ssc combined graduate level exam 2014 complete guide ebook

SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide


Table of Contents

PREFACE ............................................................................................................................................. 4

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC) – AN INTRODUCTION .............................................. 5

LIST OF OPEN EXAMINATIONS CONDUCTED BY SSC ..................................................................... 5

SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM 2014 ....................................................................... 6 SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Notification ...................................................................................... 6

Important Dates ............................................................................................................................................ 6 Names of Posts ............................................................................................................................................. 6 Educational Qualification ............................................................................................................................... 7 Age Limit ....................................................................................................................................................... 7 Scheme of Examination ................................................................................................................................. 7 How to Apply ................................................................................................................................................ 8 Application Fee ............................................................................................................................................. 8

Selection Procedure ........................................................................................................................................... 8 Examination Scheme for SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014 ............................................................... 8 PERSONALITY TEST/INTERVIEW ..................................................................................................................... 9 Skill Test: FOR THE POST OF TAX ASSISTANTS (Central Excise & Income Tax) .................................................. 9

Syllabus for SSC Combined Graduate Level(Tier-I)Exam 2014 ............................................................................ 10 General Intelligence & Reasoning ................................................................................................................ 10 General Awareness ..................................................................................................................................... 11 Quantitative Aptitude.................................................................................................................................. 11 English Comprehension ............................................................................................................................... 11

Syllabus for SSC Combined Graduate Level(Tier-II)Exam 2014 ........................................................................... 11 Paper-I : Quantitative Ability ....................................................................................................................... 11 Paper-II : English Language & Comprehesion ............................................................................................... 12 Paper-III : Statistics for Investigator Grade-II, Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation & Compiler in RGI .......................................................................................................................................................... 12

Tips and Strategies for SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination 2014 .......................................................... 14 English Comprehension ............................................................................................................................... 14 Quantitative Aptitude.................................................................................................................................. 14 General Intelligence and Reasoning ............................................................................................................. 15 General Awareness ..................................................................................................................................... 17 Time Management Tips ............................................................................................................................... 19

SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM 2013: (COMPLETE QUESTION PAPER) ........ 20

Part A General Intelligence and Reasoning .......................................................................................................... 20

Part B General Awareness ................................................................................................................................... 41

Part C Quantitative Aptitude ............................................................................................................................... 52

Part D English Comprehension ............................................................................................................................. 67


SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2013: (Answers).......................................................................................... 79

SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2013: (Explanations) ................................................................................... 81

SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM 2012: (COMPLETE QUESTION PAPER) ..... 118

Part A General Intelligence and Reasoning ........................................................................................................ 118

PART- B General Awareness .............................................................................................................................. 134

PART- C Quantitative Aptitude .......................................................................................................................... 145

PART- D English Comprehension ........................................................................................................................ 158

SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2012: (Answers)........................................................................................ 169

SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2012: (Explanations) ................................................................................. 171

FEEDBACK ..................................................................................................................................... 208


Preface

Jagranjosh’s SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide eBook is a one-stop solution for aspirants who endeavor to leave no stone unturned to score considerably in SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014. SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide e-Book is prepared by Jagranjosh’s team of

subject matter experts who worked up the best to come up with this all-inclusive preparation package

for all sections of SSC CGL Exam. This eBook is a perfect blend of all important information clubbed

together for SSC CGL Exam. The compilation of this eBook is made to help students understand the SSC

CGL exam pattern and prepare accordingly. It further includes fully solved two previous year question

papers along with tips & strategies to prepare for individual subjects.

Our SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide eBook will let students prepare well for SSC CGL Exam. This will help them hone ‘time management’ skills. The SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide eBook includes:

Introduction to SSC

SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Notification

Syllabus, Selection Procedure, Exam Pattern and Tips and Strategies

Fully solved Question Papers of 2013 and 2012

Jagranjosh’s SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide eBook is a one-stop solution to

help students prepare for the SSC CGL Exam. All the chapters of this eBook are reader-friendly and easy

to understand. Just prepare with it to score more.

Our team at Jagranjosh.com wishes all the very best to the aspirants of SSC Exams.

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Staff Selection Commission (SSC) – An Introduction

The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) is an attached office of the Department of Personnel and Training.

The function of SSC is to make recruitment to-

(i) Group “B” posts in the various Ministries/Departments of the Govt. of India and

their Attached and Subordinate Offices and

(ii) Group “C” posts in the various Ministries/Departments of the Govt. of India and

their Attached and Subordinate Offices.

