student’s name: teacher’s name -...

Student’s name:

Teacher’s name:

Date:

TIME ALLOWED FOR THIS PAPER: Reading time before commencing work: 10 minutes Working time for this paper: 1 hour & 40 minutes MATERIAL REQUIRED / RECOMMENDED FOR THIS PAPER: To be provided by the supervisor

- Exam Booklet

To be provided by the candidate - Pens, pencils, eraser and / or correction fluid

IMPORTANT NOTE TO CANDIDATES No other items may be taken into the examination room. It is your responsibility to ensure that you do not have any unauthorised notes or other items of a non-personal nature in the examination room. If you have any unauthorised material with you, hand it to the supervisor BEFORE reading any further. All iPads and mobile phones must be turned off and in your bag along with any other devices and notes. Bags are to be closed and placed under the desk. INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES

1. Read through the paper to familiarise yourself with all of the questions. 2. Use a blue or black ballpoint / ink pen. Do not answer in pencil.

AT THE END OF THE EXAMINATION

- Any planning sheets or other pieces of paper MUST be handed in with this booklet.

- At the end of the examination make sure that your name is on your booklet and any other pieces of paper used.

Structure of this paper

Section Number of questions available

Number of questions to be attempted

Suggested working time (minutes)

Marks available

Section one: Writing

2 1 40

60

Section Two: Language Conventions

30 30 20

20

Section Three: Reading

20 20 40 20

Total Marks 100 Instructions to candidates

1. Make sure you write the number of the question being answered.

2. Write your answers to each section in the appropriate space provided.

a. Section 1: Write answers on lined pages in this booklet b. Circle the appropriate letter next to each question. Cross out any

corrections or changed answer.

3. You must be careful to confine your responses to the specific questions asked and to follow any instructions that are specific to a particular question. If you fail to comply you will be penalised.

Note: Do not turn the page until you are asked to do

so.

SECTION ONE: WRITING Allow 40 minutes for this section (60 marks) You have 40 minutes to complete the task. You can write up to 500 words, although you may not need this many.

You should leave yourself enough time to edit your work thoroughly. You can make as many changes as you would like to.

You will be marked on the following:

O the relationship you develop with your audience O the organization and planning of your writing O the selection of words and language O the cohesiveness of your writing O demonstration of correct grammar, punctuation and spelling O demonstration of the correct text structure/conventions

Choose ONE topic to write on;

1. Narrative She knew that the best hiding place would be where no one else would want to hide.

2. Persuasive Are movies more enjoyable than books? SECTION ONE: WRITING

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SECTION TWO: LANGUAGE CONVENTIONS Allow 20 minutes for this section (30 marks)

For Questions 1-10, the spelling mistakes in these sentences have been underlined. Write the correct spelling for each underlined word.

1 Amy had groan taller over the past year.

2

A craft activety was organised for the children.

3

Many tertles crossed the beach to lay eggs.

4 The snowboarders were delayed by a blizzerd.

5

The new stopwatch was very accurate and timed each lap with precishon.

6

I felt light and boyant, floating on the surface of the ocean.

7

The family lived in tempory accommodation while their house was being built.

8

Only small children should ride on the miniture pony.

9

An ambulance took the trawma patient to the hospital.

10 It’s important to learn emergency resussitation techniques.

For Questions 11-14, each sentence has ONE word that is incorrect. Write the correct spelling of the word.

11 Arrangements were made to finalise the bussiness deal.

12 The accident was a real tradgedy.

13 The thief’s denile was not very convincing.

14 You must obtain a reciept with your purchase.

15. Brackets ( ) are needed in this sentence. Which part of the sentence needs brackets?

Sir Donald George Bradman 1908-2001 was a famous Australian cricketer.

Sir

George

1908-2001

Australian

16. Which word is not needed in this sentence?

The space shuttle descended down to Earth on schedule.

descended

down

Earth

Schedule

17. Which of these has the correct use of capital letters? Choose one only.

"I live in the suburb of kensington," the boy said. "where do you live?"

"I live in the suburb of Kensington," the boy said. "Where do you live?"

"I live in the suburb of kensington," the boy said. "Where do you live?"

"I live in the suburb of Kensington," the boy said. "where do you live?"

18. Which words correctly complete the sentence?

If I ----the final, it would have been my best performance.

win

won

had won

would win

19. Which sentence is punctuated correctly?

Lee’s mother told her to tidy her room.

Lee’s mother “told her to” tidy her room.

Lee’s mother told “her to tidy her room”.

Lee’s “mother told “her to tidy” her room.

For questions 15-30, shade one bubble to show your answer.

20. Which word correctly completes this sentence?

Australia is drought affected; _____________, we must conserve water.

besides

however

therefore

otherwise

21. Which sentence is punctuated correctly?

Because we love cooking we arrived, early for the demonstration.

because we love cooking, we arrived, early for the demonstration.

Because we love cooking we arrive early, for the demonstration.

Because we love cooking, we arrived early for the demonstration.

