communication is a data transmitting technique in a format that utilizes

continuous signals to transmit data including voice, image, video, electrons etc. An analog

1 A 11 B 21 A 31 B 41 A

2 B 12 A 22 D 32 A 42 A

3 A 13 B 23 A 33 A 43 C

4 B 14 A 24 A 34 A 44 A

5 A 15 A 25 A 35 A 45 C

6 B 16 A 26 A 36 A 46 A

7 A 17 C 27 A 37 A 47 A

8 A 18 A 28 B 38 A 48 C

9 C 19 A 29 B 39 C 49 A

10 C 20 D 30 b 40 C 50 A

signal is a variable signal continuous in both time and amplitude which is generally carried

by use of modulation.

Analog circuits do not involve quantization of information unlike the digital

circuits and consequently have a primary disadvantage of random variation and signal

degradation, particularly resulting in adding noise to the audio or video quality over a

distance.

Data is represented by physical quantities that are added or removed to alter data.

Analog transmission is inexpensive and enables information to be transmitted from point-

to-point or from one point to many. Once the data has arrived at the receiving end, it is

converted back into digital form so that it can be processed by the receiving computer

EC200 - ANALOG COMMUNICATION

1. The percentage of power in the side lands of DSB-FC AM modulated wave is _________ of total transmitted powera) 1/4 b) 1/3 c)2/3 d) none

2. The BW of AM wave isa) 2 FM b) FM c) 3 FM d) none

3. The DSB-SC wave is represented asa) ACSinωctsinωmt b) ACsinωct c) AC[1+usinωm] sinωCt d) none

4. For an AM Transmitter, transmits 15 KW of total power at 100% depth of modulation, calculate the carrier power (PC)a) 10KW b) 12KW c) 9KW d) 5KW

5. The percentage of power saved in SSB when compared with AM DSB-FC at 100% depth of modulation isa) 17% b) 66.67% c) 83.3% d) 33.33%

6. Ring modulator is used to generatea) DSB-FC b) DSB-SC c) SSB d) VSB

7. Which type of modulation is used in TV?a) DSB-SC b) AM c) VSB d) SSB

8. Which method is used to generate SSB wavea) Ring modulator b) phase shift method c) none

9. Name the circuit which is used to detect the DSB SC wavea) envelope detector b) synchronous detector c) none

10. The distortion which arises in envelope detector is called ana) diagonal clipping b) cross-over distortion c) granularnoise

11. In frequency modulation, if the amplitude of the modulation voltage is doubled, the maximum frequency deviation a) Doubles b) becomes four times c) becomes half d) remains unaltered

12. In FM, the carrier frequency deviation is determined bya) Modulating voltage b) modulating frequencyc) both d) none of the above

13. The drawback of FM relative to AM is that a) Noise is very high for modulation frequencyb) Larger BW is requiredc) Higher modulating power is requiredd) Higher output power is required

14. Practical BW of NBFM signal equalsa) fm b)2fm c) fd d)2fd

15. FM broadcast band lies ina) SHF band b) UHF band c) VHF band d)HF band

16. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation isa)75 KHZ b)200 KHZ c)5 KHZ d)15 kHz

17. From bandwidth point of view NBFM is equivalent to a )AM b)PM c)suppressed carrier DSB d)SSB

18. Which of the following is not true?a) The carrier never becomes zero b) the j coefficient occasionally are negativec) The power remains constant inspite of change of modulation indexd) The total bandwidth increases with increase in modulation index

19. In FM system if the depth of modulation is doubled, the output powera) Increases by factor of 2 b) increases by factor of square root of 2c) Increases by factor of 3 d) increases by factor of 4

20. Power of an FM signal is dependent ona) The amplitude of the carrier b) both amplitude and frequency of the carrierc) Amplitude and frequency deviation of the carrierd) none of the above

21. The principle of photo emission is used ina) image orthicon b. plumbicon c.vidicon

22. A -------------- amplifies both sound & picture and converts into intermediate frequencya) RF tuners b. AF tuners c. mixer

23. The fount porch has cushioning period ofa1.5s b.2.5s c.3.5s

24. The fount porch has cushioning period ofa. 5.8s b.2.5s c.3.5s

25. In TV the video signal extends from DC toa. 5.5Mhz b.5 MHz c.7 MHz

26. A ------------- is an electromagnetic for detection & location of objectsa. radar b. microwave c. satellite

27. The range beyond which targets appear as second time around echoesa. maximum ambiguous range b. Minimum ambiguous rangec. ambiguous range

28. The range R is equal to a. CTr/2 b. CTr/3 c. CTr/2.5

29. The weakest signal receiver can detect isa. minimum detectable signal b. maximum detectable signalc. detectable signal

30. Falsely indicating the presence of targetsa .false alarm b. miss alarm c. none

31. Any form of unwanted electrical signal which interfere with proper reception and reproduction of desired signals is calleda) flicker b) noise c)eye pattern d) aliasing

32. Atmospheric noise predominates in medium frequency rangea)audio freq b) RHF c) UHF d) none of the above

33. Thermal noise is also called asa) static noise b) White noise c)manmade noise d) uncorrelated noise

34. The ratio of (SNR) i/p to (SNR) o/p is known asa) signal power b) noise factor c) power density d)none of the above

35. The expression for noise power of white noise is given bya) Pn = TB b) Pn = KTB c) Pn = 4KTBR d) Pn = 4KTBR

36. Friss formula is given bya) fa+1 b) fa+fb-1/A1 + fc-1/A1A2 + …c) fb/A1 + fc-1/A2+… c) none of the above

37. Noise which occurs whenever a current has to divide between two or more electrodes is known asa) shot noise b) partition noise c) thermal agitation noise d) burst noise

38. The noise that occurs in a frequency selective filter is known asa) wide band noise b) avalanche noisec) narrow band noise d) none of the above

39. Flicker noise is predominant ata) low freq b) high freq c) microwave freq d) none of the above

40. The following is an example for man-made noisea) correlated noise b) internal noisec) radiations produced by electrical machinery d) noise due to resistive component

41. The typical frequency parameters,IF bandwidth of AM radio receivers isa)10 khz b)20 khz c)22khz d)15khz

42. The FM receiver consists of an a) integrator b)differentiatorc)envelope detector d)differentiator and envelope detector

43. One of the drawbacks in TRF receivers isa) wide variation in the Q factor b)stability in gain c)constant bandwidth

44. One of the advantages of superhet reception over TRF isa) Poor selectivity b) uniform selectivity and bandwidthc) non uniform bandwidth

45. If the intermediate frequency of a receiver is made too__________,adjacent channel rejection as well as selectivity becomes poora)low b)high c)medium d)none

46. Automatic volume control bias to varya)overall gain automatically with changing magnitudes of the received signals so that the output remains constantb) overall gain without changing magnitudesc)overall gain output also changes output

47. Magic eye is a form of tuning indicator commonly used ina)broadcast receiver b)broadcast transmitterc) both receiver and transmitter d)none

48. __________of a radio receiver is a measure of its ability to receive weak signals.a)sensitivity b)selectivity c)gain d)none

49. AM broadcst transmitting stations operating on_______________a)long b)medium c)short wave band d)all

50. The RF carrier range of FM radio receivers isa)88-108mhz b)0.53 to 1.6mhz c)100mhz d)80 to 110 mhz

Answer1 b 11 a 21 a 31 b 41 a

2 a 12 a 22 b 32 c 42 d

3 a 13 b 23 a 33 b 43 a

4 a 14 b 24 a 34 b 44 b

5 c 15 c 25 b 35 d 45 b

6 b 16 d 26 a 36 b 46 a

7 c 17 a 27 a 37 b 47 a

8 b 18 a 28 a 38 c 48 a

9 b 19 b 29 a 39 a 49 d

10 a 20 a 30 a 40 c 50 a

EC202- ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS II

Feedback plays an important role in almost all electronic circuits. It is almost

invariably used in the amplifier to improve its performance and to make it more ideal. In the

process of feedback, a part pf output is sampled and fed back to the input of the amplifier.

Therefore, at input we have two signals: Input signals, and part of the output which is fed

back to the input. Both these signals may be in phase or out of phase. When the input signal

and part of output signal are in phase, the feedback is called positive feedback. On the other

hand, when they are in out of phase, the feedback is called negative feedback.

Oscillators are circuits that generate an output signal without the necessity of an

input signal. They are used as signal sources in all sorts of applications. Different types of

oscillators produce various types of outputs including sine waves, square waves, triangular

waves and saw tooth waves.

To amplify the selective range of frequencies, the resistive load, Rc is replaced by a

tuned circuit is capable of amplifying a signal over the narrow band of frequencies centered

at fr. The amplifiers with such a tuned circuits as a load are known as tuned amplifier.

The electronic circuits which are used to generate nonsinusoidal waveforms are

called multivibrators. The multivibrators is nothing but a two stage amplifier, operating in

two modes. The overall operation of the multivibrator is based on the fact that no tow active

devices have exactly identical characteristics.

A special type of wave generator which is used to produce a single narrow pulse or

train of pulses is called a blocking oscillator. The two important elements of a blocking

oscillator are an active device like transistor and a pulse transformer. A pulse transformer is

used to couple output of the transistor back to the input. These circuits are used in frequency

dividers, Counters circuits and for switching the other circuits on and off at the specific

times.

EC 202- ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS – II -

1. For a negative feedback amplifier, the loop gain should be --------------

a. Greater than unity b. Less than unityc. Unity d. Zero

2. Oscillator uses ----------- feedback to increase gain.a. Negative b. Positivec. No d. Resistive

3. In negative feedback amplifier use of output voltage sampling causes the output resistance to ---------a. Remain unaltered b. Decrease c. Increase d. small change

4. In negative feedback amplifier use of output current sampling causes the output resistance to ----------a. Remain unaltered b. Decrease c. Increase d. small change

5. In negative feedback amplifier use of series mixing causes the input resistance to ----------a. Remain unaltered b. Decrease c. Increase d. small change

6. In negative feedback amplifier use of shunt mixing causes the input resistance to ----------a. Remain unaltered b. Decrease c. Increase d. small change

7. Emitter follower is a negative feedback amplifier using ----------a. Voltage shunt feedback b. Current shunt feedback c. Current series feedback d. Voltage series feedback.

8. The CE amplifier using unbypassed resistor in the emitter lead is a negative feedback amplifier using ----------a. Voltage shunt feedback b. Current shunt feedback c. Current series feedback d. Voltage series feedback.

9. The CE amplifier using a resistor Rf connected from output to the input is a negative feedback amplifier using -----------a. Voltage shunt feedback b. Current shunt feedback c. Current series feedback d. Voltage series feedback.

10. The advantage of negative feedback is -----------a. To stabilize the transfer gain b. To increase the gain c. To increase the distortion d. All the above.

11. An oscillator differs from an amplifier becausea) it has more gain b) it requires no input signalc) it requires no supply d) it always has the same input

12. Wein-bridge oscillators are based ona) Positive feedback b) Negative feedbackc)The peizo-electric effect d) High gain

13. One condition for oscillation isa) A phase shift around the feedback loop of 180o

b) A gain around the feedback loop of one-thirdc) A phase shift around the feedback loop of 0o

d) A gain around the feedback loop of less than 1

14. A second condition for oscillation isa) No gain around the feedback loopb) A gain of 1 around the feedback loopc) The attenuation of the feedback circuit must be one-thirdd) The feedback circuit must be capacitive

15. In a certain oscillator, Av = 50. The attenuation of the feedback circuit must bea) 1 b) 0.01c) 10 d) 0.02

16. For an oscillator to properly start, the gain around the feedback loop must initially bea) 1 b) less than 1c) greater than 1 d) equal to B

17. In a wein-bridge oscillator, if the resistance of the positive feedback circuit are decreased, the frequencya) decreases b) increasesc) remains the same d) None of the above

18. The wein-bridge oscillator’s positive feedback circuit isa) an RL circuit b) an LC circuitc) a voltage divider d) a lead-lag circuit

19. A phase shift oscillator hasa) three RC circuits b) three LC circuitsc) a T–type circuit d) a ∏-type circuit

20. Colpitts, Clapp and Hartley are names that refer to a) types of RC oscillators b) inventors of the transistor c) types of LC oscillators d) types of filters

21. In the output of push pull amplifier, the most disturbing harmonic distortion is thea) second harmonic b) third harmonicc)fourth harmonic d) fifth harmonic

22. In a class B push pull amplifier, the ratio of the maximum collector dissipation to maximum AC power output is abouta) 0.25 b) 0.4 c) 0.5 d) 0.75

23. In a large signal amplifier, total harmonic distortion is given by:

a) D=D2+D3+D3+….. b) D= D2+D32+D4

2+……

c) D= B0+D22+D3

2+D42+….. d) D=D2+D3+D4……../ D2

2+D32+D4

2+…….

24. In a class B amplifier, the maximum output power Pmax equals:

a) V2cc/RL b) Vcc/2RL c) Vcc2/2RL d) Vcc2/2RL

25. Class B push-pull amplifier suffers froma) cross over distortion b) inter modulation distortionc) excessive harmonic distortion d) phase distortion

26. Maximum theoretical conversion efficiency of class A series fed amplifier is a) 15% b) 25% c) 50% d) 78.5%

27. Conversion efficiency of a transformer coupled class A power amplifier is equal toa) 25 (Vmax-Vmin/Vmax)% b) 50 (Vmax-Vmin/Vmax+Vmin)%c) 50 Vmax-Vmin/Vmax)% c) 25 Vmax-Vmin/Vmax+Vmin)%

28. Maximum theoretical conversion efficiency of class A transformer coupled amplifier isa) 15% b) 25% c) 50% d) 78.5%

29. Conversion efficiency of series fed class A power amplifier is given bya) 25( Vmax-Vmin/Vmax)% b) 25( Vmax-Vmin/Vmax+Vmin)%c) 50( Vmax-Vmin/Vmax)% d) 50(Vmax-Vmin/Vmax+Vmin)%

30. Maximum theoretical collector circuit efficiency of class B amplifier is a) 15% b) 25% c) 50% d) 78.5%

31. Electronic circuit that generated non sinusoidal signals are called asa. Oscillator b. Amplifier c. Multivibrator d. None of the above

32. Multivibrator is also known asa. Relaxation Oscillator b. Amplifierc. Sinusoidal Oscillator d. None of the above

33. The time required to reach 10% of its maximum value is defineda. Time delay b .Rise time c. Turn on time d. Storage time

34. In which circuit , two quasi stable states ON & OFF periods are equala. Asymmetrical Astable Multivibratorb. Symmetrical Astable Multivibratorc. Saturating Astable Multivibratord. Non saturating Astable Multivibrator

35. Which Multivibrator is called one shot multivibratora Bistable Multivibrator b. Schmitt triggerc.Monostable Multivibrator d.Astable Multivibrator

36. Which circuit is used for wave shaping circuitsa. Oscillator b. Schmitt triggerc. Monostable Multivibrator d. Astable Multivibrator

37. Which Multivibrator is called Flip-Flopa Bistable Multivibrator b. Schmitt triggerc. Monostable Multivibrator d. Astable Multivibrator

38. What is the use of commutating capacitorsa. reduce the transition time in a low to high levelb. reduce the transition time in a high to low levelc. both 1 and 2 d. none of the above

39. What is the frequency of oscillation of Astable multivibratora.1/1.4RC b. 1/0.7RC c.1/2.1RC d.1/2.8RC

40. The sum of storage time and fall time is defined as a. Time delay b. Rise time c. Turn off time d. Turn on time

41. An astable multivibrator is also called free running relaxation oscillator because it a) Oscillates continuously between two unstable statesb) Requires no D.C power for its operation c) Runs and relaxes alternately d) None of the above

42. The frequency of oscillation of an astable multivibrator depends ona) Transistor current gain (hFE) b) Value of collector load resistor c) Duration of the input pulse d) Value of R and C

43. A monostable multivibratora) Gives one output pulse for one input trigger pulse b) Gives two output pulse for one input trigger pulse c) Has one stable state d) Both a and c above

44. A bistable multivibratora) Has two stable states b) has two unstable states c) Oscillates between two stable states without any trigger pulse d) Is used for generating square wave

45. The main function of a clipping circuit is toa) Remove a certain portion of the input signal above or below a certain level b) Restore D.C level to the signalc) Suppress amplitude variation in the input signal voltaged) Both a and c

46. The clamper circuit is used toa) Introduce a D.C level to A.C signal b) Suppress variations in amplitude of the input signal

c) Obtain an output which is integrated of the input signal d) All the above

47. Which the following time base circuit is suitable to display widely separated narrow

width pulses?a)Voltage time base generator b) Current time base generator c) Free running time base generator d) Triggered time base generator

48. The purpose of a comparator isa) Amplify an input signal b) Detect the occurrence of a changing input signal c) Maintain a constant output when the D.C input voltage changes d) Produce a change in output when an input voltage equals the reference Voltage

49. The non linear wave shaping circuit uses the switching properties of the followinga) Diodes b) Transistor c)SCR d) a and b both

50. A monostable multivibrator a) Has two stable states b) one state ON and other OFF state c) Both unstable d) none of the above

Answers

1 a 11 b 21 b 31 c 41 c2 b 12 a 22 b 32 a 42 d3 b 13 c 23 b 33 a 43 d4 c 14 b 24 d 34 a 44 a5 c 15 d 25 a 35 c 45 d6 b 16 c 26 b 36 b 46 a7 d 17 b 27 b 37 a 47 d8 c 18 d 28 c 38 c 48 c9 a 19 a 29 a 39 a 49 d10 a 20 c 30 d 40 c 50 b

EC204 – Linear Integrated Circuits

The term Integrated Circuit reflects the capabilities of semiconductor industry to

fabricate complex electronic circuit consisting of a large number of components on a

tingle substrate. The operational amplifier or op-amp is the most versatile active

element amongst linear ICs. This covers the design and application of op-amp and other

linear ICs. The emphasis is on the fundamental design concepts.

Unit I introduces the basic principle of an op-amp, packages, pin configurations, power

supply connections. Linear and Non linear applications of op-amp are also) resented

in this unit.

Unit II presents the various comparators square, triangular and sine wave venerators.

Unit III covers the Active filters- low pass, high pass, band pass, band reject and s tate

variable filters.

Unit IV focuses on analog to digital and digital to analog techniques. Unit

V is devoted to 555 timer, applications and voltage regulators.

EC204 – Linear Integrated Circuits

1. An op-amp clampera) removes part of output voltage above a given levelb) converts the input voltage into square wave voltage at a given levelc) clamps the output voltage at a given leveld) removes part of the output voltage below a given level

2. An op-amp positive clippera) removes positive part of the input signal above reference voltage VR

b) removes part of the input signal below the reference voltage VR

c) produces square wave voltage at level VR

d) compresses the positive part of input signal to level VR

3. In analog computation we use:a) both integrators and differentiator b) integrators alonec) differentiator alone d) integrators and differentiator in pairs

4. The feed pack path in an op-amp differentiator consists ofa) resistor b) a capacitorc) resistor and capacitor in d) a resistor and capacitor in parallel

5. Which of the following characteristics do not necessarily apply to the op-ampa) high gain b) low powerc) high input impedance d) low output impedance

6. The output voltage of a particular op-amp increases 8v in 12s in response to a step voltage on the input. The slow rate isa) 0.667V/s b) 0.75V/s c) 1.5V/s d) 96V/s

7. The voltage gain of a voltage follower is a) unity b) less than unity c) greater than unity d) variable

8. The higher possible impedance is achieved with the a) inverting amplifier b) non-inverting amplifierc) differential amplifier d) voltage follower

9. The voltage gain of an non-inverting op-amp amplifier:a) greater than unity b) less than unityc) always greater than unity d) both (a) and (c)

10. The feedback path in an op-amp integrator consists of a) a resistor b) a capacitor c) a resistor and a capacitor in series d) a resistor and capacitor in parallel

11. The application of op – amp in open loop configuration is --------------a). Comparator b). Detector c). Limiter d). all the above.

12. Regenerative Comparator is also known as -----------------------a). Schmitt trigger b). adder c). subtractor d). none of the above

13. The application of comparator is -----------------------------a). Zero crossing detector b). window detectorc). Phase meter d). all the above.

14. CMOS Schmitt trigger offers the advantage of ---------------------

a). high input impedance b). low power consumptionc). low input impedance d). none of the above.