SSC Conducts both Open Level and Departmental Exams for the recruitment.

LIST OF OPEN EXAMINATIONS CONDUCTED BY SSC

S.No. Name of Examination Posts to be filled

1. Combined Graduate Level Examination Assistants ,in CSS,AFHQ, MEA etc, Inspectors in Central Excise/Preventive Officer/Income Tax, Inspector of Posts, Sub Inspector in CBI, Divl Accountants,

Auditors,UDC etc

2. Tax Assistant Examination Tax Assistant in CBDT & CBEC

3. Statistical Investigators (SSS) Grade IV Examination

Statistical Investigators (SSS( Grade IV in Deptt. of Statistice & PI

4. Junior Engineers(Civil & Elect) Examination Junior Engineers (Civil & Elect) in CPWD/Deptt of Posts,Military Engineering Service

5. Junior Translators (CSOLS) Examination Junior Translators of CSOLS Cadre in DOL

6. Section Officer (Comml Audit) Examination Section Officer(Commercial Audit)

7. Deputy Field Officer (Cab Sectt) Examination Deputy Field Officer(Cabinet Sectt)

8.

Data Entry Operator(DEO) Examination

Data Entry Operator(DEO)

9. Sub Inspector in CPOs Examination Sub Inspector in CPOs

10. Section Officer (Audit) Examination Section Officer (Audit)

11. Combined Matric Level Examination Steno Gr"C", Steno Gr "D",

& LDC

12. Section Officer (Accounts) Examination Section Officer(Accounts)


SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014

SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM 2014: NOTIFICATION

Staff Selection Commission will conduct the Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2013 for the recruitment to the different posts. The Graduation from a recognized University is the minimum Educational Qualification for the examination. The eligible candidate can apply for the posts before 15 February 2013.

IMPORTANT DATES

Opening Date for Online Registration: 18 January 2014

Closing Date for Online Registration: 14 February 2014

Date of Examination: 27 April 2014 and 4 May 2014

NAMES OF POSTS

Assistant Central Secretariat Service

Assistant Central Vigilance Commission

Assistant Intelligence Bureau Group

Assistant Ministry of Railway Group

Assistant Ministry of External Affairs Group

Assistant Ministry of External Affairs Group

Assistant AFHQ Group

Assistant Other Ministries/ Departments/Organisations

Assistant Other Ministries/ Departments/Organisations

Inspector of Income Tax CBDT

Inspector, (Central Excise) CBEC

Inspector (Preventive Officer)

Inspector (Examiner)

Assistant Enforcement Officer: Directorate of Enforcement, Department of Revenue

Sub Inspectors Central Bureau of Investigation

Inspector of Posts Department of Post

Divisional Accountant Offices under CAG

Statistical Investigator Gr.II M/Statistics & Prog Implementation

Inspector Central Bureau of Narcotics Group “B”

Auditor Offices under C&AG

Auditor Offices under CGDA

Auditor Offices under CGA & others


Accountant/ Junior Accountant Offices under C&AG

Accountant/ Junior Accountant Offices under CGA & others

Upper Division Clerk Central Govt. Offices/Ministries other than CSCS cadres

Tax Assistant CBDT

Tax Assistant CBEC

Compiler Registrar General of India

Sub-Inspector Central Bureau of Narcotics

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION

Compiler: Bachelor’s Degree from any recognized University with Economics or Statistics or Mathematics as compulsory or Elective subject.

Statistical Investigator Grade – II: Bachelors Degree with Statistics as one of the main subjects or

Bachelor’s Degree with Mathematics (with Statistics as a papers studied in one year/two years/all three years as the case may be) as one of the main subjects or

Bachelor’s Degree with Economics (with Statistics as a paper studied in one year/two years/all the three years as the case may be) as one of the main subjects or

Bachelor’s Degree with Commerce (with Statistics as a paper studied in one year/two years/all the three years as the case may be) as one of the main subjects

All other Posts: Bachelor’s Degree from a recognized University or equivalent

AGE LIMIT

Age Limit for all the posts will be 18 Years to 27 Years

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

The Examination will be conducted in three tiers as indicated below:

Tier -I -- Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)

Tier -II -- Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)

Tier -III -- Personality Test cum Interview/Computer Proficiency Test/ Skill Test

(wherever applicable)/ Document Verification & Descriptive/on-line test of qualifying

nature.