22. Although the problem seemed simple to her, the teacher decided to simplify it further for her students.

In this sentence, SIMPLE and SIMPLIFY are:

noun and verb

adjective and verb

verb and adverb

adverb and noun

23. Which word correctly completes each sentence?

I really hope my sister ___________ a great time tomorrow.

had

has

have

has’ve

24. Which of the following should end with a question mark?

How to operate the LCD television

How we got there is interesting

How unusual to see you here

How do we get to the park

25. Choose the correct option to replace the number 1 in the text above. resipee

resipe

recipe

recepe

26. Choose the correct option to replace the number 2 in the text above. hasn’t

hasnt’

ha’snt

has’nt

27. Choose the correct option to replace the number 3 in the text above. flavoring

flavore

flavors

flavouring

28. Choose the correct option to replace the number 4 in the text above. rol

rolle

role

roll

29. Choose the correct option to replace the number 5 in the text above. Finaly

Finally

Fineley

Finalee

30. Choose the correct option to replace the number 6 in the text above. youse

youv’e

yous

you’ve

For questions 25-30, read the text Chewing Gum. The text has some gaps. Choose the correct options to fill the gap where each number is.

Chewing Gum

The 1 for chewing gum 2 changed much since it was first invented in South America thousands of

years ago. Mix a little corn syrup, plenty of sugar, a little 3 such as peppermint oil or the juice of the

sapodilla tree, and then 4 the doughy mixture into thin sheets. 5 cut the sheets into sticks or

pellets, and 6 got chewing gum.

SECTION THREE: READING Allow 40 minutes for this section (20 marks)

1. The diagrams illustrate

The latest research on infection control.

The correct technique for handwashing.

Before and after procedures for handwashing.

How to comply with infection control policies.

2. According to the text, if soap and water are unavailable

Workers can still have patient contact.

An apron or other clothing can be worn.

Alcohol hand-rub can be used as an alternative.

All linen should be placed in colour-coded bags.

3. This text states that handwashing is required

Only before patient contact.

Before and after all patient contact.

When disposable gloves are not available.

Only when you are exposed to body fluids.

4. This information is mainly intended for

Laundry staff.

Infected patients.

Hospital auditors.

Healthcare workers.

5. The main aim for this information is to

Reduce cross-contamination of patients and staff.

Explain the meaning of the term methicillin-resistant.

Demonstrate that handwashing is superior to the use of gloves.

Show how Staphylococcus aureus was first introduced to hospitals.

6. MRSA is

A policy.

An infection.

A contaminated material.

A hand-washing technique.

Answer Questions 1-6 on the text Infection Control

7. Look at the first poster, Good for kids. According to the text, what is one

benefit of drinking tap water?

It tastes delicious.

It can be flavoured.

It doesn’t have any germs.

It is cheaper than some other drinks.

8. The Pull the plug poster suggest that some children

Should watch less television.

Believe everything they see on television.

Want more food advertising on television.

Dislike watching food advertising on television.

9. See Mum? Normal people get to eat those tasty snacks five times an hour…

This comment shows

How unhealthy most food advertising is.

The influence children have on each other.

That food advertising aimed at children works well.

How much television children tend to watch every day.

10. Both of the posters suggest that

Children always make unhealthy choices.

There are any unhealthy choices available.

There are not enough healthy choices available.

Parents don’t know how to make healthy choices.

Answer Questions 7-10 on the two posters Healthy Habits

11. Why did the Australian Army recruit Sarbi?

Sarbi’s mother had worked for the Army.

Sarbi had already received special training.

Sarbi had worked at the Commonwealth Games.

Sarbi had the right character to be an army dog.

12. In the text, Sarbi is portrayed as being

Playful.

Dangerous.

Disobedient.

Professional.

13. What did the Afghan farmer do when Sarbi arrived at his farm?

He tried to sell Sarbi.

He treated Sarbi as a pet.

He made Sarbi work on his farm.

He contacted the American Army.

14. The American soldier saw a black Labrador in northern Afghanistan.

What is most likely to have been the soldier’s reaction?

Anger.

Relief.

Sadness.

Surprise.

15. In which paragraph does the writer first introduce a sense of tension into

the text?

Paragraph 2

Paragraph 3

Paragraph 4

Paragraph 5

Answer Questions 11-15 on the text Sarbi

16. Who was the first ‘flying doctor’?

John Flynn

Alf Traeger

Clifford Peel

Kenyon St Vincent Welch

17. Lieutenant Clifford Peel did not find out that his idea worked because

He died in the war.

He moved to France.

Flynn did not write back.

Air-ground communication was not possible.

18. What characteristic of Flynn does the text focus on?

His bravery

His creativity

His determination

His physical strength

19. In which year did the AMS first operate across all Australian states and

territories?

1926

1928

1929

1939

20. The RFDS motto is The furthest corner. The finest care.

What does this tell you?

The RFDS takes good care of its planes.

The RFDS is building hospitals all over Australia.

Even patients in remote areas will receive excellent treatment.

Only people from the outback will benefit from the services.

--- END OF EXAM ---

Answer Questions 16-20 on the text Royal Doctor Flying Service.

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