.15. A simple op- amp square wave generator is also known as------------

a). free running oscillator b). free running amplifierc). free running multivibrator d). none of the above.

16. ---------- has one stable state and the other is quasi stable state.a). Monostable multivibrator b). astable multivibratorc). triangular wave generator d). none of the above.

17. A Triangular wave generator can be obtained by ------- square wave.a). integrating b). differentiatingc). adding d). subtracting

18. Condition for sustained oscillation is ------------a). Aß= 1, Aß = 0 or 360 b). Aß= 5, Aß =90 c). Aß= 10, Aß =180 d). none of the above.

19. In phase shift oscillator, phase shift of ---------- is provided by feedback RC Network.a).180 b). 90c).270 d). 360

20. The commonly used audio frequency oscillator is -----------a). Wein bridge oscillator b). Phase shift oscillatorc). saw tooth generator d). square wave generator.

21. The capture range is controlled by ……… in a PLLa) LPF b) HPF c) BPF d).BSF

22. A phase comparator is basiclly a ……….a) Multiplier b) Adder c) Divider d) Subtractor

23. Lock –in range of a PLL is……. the capture range.a) smaller b)greater c) equal to d) None of these

24. VCO isa) Voltage to frequency converter b) Voltage to Voltage converterc) Voltage to Current converter d) Current to Frequency converter

25. The capture range of a PLL is……. the Lock –in rangea) smaller b) greater c) equal to d) None of these

26. A low pass filter is one whicha) passes all low frequencies b) attenuates all high frequencies c) passes all frequencies up to cut-off frequency, and attenuates all other frequencies

27. A band pass filter is one whicha) attenuates frequencies between two designated cut-off frequencies and passes all

other frequenciesb) passes frequencies between two designated cut-off frequencies, and attenuates all

other frequenciesc) passes all frequencies

28. The roll –off rate of a first order low pass filter isa) -20dBdecade b) -40dBdecade c) -60dBdecade d) -10dBdecade

29. How many op-amps are used in state variable filtera) 3 b) 5 c)2

30. Which filters are ideal for MOS technology.a) Active RC filters b) State variable filters c) Switched capacitive filters

31. The output of a DAC can be a) only voltage b) only current c) either voltage or current d) none

32. A R-2R ladder type DAC requires a) One value of resistor b) two value of resistorsc) wide value of resistors d) no resistors

33. The constant node voltages in inverted R-2R ladder eliminate a) stray capacitance effect b) Inductive effect c) long conversion time d) all the above

34. Which one of the following is the fastest ADC a) Charge balancing ADC b) Parallel comparator ADC c) Dual slope ADC d) 4. successive approximation ADC

35. Successive approximation ADC completes n bit conversion in ----- clock periods a) n+1 b) n c) 2n-1 d) 2n-1

36. which one of the following is suitable for precise measurement of slowly varying signal a) charge balancing ADC b) Dual slope ADC c) counting type ADC d) parallel comparator ADC

37. The input range of an 8 bit A/D converter is divided in to 255 intervals. Then the resolution for a 10V input range is a) 0.153mV b) 39.22mV c) 2550V d) 0.5V

38. An 8 bit DAC has ------------- bit resolution a) 28 b) 8 c) 28-1 d) 28-1

39. Totem pole MOSFET driver and CMOS inverter are a) ADC b) DAC c) SPDT switch d) DPDT switch

40. What output voltage would be produced by a D/A converter whose output range is 0 to 10V and where input binary number is 10(for a 2 bit D/A converter) a) 5V b) 10V c) 3.75V d) 7.34V

41. Monostable Operation of 555 Timer is known asa. One shot Multivibrator b. Free Running Multivibratorc. No shot Multivibrator d. None of the above

42. In a Monostable Multivibrator R=100 Kilo Ohms, time delay T=100 ms,the value of the capacitor isa 1μf b. 9 μf c. 0.01 μf d . 0.9 μf

43. The duty cycle of an Astable Multivibrator is given by a. RB /RA +RB b. RA /RA +RB c. RA RB /RA +RB d. None of the above

44. The function of pin 5 is a. Control Voltage b. Discharge c. Output d. Threshold

45. A continuously triggered Monostable circuit can be used as a. Frequency Multiplier b. Frequency Divider c. None of the above

46. The output voltage of 7915 regulator isa. +15 v b.-15 v c. 5v d. None of the above

47. The series pass transistor in a regulator is operated in ----------------- region a. Active region b. Cut-off region c. Saturation region d. None of the above

48. The Efficiency is high in a. Series Regulator b. Switching Regulator c. Shunt Regulator d. None of the

above

49. The output current in an IC Regulator can be boosted by connecting ---------------- in parallel with the regulatora. External Pass Transistor b. Feedback networkc. Error Amplifier d. None of the above

50. The main purpose of current limiting in a regulator isa. protection of the regulator from excessive currentb. protection of the load from excessive currentc. to keep the power supply transformer from burning upd. to maintain a constant output voltage

ANSWER

1 c 11 d 21 a 31 c 41 a2 a 12 a 22 a 32 b 42 d3 b 13 d 23 b 33 a 43 a4 a 14 a 24 a 34 b 44 a5 b 15 a 25 a 35 b 45 b6 a 16 a 26 c 36 b 46 b7 a 17 a 27 b 37 b 47 a8 d 18 a 28 a 38 b 48 b9 d 19 a 29 a 39 b 49 a10 b 20 a 30 c 40 a 50 b

EC206 - Transmission Lines and Waveguides

A transmission line is a device designed to guide electrical energy from one point to

another. It is used, for example, to transfer the output RF energy of a transmitter to an

antenna. Use of the Smith Chart utility has grown steadily over the years and it is still

widely used today, not only as a problem solving aid, but as a graphical demonstrator of

how many RF parameters behave at one or more frequencies, an alternative to using tabular

information. The Smith Chart can be used to represent many parameters including

impedances, admittances, and reflection coefficients and scattering parameters, wavelength

approaches the cross-sectional dimensions of the waveguide. Below such frequencies,

waveguides are useless as electrical transmission lines. At short wavelengths there exist

other modes of propagation that are not as "lossy," if a conductive tube is used rather than

two parallel conductors. It is at these high frequencies that waveguides become practical.

This course has established Maxwell's equations from experimentally deduced laws.

The equations are completely general, and are consistent with Special Relativity. We

predicted from these equations, based on low-frequency results, that electric and magnetic

fields could propagate as electromagnetic radiation, at any frequency, even e.g., 1020 hz, at

the speed of light, c, which is a constant in a vacuum. We have also found how to guide such

waves, down transmission lines and waveguides.

EC206 - Transmission Lines and Waveguides

1. ‘Z’ stands fora) R+jwL b) G+jwc c) G+jwL

2. A Transmission line isa) Lumped Network b) Distributed Network c) None of the above

3. Frequency Distortion is defined asa) All frequencies transmitted is not attenuated equallyb) are not delayed equallyc) None of the above

4. Delay Distortion is also calleda) Phase distortion b) Frequency distortion c) Signal distortion

5. The condition for distortion less line isa) LG=CK b) LC=GR c) CG=LR

6. Reflection co-efficient is defined as ratio ofa) Reflected voltage at load to incident voltage at loadb) Incident voltage at load to reflected voltage at loadc) None of the above

7. The (Zoc) open circuit impedance is given bya) Zo Coth rl b) Zo tanh rl c) Zo Sin h rl

8. The normalized impedance is defined asa) z/zo-Given Impedance/Characteristic Impedanceb) zo/z-Characteristic Impedance/Given Impedancec) z only

9. Energy in electric field is given bya) CE2/2 b) LI2/2 c) CI2/2

10. Voltage along an infinite line is given bya) E=Es e-αs b) I=Is e-αs c) E=Is e-αs

11. The characteristic impedance of a high frequency transmission line is(a) Z0=(L/C)1/2 b) Z0=(LC)1/2 c) Z0=(C/L)1/2

12. A 100Ω dissipationless line connects a signal of 100KHz to a load of 140Ω.Calculate VSWRa) S = 0.167 b)S = 1.4 c)S = 2.4

13. A lossless line in air having a characteristic impedance of 300Ω is terminated by an unknown impedance. The standing wave ratio is 3.3. Calculate reflection co-efficienta) 0.53 b)0.64 c)1.53

14. The distance between two adjacent voltage maximum or minimum isa) λ/3 b) λ/4 c) λ/2

15. The value of maximum input impedance(Rmax) isa) R0/S b) SR0 c) R0

2S

16. When the line is terminated with its Characteristic Impedance R0, the reflection coefficient isa) K = 0 b) K = 1 c) K = ∞

17. Nodes are the points of --------voltage or current in the standing wave systema) Maximum voltage or current b) Zero voltage or currentc) Infinite voltage or current

18. Input Impedance of short circuit dissipation less line isa) -j R0CotβS b) -j R0tanβS c) -j R0cothβS

19. The voltage equation of a high frequency transmission line isa) E = ERcosβS + j IR sinβS b) E = ERcoshβS + j IR sinhβSc) E = ERcosβS+j ZR sinβS

20. In Short circuit high frequency transmission line, the first quarter wavelength acts as a) Capacitance b) Inductance c) Resistance

21. In high frequency transmission lines the propagation constant Pis

a) P=α +jβ b) P=α c) P= jβ d) P= 0

22. Smith Chart is used for calculatinga) impedance and admittance b) standing wave ratio (SWR) c) Location of Maxima and minima d) all the above

23. Stub is a) Small transmission line b) Connected in between Tx and Rx c) It may be parallel are series circuit d) All the above

24. In Smith impedance chart the open and short circuit are indicated ina) Left and right b) Right and Left c) Top and Bottom d) Center

25. The value of reflection coefficient (K) for Zo = 50∟0 ohms working at frequency 300 Mhz is 50 +j50 a) 0.5 b) 0.4 c) 0.44 d) 0.42

26. Double stub matching is used to match a) Different frequency and fine adjustment b) Transmission line of low frequencyc) Suitable for any fixed frequency d) only for load impedance matching

27. In double stub matching the location of the first stub should be located in a) 0.25λ b) 0.1λ to 0.5λ c) 0.1λ to 0.15λ d) 0.4λ

28. To draw the impedance circle the center point should be located at a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0

29. The Characteristic impedance of a quarter wave transformer isa) Zo = Sqrt (Zo’ x Rin ) b) Zo = Sqrt (Zo x Rin) c) Zo = Zo2 x Rin d) Zo2 = Zo x Rin

30. The purpose of stub in transmission line is a) To increase Impedance b) To decrease impedance c) To match Impedance d) None of the above

31. The lowest order mode that can exist in the case of waves between two infinite parallel conducting plates is a) TE00 b) TE01 c) TE10 d) TE11

32. The cutoff frequency in the case of waves between two infinite parallel conducting planes is given by

33. The dominant mode in rectangular waveguide isa) TE10 b) TE01 c) TM01 d) TM10

34. The cutoff frequency of an air filled rectangular waveguide having cross-sectional dimensions of a =100mm and b=50mm in TE10 mode isa) 2 X 109 HZ b) 3 X 109 HZ c) 6 X 109 Hz d) 1.5X109 HZ

35. The cutoff wavelength of a rectangular waveguide having width ‘a’ and height ‘b’ is given by

36. Relationship between phase velocity, group velocity and free space velocity (Vc) isa) VgVc=Vp2 b) VpVc=Vg

2 c) Vg.Vp=Vc d) VgVp=Vc2

37. A rectangular metal waveguide is a a) Low-pass filter b) High-pass filter c) Band-pass filter d) None of the above

38. Phase velocity (rate at which the phase is changing) of a rectangular waveguidea) equal to the velocity of light b) greater than the velocity of lightc) depends upon the dimensions of the waveguide d) smaller than the velocity of light

39. For handling high powers, the best transmitting medium is a) open wire line b) waveguide c) Telegraph lines d) coaxial cable

40. A plane wave front (small section of an electromagnetic wave), in free space, has a characteristic impedance ofa) 50 Ohms b) 75 Ohms c) 325 Ohms d) 377 Ohms

41. The depth of penetration of current in waveguide wall is proportional to(a)f (b)√f (c) 1/√f

42. A slot transverse to magnetic field produces(a)Magnetic coupling (b) Electric coupling (c) Both electric and magnetic coupling

43. A slot which interferes with the flow of current produces(a)Magnetic coupling (b) Electric coupling (c) Both electric and magnetic coupling

44. In rectangular waveguide mode suppression is most effective when(a) a/b=0.5 (b)a/b=1 (c) a/b=2

45. Modes which are beyond cut-off are called(a)Evanescent mode (b) TE mode (c) TM mode

46. If the guide is made square, the TE 01 mode will have same frequency as(a) TM 10 (b) TE10 (c) TE11

47. For impedance matching, when the load resistance is less than the guide impedance matching resistance is placed(a) at the centre (b)off center (c) at the load

48. A rectangular window in a rectangular waveguide acts as(a) Parallel resonant shunt (b) Series resonant shunt (c) None of the above

49. Waveguides are principally used for transmission of wavelength about(a) above 10 cm (b) below 10 cm (c) above 100 cm

50. Wave impedance is a ratio of(a) transverse component of electric field to magnetic field(b) transverse component of magnetic field to electric field(c) axial component of electric field to magnetic field

1 a 11 a 21 c 31 c 41 c 2 b 12 b 22 d 32 c 42 b3 a 13 a 23 d 33 a 43 a4 a 14 c 24 b 34 d 44 c5 a 15 b 25 c 35 b 45 a6 a 16 a 26 a 36 d 46 b7 a 17 b 27 b 37 b 47 b8 a 18 b 28 b 38 b 48 a9 a 19 a 29 a 39 b 49 b10 a 20 b 30 c 40 d 50 a

EC 301 - DIGITAL COMMUNICATION

The main objective of this subject is to give depth knowledge about fundamentals of Digital Communication Techniques. The key features of each unit are as follows:

Unit – 1 explains Sampling process and various Pulse Modulation systems Unit – 2 explains the next process in converting Analog signal to Digital signal called

Quantization and gives a wide knowledge about Pulse Code Modulation techniques. Unit – 3 deals with various Digital modulation techniques ( DPCM , DM & ADM) Unit - 4 deals with Base band Transmission systems and explains how to design a

Optimum Transmitting and receiving filter for Noise immuni Unit – 5 gives us information about Hybrid Modulation techniques ( ASK, PSK, FSK,

QPSk & DPSK). It also compares the performance of various techniques by calculating its Probability of error Value.

EC 301 - DIGITAL COMMUNICATION

1 Nyquist frequency is given by:a)fm > 2fs b) fm = 2fs c) fs < 2fm d) fs >= 2fm

2 Pulse Duration Modulation is also known as:a) Pulse Amplitude Modulation b) Pulse Length Modulation(c) Pulse Width Modulation d) Pulse Position Modulation

3 The Aperture effect in flat top pulses is reduced by using:a)Predictor b) Integrator c) Equalizer d) Compander

4 The narrow samples produced at the pulse demodulator output are distributed to appropriate lowpass reconstruction filter by means of:a) Commutator b) Multiplexerc) Decommutator d)None of the above

5 Which of the following method is employed in telephony:a) Time Division Multiplexing b) Frequency Division Multiplexingc) Both (a) and (b) d) Only (a)

6 The errors in the decision device at receiver output is due to:a) ISI (b)Channel Noise c) Aliasing d)Aperture Effect

7 Companding is used:a ) to overcome quantizing noise in PCMb) in PCM transmitters, to allow amplitude limiting in the receiversc) to protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortiond) in PCM receivers, to overcome impulse noise

8 The biggest disadvantage of PCM is:a) its inability to handle analog signalsb) the high error rate which its quantizing noise introducesc) its incompatibility with TDM

d) the large bandwidths that are required for it

9 Indicate which of the following pulse modulation systems is analog:a) PCM b) Differential PCM c)PWM d) Delta Modulation

10 Quantizing noise occurs in:a) TDM b) FDM c) PCM d) PWM

11 The noise present in delta modulation is:a) ISI b) Granular noise c) Slope overload noise d) (b) & (c)

12 The process in which the information in a binary PCM encoded in terms of signal transitions is referred as:a) Correlative coding b) Manchester codingc)Differential Coding d) Encoding

13 In ------------ system, two sinusoidal wave of same amplitude but different frequencies used to represent binary symbols 0 and 1: a) FSK b) FM c) ASK d) MSK

14 The method in which the carrier phase takes on one of four possible values such as Π /4, 3Π/4, 5Π/4, 7Π/4:a) PSK b) BPSK c) QPSK d) QAM

15 A pair of sinusoidal waves differing only in phase by 1800 is reffered to:a) Anti symmetric signals b) Antipodal signalc ) Bipolar signal d) Polar signal

16 Digital Modulation techniques are:a) AM b) PAM c) PCM d) FM

17 The phenomenon of high frequency component taking the identity of low frequency component in the spectrum is termed as:a) Aperture effect b) Aliasing effectc) Granular noise d) Slopeover noise

18 Correlative coding is also called:a) Duobinary coding b) artial Response Signallingc) Differential Encoding d) Manchester coding

19 The difference between two adjacent discrete values is called:a) Step Size b) Quantum c) Pulse d) Sample

20 The ---------- is a one bit version of DPCM:a) PCM b) ADPCM c) DM d) AM

21 __________________ is a digital modulation technique a) FM b) AM c) PSK d) None of the above

22 Probability of error for a QPSK system is given by

a) Pe = 1/2 (erfc(Eb/No)1/2) b) Pe = 1/2 (erfc(Eb/2No)1/2)c) Pe = 1/2 (erfc(2Eb/No)1/2) d) Pe = 1/2 (erfc(Eb/4No)1/2)

23 Eye patterns are used to studya) Noise b) ISI c) Both Noise and ISI d) None of the above

24 Pre-emphasis circuit is useda) After modulation b) before modulationc) before detection d) after detection

25 A PAM signal can be detected by usinga) ADC b) integratorc) BPF d) HPF

26 Correlator is a combination of a) An integrator and a multiplier b) A differentiator and an integratorc) A differentiator and a multiplier d) None of the above

27 Signal space diagram of a BFSK system isa) One dimensional b) Three dimensionalc) Four dimensional d) Two dimensional

28 If S is the step size mean square quantization then quantization error is given bya) S/12 b) S/24c) S2/24 d) S2/12

29 The _______________ technique uses the least transmission bandwidtha) PCM b) DMc) DPCM d) All the above

30 The bitrate of one T1 line in T1 carrier system isa ) 1.333 Kbps b) 1.544 Mbps c) 1.333bps d) 64 Kbps

31 Channel capacity is related to SNR in bits/sec asa) B Log10[1+SNR] b) B Log2[SNR] c) B Log2[1+SNR] d) B Log10[SNR]

32 The PPM wave is generated from PDM by passing througha) Astable multivibrator b)Slicerc)Monostable multivibrator d)None of these

33 Adaptive waveform coding is based on a) Estimation b) Prediction c) Both a&b d) None

34 To restore the signal samples to their correct level the device used in receiver with a complementary characteristics to compressor isa) Compandor b)Quantizer c)Expander d)None

35 PPM Signal related to

a) differentiation of PWM b) Integration of PWM c) Summation of PAM and PWM d) Integration of PAM

36 Reduction of step sizea)increases quantization error b)decreases quantization errorc)doesn’t make any change in quantization error d)increases channel noise

37 The slope overload error in DM can be reduced by increasing a) step size b) sampling frequency c)both a and b

38 Main advantages of DPCM isa) reduces bandwidth b)less complexity c) Noise is less d) cost is less

39 Baud rate of a quaternary PCM system isa )1 bit/sysmbol b)2 bits/sysmbol c) 4 bits/sysmbol d) 8 bits/symbol

40 Overlapping of Spectra of BPSK signal leads toa) inter channel interference b) aliasing c) intersymbol interference d) None of the above

41 ISI can be reduced by usinga) Sinc filter b) Raised cosine filter c) cosine filter d) LPF

42 Duobinary encoding can be called asa) Cross correlative coding b)Correlative coding b) Partial differential coding d) None of the above

43 ---------- is a losssy compression technique a) Text b) Image c) Video d) both b & c

44 Prob of error of BPSK signal isa) 0.5 erfc(E/N)^.5 b)0.5erfc(e/2n)^.5 b) c)0.5erfc(E/4N)^.5 d) None of the above

45 Reduction of repeater distance in Digital communication keeps error arbitrarilya) low b) high c)no change d)medium

46 To sample a single tone signal of frequency f, the freq required isa) 2f b)f/2 c)f d)f/4

47 Cross talk can be suppressed by having samples ofa) infinite duration b)finite duration c) not be suppressed by changing samples d) None of the above

48 The signaling of transition in a binary wave for symbol 0 & no transition for 1 is called a) split phase b) NRZc) Differential Encoding d) RZ

49 Compression laws are

a) law & A law b) law & a law c) β law & a law d) A law & B law

50 --------- is a sample domain transfer techniquea) Interpolation b) Decimationc) both a & b d) DCT

ANSWERS

1 d 11 d 21 c 31 a 41 b2 c 12 b 22 d 32 c 42 b3 c 13 a 23 b 33 c 43 d4 c 14 c 24 b 34 c 44 a

5 c 15 b 25 b 35 a 45 b

6 a&b 16 c 26 a 36 b 46 b

7 a 17 b 27 c 37 a 47 b

8 d 18 a&b 28 d 38 a 48 c

9 c 19 a 29 b 39 c 49 a

10 c 20 c 30 b 40 a 50 c

EC303 – Digital Signal Processing

The objective of this course is to introduce students to the field of DSP and is

application

The fundamental principles basics and applications of signals and systems are dealt

in unit I . Convolution, a method of time-domain analysis, which also serves to link the time

domain and the frequency domain, DFT and FFT which reinforce the central concept that

sampling in one domain leads to a periodic extension in the other are also taught.