HOW TO APPLY

The candidate can apply through online and offline mode of application and registration before 15 February.

APPLICATION FEE

Women candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe, Physically Handicapped, and Ex-Servicemen eligible for reservation are exempted from paying application fee, as per extant government orders

All other candidates are required to pay Rs 100/-

SELECTION PROCEDURE

The candidates will be selected on the basis of Written Papers prescribed for different posts and interview. After this, the merit list of candidates will be prepared by the commission.

EXAMINATION SCHEME FOR SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM 2014

The Examination will be conducted in three tiers as indicated below:

Tier -I -- Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)

Tier -II -- Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)

Tier -III -- Personality Test cum Interview/Computer Proficiency Test/ Skill Test (wherever applicable)/ Document Verification & Descriptive/on-line test of qualifying nature.

Tier 1 (Posts for which interview is prescribed other than Statistical Investigator Grade 2)

General Intelligence and Reasoning – 50 marks

General Awareness- 50 marks

Quantitative Aptitude- 50 marks

English Comprehension- 50 marks

Total marks is 200 marks. Duration will be of two hours.

Tier 2 (Posts for which interview is prescribed other than Statistical Investigator Grade 2)

Quantitative Abilities – 200 marks (100 questions)

Duration will be 2 hours


English Language Comprehension: 200 marks

Total Marks will be 400.

The Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) will be required for the post of Assistant CSS only, and for the same the total marks will be 700. For posts, where no interview is prescribed the total marks will be 600.

Candidates qualifying in Tier 2 of the examination, for the computer proficiency test and interview for the posts of Assistant in CSS, interview for the other interview posts, Data Entry Skill Test for posts of Tax Assistant and document verification for other non interview posts, will be subjected to a short description paper/online test of not more than one hour’s duration with questions drawn from “English Language and Comprehension”, “Quantitative Abilities “and “General Awareness”.

The examination will be qualifying in nature and will not be taken into account for determining the position of the candidates in the merit order. Students must also note that there will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer in Tier 1, and in Tier 2, there will be negative marking of 0.25 marks in paper 2 and 0.50 marks in paper 1 and paper 3 for each wrong answer.

PERSONALITY TEST/INTERVIEW

For posts for which Interview cum Personality Test is prescribed, the Personality Test/ interview will carry a maximum of 100 marks.

NOTE-I: The Commission, at its discretion may fix different minimum qualifying marks in interview for General and Reserved category candidates.

NOTE-II : The interview will be held at the Commission‘s Regional /Sub Regional Offices of the Commission or at any other place as decided by the Commission.

NOTE-III : SC/ST candidates called for interview will be paid TA as per Govt. Orders. However, no TA is payable to any candidate for appearing in the written examination.

NOTE-IV : Canvassing in any form will disqualify the candidate.

SKILL TEST: FOR THE POST OF TAX ASSISTANTS (CENTRAL EXCISE & INCOME TAX)

Data Entry Speed Test (DEST) at 8,000 (eight thousand) Key Depression per hour on Computer.

The “Data Entry Speed” Skill Test at 2000 (two thousand) key depressions for a duration of 15 (fifteen) minutes will be of qualifying nature. Computer will be provided by the Commission at the Centre/venue notified for the purpose. Candidates shall not be allowed to bring their own Key-board.


NOTE-I: The Skill test will be conducted in the manner decided by the Commission for the purpose.

NOTE-II: Only those candidates who secure at least the minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as may be fixed by the Commission at their discretion, will be eligible to appear in the SKILL TEST. The SKILL TEST will be held at the Commission‟s Regional/Sub Regional Offices or at other Centres as may be decided by the Commission.

NOTE-III: EXEMPTION FROM SKILL TEST FOR OH CANDIDATES: OH CANDIDATES OPTING FOR THE POST OF TAX ASSISTANT IN CBDT ARE EXEMPTED FOR APPEARING IN SKILL TEST. OH CANDIDATES OPTING FOR POST OF TAX ASSISTANT IN CBEC ARE NOT EXEMPTED FROM SKILL TEST. HH AND VH CANDIDATES ARE NOT ELIGIBLE FOR EXEMPTION FROM THE SKILL TEST.

NOTE-IV: Detailed instructions regarding Skill Test will be sent by the Regional /Sub Regional Offices of the Commission to eligible candidates declared qualified for appearing in Skill Test.