Applications of digital signal processing to the design of digital filters,

implementation using various structures, multirate signal processing and adaptive signal

processing are also taught in unit II and III. Power spectrum estimation using various

methods are also dealt in unit IV.

Last unit deals with the architecture, addressing modes, instruction sets, pipelining

and application programs in TMS320C5X processor.

EC303 – Digital Signal Processing

1. A Signal with nonzero power and infinite energy is said to bea) Energy Signal b) Deterministic Signalc) Power Signal d) Neither Energy nor Power Signal

2. The Z transform of u(t) is

a) Z/Z-1 b) Zc) Z+1 d) Z/Z+1

3. An N-point FFT Computation requires ________ number of complex multiplication in DIT algorithma) N Log2 M b) M/2 log2 Nc) M/2 Log2 N d) N/2 Log2 N

4. ROC of X(Z) is all the Z-plane, except for Z=0 and / or Z= , the signal X(n) isa) Two-sided b) Right Sidedc) Finite Length d) Left –Sided

5. y(n) +2y2(n) = 2x(n)-x(n-1). This is a) Linear b) Non-Linearc) Non-Causal d) All of the above

6. Laplace Transform of e-αt u(t) isa) 1/S + α b) 1/Sc) 1 d)1/S2

7. The Unit impulse signal δ(n) = 1 whena) n>0 b) n=0c) n<0 d) n=1

8. The causality condition for LTI system is h(n)=0

a) n>0 b) n<0c) n=0 d) n=1

9. The system y(n)=x(n-2) + 2x2(n) x(n+1) isa) static b) non causalc) causal d) All of the above

10. Condition for BIBO stability isa) Σ | h(k) | < b) Σ | h(k) | > c) Σ | h(k) | >= d) None of the above

11. ________ Filters are always stablea) FIR b) IIRc) Butterworth filter d) None of the above

12. Minimum phase system hasa) All poles & zeros in the Left Half plane b) Some zeros in Right half planec) All Zeros in right half plane d) All poles are in Right half plane

13. Magnitude characteristics of Butterworth analog filter isa) Rippled pass band, Monotonic stop bandsb) Monotonic pass band, rippled stop bandc) Rippled in both bands d) Monotonic in both bands

14. Conditions for linear phase characteristics of filtera) h(n) =h(N-1-n) b) h(n) =h(2N) c) h(n) =h(2N-1) d) h(n) =h((N-1)/2)

15. Frequency transformation of normalized Low Pass Filter isa) S -> Ωc b) S -> S/Ωcc) S -> Ωc /S d) S -> -S/Ωc

16. Warping effect occurs ina) matched Z-transform b) Bilinear transformc) Impulse invariant method d) All of the above

17. The total number of zeros must be less than or equal to the total number of poles – ensuresa) Conjugate Symmetry b) Causalityc) Stability d) Minimum Phase

18. Poles of the FIR filter lies on thea) unit circle of the Z-Plane b) on the origin of the Z-Planec) outside the unit circle of the Z-Plane d) Entire Z-plane

19. Gibbs Phenomenon results in a)Smoothening of spectrum b)Oscillations in spectrumc)Band limiting the spectrum c)None of the above

20. Zero input limit cycle oscillation error is observed when a digital IIR filter implemented witha) infinite precision arithmetic b) finite length arithmeticc) both of the above d) none of the above

21. The purpose of the anti-aliasing filter is toa) Sample the Signal b) Average the Signalc) Extract only the Central Image d) Band-limit the signal

22. Up sampling by I causesa) Replicates Spectrum b) Increase in gainc) I-fold Compression d) none of the above

23. Decimation by M causesa) sampling rate increases by a factor M b)sampling rate decreases by a factor Mc) No change in gain d) Increase in gain

24. Increasing the sampling rate by a factor I is calleda) Decimation b) Sampling rate convert ion of I/Dc) Interpolation d) Autocorrelation

25. For an analog signal band limited to fmax HZ, the sampling rate S exceeda) fmax b) fmax / 2c) fmax/4 d) 2fmax

26. Aliasing occurs if the analog signal is sampleda) Below the Nyquist rate b) Above the Nyquist ratec) Equal to the Nyquist rate d) None of the above

27. The _________ structure is a canonical structurea) Direct Form I b) Direct Form IIc) Cascade d) Parallel

28. A practical solution to the aliasing problem is to use a) Synthesis filter bank b)Analysis filter bankc) Quadrature mirror filters d) Fir filter

29. The sampling rate conversion by a rational factor I/D can be achieved bya) Cascading Interpolators b)Cascading Decimatorsc)Cascading Interpolators and Decimators d)None of the above

30. An analysis Filter banka) Splits the signal into number of sub bands b) Sum the sub band signalsc) Multiplies the sub band signalsd) None of the above

31. For spectral smoothing a window shoulda) Minimize both main lobe and side lobe energyb) Maximize main lobe energy and minimize slide lobe energy

c) Maximize both main lobe and side lobe energyd) Minimize main lobe energy and maximize side lobe energy

32. Periodgram is a) Estimation of power density spectrum b) Estimation of autocorrelation c) Estimation cross correlation d) None of the above

33. The spectral density is the Fourier transform of a) Cross correlation function b) correlation function c) Auto correlation function d) None of the above

34. Periodogram estimation is a) Parametric method b)Non Parametric method c)Conventional method d)None of the above

35 The addressing mode that is convenient for FFT Computation isa) Indirect addressing b) Circular addressing modec) Bit reversed addressing d) Memory Mapped

36 The register which holds the address of the current data memory page isa) DP b) ARPc) ARB d) None of the above

37 The data memory used with C5X processors is split into ____________ pages each __________ words long

a) 512,128 b) 256, 256c) 128, 512 d) 1024, 64

38 When an operand for an instruction is accessed using the indirect addressing mode and the content of the AR used for accessing the data is to be left unaltered after the instruction is executed, the addressing mode is specified by the symbol_____

a) # b) *c) * - d) * +

39 The number of clock cycles required for flushing out the pipeline in case of execution of branch instruction B begin is _____________

a) 0 b) 1c) 2 d) 3

40 The register which is used for storing the contents of ARP temporarily is ________a) ARB b) DPc) TREG1 d) TREG2

41 In which phase of the instruction pipeline, AR is modified when the instruction LACC + is executed.

a) Fetch b) Decode c) Read d) Execute

42 Assume that the contents of ACC, ARP, AR3 and locations 0045H, 40C5H are 1000H, 3, 40C5H and 2400, 2300 H respectively, initially. When the Instruction LAMM is executed, the content of ACC is

a) 2400 H b) 2300 H c) 40C5H d) 0003H

43 The number of instruction cycles required for executing a program in a microprocessor with no pipelining is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

44 The result of operations performed in central ALU are stored in a) ACC b) ACCB c) TREG0 d) PREG

45 The ALU register whose either higher order word or lower order word can be loaded from memory is

a) ACC b) ACCB c) TREG0 d) PREG

46 The bit of status register that determines whether the processor halts the internal operation while acknowledging a hold or not is

a) PM b) CNF c) HM d) XF

47 The 16-bit register used for incrementing/decrementing the ARn in steps larger than 1 isa) ARCR b) ARP c) ARB d) INDX

48 The mnemonic for the instruction which multiplies two 16-bit numbers represented in 2’s complement form is

a) MPYA b) MPY c) MPYU d) MPYS

49 The mnemonic for the instruction which loads zero into PREG isa) SQRA b) SQRS c) ZPR d) ZAP

50 The mnemonic for the instruction which forces the program being executed to wait until an unmasked interrupt or reset occurs is

a) NOP b) RPT c) IDLE d) RPTZ

Answers1 c 11 a 21 d 31 b 41 b2 a 12 a 22 a 32 a 42 a3 d 13 d 23 b 33 c 43 d4 a 14 a 24 c 34 b 44 a5 b 15 b 25 d 35 c 45 a6 a 16 b 26 a 36 a 46 c7 b 17 b 27 b 37 a 47 d8 b 18 b 28 c 38 b 48 b9 b 19 b 29 c 39 c 49 c10 a 20 b 30 a 40 a 50 c

EC 305 ELECTRONIC MEASUREMENTS AND INSTRUMENTATION

There have been remarkable advancements in the design and application of

electronic instruments during the last few years. Modern instruments provide digital

readouts, digital data for computers and data for many other mathematical operations.

However, the old type instruments are still being used at many places. There is a need to

understand the operation and application of these instruments to enable engineers to adapt

easily to new measurement concepts.

The purpose of this course is to introduce various types of measurements made in

electronics and the instruments used for measuring them. The main objective is to identify

the different latest measurement techniques available for specific engineering

applications.This course briefly discusses the measurement and errors, Electromechanical

and digital indicating instruments, Signal generation and analysis, Oscilloscopes and

Recorders, Computer controlled test systems.

Basic measurement techniques such as accuracy, precision, standards, and so on are

discussed briefly in this course. The error in measurements and their rectification are also

dealt.The classification of ammeters and voltmeters and their wide application are explained

elaborately. The basic digital indicating instruments are also discussed. Good design of

electronic circuits and systems begins with grounding and shielding. Generally, the

engineers do not pay much attention to the grounding and shielding techniques, resulting in

increase in the failure rate and electric shock hazards. Sometimes it becomes difficult to

diagnose a fault due to improper grounding and shielding. The need of grounding and

shielding are also explained.

The signal generation and analysis deals with various generators such as sine wave,

sweep frequency, pulse and square wave generators. The signal analyses section explains

wave, distortion, harmonic distortion analyzers and also the importance of the modern

analyzers such as spectrum analyzer and logic analyzer are explained in briefly.

The oscilloscopes and recorders deals with various types of oscilloscopes and their

wide application in measurements. The recorders such as magnetic, X-Y, analog and digital

recorder are also dealt in this course. The computer controlled test systems deals with

modern computerized measurement instruments.

EC305 - Electronic Measurement and Instrumentation

1) The errors that occurs mainly due to human errors are called as

a) Gross errors b) instrumental errors c) environmental errors d) random errors

2) _________________ errors are inherent in measuring instruments because of their mechanical structure.a) Gross errors b) random errors c) environmental errors d) instrumental errors

3) The errors that occur due to conditions external to the measuring device, including conditions in the area surrounding the instrument are called asa) Gross errors b) environmental errors c) limiting errors d) random errors

4) Static and Dynamic errors are classification of the which error?a) Gross errors b) instrumental errors c) environmental errors d) systematic errors

5) The errors are due to unknown causes and occur even when all systematic errors have been accounted are called asa) Gross errors b) instrumental errorsc) random errors d) environmental errors

6) The Torque developed in a PMMC movement is a) directly proportional to the flux density in the air gap and inversely proportional to number of turns in the coilb) directly proportional to the flux density in the air gap and inversely proportional to

the effective coil areac) directly proportional to the flux density in the air gap and also directly proportional to the effective coil aread) directly proportional to the flux density in the air gap and inversely proportional to the current in the coil

7) To decrease the response time, a PMMC movement system is designed to bea) slightly overdamped b) slightly critically damped c) slightly underdamped d) highly underdamped

8) Accuracy of a reading of an instrument refers toa) How close the reading is to the previous readingb) How many readings were taken at that pointc) The repeatability of the readingd) How close the reading is to actual value

9) In d’Arsonval galvanometer can have the instrument error due to:a) Humidity b) Frictionc) High temperature d) Vibrations in the taut suspension

10) The scale of resistance in an Ohmmeter is nonlinear because thea) relationship between voltage and current is nonlinearb) relationship between voltage and resistance is nonlinear

c) relationship between resistance and current is nonlineard) PMMC movement gives nonlinear readings

11) Which mechanism is used for providing the Galvanometer Damping?a) Mechanical b) electrical c) electromechanical d) both a and c

12) Temperature compensation in PMMC mechanism is obtained bya) Swamping resistors b) swamping capacitorsc) inductors d) insulators

13) The swamping resistors are made up of a) copper and zinc b) manganin and zinc c) manganin and copper d) none

14) The addition of a series resistor to d’Arsonvals mechanism will give usa) DC Voltmeter b) DC Ammeter c) DC Ohmmeter d) none

15) The sensitivity of DC voltmeter is expressed in terms ofa) Volt per ohms b) ohms per volts c) ohms per ampere d) none

16) One of the factors of using a R-2R ladder D/A converters is thata) It requires multiple resistors of a single valueb) Its accuracy is poorer than that of a weighted resistor D/A converterc) It needs higher value of resistorsd) This approach gives larger size of resistors

17) A 4-bit flash A/D converter needsa) 4 analog comparators b)8 analog comparatorsc) 7 analog comparators d) 15 analog comparators

18) The dynamic range of the 8-bit D/A converter is approximatelya) 24 dB b) 16 dB c) 32 dB d) 48 dB

19) One of the factors in favour of using a dual slope A/D converter is that thea) Output generated is independent of the component values of the integratorb) Output generated is dependent of the component values of the integratorc) Output generated is directly proportional to the reference voltaged) Conversion time is inversely proportional to the number of bits of the counter

20) In an ammeter, the shunt resistor is used toa) decrease the voltage range b) increase the voltage rangec) decrease the current range d) increase the current range

21) The fundamental difference between the pulse and square wave generator concerns a) Pulse width b) pulse period c) average period d) Duty cycle

22) rising time in pulse wave is the time rise froma)10% - 90% b) 50% - 100% c) 90% - 10% d) none

23) A function generator is a versatile instrument that delivers ________ waveforms.a)sine b) square c) triangular d) all the three.

24) The triangular waveform is obtained from function generator ata)Integrator end b) M/V comparator endc) Resistance and diode end d) none

25) For higher frequency measurements the analyzer used isa) Frequency selective wave analyzer b) Heterodyne wave analyzer c) Both a & b d) none

26) The operating frequency range of Heterodyne wave analyzer isa)5K – 10 MHz b) 10K – 10 MHz c) 10K – 18 MHz d) 5K – 18 MHz

27) Maxwell’s bridge is used to measure a) Inductance b) capacitance c) reactance d) impedance

28) Which bridge circuit is used for high Q values?a)Maxwell’s bridge b) Hay’s bridge c)Wein’s bridge d) Anderson’s bridge

29) simple sine wave generator consists of two basic blocksa) oscillator and amplifier b) Amplifier and attenuator c) Attenuator and Oscillator d) None of these

30) Duty cycle for square wave generator is a)25% b) 75% c) 50% d) 100%

31) Triggering in a CROa) generates the sweep signalb) provides input to the vertical platesc) provides stability in a repeated waveformd) chops the input signal

32) Basic function of a trigger in a CRO is toa) increase the bandwidth b) stabilize repeating waveformsc) adjust the amplitude d) adjust the phase

33) The colour of the beam in a CRO is the characteristics of thea) signal being viewed

b) primary electrons being emitted from the cathodec) coating material of the screend) accelerarion voltage

34) The time base of a CRO is developed by a a) sine waveform b) square waveformc) rectangular waveform d) sawtooth waveform

35) The input impedance of a general purpose CRO musta) be high b) be lowc) appear capacitive d) appear inductive

36) The X-Y recorder recordsa) the parameters on digital displayb) one parameter with reference to the other parameterc) one parameter on the x-axis and the other parameter as time on the y-axis.d) one parameter on the y-axis and the other parameter as time on the x-axis.

37) A modern paperless recorder can bea) a circular chart display b) an alarm displayc) a graphics display d) all of the above

38) The methods used for magnetic tape recording area) direct recording b) frequency modulating recording c) pulse duration modulation recording d) all the three

39) The time period for which the trace remains on the screen after the signal becomes zero is known asa) consistence b) persistence c) efficiency d) none

40) The deflection on the screen will be more if thea) deflection voltage is decreasedb) accelerating voltage is increasedc) distance between the deflection plates is increasedd) distance from the center of the deflection plates to screen is increased

41) SINAD is used to measure____________________.a) receiver sensitivity b) receiver selectivity c) both a & b d) none

42) The IEEE 488 was evolved at first bya) MICROSOFT b) IBM c) HP d) none

43) IEEE 488 standard is __________________.a) long distance system b) short distance system c) medium distance system d) none

44) Number of management lines in IEEE 488 isa) 4 b) 3

c) 5 d) 8

45) Handshake lines in IEEE 488 are a) NRFD, NDAC & ATN b) NRFD, IFC & DAV c) NRFD, NDAC & DAV d) ATN, IFC & SRQ.

46) EOI line is used bya) talker b) listener c) controller d) none

47) IFC line is used bya) talker b) listener c) controller d) both a & b

48) SRQ line is used bya) talker b) listener c) controller d) any device

49) How many test equipment should be connect via IEEE 488a) <15 b) >15 c) 15 d) 16

50) Electronic weighing system has advantage ofa) accuracy b) less error c) efficient d) a & b & c

Answer

1 A 11 C 21 D 31 C 41 A

2 D 12 A 22 A 32 D 42 C

3 B 13 A 23 D 33 C 43 B

4 D 14 C 24 A 34 A 44 C

5 C 15 B 25 B 35 A 45 C

6 C 16 A 26 C 36 B 46 A

7 C 17 D 27 A 37 D 47 B

8 D 18 D 28 B 38 D 48 D

9 B 19 A 29 C 39 B 49 A

10 C 20 D 30 C 40 D 50 D

EC 307 Microprocessor and interfacing

The purpose of this course is to introduce students to the microprocessor types and

the programming of them. The aware of various interfacing circuits necessary for various

applications. This subject is to identify the different latest microprocessor application

techniques available for specific engineering applications.

To understand the various microprocessor types available, the basic working of

microprocessor types and their programming, various interfacing concepts and the various

practical applications of microprocessor.The architecture of 8085 8086, general interfacing

and interrupts, interfacing device and various application of microprocessor.

EC307 Microprocessor and Interfacing

1. In an 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I/O(a) I/O devices have 16-bit addresses(b) I/O devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions(c) There can be maximum of 256 input devices and 256 output devices(d) Arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I/O data.