NOTE-V: VH CANDIDATES MAY BE ALLOWED COMPENSATORY TIME OF 20 MINUTES IN DEST AT PAR WITH TYPING TEST. ONLY THOSE VH CANDIDATES WHO OPT FOR SCRIBES IN THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION WILL BE PROVIDED PASSAGE READER AT THE TIME OF SKILL TEST.

NOTE-VI: The Skill Test will be of qualifying nature.

SYLLABUS FOR SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL(TIER-I)EXAM 2014

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING

Questions of both verbal and non-verbal type

Questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, spatial orientation, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc. The topics are, Semantic Analogy, Symbolic/Number Analogy, Fi ural Analogy, Semantic Classification, Symbolic/Number Classification, Figural Classification, Semantic Series, Number Series, Figural Series, Problem Solving, Word Building, Coding 8 de-coding, Numerical Operations, symbolic Operations, Trends, Space Orientation, Space Visualization, Venn Diagrams, Drawing inferences, Punched hole/pattern -folding 8 un-folding, Figural Pattern — folding and completion, Indexing, Address matching, Date & city matching, Classification of centre codes/roll numbers, Small & Capital letters/numbers coding, decoding and classification, Embedded Figures, Critical thinking, Emotional Intelligence, Social Intelligence, Other sub-topics, if any.


GENERAL AWARENESS

Questions in this section will be asked for testing the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. The several questions will specially designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of every day observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighboring countries especially pertaining History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Policy & Scientific Research.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

The questions in this section will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The main scope of the test will be computation of whole numbers, decimals, fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio 8 Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Allegation, Time and distance, Time 8 Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra 8 Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centers, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons , Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram and Pie chart.

ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

The question will be asked to judge the candidates’ ability to understand correct English, his basic comprehension and writing ability, etc.

SYLLABUS FOR SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL(TIER-II)EXAM 2014

PAPER-I : QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be the computation of whole numbers, decimals ,fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio & Proportion,Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons , Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres,


Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart

PAPER-II : ENGLISH LANGUAGE & COMPREHESION

Questions in this components will be designed to test the candidate’s understanding and knowledge of English Language and will be based on spot the error, fill in the blanks, synonyms, antonyms, spelling/detecting mis-spelt words, idioms & phrases, one word substitution, improvement of sentences, active/passive voice of verbs, conversion into direct/indirect narration, shuffling of sentence parts, shuffling of sentences in a passage, cloze passage & comprehension passage.

PAPER-III : STATISTICS FOR INVESTIGATOR GRADE-II, MINISTRY OF STATISTICS & PROGRAMME IMPLEMENTATION & COMPILER IN RGI

Collection Classification and Presentation of Statistical Data – Primary and Secondary data, Methods of data collection; Tabulation of data; Graphs and charts; Frequency distributions; Diagrammatic presentation of frequency distributions.

Measures of Central Tendency- Common measures of central tendency – mean median and mode; Partition values- quartiles, deciles, percentiles.

Measures of Dispersion- Common measures dispersion – range, quartile deviations, mean deviation and standard deviation; Measures of relative dispersion.

Moments, Skewness and Kurtosis – Different types of moments and their relationship; meaning of skewness and kurtosis; different measures of skewness and kurtosis.

Correlation and Regression – Scatter diagram; simple correlation coefficient; simple regression lines; Spearman’s rank correlation; Measures of association of attributes; Multiple regression; Multiple and partial correlation (For three variables only).

Probability Theory – Meaning of probability; Different definitions of probability; Conditional probability; Compound probability; Independent events; Bayes’ theorem.

Random Variable and Probability Distributions – Random variable; Probability functions; Expectation and Variance of a random variable; Higher moments of a random variable; Binomial , Poisson, Normal and Exponential distributions; Joint distribution of two random variable (discrete).

Sampling Theory – Concept of population and sample; Parameter and statistic, Sampling and non-sampling errors; Probability and non-probability sampling techniques(simple random sampling, stratified sampling,


multistage sampling, multiphase sampling, cluster sampling, systematic sampling, purposive sampling, convenience sampling and quota sampling); Sampling distribution(statement only); Sample size decisions.

Statistical Inference - Point estimation and interval estimation, Properties of a good estimator, Methods of estimation (Moments method, Maximum likelihood method, Least squares method), Testing of hypothesis, Basic concept of testing, Small sample and large sample tests, Tests based on Z, t, Chi-square and F statistic, Confidence intervals.