2. In a microprocessor, the register which holds the address of the next instruction to be fetched is(a) Accumulator (b) Program Counter(c) Stack Pointer (d) Instruction register

3. In a microprocessor, wait states are used to(a) make the processor wait during a DMA operation(b) make the processor wait during an interrupt processing(c) make the processor wait during a power shutdown(d) interface slow peripherals to the processor

4. A DMA transfer implies(a) Direct transfer of data between memory and accumulator(b) Direct transfer of data between memory and I/O devices without the use of microprocessor(c) Transfer of data exclusively within microprocessor registers(d) A fast transfer of data between microprocessor and I/O devices

5. An Assembler for a microprocessor is used for(a) assembly of processors in a production line(b) creation of new programmes using different modules(c) translation of a program from assembly language to machine language(d) Translation of a higher level language into English text

6. The total number of memory accesses involved (inclusive of the op-code fetch) when an 8085 processor executes the instruction LDA 2003 is(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

7. In an 8085 microprocessor system, the RST instruction will cause an interrupt(a) Only if an interrupt service routine is not being executed(b) Only if a bit in the interrupt mask is made O(c) Only if interrupts have been enabled by an EI instruction(d) None of the above

8. An instruction used to set the carry flag in a computer can be classified as(a) program control b)Data transfer (c) arithmetic (d) logical

9. An I/O processor control the flow of information between(a) Cache memory and I/O devices (b) main memory and I/O devices(c)two I/O devices (c) cache and main memories

10. If CS=A15A14A13 is used as the chip select logic of a 4K RAM in an 8085 system, then its memory range will be(a) 3000 H – 3FFF H (b) 7000 H – 7FFF H(c) 5000 H-5FFF H and 6000 H – 6FFF H (d) 6000 H-6FFF H and 7000 H – 7FFF

H

11. In the 8085 microprocessor, the RST6 instruction transfers the program execution to the following location:(a)30 H (b)24 H (c)48 H (d)60 H

12. The contents of register (B) and Accumulator (A) of 8085 microprocessor are 49H and 3AH respectively. The contents of A and the status of carry flag (CY) and sign flag(S) after executing SUB B instruction are(a) A=F1, CY=1, S=1 (b) A=0F, CY=1, S=1(c) A=F0, CY=0, S=0 (d)A=1F, CY=1, S=1

13. While moving data between registers of the 8085 and the Stack (a) Pre increments the stack pointer (b) Post increments the stack pointer(c) Pre decrements the stack pointer (d) Post decrements the stack pointer

14. With 2’s complement representation, the range of values that can be represented on the data bus of an 8-bit microprocessor is given by(a)-128 to +127 (b)-128 to +128 (c)-127 to +128 (d)-256 to +256

15. 8086 Memory segmented as(a) 4 segments (b) 6 segments (c) 3 segments (d) 5 segments

16. 8086 size of flag register and number of active flags(a)8 bit, 4 flags (b) 16 bit, 8 flags (c)16 bit, 9 flags (d)8 bit, 7 flags

17. Size of 8086 memory is(a)1 KB (b)1 MB (c) 1 GB (c) None

18. In 8086 how many dedicated interrups are available

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

19. The following sequence of instructions are executed by an 8085 microprocessor1000 I SP, 27FF1003 CALL 10061006 POP HThe contents of the stack pointer (SP) and the HL, register pair on completion of execution of these instructions are(a) SP=27FF, HL=1003 (b) SP=27FD, HL=1003(c) SP=27FF, HL=1006 (d) SP=27FD, HL=1006

20. How many T – States required for CALL instruction(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 12 (d) 14

21. 8086 Architecture having(a) EU & BIU (b) EU (c)EU& IU (d) BIU

22. The format of seven segment display is(a) b c d a dp g f e (b) a b c d dp f g e (c) b a c d dp e f g (d) d b c a dp g e

f

23. The function of a microprocessor is toa) read binary instruction from memory b) accept binary data as inputc) process them and prove result d) all the above

24. Byte is a group of:a) 2 bits b) 4 bits c)8 bits d)16 bits

25. Mnemonic is a combination of ------------ to suggest the operation of an instruction:a) Alphabets b)Binary digits c)Letters and binary digits d)None

26. The data bus is bidirectional because:a) the wires or can conduct either directionb) b) data has to be read from the memory and later to be stored or written into the

memoryc) both (a) & (b)d) none of these

27. The address bus is unidirectional because:a) it has to access the memory or peripheralsb) it has gates that would prevents bi-directional operationc) both (a) & (b)d) none of these

28. A microprocessor based system consists of:a) Microprocessor and memoryb) Microprocessor and input-output devicesc) Microprocessor, input/output devices and interfacing devices.

d) All of the above

29. -------------- is a 16-bit register in 8085a) Stack pointer b)Program counter c) Both (a) & (b) d)None of these

30. The Interfacing devices are circuits that includes:a) Buffer and latches b)Encoder and decoder c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these

31. Microprocessors are classified as 8-bits or 16-bits depending on the basic data size handled by -------------- of the processor a) program counter b) Stack pointer c) ALU d) None of these

32. ALE is a signal used to ----------- the address and data lines using an ------------ latch:a) demultiplex, external b) multiplex, external c) demultiplex, internal d) None

33. The function of Io/m in 8085 is:a) to differentiate memory access and I/O access b) to access the memoryc) to access the I/O d) none of these

34. HOLD and HLDA signals are used for ------------ type of data transfer:a) Memory-Mapped I/O b) Peripheral I/O c) DMA d) All

35. The clock frequency (external) of 8085 is:a) 7 MHz b) 6 MHz c) 4 MHz d) 5 MHz

36. ------------- interrupt has the lowest priority:a) RST 7.5 b) INTR c) TRAP d) RST 5.5

37. 8086 uses ---------------- bit address to access memory and ----------- bit address to access I/O devices:a) 16,16 b) 20,16 c) 20,20 d) 20,8

38. A data structure that can be accessed on the basis of FIFO is:a) FIFO structure b) Queue c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these

39. The purpose of the timing diagram is to provide information regarding the:a) status of various when a machine cycle is executed b) status of various I/O devicesc) status of program counter d) status of stack pointer

40. ------------- is the part of an instruction that identifies as a specific operation and ------ represents a value on which instruction acts:a) operand, opcode b) opcode, operandc) machine cycle, instruction cycle d) fetch cycle, execute cycle.

41. In 8085 interrupt except Trap are disabled(check incorrect statement) by

a) DI Instruction b) a system resetc) acknowledgement of the previous interrupt d) None of the above

42. Direct memory access (DMA) facilitate data to move into and out of the systema) On first come first save b) with equal time delayc) with out subroutine d) without program intervention

43. What is the state of the signal at X

a) Don’t know b) floating c) changing their state d) all low

44. A 32 bit processor has the word length equal to a)2 bytes b)1 bytes c) 4 bytes d) 8 bytes

45. PSW Stand for a) Accumulator b) flag c) accumulator and flag d) none

46. Which of the following signal is used when microprocessor wants address the memory a) IO/M b) HOLD and HLDA c) Status signal d) ALE

47. In a 8 bit processor having 8K bytes of RAM memory the length of Stack pointera) 5 b) 8 c) 11 d) 13

48. A USART Chip provides a) Half duplex b) full duplex operationc) duplex operationd) full duplex but can’t work asynchronous mode

49. A single instruction to clear the lower four bits of accumulator in 8085 assembly language isa) XRI OF H b) ANI FO H c) XRI FO H d) ANI OF H

50. When a CPU is interrupted it a) Stops execution of instructionb) acknowledge interrupt and branch to a subroutine c) acknowledge interrupt and continuesd) acknowledge interrupt and wait for the next instruction from the interrupt device

Answer

1 a 11 a 21 a 31 c 41 d

2 b 12 a 22 a 32 c 42 d

3 d 13 d 23 d 33 a 43 b

4 d 14 c 24 c 34 c 44 c

5 c 15 d 25 c 35 b 45 c

6 d 16 c 26 c 36 b 46 d

7 c 17 c 27 c 37 b 47 d

8 a 18 b 28 d 38 c 48 b

9 c 19 c 29 c 39 a 49 b

10 d 20 a 30 c 40 b 50 b

E

ET 300-COMMUNICATION SWITCHING TECHNIQUES

The largest interconnected systems in the world are telecommunications networks

for public and private use. The principles underlying the design of the transmission and

terminal components in this worldwide network are well established and coherent; however

those involving the design of the switching center component are not. Based on the author's

many years of experience in the design of telecommunications switching systems, this book

explains the basic principles of switching system design and provides a unified approach to

modern computer control and digital systems as well as the much more numerous

electromechanical systems that comprise most of the switching equipment in public use

today.

Telecommunications Switching Principles is a basic reference and text in the use and

design of telecommunications switching systems. Anyone who knows basic electronics and

has some idea of the internal structure of simple computer systems will be able to use the

book. It provides a fundamental background on the subject and an understanding of modern

developments, especially in digital systems and computer control for practicing engineers,

persons involved in providing of manufacturing switching equipment, and communication

systems managers. It is based on courses given at the postgraduate level and could form the

basis of a final year course in telecommunication engineering, teleprocessing, or real-time

computer systems for graduate and undergraduate students in electrical engineering.

ET 300-COMMUNICATION SWITCHING TECHNIQUES

1. A network with point to point entities are known as a. non connected network b) fully connected networkc. partially connected network

2. The links that run between the switching system is called a. Trunks b. subscriber lines c. wires

3. The links that run to subscriber premises is called a. Trunks b. subscriber lines c. wires

4. All the switching exchanges are designed to meet an estimated maximum average simultaneous traffic known asa. rush hour traffic b. free hour traffic c. busy hour traffic

5. The hardware used for establishing a connection in telephone system is calleda. switching network b. symmetric network c. non symmetric

network

6. A type of switching where electrical path is established between the source & destination before any data transfer is calleda. packet switching b. circuit switching c. store & forward

switching

7. A type of switching where messages are split into packets is called a. packet switching b. circuit switching c. message switching

8. The other name for step by step switching system is called a. indirect control system b. direct control system c. control system

9. Line finders are built usinga. Uni-selectors b. Bi selectors c. Switch

10. Horizontal stepping is completed within the inter digit gap of abouta. 500ms b. 240ms c. 254ms

11. A star connection utilizes an intermediate exchange called

a. tandem exchange b. local exchange c. main exchange

12. A traffic route via the highest level of hierarchy is known asa. initial route b. final route c. tertiary route

13. Exchanges are interconnected by group of lines calleda. subscriber lines b. wires c. trunk groups

14. The area containing the complete network of main exchange & satellite is called a. multi exchange area b. main exchange area c. local exchange area

15. The other name for open numbering plan is a. uniform numbering plan b. non uniform numbering planc. semi open numbering plan

16. The other name for closed numbering plan is a. uniform numbering plan b. non uniform numbering planc. semi open numbering plan

17. A -------------- permits number of lengths to differ by almost one or two digitsa. uniform numbering plan b. non uniform numbering plansemi open numbering plan

18. A ------------ identifies a particular exchange within a numbering areaa. trunk code b. exchange code c. subscriber number

19. The scheme of sending more than one pulse for a call is called asa. multi metering b. charging c. tariff system

20. The system where the charges are fixed for an estimated average number of local calls is called as

a. flat rate tariff system b. charging tariff c. metering

21. Common channel signaling usesa. same channel which carries voice or data to pass control signal related to that call or

connectionb. uses separate common channel for passing control signalc. channel carries only data signal

22. Inband signaling uses the frequency band ofa. 300-3400 HZ b. upper limit of 400 HZ c. lower than 300 HZ

23. All signaling data links in SS7 area. point-to-point b. half duplex c. full duplex

24. The Routing tone (or) Call in-progress tone isa. 400HZ or 800HZ b. 25HZ or 50HZ c. 100 HZ or 200HZ

25. Arbiters are used toa. perimit two users to access the same server b. avoid two users to access the same server c. point to point communication

26. Third wire control is used toa. Transmit speech signalb. Receive Speech Signalc. Indicate whether a terminal or resource is available

27. Junctor provides a. folded connection b. serial connection c. parallel connection

28. Read Relay TXE2 Systems size isa. 100 – 200 lines b. 200 -400 lines c. 400 – 500 lines

29. Third wire control carriersa. 10V b. 20V c. 50V

30. Bit rate in SS6a. 2.4 Kbs & 4.8kbs b. 8kbs & 16kbs c. 64kbs & 256kbs

31. The ------------ signal is also known as SEIZE signal.a. Calling signal b. Alert signal c. Answer signal

32. The clear signal is provided whena. the each customer replaces the handset b. the each customer took the handsetc. anyone customer replace the handset

33. If the called customer replaced the handset but the caller does not, then the called line is still held and the customer is unable to originate or receive further calls. This condition is known as-------------a. Permanent glow condition b.Packed condition

c. Called subscriber held condition

34. The availability of a single processor system isa. A = 2MTBF/(MTBF+MTTR) b. A = MTBF/2(MTBF+MTTR)c. A = MTBF/(MTBF+MTTR)

35. The unavailability of the system is given bya. U = A+1 b. U = 1-A c. U = 1+A

36. Given that MTBF = 2000 hrs and MTTR = 4 hrs calculate the unavailability for a single processor systema. 525 hrs in 30 years b. 625 hrs in 25 years c. 500 hrs in 20 years

37. When PAM samples are switched in a time division manner, the switching is a. digital time division switching b. Analog time division switching c. None

38. When PCM samples are switched in a time division manner, the switching isa. digital time division switching b. Analog time division switching c. None

39. The speech is carried as PAM analog samples on PCM digital samples occurring at ---------------- interval.a. 50 µs b. 125 µs c. 150 µs

40. The availability of dual processor system isa. A = MTBF/(MTBF) 2+2(MTTR)2 b. A = (MTBF) 2/(MTBF) 2+2(MTTR)2

c. A = 2(MTBF)/(MTBF) 2+2(MTTR)2

41. ISDN is an acronym fora. Information services for digital network b. Internetwork system for data networkd. Integrated services digital network

42. When you store and forward messages in B-ISDN you are using -------------a. Conversational b. messaging c. retrieval

43. Teletext is a a. narrowband service b. broadband service c. two way broadcast service

44. In B-ISDN, signaling messages will be conveyed out of band in dedicateda. virtual path b. signaling virtual channel c. virtual channels

45. Services that is for transmission and reproduction of graphics and hand written and printed materiala. videotext b. teletex c. facsimile

46. Transmission convergence is the sublayer of ----------- in B-ISDNa. ATM adaptation layer b. ATM layer c. Physical layer

47. Cross bar switching also called as

a. co-ordinate switching b. time division switchingc. electronic space division switching

48. One switching technology that will make the network to switch individual user at a high rate in future broadband networka. Mechanical switching b. Circuit switching c. optical switching

49. When PAM samples are switched in Time division they are called asa. Digital time division switching b. Analog time division switchingc. Circuit switching

50. Number 4 ESS is capable of supporting large number of voice channel with a traffic intensity of --------------- per channela. 0.7E b. 0.2E c. 0.8E

ANSWERS

1 b 11 A 21 b 31 a 41 c 2 a 12 B 22 a 32 a 42 b3 b 13 C 23 c 33 c 43 a4 c 14 A 24 a 34 c 44 b5 a 15 A 25 b 35 b 45 c6 b 16 B 26 c 36 a 46 c7 a 17 C 27 a 37 b 47 a8 c 18 B 28 b 38 a 48 c9 a 19 A 29 c 39 b 49 b

10 b 20 A 30 a 40 b 50 a

ET352 – Computer Architecture and Microcontroller

Computer Architecture refers to those attributes of a system visible to a programmer, or, put another way, those attributes that have a direct impact on the logical execution of a

program. Computer organization refers to the operational units and their interconnections that realize the architectural specifications. Examples of the architectural attributes include the instruction set, the number of bits used to represents various data types (Example numbers, characters), I/O mechanisms and techniques for addressing memory. Organizational attributes include those hardware details transparent to the programmer, such as control signals, interfaces between the computers and peripherals, and the memory technology used.

At a top level, a computer consists of CPU, memory and I/O components, with one or more modules of each type. These components are interconnected in some fashions to achieve the basic functions of the computer, which is to execute the programs. Thus, at a top level, we can describe the computer systems by (1) by describing the external behavior of each component- ie, the data and control signals that it exchanges with other components; and (2) describing the interconnection structure.

The simple instruction set of a RISC lends itself to efficient pipelining because there are fewer and more predictable operations performed per instructions. A RISC instruction set architecture also lends itself to the delayed branch techniques, in which branch instructions are rearranged with other instructions to improve pipelining efficiency. The key characteristics of a RISC machines: (1) A limited instruction set with a fixed format,(2) A large number of registers are the use of the compiler that optimizes registers usage and (3) an emphasis on optimizing the instruction pipeline.

Computer organization must be designed to implement a particular architectural specification, a thorough treatment of a organization require the detailed examination of architecture as well.

The 8051 is an 8-bit microprocessor originally designed in the 1980's by Intel that has gained great popularity since its introduction. Its standard form includes several standard on-chip peripherals, including timers, counters, and UART's, plus 4Kbytes of on-chip program memory and 128 bytes of data memory, making single-chip implementations possible. Its hundreds of derivatives, manufactured by several different companies (like Philips) include even more on-chip peripherals. Costing only a few dollars per IC, the 8051 is estimated to be used in a large percentage all embedded system products.

The 809x/839x/879x ICs are a members of the Intel MCS-96 family. In MCS-96 family 8095 was the first member. Later the 8096, 8097 and 8395were added. They are used embedded systems like hard disk drives, modems, printers, pattern recognition and motor control. Having High speed input and output enables them to be used in Digital Storage Oscilloscope.

ET352 – Computer Architecture and Microcontroller

1. The way in which the components all inter relateda) Structure b) functionc) Control d) none

2. The main memory is used to scorea) data b) addressc) instruction d) both a) & c)

3. How many internal registers all in CPU?a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) one

4. The processing required for a single instruction is calleda) instruction cycle b) fetch cyclec) execute cycle d) interrupt cycle

5. _______ holds the address of the instruction to be fetched nexta) stack pointer b) program counterc) queue d) register

6. The method of using the same lines for multiple purpose is calleda) multiprocessing b) multi accessc) multiplexing d) all the above

7. The key characteristics of computer memory systems area) location b) capacityc) access method d) all the above

8. The interrupt which has its own address is calleda) maskable b) non-maskablec) vectored d) non-vectored

9. An essential task of an I/o Module isa) error detection b) processor communicationc) data buffering d) device communication

10. The process of transferring data from main memory for output and storing data in main memory for input is calleda) DMA b) programmed I/oc) interrupt driven I/o d) none of the above

11. The processor can be classified as _____________ typesa) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

12. ________ specifies the operation to be performeda) opcode b) operand c) instruction d) function

13. In computer, each instruction is represented by a sequence of ___________a) word b) bytes c) bits d) nibble

14. The stack is also known asa) push down list b) lifo c) a or b d) fifo

15. How many addressing modes are used ?a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7

16. How many stages in pipelining?a) 3 b) 6 c) 4 d) 2

17. _______ register is used to speed up the operation in pipe linea) segment register b) index register c) Gp register d) queue register

18. One instruction per cycle architecture isa) risc b) eisc c) a or b d) none

19. The user visible register all characterized into_________ typesa) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

20. PSW stands fora) processor status word b) program status wordc) processor scheduling word d) processor structuring width

21. The sequence of instructions in a CISC processors is known asa) firm ware b) hardwired controlc) software d) program counter

22. ICC means in an instruction cyclea) instruction cycle code b) information cycle c) Interrupt cycle code d) indirect cycle code

23. The function of second time unit in a fetch cyclea) MAR(PC) b) PC(PC)+Ic) MBRMemory d) IR(MBR)

24. The length of the control address register on the IBM 3033 isa) 16 bit b) 8 bitc) 13 bit d) 20 bit

25. The purpose of ZEROIN subfield isa) to indicate conditional branch b) register control c) output select d) data transfer

26. When more than one processor are implemented on a single chip, the configuration is referred to asa) chip multiprocessing b) multithreading c) multiprogramming d) hyper threading

27. A collection of independent uniprocessors may be interconnected to forma) network b) spawnc) cluster d) none of the above

28. When one module is controlling the bus, other modules are locked out. This process is known asa) master mode b) time sharing

c) slave mode d)none of the above

29. To provide cache consistency on as SMP, the data cache often supports a protocol known asa) MIPS b) MESIc) TCP d) L1-L2

30. The rate at which a processor executes instructions is given bya) FXIPC b) TXIPCc) 21ai d) none of the above

31. No of Register bank available in 8051 isa) 5 b) 7 c) 4 d) 3

32. Register bank selection is carried out through following register bitsa)PSW b)DPH c) IE d) SBUF

33. MOV A,@R0 is a example of ___________ a) immediate addressing b) direct addressing c) indexed addressing d) register indirect addressing

34. DAA stands fora) decimal add adjust b) decimal add accumulator c) decimal adjust accumulator d) decimal adjust and add

35. Which one of the register is not a valid register of 8051a)DPTR b) IE c) SCON d) DPT

36. To access external memory which of the pin should be made active low or grounded a) ALE b) RXT c) XTAL1 d) EA

37. To put upper nibble value in lower nibble and vice versa __________ statement is useda) CLR A b) SWAP A c) XCHG A d) CPL A

38. Special function registers can be accessed by a)immediate addressing b) indexed addressing c) register addressing d)direct addressing

39. Which of the following microcontroller is having zero ROM capacitya)8052 b)8051 c) 8031 d) 8751

40. One machine cycle is equivalent to ________ oscillator periods in 8051a) 8 b) 12 c) 24 d) 6

41. The 8096 is a _________ bit microcontrollera) 8 b) 16 c) 32

42. The 8096 has _________, _________ bit timers.a) two, 16 b) two , 8 c) three, 16 d) three, 18

43. There are _____ possible modes of operation for each of the HSI.a) 2 b) 4 c) 8

44. The size of HIS FIFO is ______________a) 16 x 20 bit b) 4 x 20 bit c) 8 x 20 bit

45. HSO CAM size is _________a) 8 x 23 Bit b) 8 X 7 Bit c) 8 x 16 Bit

46. When the counter matches the value in the PWM register, the output is switched_______a) low b) high

47. Mode __________ and _________ are provided for multiprocessor communication.a) 1,2 b) 1, 3 c) 0, 3 d) 2, 3

48. There are _______ ________ bit I/O ports on 8096.a) four, 8 b) five, 8 c) three, 8 d) two, 8

49. Post 1 is ___________ porta) an input only b) a multifunctionalc) a output d) a quasi-bidirectional I/O

50. The ADC on the 8096 provides 8-input channels with a _________ bit digital output.a) 4 b) 10 c) 8 d) 12

Answer

1 a 11 b 21 a 31 c 41 b2 b 12 a 22 a 32 a 42 a3 a 13 c 23 c 33 d 43 b4 a 14 c 24 c 34 c 44 c5 b 15 d 25 a 35 d 45 a6 c 16 b 26 a 36 d 46 a7 d 17 d 27 c 37 b 47 d8 c 18 a 28 b 38 d 48 b9 c 19 b 29 b 39 c 49 d10 a 20 b 30 a 40 b 50 b

ET401 – Computer Communication and Networks

This course focuses on mode of transfer, issues in data transfer, layers and protocols

related to networks.