Analysis of Variance - Analysis of one-way classified data and two-way classified data.

Time Series Analysis - Components of time series, Determinations of trend component by different methods, Measurement of seasonal variation by different methods.

Index Numbers - Meaning of Index Numbers, Problems in the construction of index numbers, Types of index number, Different formulae, Base shifting and splicing of index numbers, Cost of living Index Numbers, Uses of Index Numbers.

NOTE-I : Questions in Paper-I will be of 10th standard level, Paper-II of 10+2 level and Paper-III of graduation level.

NOTE- II: (i)The Commission will have full discretion to fix separate minimum qualifying marks in each of the papers in Tier II and in the aggregate of all the papers separately for each category of candidates (viz. SC/ST/OBC /PH/ExS/General (UR) Only those candidates who qualify in all the papers as well as in the aggregate would be eligible to be considered for being called for Interview and/or Skill Test.

(ii)There will be different set of Questions for Visually Handicapped (VH) candidates in Paper-I-Quantitative Ability, which shall not have any component of Map/Graphs/Statistical Data/ Diagrams/Figures/Geometrical problems/Pie-chart etc. However, components of other papers will be the same as that for general candidates.

NOTE-III: Any representation to key of the examination will be scrutinized with the help of experts, wherever necessary, and evaluation in that case will be done with modified answer key. The decision of the Commission in this regard will be final and no further representation will be entertained.


TIPS AND STRATEGIES FOR SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAMINATION 2014

Jagranjosh.com is an ideal destination for the candidates where, the candidates get complete information about all banking exam like notifications, previous year question papers, Model Practice sets, Online test, eBooks etc. our banking team develop each and every product by amalgamating proper ingredients after proper understanding of exam requirement. Here are some tips and strategies related to all 4 sections of SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination (Tier I) 2014.

ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

Each section will have 50 questions with negative marking of .25 marks for each wrong answer. Here are some tips and strategies related to English Language, which will help the students to score well in the examination.

English Language Section is included in SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam to test your English language ability.

• The candidates should have good knowledge of rules of Grammar and its correct usage in right perspective.

• Questions from the topics like Reading Comprehensions, Sentence Arrangement, Synonyms, Antonyms, spelling test, common error, fillers etc are being asked.

• The rules of part of speech must be understood well as they are highly required to solve grammar part.

• Vocabulary of candidates should also be strong to answer synonyms and antonyms.

• The candidate should give attention to the various exceptions to the grammatical rules also as it is highly helpful in spotting Errors type questions.

• They should have good reading ability for attempting questions of Reading Comprehension.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Quantitative Aptitude section will have 50 questions with negative marking of .25 marks for each wrong answer. Here are some tips and strategies related to Quantitative Aptitude, which will help the students to score well in the examination.

• Quantitative Aptitude section generally includes questions from topic like Simplification, Approximation, Profit and Loss Percentage, Discount, Average, Data Interpretation, Time and Work, Trigonometry, Ratio Proportion, Square Roots, Decimal and Fractions.


• Knowledge of Basic Mathematics from class V to X is required for QA Section of SSC Combined Higher Secondary Exam. In Mathematics, questions from Trigonometry,Algebra and Geometry are asked.

• The candidates should know the basic concepts applied in each chapter. Application of those concepts with right method is the key to solving questions.

• By heart learning of formulas and their application would be perfect way to solve many questions.

• Basic calculation and approximation concept should be strong as they directly drive the candidate to right option. A small amount of time is to be devoted for learning fast calculation methods including Vedic maths. It helps in saving time devoted for each question.

• More and More Practice of Model Questions and Previous Year Questions will be very helpful for the candidates in scoring well in the exam.

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING

General Intelligence & Reasoning section will have 50 questions with negative marking of .25 marks for each wrong answer. Here are some tips and strategies related to General Intelligence & Reasoning, which will help the students to score well in the examination.

The General Intelligence and Reasoning occupies prominent position in almost all the competitive examinations. General Intelligence and Reasoning is variously rendered as Mental Ability, Reasoning Ability, Mental Aptitude, Analytical Skills, and Aptitude.

This questions in this section broadly classified into both verbal and non verbal type.