Unit I give a general overview of data communication and networking

Unit II focuses on OSI Lower Layers –physical layer, Data Link Layer.

Unit III is devoted to the discussion of the network layer of the Internet model.

Unit IV concentrates on OSI Higher layers. It gives an overview of transport layer, Session

layer, and presentation layer.

ET401 – Computer Communication and Networks

1. A Dedicated communication path is established between two stations in a) Circuit switching b) Packet Switching c) Message switching d) None

2. In packet switching data are sent in the form of a) Frames b) Packetsc) Blocks d.) Individual bits

3. Two stations can send data and receive data simultaneously from each other in a) Half duplex transmission b) Full duplex transmissionc) Simplex Transmission d) Serial transmission

4. Terminal to computer interaction uses a) Half duplex transmission b) Full duplex transmissionc) Simplex Transmission d) Serial transmission

5. Preamble and post amble bits are added in a) Half duplex transmission b) Full duplex transmissionc) Synchronous Transmission d) Asynchronous transmission

6. For a telephone line, the bandwidth for a voice is usually ___________ the bandwidth for dataa) Equivalent b) less than c) greater than d) not depend on

7. In asynchronous transmission the gap between bytes is a) fixed b) variable c)function of data rate d) zero

8. Synchronous transmission does not havea) Start bit b) Stop bit c) Gap between the bytes d) All the above

9. A telephone line has a bandwidth of _________________ for data transmissiona) 2400 Hz b) 3000 Hz c) 5000 Hz d) 6000 Hz

10. A modulator converts a(n) __________ signal to a(n) __________a) PSK; FSK b) FSK;PSK c) Analog to Digital d) Digital to

Analog

11. The Layer 3 of OSI reference model where routing takes place isa) Transport layer b) Network layer c) Session layer d) Physical layer

12. In TCP/IP model TCP stands fora) Time congestion protocol b) Transport control protocol c) Transmission control protocol d) None of the above

13. Which of these protocol provides reliable service transmissiona) IP b) TCP c) UDP d) a & c

14. The Connectionless protocol in the follwing options is a) TCP b) UDP c) IP d) None

15. The Application Layer protocol used for Email & File transfer isa) FTP,IP b) SMTP, FTP c) SNMP ,FTP d) TCP,IP

16. The entry through which data passes from the network to process and vive versa is calleda) Port b) Hub c) Socket d) Router

17. The IEEE standard for Ethernet isa) IEEE 802.1 b) IEEE 802.2 c) IEEE 802.3 d) IEEE 802.11

18. In computer networks reliable data transfer protocols are based on retransmission policy known asa) Positive ACK b) Negative ACKc) Automatic Repeat Request d) None of the above

19. The data transfer from a node to a group of nodes in a network is calleda) Unicast b) Anycast c) Multicast d) Broadcast

20. The switching device used in data link layer of OSI model is a) Hub b) Bridge c) Router d) Ethernet

21. -------------------- is a network layer protocola) TCP b) IP c)UDP d) both a & c

22. Routing is the function of a) network layer b)transport layer c)Physical layer d) both a & c

23. Link state algorithms ----------a) converge more quickly and require more power and memoryb) takes more time to converge and require more power and memoryc) converge more quickly and require more power and less memoryd) converge more quickly , require less power ,less memory and less prone to loops

24. Count to infinity problem occurs ina) Link state routing b) Distance vector routingc) Both a & b d) None of the above

25. Solutions for count to infinity problem area) adding path vector with Distance vector and Split horizon with poisonous reverse

b) Split horizon with poisonous reverse and Split horizonc) Split horizon with poisonous reverse, Split horizon and adding path vector with Distance vectord) None of the above

26. Congestion control techniques area)Warning Bit and Traffic shapingb) Warning Bit ,Traffic shaping and load sheddingc) Warning Bit, Traffic shaping, load shedding and choke packetsd) None of the above

27. If λ is the average packet arrival rate and T is the average service time then according to little’s formula the aerage number of customer’s rate(N) is given bya)N= λT b)N= λ/T c)N=T/ λ d)N=log(λT)

28. Repeaters operate ata)Physical layer b)Network layer c) transport layer d) both a & c

29. Routers operate at a)Network layer b) Physical layer c) transport layer d) both a & c

30. To find shortest path from a source to destinationa) Bell man Ford algorithm is used. b) Dijikstras algorithmis used.c) both a& b d) none of the above

31. ______________layer provides a mechanism for the exchange of data between end systema) Transport layer b) Session layerc) Presentation layer d) none of these

32. Transport protocol provides services to the transport service users such as__________a)FTP b)SMTP c)TELNET d)All the above

33. The presentation layer performs services such as__________a)encryption b)FTP c)data compression d) both a & c

34. ___________layer provides a means for application programs to access the OSI environment.a) Transport layer b)Session layer c) Application layer d)Presentation layer

35. ___________layer provides the mechanism for controlling the dialogue between applications in end systemsa) Transport layer b) Session layer c) Application layer d)Presentation layer

36. A ________________service provides for the establishment, maintenance & termination of logical connection between transport service usersa) connection oriented b)connectionlessc) Both a & b d) none of these

37. TCP is a

a) Reliable b) an unreliable c) both a &c d) none of these

38. The ________ flow control mechanism can be used to recognize the onset of congestion and to react by reducing the flow of dataa)Ethernet b)TCP c)UDP d)SMTP

39. A UDP protocol provides ___________ service for application level proceduresa) Connection establishment b) connection orientedc) Connection termination d) connectionless

40. An example of the use of _________protocol is in the context of the network managementa)Ethernet b)TCP c)UDP d)SMTP

41. In the email address mackenzie @ pit.arc.nasa.gov, what is the domain name?a) mackenzie b) pit. arc. nasa. govc) mackenzie @pit. arc. nasa. gov d) a and b

42. The protocol that supports email on the internet is calleda) SMTP b) MIME c) FTP d) none of the above

43. The protocols used by a mail server in conjunction with SMTP to receive and hold email for hosts area) POP3 & IMAP 4 b) SMTP & FTPc) MIME & FTP d) none of the above

44. Which MAC sublayer does IEEE 802-11 define?a) LLC b) PCF c) DCF d) b and c

45. ___________ combine to form a scatterneta) BSSs b) ESSs c) APs d) piconets

46. FHSS, DSSS and OFDM are ______________ layer specificationsa) Physical b) Datalink c) Network d) Transport

47. Voice over IP is an _________________ audio/video application a) Streaming stored b) Streaming livec) Interactive d) None of the above

48. JPEG encoding involves ________________ a process that reveals the redundancies in a blocka) Blocking b) The DCT c) Quantization d) Vectorization

49. Bluetooth uses ______________ in the physical layera) FHSS b) DSSS c) DHSS d) OFDM

50. A wireless LAN uses ______________ frames for acknowledgementa) Management b) Control c) Data d) None of the above

ANSWERS

1 A 11 b 21 b 31 a 41 b2 b 12 c 22 a 32 d 42 a3 b 13 b 23 d 33 d 43 a4 a 14 b 24 b 34 c 44 d5 c 15 b 25 c 35 b 45 d6 c 16 c 26 c 36 a 46 a7 b 17 c 27 a 37 a 47 c8 d 18 c 28 a 38 b 48 d9 a 19 c 29 a 39 d 49 a

10 d 20 b 30 c 40 c 50 b

ET304 - INFORMATION THEORY

The purpose of a communication system is the transmission of information from one

point to another with high efficiency and reliability. Information sources can be classified

into tow categories: analog and discrete. Analog information sources such as a microphone

actuated by a voice signal emit continuous amplitude. Continuous time electrical waveform.

The output of a discrete information source such as teletype consists of sequence of letters or

symbols. Analog information sources can be transformed into discrete information sources

through the process of sampling & quantizing.

A discrete information source consists of a discrete set of letters or alphabets of

symbols. In general, any message emitted by the source consists of a string or sequence of

symbols. The symbols in the string or sequence are emitted at discrete moments, usually at a

fixed time rate and each symbol emitted is chosen from the source alphabet.

Every message coming out of the source contains some information, but some

messages convey more information than others, Information theory provides a quantitative

measure of the information contained in message signals and allows us to determine the

capacity of a communication system to transfer this information form source to destination.

Through the use of coding redundancy can be reduced from message signals so that

channels can be used with improved efficiency. In addition systematic redundancy can be

introduced to the transmitted signal so that channels can be used with improved reliability.

ET304 Information Theory

1. The Conditional Probability of P(A/B) is given by(a) P(A,B)/P(A) (b)P(A,B)/P(B)(c) P(A,B)*P(A) (d)P(A,B)*P(B)

2. Two events A & B are said to be statistically independent if & only if (a) P(B/A)=P(B) (b)P(A/B)=P(A)(c)P(AB)=P(A).P(B) (d)All the above

3. Normal distribution is otherwise called as(a) Probability distribution (b) Poisson distribution(c) Gaussian distribution (d) Chi square distribution

4. A random process is said to be Ergodic if Time average of the process are equal to……….(a) Mean average (b) Ensemble average(c) Variance (d) None of the above

5. If the future state of a random process depends only on the present and past history, then the process is called(a) Ergodic process (b) Markov process (c ) Stochastic process (d) None

6. Wide Sense Stationary process has a ………………………. Mean(a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) Constant (d) Both a & b

7. Mean of Uniform Distribution is given by(a) (a + b)/2 (b) a/2 (c) a-b/2 (d) b/2

8. Covariane is expressed as(a) C[x,y]= E[xy] + Mx My (b) C[x,y]= E[xy] - Mx My

(c) C[x,y]= E[xy] / Mx My (d) None of the above

9. If X and Y are Orthogonal(a) E[XY] = 1 (b) E[XY] = 0 (c) E[XY] = (d) None

10. The occurrence of one event excludes the occurrence of another event is called(a) Statistically dependant events (b) Mutually Exclusive events(c) Independent events (d) None of these

11. A discrete information source is a source that has only ____________ set of symbols

a) Limited b) Finite c) Infinite d) 0

12. A source for which current symbol depends on the previous symbol is called as

a) Source with memory b) Discrete memory less source

c) Analog source d) Discrete Source

13. Information Content of a symbol I(x) is measured by ____________

a) –log10P(x) b) –log 2P(x) c) –log bP(x) d) –lnP(x)

14. Entropy of the source X represents

a) Information content / source symbol b) Average information / source symbol

c) Mutual information d) None of the above

15. Information rate R of the source is defined as

a) Rate at which source emits symbols

b) rate at which channel transmits symbols

c) No of symbols lost during transmission d) None of the above

16. The entropy of a source H(X) is measured as

a) ∑ P(xi) b) ∑ I(xi) c) ∑ P(xi) I(xi) d) ∑ P(xi) /I(xi)

17. The mutual information of the channel I(X ; Y) is

a) H(X) b) H(Y) c) H(X) – H(X/Y) d) H(X) – H(Y)

18. The average amount of information per sample value of x(t) of a continuous source is

defined as

a)Conditional entropy b) Joint entropy c) differential entropy d) entropy

19. The codes 1, 01, 001, 0001 are called

a) Fixed length codes b) Prefix free codes

c) Instantaneous codes d) Distinct codes

20. 10) Information Rate R is measured in

a)Bits / seconds b) Bits / symbol c) Bits d) No unit

21. A minimum redundancy is also called as (a) Optimum code (b) Reduction code (c) Huffman code (d) all the above

22. Code efficiency is calculated by(a) =H(X)/L (b) =H(X) c) = L /H(X) (d)= H(X)/P(X)

23. Summation of all probabilities is equal to(a) 1 (b) 2 c) 3 (d) 4

24. The main disadvantage of optimum quantization is(a) a loss of signal fidelity (b) minimum gain(c) less efficiency d) all the above

25. Minimum information to represent output of DTCA memoryless Gaussian source based on ------------ distortion.(a) variance square error distortion (b) mean square error distortion(c) mean square signal distortion (d) both a and b

26. Lempel Ziv algorithm is designed to be independent of ------------------ statistics.(a) output (b) destination (c) input (d) source

27. --------------------- coding is called as universal source coding algorithm.(a) Huffman coding (b) Shannon Fano coding(c) Lempel-Ziv coding (d) Error coding

28. --------------------square distortion is used to characterize quantization error in PCM.(a) maximum likelihood (b) square error(c) upper bound (d) lower bound

29. Linear predictive coding is used to achieve communication quality speech transmission in digital cellular communication system at rate of(a) < 10000 bits/s (b) <1000 bits/s (c) < 100000 bits/s (d) <100

bits/s

30. LPC is used for------------(a) data compression (b) speech compression (c) audio compression (d) all the above

31. Lossless channel is defined asa. channel matrix with onlyone non zero element in each columnb. channel matrix with onlyone non zero element in each rowc. channel matrix with two non zero element in each column d. none of the above

32. Deterministic channel is defined asa. channel matrix with two non zero element in each columnb. channel matrix with onlyone non zero element in each rowc. channel matrix with onlyone non zero element in each columnd. none of the above

33. A channel is called noiseless if it isa. lossless b. deterministicc. both lossless and deterministic d. none of the above

34. The capacity of the AWGN channel is a. C=S log2(1+S/N) b/s b. C=N log2(1+S/N) b/sc. C=B log2(1+S/N) b/s d. none of the above

35. A DMS has 4 symbols with p(x1)=0.4, p(x2)=0.3, p(x3)=0.2, p(x4)=0.1,What is the value of H(X).a. 2.05 b/s b. 1.85 b/s c. 1.95 b/s d. 1.75 b/s

36. Channel capacity of a lossless channel isa.log10 m b. loge m c. log2 m d. None

37. An analog signal having 4KHZ B.W is sampled at 1.25 times the nyquist rate and each sample is quantized in to one of 256 equally likely levels.what is the information rate.a. 80 Kb/s b. 85 Kb/s c. 75 Kb/s d. 65 Kb/s

38. Error free transmission is possible ifa. R<C b. R>C c. R≥C d. None

39. Code redundancy is defined asa. η-1 b. 1- η c. 1+ η d. None

40. Consider a DMS with 2 symbols p(x1)=0.9, p(x2)=0.1, What is the value of entropy.a. 0.469 b/s b. 0.428 b/s c. 0.496 b/s d. 0.482 b/s

41. Code efficiency η is defined asa. η=H(X)/L b. η= L/H(X) c. . η= L.H(X) d. . η= Lmin.H(X)

42. Channel capacity of binary symmetric channel isa. 1+plog2p+(1-p)log2(1-p) b. 1-plog2p-(1-p)log2(1-p)c. 1-plog10p-(1-p)log10(1-p) d. none of the above

43. For a AWGN channel with 4KHZ BW, and noise power spectral density η/2 is 10-12 W/HZ.The signal power required at the receiver is 0.1 mW.The capacity of the channel isa.70 b/s b.54.44x103 b/s c. 65 b/s d. 45 b/s

44. A linear code of minimum distance dmin can detect upto t errors if and only ifa. dmin ≤ t +1 b. dmin ≥t +1 c. dmin ≤ t +1 d. dmin ≥ t +1

45. A linear code of minimum distance dmin can detect upto t errors if and only ifa. dmin≥ 2 t +1 b. dmin≤ 2t -1 c. dmin ≤2 t +1 d. dmin ≥ 2 t -1

46. For the given code vectors X=(1001) and Y= (1010),the hamming distance isa. 4 b. 2 c. 3 d.1

47. The Hamming weight of the codevector (1001) is a.1 b.3 c.2 d.0

48. Which one is an optimum code.a.shannon fano code b.Huffman code c.Hamming code d. BCH code

49. Which one is the systematic codea. linear block code b. cyclic code c. Hamming code d. all the above

50. Syndrome vector is used to finda. error bit b. parity bit c. message bit d. none of the

aboveANSWERS

1 a 11 b 21 a 31 a 41 a 2 d 12 a 22 a 32 b 42 a 3 c 13 c 23 a 33 c 43 b 4 b 14 b 24 a 34 c 44 b5 b 15 a 25 b 35 b 45 a 6 c 16 c 26 d 36 c 46 b 7 a 17 c 27 c 37 a 47 c 8 b 18 c 28 b 38 a 48 b 9 b 19 b 29 c 39 b 49 d 10 b 20 a 30 c 40 a 50 a

ET354 – Introduction to VLSI Design

VLSI stands for “Very Large Scale Integration”. This is the field which involves

packing more and more logic devices into smaller and smaller areas. Digital VLSI circuits

are predominantly CMOS based. The way normal blocks like latches and gates are

implemented is different from what students have seen so far, but the behaviour remains the

same. All the minuaturisation involves new things to consider. A lot of thought has to go

into actual implementation as well as design.

All modern digital designs start with a designer writing hardware description of the

IC (using HDL or Hardware Description Language) in Verilog / VHDL. A verilog or VHDL

program essentially describes the hardware (logic gates, Flip-Flops, counters etc) and the

interconnect of the circuit blocks and the functionality. Various CAD tools are available to

synthesize a circuit based on the HDL. The most widely used synthesis tools come from two

CAD companies. Synopsys and Cadence.

ASIC design methodology, use of ASCI design CAD tools, and testing methodology

will be introduced. An introduction to logic synthesis, styles of synthesis, and the purpose

and nature of power / area / speed constraints will be given. As an introduction to VLSI

testing, fault models, design for testability techniques, scan path, JTAG, and Built-in-self-

test methods will be incorporated. The course is designed to teach students about Higher

Methodology for VLSI Design.

ET354 – Introduction to VLSI Design

1. The base material for chip manufacturing process is in the form of _______

crystalline _______________ wafer.

(a) Single, lightly doped (b) single, heavily doped (c) double, lightly doped (d) None

2. In ___________ implantation the wafers are placed in a quartz tube embedded in a

heated furnace.

(a) pinch-off (b) diffusion (c) saturation (d) ionized

3. The aluminum interconnection layers are deployed using a process known as

_________

(a) Implantation (b) Sputtering (c) Spotting (d) None

4. The gate oxide in a PMOS/NMOS is

(a) SiO2 (b) PolySi (c) Si2 (d) Germanium

5. The minimum area of a contact in a chip as per λ – design rules are _______ μm

(a) 0.44 x 0.44 (b) 0.4 x0.5 (c) 0.66 x 0.77 (d) 0.9 x 0.5

6. The gain factor (kn) for a CMOS transistor is denoted by

(a) kn’ * (W/L) (b) kn *(L/W) (c) (W/L)2 (d) (L/W)3

7. In a CMOS transistor when VGS > VT the transistor is in

(a) Resistive (b) Saturation (c) Cut-off (d) Zero

8. Strong inversion in a CMOS inverter occurs at ____ the Fermi-level

(a) Single (b) Triple (c) Double (d) None

9. Due to channel-length modulation the current ____ , when the channel length is __

(a) Increases, decreases (b) decreases, increases (c) increases, increases (d) None

10. Military Grade chips are fabricated at a temperature range

(a) -55 to 125 (b) 0 – 50 (c) 30 (d) -20

11. To avoid latch-up problems, which method can be used(a) P-well process (b) n-well process (c) twin-tub process (d) both a & b

12. Typical values of at room temperature are(a) = 650cm2/Vsec & p = 240cm2/Vsec (b) n = 240cm2/Vsec & p = 650cm2/Vsec(c) n = 65cm2/Vsec & p = 24cm2/Vsec(d) n = 24cm2/Vsec & p = 65cm2/Vsec

13. In non-saturated region, the gate voltage is given by(a) Vg = Vt -Vgs (b) Vg = Vgs- Vt(c) Vg = Vt (d).Vg = Vgs

14. ________________can be used as switches in series with lines carrying levels similar to relay contacts(a) BJT (b) FET (c) pass transistor (d) ratioed logic

15. Body effect is due to(a) surface biasing (b) substrate biasing (c) both a & b (d) none

16. gm can be increased by (a) increasing width & decreasing length (b) increasing length & decreasing width(c) increasing width & length(d) decreasing width & length

17. ______________ device has a conducting channel with zero gate bias & will not turn off until sufficient reverse bias is applied to its gate(a) enhancement mode (b) depletion mode (c) both a & b (d) none

18. Parasitic capacitance Cx is proportional to(a) Ax/d (b) d/Ax (c) Ax*d (d) none of the above

19. ________________ is used to convey layer information through the use of color code(a) ambiguity diagram (b) stick diagram(c) signal diagram (d) fabrication diagram

20. In NMOS transistor the n-diffusion & p-diffusion is equal to

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1

21. The other name of the channelles gate array(a) Channel free gate array (b) Sea of gate array (c) both a & b (d) None

22. The structured gate array otherwise called as(a) Embedded gate array (b) Master Slice (c) Master image (d) All the above

23. The manufacturing lead time of the CBIC(a) about 8 weeks (b) one month (c) two days (d) two weeks

24. PLA has(a) Programmable AND & programmable OR (b) Fixed OR & programmable AND (c) Programmable AND &fixed OR (d) Fixed OR & fixed AND

25. ROM size for an n input and m output combinational circuit is (a) 2nxm (b) 2mxn (c) 2m+n (d) 2m-n

26. Find the number fuses in the combinational circuit of PLA, in which it has n input, k product terms and m output (a) 2n*k+k m+m (b) 2n*m+k (c) 2m*k+ k X n+n (d) 2k+m+n

27. Xilinx EPLD family uses and interconnect bus known as(a) UMI (b) PIA (c) PIP (d) All the above

28. Altera MAX family uses and interconnects bus known as(a) EPROM (b) UMI (c) PIA (d) All the above

29. Xilinx logic cell array consists of an interior array of (a) 64 CLBs (b) 68 CLBs (c) 28 CLBs (d)120 CLBs

30. PLA has(a) Programmable AND & programmable OR (b) Fixed OR & programmable AND(c) Programmable AND &fixed OR (d) Fixed OR & fixed AND

31. Switching power dissipation of a CMOS inverter is(a) CLVDDf (b) CLVDD

2f (c) CL2VDDf

32. Area of a basic CMOS inverter is(a) Aα(WpLp+WnLn) (b)Aα(Wp/Lp+Wn/Ln) (c)Aα (Wp2Lp+Wn2Ln)

33. Noise Margin for a high level logic is(a) NMH = VOLmax - VILmax (b) NMH = VOHmin - VIHmin (c) NMH=VOHmax - VIHmin

34. The key concepts underlying all considerations for testability is(a)Controllability only (b) Observability only(c) both Controllability and Observability

35. The total test time for 32 input circuit with high signal clock(10MHZ) is (a) ≥ 7min (b) ≥ 17min (c) ≤7min

36. 6.Algorithm which solve the problem of reconvergent fanout and allows multipath sensitization(a) PODEM (b) Area-Routing Algorithm (c) LFSR

37. LFSR consist of ____________________to produce Pseudorandom binary sequence(a) XOR gate and Shift register (b) Shift register and Encoder(c) Shift register and Adder

38. A 3-bit Shift Register can generate a PRBS of length(a) 2n (b) 2n-1 (c) 2n-1

39. Fault Coverage can be determined by(a) detected faults * detectable faults (b) detectable faults/detected faults(c) detected faults / detectable faults

40. The propagation delay through Cascaded pass transistor is(a) τd = nrc(τ) (b) τd = n2rc(τ) (c) τd = n[rc(τ)]2

41. The symbol ‘<=’ is used for _____________________(a) Variable assignment (b) signal assignment (c) Exponentiation (d) Identity declaration

42. Floating point types in VHDL is used to represent _______________ numbers.(a) Real (b) Integer (c) Prime (d) factorial

43. --------- are used to name items in a VHDL model.(a) Strings (b) Bit strings (c) Numbers (d) Identifiers

44. Process statements are used in VHDL to represent _____________ logic.(a) Boolean (b) Sequential (c) Combinational (d) None of the above.

45. ---------- statement is used to control the execution of loops.(a) IF (b) Case (c) Next (d) While.

46. An assertion statement is a _________________ statement.(a) Concurrent (b) Sequential (c) Loop (d) Exit.

47. S’last_active is a signal attribute which defines,(a) The time interval since the last event on S (b) The time interval since the last transaction on S(c) The value of S just before the last event on S(d) None of the above.

48. In VHDL, ____________ declaration is used to describe the external interface of the circuit.(a) Architectural (b) Entity (c) Block (d) Signal

49. The ________________ logical operator is not provided in VHDL-87.(a) XOR (b) AND (c) OR (d) XNOR

50. The process statement includes a _________________list after the keyword ‘Process’.(a) Boolean (b) Number (c) Sensitivity (d) All the above.

Answers

ET302 – Antenna and Wave Propagation

The purpose of this course is to introduce students to the basics of antennas and

various types of arrangement of antennas and its radiation patterns.The main objective of

this subject is to help students identify the different latest antennas available for specific

communication.

1 a 11 c 21c 31 b 41 b

2 b 12 a 22d 32 a 42 a

3 b 13 b 23a 33 b 43 d

4 a 14 c 24a 34 c 44 b

5 a 15 b 25a 35 a 45 c

6 a 16 a 26a 36 a 46 b

7 a 17 b 27a 37 a 47 b

8 c 18 a 28c 38 c 48 b

9 a 19 b 29a 39 c 49 d

10 a 20 a 30c 40 b 50 c

To study the various arrangement and radiation pattern of antennas, the basic working of

antennas, special purpose antennas and the propagation of radio waves in the atmosphere,

the technique involved in various antenna parameter measurements.

ET302 – Antenna and Wave Propagation

1. The intrinsic impedance of the free space has a correct value equal toa) 75 b) 73 c) 120 d)377.

2. The Poynting vector is a measure of rate of energy flow per unit area is given by a) P=E*H b) P=E/H c) P=H/E d. None of these.

3. The induction field of a short current element varies as a) 1/r b) 1/r3 c)1/r2 d) r

4. The radiation resistance of a /2 antenna in free space is given by a) 377 b) 73 c) 36.5 d) 14.8.

5. The radiation resistance of electrically short dipole antenna is given by a) Rr=80(le/)2. b) Rr=80(/le)2.C) Rr=802 d)Rr=802(le/)2.

6. The measure of a solid angle a) Steradian b) Radian c) Degree d) none

7. The ratio of the power radiated to the total input power is a) Directivity b) Effective aperture c) Antenna efficiency d) Gain

8. Bandwidth of an antenna is directly proportional to a)Q b)1/Q c)Q2 d)1/ Q2.

9. The radiation lobe containing the direction of maximum radiation is a) minor lobe b) side lobe c) major lobe. d) back lobe.

10. Directivity is related with beam solid angle a) D=4/A b) D=4*A. c) D=A/4 d) None

11. The required phase difference between the feeds of successive elements in an end fire array is a) zerob) 180c) depends upon the distance between the elementsd) depends upon the number of elements.

12. Increase in the number of radiators in a large sized broad side array with fixed inter-element spacing leads to

a) increased sidelobes b) widening of the main lobesc) narrowing of the main lobe. d) none of the above

13. A linear end firearray of an isotropic elements has maximum radiationa) normal to the line of the array b) along the line of the arrayc) in a direction which depends on the length of the arrayd) none of the above

14. In an end fire array, the elements are fed ina)phase b) 90 out of phase c) 180out of phase d) at random

15. Maximum voltage will be induced in a loop antenna if it is placed a) parallel to the incoming wave b) perpendicular to the incoming wavec) 45to the incoming wave d) none of the above

16. When loop antenna is rotated around 360 the induced voltage will experience a) two maxima b)two minimac) two maxima and two nulls d) one maxima and one null

17. The differential loop signal voltage in loop antenna depends upon a) the wavelength of the incoming signal b) loop areac) angle of the loop orientation d) all of these

18. In loop antenna the effect of unbalanced current can be eliminated by a) reducing the width of the antenna b) increasing the width of the antennac) shielding the loop by metal detector d) grounding loop to two places

19. Side lobe of an antenna causesa) reduction in gain of antenna b) reduces beam width of antennac) ambiquity in in direction finding d) none of the above

20. In any transmitting antenna the efficiency primarily depends on a) ohmic losses of conductor b) radiation resistancec) ground conductivity d) none of the above

21. The polarization required in ground wave propagation is a) horizontal b) vertical c)circular d)elliptical

22. The maximum usable frequency is a) less than fc b)equal to fc c)higher than fc d)not related to fc

23. Polarization of radio waves is determined by a) directivity of the antennab) direction of the magnetic flux lines with respect to the surface of earthc) direction of the electric flux lines with respect to the surface of the earthd) none of the above

24. Ground wave is used fora) Short wave broadcasting b) medium wave broadcasting

c) all the two d) none of these

25. D-layer in the ionosphere is largely presenta)24 hrs b) during day only c) during night only d) all the above

26. Anamalous propagation is caused by a) super refractive duct b) meterological factorsc) troposcatter d) all the above

27. High frequency waves area) absorbed by F layer b) reflected by D layerc) used for long distance communication on the moon d) affected by the solar cycle

28. A range of microwave frequencies more easily passed by the atmosphere than the others is called a) window b) critical frequencyc)gyro frequency d) resonance in the atmosphere

29. Distances near the skip distance should be used for sky wave propagationa) to avoid tiltingb) to prevent sky wave and upper ray interferencec) to avoid the Faraday effectd) so as not to exceed the critical frequency

30. Duct propagation is due to a) earth’s magnetic field b) electron densityc) presence of moisture above earth’s surface d) all the above.

31. If the length of the wire in the traveling wave antenna is increased the major lobe getsa) closer & broader b) Closer & narrowerc) wider & narrower d) wider & broader

32. /2 antenna is otherwise called asa) hertz antenna b) wave antenna c) harmonic anternna d) none

33. The input impedance of a folded dipole antenna is given by a) n3 * 73 b) nn * 73 c) n * 73 d) n2 * 73

34. Which one of the following antenna is a frequency independent antennaa) folded dipole b) hertz antenna c) log periodic antenna d)yagi-uda

35. The simplest parasitic array consist of a)four element b) three element c)multiple element d) single

36. yagi-uda antenna is an a) parasitic antenna b) low gain antennac) bidirectional beam pattern antenna d) none of the above

37. Which one of the following antenna is best excited by a wave guide

a) horn b)helical c) biconical d) discone

38. Radiation pattern of a loop antenna is a) dough-nut shape b) semicircle c) circle d) none

39. Babinets principle is applied toa) horn antenna b) yagi-uda antennac) folded dipole d)slot antenna

40. In space craft applications which one of the antenna is useda) microstip antenna b)beverage antenna c) helical antenna d) loop antenna

41. Which antenna is used as a standard gain antenna a) loop b) rhombic c) horn d) folded dipole

42. The distance between the primary and the secondary antenna in the radiation pattern measurement should bea) r<=2d2/ b) r>=2d2/ c) r=2d2/ d) none of the

above

43. Conical cut method is for measuring the a) beamwidth b) bandwidth c) polarization d) directivity

44. If the reflection coefficient is 1/5 then the corresponding VSWR isa) 1 b) 5 c) 3/2 d) 2

45. The distance between consecutive maxima and minima is given bya) /2 b) 2 c) d) /4

46. wheat stone bridge method is for a) low frequency impedance measurementb) high frequency impedance measurementc) low frequency polarization measurementd) high frequency polarization measurement

47. Orange slice method is for measuringa) beam width b)Directivity c)efficiency d)Impedance

48. One of the method for polarization measurement is a) Linear component method b) Conical cut methodc) Orange slice method d) None of the above

49. Relation between VSWR and the reflection coefficienta) 1-k / 1+k b) k +1 /k-1 c) 1+k / 1-k d) k -1 /k+1

50. Antenna radiation efficiency is related to the radiation resistance asa) Radiation resistance X 4 / antenna resistance b) Radiation resistance / antenna resistancec) (radiation resistance)2

d) noneAnswers

1 c 11 c 21 b 31 b 41 c2 a 12 c 22 c 32 a 42 b3 c 13 b 23 c 33 d 43 d4 b 14 c 24 b 34 c 44 c5 d 15 a 25 b 35 b 45 a6 a 16 c 26 a 36 a 46 a7 c 17 d 27 d 37 a 47 b8 b 18 c 28 a 38 a 48 a9 c 19 a 29 b 39 d 49 c10 a 20 b 30 c 40 a 50 b

ET306 &ET403 – Microwave And Optical Communication

Microwave techniques have been increasingly adopted in such diverse applications

as radio astronomy, long-distance communications, space navigation, radar systems medical

equipment, and missile electronic systems. As a result of the accelerating rate of growth of

microwave technology and industry, students who are preparing themselves for, and

electronics engineers who are working in, the microwave area are faced with the need to

understand the theoretical and experimental design and analysis of microwave devices and

circuits.

The purpose of the subject is to introduce the students, the basics of microwaves,

different microwave components, microwave generators and amplifiers, microwave

measurements and microwave network representation. This course is intended to the

students the information necessary to understand the design, operation and capabilities of

fiber systems. Students will be introduced to the fundamental concepts of various optical

components. Latest topics are included to keep in touch with the recent trends.

After studying this subject students will be familiar with generation of high frequency

oscillations and amplification, measurement of high frequency parameters, extension of two

port analysis of microwave range, understanding of various components such as optical

fibers,Photodetecter,Connectors,coupling devices and optical amplifiers and also the first

order design of optical links.

ET306&ET403 – Microwave And Optical Communication1) The microwave frequency bands are __________

a. VHF,UHF,SHF b. UHF,SHF,EHFc. VF,VHF,UHF d. MF,HF,VHF.

2) The microwave circuits can be analyzed by _________a. Z parameters b. Y parametersc. h parameters d. S parameter

3) Microwaves are used for __________a. Radar communication b. Satellite Communicationc. Produce heating effect d. None of the above

4) An attenuator is a _________ pole device.a. 4 b. 2 c.8 d.3

5) Gunn diode exhibits _________ characteristics.a. Negative Resistance b. Positive Resistancec. Both negative and positive d. None of the above

6) The semiconductor materials used for microwave transistors are ______a. Si & Ge b. GaAs & Helium c. GaAs & Si d. None of the above

7) An example of Non reciprocal devices is __________ a. circulator b. Directional coupler c. Frequency meter d. Attenuator

8) Isolator & Circulator are working on the principle of ________a. Kirchoff’s law b. Maximum power transfer theorem c. Faraday’s law d. Ohm’s law

9) The dimensions of the transmission waveguide are based on ________ of the signal.a. frequency b. amplitude c. wavelength d. time period

10) Waveguides are not used for frequencies ______a. below 1 GHz b. below 10 GHzc. below 100 GHz d. below 500 MHz

11) The two cavity klystron is operated by the principle of ________________a. Velocity Modulation b. Current Modulation c. Velocity &Current Modulation d. None of the above.

12) Bunching phenomenon in the reflex Klystron can be visualized by studying the electron trajectories in the region between the resonator and the --------.a. Electron gun b. repeller c. output coupling d. none of the above.

13) Klystrons and TWTs are --------- tubes.a. O-Type b. N-type c. K-type d. T-type.

14) The interaction of electron beam and RF field in the TWT is -------- over the entire length of the circuit, when compared to the klystron.a. continuous b. not continuousc. exists for a less time period d. none of the above

15) Gunn oscillators are ---------- devices which are normally used as low power oscillators at microwave frequencies.a. Positive resistance b. Negative resistancec. Cross field d. Linear beam

16) Magnetrons are -------- tubes in which electric and magnetic field are perpendicular to each other.a. Linear beam b. cross fieldc. low power d. none of these

17) Bolometer is a ----------- whose resistance changes with temperature as it absorbs microwave power.a. frequency meter b light sensorc. power sensor d. none of these

18) The sensitivity level of a thermistor sensor is limited to about ---------.a. 50 dBm b. 90 dBm c. 100dBm d. 20dBm

19) Which of the following meter is used to measure frequency?a. Barretter b. VSWR meter c. Wave meter d. None of these.

20) S- Parameter can be conveniently measured following the -------- method which utilizes measured values of input reflection co-efficient.

a. VSWR method b. Deschamps methodc. Waveguide method d. Cavity perturbation method.

21) What is the numerical aperture of silica fiber with n1=1.48 and n2=1.46a) 0.34 b) 0.2425 c) 0.4252 d. 0.2524

22) The condition necessary for an optical fiber to serve as a transmission link isa. core refractive index n1 > cladding refractive index n2

b. core refractive index n1 < cladding refractive index n2

c. core refractive index n1 = cladding refractive index n2

d. none

23) A light beam must strike the core-cladding interface at an angle.a) less than critical angle b) greater than critical anglec) less than or equal to critical angle d) greater than or equal to critical angle

24) The light beam has to form an angle at the fiber center line shoulda) equal to critical propagation angle b) greater than critical propagation anglec) less than critical propagation angle d) None

25) Light entering an optical fiber breaks down into discrete beams calleda) node b) core c) vertices d) mode

26) Pulse spreading during transmission along the fiber is calleda) scattering b) absorption c) dispersion d) None

27) In communication technology attenuation loss isa) Loss = -10Log Pout/Pin b) Loss = -20Log Pout/Pin

c) Loss = -10Log Pin/ Pout d) Loss = -20Log Pin/ Pout

28) Calculate the number of modes for a graded index fiber if its core diameter d=62.5 its numerical aperature=0.275 and operating wavelength=1300nm.

a) 431 b) 400 c) 341 d) 300

29) Chromatic dispersion depends ona) fiber material structure b) fiber material wavelengthc) fiber material composition d) fiber length

30) What is the acceptance angle for the plastic optical fiber?a)28.070 b) 300 c)30.70 d) 200

31) LED possess -------------------a). non radiative recombination b). radiative recombinationc). thermal recombination d). non thermal recombination.

32) Surface emitting LED allows light to escape from the semiconductor structure in ---------------------.a). in the opposite edge b). in the front edgec). in the back edge d). in all possible directions.

33) The characteristic of LASER light source is ------------------------.a). monochromatic b). highly intensec). coherent d). all the above.

34) A semiconductor diode functions like a laser if the following conditions are met ------------------------a).population inversion b). stimulated emissionc). positive feedback d). all the above.

35) The advantage of reverse biasing in photo detector is its ability to eliminate--------a).dark current b). active currentc). passive current d). all the above.

36) Bandwidth of silicon PIN photo diode is --------------------------a).3.98 Gbit/sec b). 0.398 Gbit/secc). 39.8 Gbit/sec d). 398 Gbit/sec

37) PIN photo diode is the most commonly employed light detector because------------a).high reliability b). low noise and voltagec). relatively high bandwidth d). all the above.

38) Advantage of avalanche photo diode is --------------------------.a). internal amplification of photo current without noiseb). internal amplification of photo current with noisec). Generation of photocurrent with noised) none of the above

39) Avalanche photo diode is ------ times sensitive than PIN photo diode.a) 10 b) 5 c) 2 d) none of them.

40) In PIN photo diode the thickness of depletion region is controlled by thickness of --------a) Intrinsic layer b) Reverse voltagec) Reverse current d) All the above

41) Advantages of using WDM in networka) flexibiligy & scalability b) Transparencyc) Modularity d) All the above

42) The network element used in WDMa) OXC b) OADM c) both a and b d) ocx & multiplier

43) The WDM scheme is same as a) TDM b) FDM c) both d) none

44) The wavelength in WDM must be properly spaced to avoida) collision b) inter symbol interferencec) inter channel interference d) noise

45) Mismatch in fibers may arise because of

a) difference in numerical aperture b) difference in refractive indexc) difference in core cladding diameter d) all the above

46) The splices may be made bya) fusing either end of fiber b) glued with a transparent adhesive c) by melting and joining d) both a and b

47) Average splices losses for identical fibera) 0.2dB b) 2dB c) 20dB d) -2dB

48) Back reflection in a splicesa) -20dB b)-40dB c) -10dB d) -2dB

49) Butt – joint mechanism is used ina) coupler b) connector c) splicer d)all the above

50) What is the insertion loss for the connector with air gap having 8 degree and width of 1 micro meter a) 0.6dB b) 0dB c) 6dB d) 60dB

Answers

1 b 11 c 21 b 31 b 41 d2 d 12 b 22 a 32 d 42 c3 d 13 a 23 b 33 d 43 b4 b 14 a 24 c 34 d 44 c5 a 15 b 25 d 35 a 45 d6 c 16 b 26 c 36 b 46 d7 a 17 c 27 a 37 d 47 a8 c 18 d 28 a 38 a 48 a9 c 19 c 29 b 39 a 49 b10 a 20 b 30 a 40 a 50 a

ET308 – SATELLITE COMMUNICATION

A Communications satellite (sometimes abbreviated to comsat) is an artificial

satellite stationed in space for the purposes of telecommunications. Modern communications

satellites use a variety of orbits including geostationary orbits, Molniya orbits, other

elliptical orbits and low (polar and non-polar) Earth orbits.

For fixed (point-to-point) services, communications satellites provide a technology

complementary to that of fiber optic submarine communication cables. They are also used

for mobile applications such as communications to ships, vehicles, planes and hand-held

terminals, and for TV and radio broadcasting, for which application of other technologies,

such as cable, is impractical or impossible.

A satellite in a geostationary orbit appears to be in a fixed position to an earth-

based observer. A geostationary satellite revolves around the earth at a constant speed once

per day over the equator.

The geostationary orbit is useful for communications applications because ground

based antennas, which must be directed toward the satellite, can operate effectively without

the need for expensive equipment to track the satellite’s motion. Especially for applications

that require a large number of ground antennas (such as direct TV distribution), the savings

in ground equipment can more than justify the extra cost and onboard complexity of lifting a

satellite into the relatively high geostationary orbit.

UNIT I1. The line joining a planet to the sun sweeps out ______ in ____

a) equal area, equal time b) unequal area, equal timec) equal area, unequal time d) unequal area, unequal time

2. There are _____ orbital parameters is used to describe the position of a satellite in space at any time.a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7

3. The Kepler’s third laws states.a) T2 = (42a3/µ) b) T2 = (4a3/µ) c) T2 = (42a2/µ) d) T2 = (4a/µ)

4. The important frequencies allocated for communication isa) 6/4Ghz b) 14/24Ghz c) 5/3Ghz d) both a and b

5. The minimum 2o spacing used for satellite in GEO toa) Avoid interference from uplinkb) Avoid interference to downlink c) Avoid interference between uplink and downlinkd) None

6. DBS TV used frequency ina) UHF band b) Ka band c) VHF band d) Ku band

7. There are ______ constellation used a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 6

8. Satellite with ______ elevation angle have a better availabilitya) Higher minimum b) Higher maximumc) Lower minimum d) Lower maximum

9. GEO Stationary orbit has a single of

a) Ellipital b) Circular c) Hemisphere d) Square

10. GEO needs _____ satellites to provide world wide coveragea) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 5

11. Satellite transponders(a) Use a single frequency for reception and retransmission of information to and from each(b) Use a lower frequency for reception and a higher frequency for retransmission(c) Use a higher frequency for reception and a lower frequency for retransmission(d) None of these

12. In the C-band transponders, the uplink frequency is about(a) 6 GHZ (b) 4 GHZ (c) 14 GHZ (d) 11 GHZ

13. The down link frequency in a c-band transponder is about(a) 6 GHZ (b) 4 GHZ (c) 14 GHZ (d) 11 GHZ

14. In a satellite link the carrier saturation EIRP at the satellite is 1000 watts. If the input and output back-offs of the satellite TWTA are 6dB and 4dB respectively, the carrier EIRP would bea) 24dbw b) 26dbw c) 20dbw

15. In a satellite link, the uplink and downlink carrier to noise ratios are 30dB and 20dB respectively, the overall link carrier to noise ratio would bea) 50db b) 10db c) 12db d) 19.6db

16. In a satellite link, if the allowable minimum angle of elevation of the earth station antenna increases, the satellite coverage areaa) Increases too b) Decreases c) remains unchanged

17. Higher the frequency of satellite of earth station transmittera) higher is the potential bandwidth that can be used for communicationsb) closes the satellites can be spaced without interfering with each other c) narrower is the radiation beam width for a given earth station and satellite antenna

diameterd) all the abovee) none of these

18. A satellite earth station antenna has a gain of 106 and noise temperature of 100oK. The earth station (G/T) in C/B per Kelvin isa) k40db/k b) 80db/k c) indeterminate d) none of these

19. A typical satellite earth station has, on its receive side, the antenna followed by a low noise amplifier and a down converter in the same order. The earth station (G/T) ratio is (DB/K) as referred to the input of low noise amplified is 50db/k. If the down converter equivalent noise temperature is 10,000 k, the system(G/T) ratio as referred to input of down converter would bea) 10dbk b) 60db/k c) 50db/k d) none of these

20. A satellite earth station has dual down converter. If the down link frequency is 46 Hz and the If is 70MHz, the sum of first and second local oscillator frequency would be

a) 3.93GHz b) 4.07GHz c) 8.14GHz d) none of these

21. For an ant1enna with circular aperture, if the operating frequency is doubled, then for the same antenna gain, the antenna diametera) can be reduced to one-fourth b) can be reduced to halfc) can be increased to four times d) can be reduced to one-third

22. The dish antenna that has a higher pointing accuracy, lower noise temperature and flexibility on Feed design is thea) Paraboloid antenna b) Cassegrain antenna

23. The satellite in which the antennas are mounted on a de-spun platform is the a) Geostationary satellite b) sun synchronous satellitec) Spin stabilized satellite d) 3-axis body stabilized satellite

24. The purpose of satellite repeater isa) to repeat the satellite signal many times b) to translate signal to new frequency band c) to receive signals from satellited) none of these

25. In a communication satellite, the telephone channels are assembled ina) TDM b) FDM c) FM d) AM

26. Satellites allow the earth station to share the satellite equipment througha) TDM b) FDM c) Multiple frequency up and down linksd) focused spot beams and zone beams e) all of above

27. Satellite capacity depends ona) weigh that can be placed in orbitb) panel area available for energy dissipationc) transmitter power d) all the above

28. An earth station permanently assigned a carrier frequency or several carrier frequencies usesa) TDMA b) FDMA c) CDMA d) none of the above

29. When a number of earth stations take turns transmitting bursts through a common transponder, it is calleda) TDMA b) FDMA c) CDMA d) None of the above

30. TWT non-linearity causes Inter symbol Interference which can be reduced by _____a) Filtering b) Equalization c) Both of above d) Integration

31. Synchronization, signal information and transmitting stations identity is provided by _______a) Preamble b) Frame c) Burst d) Bit

32. When a number of users occupy all of a transponder bandwidth all of the time, it is called _____a) TDMA b) FDMA c) CDMA d) None of the above

33. The frequency range of transmission of INMSRSAT telephone channel isa) 1535.025MHz b) 1636.525MHz c) 1757.825MHz d) 1245.025MHz

34. INTELSAT standard A and B stations work at frequenciesa) 6/4GHz b) 14/12GHz c) Both of above d) None of above

35. INTELSAT standard C stations work at frequenciesa) 6/4GHz b) 14/12GHz c) 11& 14GHz bands d) None of above

36. GPS satellites transmits L-Band signals that are modulated by several codes a) C/A code b) P-code c) Both of above d) None of above

37. In mobile satellite services, bandwidth of operation of satellites isa) 400MHz b) 600MHz c) 10GHz d) 800MHz

38. The payload for INSAT-4A isa) 17C band transponder b) 12C band transponderc) 2S band transponder d) 14 extended Ku band transponder

39. The uplink attenuation is given bya) A up=A down * (F up + F down) db b) A UP=N+C/N db Wc) A UP=EIRP-L db d) A UP=P in + G db W

40. Phase alternating line are typically short on film ata) 12 frames/sec b) 18 frames/sec c) 24 frames/sec d) 20 frames/sec

41. National TV system committee uses color sub carrier frequency ofa) 3.5795MHz b) 4.4336MHz c) 8.5820MHz d) 7.5756MHz

42. Direct to home television service enable the customer to receivea) 200 to 300 channels b) 50 to 100 channelsc) 10 to 20 channels d) 2000 to 5000 channels

43. Digital audio broadcasting receiver for worldwide operation must support a) Mode II-C Band, Earth b) Mode IV-S Band, satellitec) Mode IV for L-Band, Earth and satellite d) mode I-Ku band, Earth and satellite

44. INSAT-2E usesa) Ni-Hydrogen batteries b) NI-Potassium batteriesc) SODIUM batteries d) Carbon nitrate batteries

45. The heaviest satellite isa) GSAT-2 b) EDUSAT c) INSAT-4A d) INSAT-2E

46. C-band low bit rate store and forward communication interface to

a) X.400 and X.25 PSDN network b) optical networkc) Co-axial network d) X.500 PSDN network

47. BGAN stores packet switched service upto a) 492Kb/s b) 400Kb/s c) 429Kb/s d) 450Kb/s

Answers:

1 A 11 C 21 B 31 A 41 A2 C 12 A 22 B 32 C 42 A3 A 13 B 23 C 33 B 43 C4 D 14 A 24 C 34 A 44 A5 A 15 D 25 B 35 C 45 C6 D 16 A 26 E 36 C 46 A7 C 17 D 27 D 37 D 47 A8 A 18 D 28 B 38 B 489 B 19 D 29 A 39 A 4910 C 20 A 30 C 40 C 50

EC 454 - Optical Networks

This gives the introduction to the technology underlying the optical networks. Also

Describes how light propagates in optical fiber and deals with the phenomenon of loss,

dispersion and fiber nonlinearities, which play a major role in the design of

transmission systems.

It provides an overview of different components needed to build a network, such as

transmitters, receivers, multiplexers and switches. Different Components such as

amplifiers, optical filter, multiplexer / demultiplexers, switches and wavelength converters

are dealt. Optical design consideration and all optical networks are covered.

Different topologies, media access, network using wavelengths. It describes the first

generation and second generation optical networks and comparison between different

networks. Slotted Aloha / Slotted Aloha Protocol and the node design are also describe. It

gives a brief idea about SONET / SDH operation, layers and elements in SONET /

SDH infrastructure, Computer interconnects and MAN architecture, Layered architecture.

It covers broadcast and select WDM networks that are suitable for LANs and

MANS and also wavelength routing, OTDM networks.

ET 454 - Optical Networks

1. If two or more light paths use the same fiber, they have to use _____________ wavelengths to avoid interfering with one another.a) Same b) different c) will be exceed d) none

2. ______________________is pulse spreading that occurs within a single mode.a) Intermodal dispersion b) dispersion c) attenuation d) none

3. An optical fiber has________________a) Low loss transmission b) low bandwidth c) high bandwidth d) a & c

4. __________________used to combine or split optical signalsa) Couplers b) wavelength convertor c) isolators d) circulator

5. The most important nonlinear effects in this category__________a) self phase modulation & four wave mixing b) stimulated ramon scattering & four wave mixingc) self phase modulation & SRSd) none of these

6. __________scattered light moves mostly forward and the photons associated with this process are optical ones.a) SPM b) FWM c) SRS d) none

7. An optical effect is called _________________,if its parameters depend on light intensity(power)a) Linear b) bilinear c) nonlinear d) none

8. _____________scattered light moves backward & the photon s associated with it.a) SBS b) SRS c) FWM d) none

9. Couplers are also the principle components used to construct _______________a) Mach-Zehnder Interferometers b) fabry perot filterc) Multiplexer d) Erbium doped fiber

10. _______________is used to increase the power of the transmitted signala) preamplifer b) modulationc) subcarrier multiplexing d) subcarrier modulation

11. Light radiated by laser diode is ______________a) non coherent b) coherent c) non linear d) none

12. LED possesses_________________a) non radiative recombination b) thermal recombinationc) radiative recombination d) non thermal recombination

13. Surface emitting LED allows light to escape from the semiconductor structure in ____________________

a) the opposite edge b) the back edge c) the front edge d) all possible directions

14. The characteristic of LASER light source is ______________a) Monochromatic b) Coherentc) highly intense d) all the above

15. The LED is a device that amplifies light by means of the ________a) Stimulated emission of Radiation b) Spontaneous emission of Radiationc) Absorption d) All the above

16. A _____________diode can radiate hundreds of milli watts of output powera) Laser b) LED c) photo diode d) pn diode

17. Sub carrier Multiplexing can range from __________.Its used in CATV system.a) 100 Hz to 1 MHz b) 10 MHz to 100Ghz c) 10MHz to 1Ghz d) none

18. ______________ is the process of converting digital data in electronic form to an optical signal that can be transmitted over the fibera) Modulation b) Demodulation c) Multiplexing d)Demultiplexing

19. The LASER is a device that Amplifies light by means of the __________________a) Stimulated emission of Radiation b) Spontaneous emission of Radiationc) Absorption d) all the above

20. Broadcast network is a ___________ network in which each transmitter sends messages at a fixed frequency to the central star coupler through fiber path a) first b) second c) third d) fourth

21. SONET is a _____________________generation networka) first b) second c) third d) fourth

22. In terms of elements, SONET uses_______________a) Terminal multiplexers, ADMs, DCSs, regenerators b) TMs,ADMsc) Regenerators d) none

23. In terms of network topology, SONET uses ____________________

a) mesh b) point to point links and rings c) tree d) bus

24. SONET transmission frame includes a ______________a) payload b) payload and overhead c) overhead d) none

25. Add & drop Multiplexer node includes___________________________a) physical, section layers b) section, line layersc) physical, section , line layers d) none of these

26. Terminal Multiplexer node includes___________________________layersa) Physical, section, line, path layers b) physical section layersc) Line and path layers d) path layer

27. _________________ are the major component in the SONET infrastructure.a) Terminal multiplexer b) add and drop multiplexerc) Digital cross connect d) all the above

28. SONET is a ___________ system providing synchronous transmission , measuring that each frame of a data stream starts at a specific moment with respect to the operation time sequence of the entire networka) FDM b) TDM c) PCM d) WDM

29. The electrical signals in SONET are called __________________________a) Synchronous transport signals b) byte inter leaving signalsc) Overhead d) none of these

30. The N STS-1 signals are then multiplexed to form an STS-N signal. This is done by ______________________a) byte interleave synchronous multiplexer b) bit interleave multiplexerc) Multiplexer d) demultiplexer

31. Principle function of the network is toa) Route & switch b) encode & decodec) Modulate & demodulate d) multiplex & demultiplex

32. The Bit rate of STM – 1 is __________a) 622.8 Mbits/s b) 155.52 Mbits/secb) 100 Mbits/s d) 200 Mbits/sec

33. The most promising switching and transport technique for carrying interactie multimedia traffic is __________a) ATM b) IP c) FDDI d) ESCON

34. ____________ topology consists of a common shared bos linea) star b) mesh c) bus d) token ring

35. In ___________ topology, each station is connected to a central node or hub through point-to-point linksa) star b) bus c) ring d) mesh

36. The tree topology is characterized by ______________ structure with multiple branches leading to individual stationsa) hierarchical b) star c) series d) parallel

37. FDDI is _____________a) fiber distributed data interface b) fiber distributed data informationc) first distributed data interchange d) none

38. The bit rate of synchronous transport mode (STM-16) of SDH is ____________a) 155.52 Mbits/sec b) 622.08 Mbits/secc) 2488.32 Mbits/sec d) 9953.28 Mbits/sec

39. The network configuration that is valid by upgrading the existent copper infrastructure by fiber optics such asa) FTTB & FTTH b) FTTH c) FTTB d) FTTC & HFC

40. FTTC is _____________ and HFC is ____________a) fiber to the centre and hyper fiber coaxical b) fiber to the curb and hybrid fiber coaxicalc) fiber to the common point& high fiber control d) none

41. _____________ is an excellent and powerful technology to upgrade traditional networksa) WDM b) Optical interconnects c) TDM d) FDM

42. Medium access control for the data link layer is provided by ___________a) MAC layer b) LLC c) physical layer d) network layer

43. There are two forms of optical time division multiplexinga) static and dynamic b) fixed OTDM and statistical OTDMc) stable OTDM and unstable OTDM d) none of these

44. In optical layer, an optical transmission section layer is depicted as __________a) amplifier layer b) regenuatorc) terminal layer d) optical cross connects

45. __________ layer is responsible for end-to-end light path routing across the entire networka) optical channel section b) optical interfacesc) optical multiplex section d) amplifier layer

46. ____________ was developed for transmission over the SONET networka) IP b) ATM c) optical d) none

47. One of the examples of MAN architecturea) ATM b) IP c) FDDI d) HFC

48. The standard for Token Ring is _____________a) IEEE 802.5 b) IEEE 802.11 c) IEEE 802.6 d) IEEE 802.15

49. The process of organizing bits and bytes within a transmitting format is called _________a) mapping b) encapsulation c) formatting d) compressing

50. OC-48 carrier ___________ voice channelsa) 672 b) 32256 c) 129024 d) 64000

Answer

ET400 – Wireless Communication

Wireless technology has become the most exciting area in telecommunications and

networking. The rapid growth of mobile telephone use, various satellite services, and now

the wireless Internet and wireless LANs are generating tremendous changes in

telecommunications and networking.

1 b 11 b 21 a 31 a 41 a

2 a 12 c 22 a 32 b 42 a

3 d 13 d 23 b 33 a 43 b

4 a 14 d 24 b 34 c 44 a

5 a 15 v 25 c 35 a 45 a

6 c 16 a 26 a 36 a 46 a

7 c 17 c 27 d 37 a 47 a

8 a 18 a 28 b 38 c 48 b

9 a 19 a 29 a 39 d 49 a

10 a 20 a 30 a 40 b 50 a

Wireless networking is allowed businesses to develop WANs, MANs, and LAN without a

cable plant. The IEEE has developed 802.11 as a standard for wireless LANs. The Bluetooth

industry consortium is also working to provide a seamless wireless networking technology.

The impact of wireless communication has been and will continue to be profound.

Very few inventions have been able to “shrink” the world in such as manner. The standards

that define how wireless communication devices interact are quickly converging and soon

will allow the creation of a global wireless network that will deliver a wide variety of

services.

ET400 – Wireless Communication

1. First generation of analog cellular standard isa) AMPS b) GSM c) PDC d) All the above

2. Second generation of digital cellular standard isa) NMT 450 b) TACS c) GSM d) none of these

3. Major mobile standard in Europea) AMPS b) IS-95 c) USDC d) DECT

4. Means of increasing cells capacitya) Cell clustering b) Sectoring of cellsc) Cell splitting d) All the above

5. Interference causesa) Cross talk b) Poor quality c) Blocking and missed calls d) All

6. GSM using FDMA, the total frequency range is given bya) 45 MHz b) 25 MHz c) 25 MHz d) 20 MHz

7. Number of carriers in GSM using FDMA technologya) 124 b) 120 c) 80 d) 100

8. GSM radio aspects, the uplink frequency is given bya) 890-91 MHz b) 935-960MHz c) 870-920MHz d) 890-915KHz

9. Spacing between uplink and downlink frequency for GSMa) 20MHz b) 25MHz c) 45MHz d) 10MHz

10. In GSM the length of 26 TDMA framesa) 120msec b) 4.615msec c) 0.577msec d) 110msec

11. The frequency reuse factor of a cellular system is given by

a) 1/N b) N c) N*N d) 2N

12. The time over which a call may be maintained within a cell, without handoff is calleda) Dwell time b) mobile assisted handoff c) intersystem handoff

13. Cell dragging is a practical handoff problem in _________________systems.a)macrocell b)micro cell c)a cell d)cluster

14. The co-channel reuse ratio,Q is____________________a) 3N b) 3N*N c) 3+N d) 3-N

15. ________________ is a measure of the ability of a user to access a trunked system during the busiest hour.a) Erlang b) grade of service c) trunking service d) holding time

16. Large Umbrella cell for___________ speed trafficA) Low b) high c) medium

17. If a total of 33 MHz of bandwidth is allocated to a particular FDD cellular telephone system which uses two 25 kHz simplex channel to provide full duplex voice and control channels, the number of channels available per cell if a system uses four cell reuse.a) 95 channels b) 55 channels c) 165 channels d) 100 channels

18. The geometric shapes which cover an entire region without overlap and with equal area area) Square b) equilateral triangle c) circle d) hexagon

19. Channel assignment strategies can be classified as either________________________a) Fixed b) dynamic c) fixed or dynamic d) unfixed or dynamic

20. Based on the locator receiver signal strength information from each base station, the________ decides if a handoff is necessary or not.a)MSC b)BTS c)BSC d)GMSC

21. The apparent change in frequency or Doppler shift fd is given by _________a) V/ Cos b) /V Cos c) V/ Sin d) /V Sin

22. If the frequency correlation function is above 0.9, then the coherence bandwidth is approximatelya) BC 1/50 b) BC 1/5 c) BC 5 d) BC 50

23. If the frequency correlation function is above 0.5, then the coherence bandwidth is approximately_________a) BC 50 b) BC 1/5 c) BC 1/50 d) BC 5

24. Doppler spread leads to ___________a) Time dispersion and frequency selective fadingb) Time dispersion and time selective fadingc) Frequency dispersion and frequency selective fadingd) Frequency dispersion and lime selective fading

25. A Signal undergoes flat fading if __________a) BS = BC and TS = b) BS<< BC and TS >>

c) BS >> BC and TS << d) BS >> BC and TS =

26. Frequency selective fading channels are also known as ____________a) Narrowband channels b) Wideband Channelsc) Baxband channels d) None of these

27. The mean and median differ by only _________ dB in a Rayleigh fading signala) 0.95 b) 0.75 c) 0.55 d) 0.15

28. Coherence bandwidth is used to characterize the channel in _______________a) time domain b) Frequency domainc) Z-domain d) None of the above

29. Flat fading channels are also known as ___________a) amplitude varying channels b) wideband channelsc) None of the above d) phase varying channels

30. Fast fading and slow fading are due toa) multipath time delay spread b) Doppler spreadc) Both d) None of the above

31. Distance between signal points in FSK isa) √E b b) √2Eb c) √3Eb

32. The BW of QPSK system with bit rate fb isa) 2fb b) 4fb c) 4fb

33. The BW of FSK system isa) 2fb b) 4fb c) fb

34. The distance between signal points in QPSK ina) √2 Eb b) 2√Eb c) √Eb

35. The percentage of power saved in SSB when compared with AM DSB-FC at 100% depth of modulation isa) 33.3% b) 66.67% c) 83.3%

36. The DSB-FC AM wave is represented by equationa) ACSinωctsinωmt b) ACsinωct c) AC[1+usinωm] sinωCt

37. In CDMA system to over come the effect of propagation delay dispersion due to multipath we usea) channel equalizer b) rake receiver c) none

38. Diversity is an effective way to combat a) ISI b) channel fading c) error control

39. If the transfer function of channel in C (z) and that of an equalizer is B(z). then B(z) is equal to a) C (z) b) 1/C(z) c) C2(z)

40. DF E type of equalizer eliminates ISI usinga) present input datab) previously detected output valuationc) present output data

41. The functions of the physical layer of the OSI model area) Encoding / decoding of signals b) Preamble generation / removalc) Bit transmission / reception d) All the above

42. The basic unit of networking in Bluetooth isa) Piconet b) Scattemet c) Micronet d) Meganet

43. A set of stations controlled by a single co-ordination function isa) Extended service set b) Basic service setc) MAC service data unit d) None

44. The block of data passed down from MAC layer isa) PDU b) DSDU c) LSDU d) MSDU

45. A station movement from one BSS to another BSS within same ESS is calleda) BSS transition b) ESS transitionc)Both BSS & ESS d) No transition

46. The network in which a device equipped with Bluetooth radio can establish instant connection to another Bluetooth radio can establish instant connection to another Bluetooth radio as soon as it comes into range calleda) Optical Network b) adhoc networkc) Satellite network d) none

47. Both connectionless and connection oriented services are provided bya) SDP b) LMP c) L2cap d) all the above

48. A form of CDMA is achieved between devices on different piconets in the same scatlement is referred asa) DSSS b) FH-CDMA c) FH-FDMA d) DS CDMA

49. The code used for identifying a piconet isa)inquiry access code b) channel access codec) device access code d) payload

50. The commands used to solicif a response from a remote h2cap entity area) information commands b) disconnection commandsc) both information & disconnection commands d) echo commands

Answer

1 a 11 a 21 a 31 B 41 d

2 b 12 a 22 a 32 A 42 a

3 d 13 b 23 b 33 B 43 b

4 d 14 c 24 d 34 B 44 d

5 d 15 b 25 b 35 C 45 a

6 b 16 b 26 b 36 C 46 b

7 a 17 c 27 c 37 B 47 c

8 a 18 d 28 b 38 B 48 b

9 c 19 c 29 a 39 B 49 b

10 a 20 a 30 b 40 B 50 d

ET457 - Communication Protocol

The main purpose of this course is to introduce the emerging area computer

networking, mainly internet. This will enable the students to acquire a solid understanding of

different components involved in the seamless working of internet

Unit: I review of network technologies like LAN, WAN, Ethernet, FDDI, internetworking

concepts and architecture models of TCP/IP layer analysis.

Unit: II routing address classes, various internet protocols

Unit: III various internet routing, TCP/IP, ATM networks

UnitIV: various client server model and socket interface

Unit: V internet security and firewall design

ET457 - Communication Protocol

1. ______________ is the access protocol used by traditional Ethernet a) CSMA b) CSMA/CD c) CSMA/CA d) Token ring

2. When a collision is detected in a network using CSMA/CD___________a) The frame is immediately resentb) A jam signal is sent by the stationc) The backoff value is set to zerod) The backoff value is decremented by 1

3. Fast Ethernet has the data rate ofa) 1Mbps b) 10 Mbps c) 100 Mbps d) 1000 Mbps

4. Minimum frame length for 10mbps Ethernet isa) 48 bytes b) 53 bytes c) 64 bytes d) 104 bytes

5. A bridge can ____________a) filter a frame b) forward a frame c) Extend a LAN d) all the above

6. The protocol used in FDDIa) MAC b) CSMA c) token ring d) time token MAC

7. Maximum length of FDDI fiber isa) 100km b) 200km c) 300km d) 400km

8. There is no ____________ acknowledgement in TCP a) negative b) positive c) reverse d) repeat

9. The ____________ timer prevents a long idle connection between 2 TCPa) retransmission b) persistence c) keep-alive d) time-waited

10. Repeaters operates ina) physical layer b) data link layer c) network layer d) a & b

11. An IP address is aa) 32 bit b) 16 bit c) 8 bit d) 4 bit

12. Class D address is used for

a) networking b) assigning c) multicasting d) future purpose

13. Loop back address is used fora) test interval software b) error correctionc) error detection d) broadcasting

14. A network or subject address in obtained from applying the __________ on IP address and maska) bit wise OR b) bitwise XORc) bit wise AND d) bit wise NAND

15. IP is a _____________ protocola) Connection oriented b) Connection lessc) Address d) Networking

16. Longest mask matching is required ina) Classless address b) classful addressc) IP address d) none

17. ARP is a protocol of typea) dynamic mapping b) static mappingc) memory mapping d) I/O mapping

18. An ARP request is aa) broadcast b) multicast c) unicast d) any cast

19. An ARP reply is aa) broadcast b) multicast c) any cast d) unicast

20. Pack in IP layer is calleda) datas b) message c) data gram d) all

21. The maximum length of datagram isa) 65525 bytes b) 65535 bytes c) 65535 bits d) 65525 bits

22. Type 4 error reporting message used for a) redirection b) echo request c) time stamp d) source quench

23. Source quench message does a) discard a datagram due to congestion b) slow down sending of datagramc) both a & b d) none

24. PING, an application program that uses the service of ICMP toa) test the software b) test the reachability of a hostc) check error d) none

25. TCP stands fora) Transmission control protocol b) Transport correct protocol

c) Transport control protocol d) Transmission carrier protocol

26. No retransmission timer is set for ana) ACK segment b) SACK segmentc) ARQ segment d) RARP segment

27. Choke point is a packet which inform about congestiona) by router to source b) source to destinationc) router to destination d) router to bridge

28. OSPF is the implementation of a) distance vector protocol b) link state protocolc) path vector protocol d) none

29. RIP is the implementation of a) distance vector protocol b) link state protocolc) path vector protocol d) none

30. OSPF packets are encapsulated in a) TCP datagram b) IP datagram c) UDP datagram d) all

31. RIP is an __________ routing protocola) interdomain b) intradomain c) internetdomain d) all

32. OSPF is an __________ routing protocola) interdomain b) intradomain c) internetdomain d) all

33. The range of class E address is ________________a) 128 to 191 b) 192 to 223 c) 224 to 239 d) 240 to 255

34. UDP echo client allocates and unused ________________ protocol porta) TCP b) UDP c) IP d) none

35. UDP echo server requires the client to be a) on the same physical networkb) to contact server anywhere on internetc) to contact server in particular network d) none

36. Interface between application program and the protocol software is a) 4BSB unix b) unix I/O c) socket d) none

37. To create socket the type communication desireda) reliable stream delivery service b)connectionless datagram delivery servicec) raw type d) all the above

38. How a queue length for server is specified a)listen b)queue c)blind d)none

39. The _________ socket is used with a connection oriented protocola)stream b)datagram c)raw d)remote

40. The _________ socket is used with a connectionless oriented protocola)stream b)datagram c)raw d)remote

41. A client issues _____________ when it needs service from a servera) an active open b) a passive openc) an negative request d) a finite open

42. A server program once it issues _____________ wait for client to request it service a) an active open b) a passive openc) an negative request d) a finite open

43. A __________ server serves multiple client handling one request at a timea) connection oriented iterative b) connection oriented concurrentc) connectionless iterative d) connectionless concurrent

44. _______ can request servicea) socket interface b) a port c)client d)server

45. _________ can provide a servicea) an iterative server b) a concurrent server c) a client d) a & b

46. TCP is a ________ protocola) reliable b) unreliable c) data d) command

47. IP is a ________ protocola) reliable b) unreliable c) data d) command

48. The address space of IPV 4 isa) 28 b)216 c)232 d) 264

49. The address space of IPV 6 isa) 296 b)216 c)232 d) 264

50. The IPV6 payload length isa)2 byte b) 4 byte c) 6 byte d) 8 byte

ANSWER

1 b 11 a 21 b 31 b 41 a2 b 12 c 22 d 32 a 42 b3 c 13 a 23 c 33 d 43 c4 c 14 c 24 b 34 b 44 c5 d 15 b 25 a 35 b 45 d6 d 16 a 26 a 36 c 46 a7 b 17 a 27 a 37 d 47 b

8 a 18 a 28 b 38 a 48 c9 c 19 d 29 a 39 a 49 a10 a 20 c 30 b 40 b 50 a

ET455 – Broadband CommunicationIntegrated services and Digital Networks

The objective of this course is to provide the technological survey of the protocols

and architecture of ISDN and B-ISDN. The ISDN and B-ISDN have had a dramatic impact

on the planning and deployment of intelligent digital networks providing integrated services

for voice, data, and video. One part deals with the fundamental technologies used in digital

transmission technology and a review of switching. Further the ISDN and B-ISDN standards

had led to the development of two major new networking technologies of frame relay and

Asynchronous transfer mode (ATM). Frame relay and ATM have become the essential

ingredients in developing high speed networks for local, metro politian and wider area

applications. And also it examines the critical issues of congestion control in frame relay

networks. Both the standardization of ISDN and B-ISDN and development of frame relay

and ATM have been driven by market pressures to reduce the cost of voice and data

transmission and to expand networking services to provide high speed data and video

capability. Government use of computer systems will become more efficient. The

government is the most prodigious producer and user of information in our society. ISDN

will improve and disperse access and help to remove in compatibilities between different

systems so that more can be done with less effort.

ET455 – Broadband Communication

1. ISDN is an acronym for ______a) Information services for Digital networksb) Internetwork system for data networkingc) Integrated services Digital networkd) Integrated signals Digital Network.

2. When you store and forward messages in B – ISDN, you are using _____ services.a) Conversational b) Messagingc) Retrieval d) Distributive

3. Frame relay operates in the ______a) Physical layer b) Data link layerc) Physical & data link layer d) Physical, data link and network layer

4. Which bit in the addres field in frame relay is set to one to signify the last address Byte?a) Discard eligibility(DE) b) Extended addres(EA)c) Command/response(C/R)d) Forward explicit congestion notification(FECN)

5. The data rate for a frame relay network can be as much as _____ Mbps.a) 1.544 b) 3.88c) 44.376 d) 60

6. Routing and switching in frame relay are performed by the ______ layera) Physical b) Data linkc) Network layer d) b and c

7. In which OSI layer does the FDDI protocol operate?a) Physical b) Datalinkc) Network d) a and b

8. DQDB is an acronym to ________a) Distributed queue data bus b) Differential queue data busc) Data queue dual bus d) Distributed queue dual bus

9. Mail services and directory services are available to network users through the _____ Layera) Data link b) Sessionc) Transport d) Application

10. DQDB operates in the _____ layersa) Physical b) Datalinkc) Physical and datalink d) Network

11. The ______ channel can be used for the control of B channelsa) BC b) Dc) H d) C

12. The ____ channel has the lowest data ratea) B b) Cc) D d) H

13. The normal user interface to an ISDN is PRI or ______a) Bit rate interface b) Basic rate interface c) Byte rate interface d) Broad rate interface

14. The ISDN equivalent to DTE isa) TE1 b) TE2c) TE3 d) TE4

15. Which ISDN plane is associated with signaling and the D channel?a) User b) Controlc) Management d) Supervisory

16. In ISDN _____ the network can change or process the contents of the dataa) Bearer services b) Tele servicesc) Supplementary services d) None of the above

17. In B-ISDN, the general class of service between subscriber and service provider or between two subscribers are ________ servicesa) Interactive b) Distributivec) Conversational d) Messaging

18. Which B-ISDN access method is designed for customers who need to receive distributive services but do not provide distributive services to others?a) 155.520 Mbps full duplex

b) 155.520 and 622.080 Mbps asymmetrical full duplexc) 622.080 Mbps full duplexd) 400 Mbps full duplex

19. A ______ converts information from non ISDN format to ISDN formata) TE1 b) TE2c) TEX d) TA

20. The ______ channel can be used for telemetry and alarmsa) B b) Cc) D d) H

21. The transfer mode in B-ISDN isa) Synchronous b) Asynchronousc) Both is possible d) None

22. The ATM adopted in B-ISDN full exploits the principle ofa) Statistical multiplexing b) Time division multiplexingc) Frequency division multiplexing d) None

23. The interactive service of B-ISDN involves a) Unidirectional transmission b) Bi-directional transmissionc) No transmission d) None

24. Network signaling and control are the functions ofa) User plane b) Management planec) Control plane d) None

25. Transmission conversions is the sub layer of ______in B-ISDNa) ATM adaptation layer b) ATM layerc) Physical Layer d) None

26. The plane that controls the ATM switch or hub isa) User plane b) Management planec) Control plane d) None

27. In B-ISDN signaling messages will be conveyed out of band in dedicateda) Virtual path b) Signaling virtual channelc) Signaling path d) None

28. The signaling procedures for establishing and maintaining ATM connections is specified bya) NNI b) UIc) UNI d) None

29. User to user information transfer is the function ofa) User plane b) Management planec) Control plane d) None

30. ________permits a non ATM system to connect to an ATM System exchanging framesa) NNI b) UIc) FUNI d) None

31. In data communications, ATM is an acronym fora) Automated teller- machine b) Automatic transmission modelc) Asynchronous telecommunication method d) Asynchronous transfer mode

32. Which AAL type is designed to support a data stream that has a constant bit rate?a) AAL1 b) AAL2c) AAL3/4 d) AAL5

33. The ________ server software allows multicasting and broadcasting on an ATM LANa) LEC b) BVSc) BVD d) BES

34. _________ is software that allows an ATM switch to emulate a LAN switcha) LEC b) BUSc) BES d) LANE

35. A ______ provides a connection or a set of connections between switchesa) Transmission path b) Virtual pathc) Virtual circuit d) None of the above

36. ATM multiplexes cells using ______a) Asynchronous FDM b) Synchronous FDMc) Asynchronous TDM d) Synchronous TDM

37. The VPI of a UNI is ____ bits in lengtha) 8 b) 12c) 16 d) 24

38. The VPI of on NNI is _______ bits in lengtha) 8 b) 12c) 16 d) 24

39. Which layer in ATM protocol reformat the data received from other networks?a) Physical b) ATMc) Application and adaptation d) Data adaptation

40. ATM can use _______ as a transmission mediuma) Twisted- pair cable b) Coaxial cablec) Fiber- optic cable d) All

41. One of the following is the functional grouping of the user network interface aspect of ISDN a) Network termination b) Reference point Tc) Reference point U d) None

42. Circuit mode bearer services are typically characterized by the a) Information transfer over D channel and signaling over B channelb) Information transfer over B channel and signaling over D channelc) Both information transfer & signaling over D channeld) Both information transfer & signaling over B channel

43. Packet mode bearer services involve packet handling functions provideda) Over B channel only b) Over D channel onlyc) Over B or D channel d) Over B & D channel

44. Which of the following is a teleservice?a) Videotex b) caller line identificationc) Closed user group d) Conference calling

45. Messaging is a type ofa) Distributive services b) retrieval servicesc) Interactive services d) none

46. Which one of the following is a supplementary service?a) Telex b) Teletexc) Telefax d) Call forwarding

47. The function of higher B-ISDN layer a) Bit timing b) Call delineationc) Convergence d) Cell rate Decoupling

48. Conversational Services providesa) Bi-directional real time data transferb) Uni-directional real time data transferc) Bi-directional store and forward data transferd) Uni -directional store and forward data transfer

49. Services in this category is called as broadcast servicesa) Distributed services with user presentation controlb) Distributed services with user presentation controlc) Business serviced) None of these

50. H channel are provided fora) User information at low bit rates b) Common channel signalingc) User information at low bit rates d) None

Answer

1 C 11 B 21 B 31 D 41 A

2 B 12 C 22 A 32 A 42 B

3 C 13 B 23 B 33 B 43 C

4 B 14 A 24 C 34 D 44 A

5 C 15 B 25 C 35 B 45 D

6 B 16 B 26 B 36 C 46 C

7 D 17 A 27 B 37 A 47 B

8 D 18 A 28 B 38 B 48 A

9 D 19 D 29 A 39 C 49 B

10 A 20 C 30 B 40 D 50 C