Topics Covered in Verbal Section

a) Analogy

b) Classification

c) Word Formation/Building

d) Ranking/Arrangement

e) Blood Relationship

f) Distance and Direction

g) Series

h) Mathematical Problem

i) Arrangement of Words in a Logical Order


j) Venn Diagram

k) Symbols and Notations

l) Trends

m) Cubes and Dices

n) Coding Decoding

o) Problem Solving

p) Statement and Conclusion

q) Syllogism

Skill Set Required for Verbal Section

Verbal Reasoning incorporates in itself the skills in language and the capacity to infer something logically means reasoned thinking or reasoned conclusion.

The best approach to perform better in verbal reasoning is to follow instructions, identify the root of the problem and to work with a cool and cautious mind.

Topics Covered in Non Verbal Reasoning

a) Series

b) Analogy

c) Classification/Grouping

d) Embedded Figure

e) Paper Folding and Cutting

f) Completion of Figure

g) Mirror and Water Image

Skill Set Required for Nonverbal Section

This section is a part of abstract reasoning. It is meant to test your ability to argue, reasoning and thinking and finally arrive to valid conclusion with the help of different figures provided in options.

Here, persons logic and thinking should be in right directions because once he/she start thinking in wrong direction


The inherent logical procedure will help the candidates to find out the principle on which problem figure is based

GENERAL AWARENESS

The general Awareness Section of SSC-CGL Exam(Tier-I) Question Paper is aimed at testing the general awareness of the candidate about national and international affairs and matters that happens in everyday life. The questions from topics like History, Culture, Geography, Science, Economics, General Policy and Scientific Research would be asked in this section. Therefore, to prepare for this section, a candidate has to take into consideration all these topics and should try to ensure a fair amount of knowledge of the same.

Topics No of questions asked in 2013 Exam

History and Culture 8

Geography and Science 23

Economics 7

General Policy and Scientific Research

3

Current General Knowledge 6

Total 50


History and Culture

For preparation of history part, the candidates are required to go through historical

events (Dates, Person involved, and places of happening, and final outcome)

Make a good notes of all the important events of pasts and try to learn them by heart

Geography and Science

The preparation of geography and science involves continuous revision of the important

concepts, facts, problems that you would have marked during book reading.

For this, the candidates should make notes for important discoveries, life processes,

Cells, Environment, Biodiversity, Ecosystem, Nutrition, Atmosphere, Climate, Soil, Land

and Resources

Thorough revision of all the topics will make the candidates more confident.

Economics

Economics is one the important section in General Awareness Section of the Question

Paper.

The candidates should have good knowledge of Basic Economy, National income and

aggregates, Demand, Supply, Foreign Exchange, Economic Development, Balance of

Payment and National and International Financial Institutions etc.

General Policy and Scientific Research

One should thoroughly learn and revise policies, programs, latest updating in economy

to score well in exam

Latest Scientific researches with the name of researchers and its main implications

should be properly prepared for CGL Tier 1 Exam.

Current General Knowledge

Prepare notes of important banking news, economy news and corporate affairs and

revise them meticulously to keep yourselves perfect in General Awareness

Keep an eye on latest happenings and read a daily newspaper to yourselves updated

with latest news.


TIME MANAGEMENT TIPS

Managing time in proper way is extremely important for the candidates who are preparing for the upcoming SSC CGL Exam.

Before appearing in the examination, the candidates must have to review below mentioned important tips and manage time in better way.

• Reach the examination venue, 30 minutes prior of scheduled time to avoid any discomfort

• Pre-Plan your travel to avoid delay

• If the candidate live far from the exam venue than reach the destination before two or a day before.

Carry valid ID proof such as Passport/PAN Card/ Driving License/Voter’s Card/Bank passbook with photograph/Photo Identity Proof issued by a Gazetted Officer (on official letterhead) or Photo Identity Proof issued by a People’s Representative (on official letterhead)/Identity card issued by a recognized college/University/Aadhar card with photograph/Employee ID in original as well as a photocopy

• Call letter with your recent passport size photograph

• Bring all the necessary things along like ball point pen for rough work and other documentation works.

When START signal for Test is given, do not waste your time in first reading all the questions as is done in the School/College/University examinations.


SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2013: (Complete Question Paper)

Part A General Intelligence and Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3) In the following questions, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

1. DISTANCE

(a) DANCE

(b) STAND

(c) SANE

(d) TEASE

2. RESURRECTIONIST

(a) TOURIST

(b) NOISE

(c) SORCERER

(d) TENDER

3. COMMERCIALISM

(a) CROME

(b) LANCER

(c) MISER

(d) OSCAR

4. If DIVINE is coded as AFSFKB, then POWERFUL is coded as

(a) XLHOJVIM

(b) MLTBDCRI


(c) MLWBOCRI

(d) HLTBNCRI

5. If NOTE is written as PQVG, then TIME is written as

(a) VQOG

(b) VKOG

(c) VOKG

(d) VGKO

6. If SMART is coded as UKCPV, then WONDER is coded as

(a) YMPPRT

(b) YMPBGP

(c) YMPBFP

(d) YMBPPG

Directions (Q. Nos. 7 and 8) In the following questions, which of the following interchange of signs would make the given equation correct?

7. 10 + 10 ÷ 10 − 10 × 10 = 10

(a) + and –

(b) + and ÷

(c) + and ⤬

(d) ÷ and +

8. (8 – 8) + 8 ⤬ 32 = 64

(a) ⤬, +, –

(b) −,÷, +

(c) +,÷, +

(d) +,÷,⤬


9. If ‘R’ Stands for’–’, ‘A’ stands for ‘+’, ‘B’ stands for ′ ÷ ′ and ‘C’ stands for ‘⤬’, then what

is the value of the given equation? (BODMAS rule will not be applicable)

25 A 37 C 2 B 4 R 1 =?

(a) 32

(b) 35

(c) 30

(d) 27

Directions (Q. Nos. 10-15) In the following questions, select the related letter/word/ number form the given alternatives.

10. Chisel : Sculptor :: Harrow : ?

(a) Gardener

(b) Mason

(c) Blacksmith

(d) Guard

11. Moon : Satellite :: Earth: ?

(a) Sun

(b) Planet

(c) Solar system

(d) Round

12. BJCI : JBIC :: CXDW : ?

(a) JCDU

(b) BCJU

(c) EVFU

(d) XCWD


13. AB : NO :: LM : ?

(a) OL

(b) KP

(c) PK

(d) YZ

14. AG : IO :: EK : ?

(a) LR

(b) MS

(c) PV

(d) SY

15. 25 : 175 :: 32 : ?

(a) 150

(b) 170

(c) 162

(d) 160

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-21) In the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three responses?

16.

(a) Shimla

(b) Darjeeling

(c) Ooty

(d) Agra


17.

(a) Foal

(b) Hen

(c) Lamb

(d) Leveret

18.

(a) BADC

(b) XWZY

(c) VUST

(d) NMPO

19.

(a) DCFG

(b) FEHI

(c) JILM

(d) HGJL

20.

(a) (1, 0)

(b) (2, 3)

(c) (3, 8)

(d) (4, 27)

21.

(a) (96, 24)

(b) (39, 18)

(c) (81, 54)


(d) (82, 64)

22. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words

in ascending order?

1. Accommodation

2. Perception

3. Scheme formation

4. Assimilation

5. Sensation

(a) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

(b) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1

(c) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3

(d) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1

23. Which of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following starting

from the inner layer?

1. Hydrosphere

2. Atmosphere

3. Biosphere

4. Lithosphere

(a) 4, 1, 3, 2

(b) 2, 4, 3, 1

(c) 3, 1, 2, 4

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Directions (Q. Nos. 24-27) In the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series?


24. EJO, FKP, GLQ, HMR, ?

(a) ABC

(b) DEF

(c) MNO

(d) INS

25. B O C N D M E ? ?

(a) LF

(b) OP

(c) KL

(d) EF

26. 7, 2 = 59 ; 5, 3 = 28 ; 9, 1 = 810 ; 2, 1 = 13 ; 5, 4 = ?

(a) 19

(b) 9

(c) 20

(d) 239

27. 120, 440, 960, 1680, ?

(a) 2600

(b) 3240

(c) 3040

(d) 2400


Directions (Q. Nos. 28-30) In the following question, select the missing number from the given responses.

28.

81 64 16

4 9 49

36 16 25

108 96 ?

(a) 230

(b) 140

(c) 120

(d) 410

29.

25 5 5

30 5 6

35 ? 5

(a) 5

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 7


30.

24 51 67

2 4 6

5 7 5

53 211 ?

(a) 135

(b) 235

(c) 247

(d) 407

31. G is fatter than H but not as fat as M. Q is also not as fat as M. Who is the most lean

person in the group?

(a) Q

(b) H

(c) G

(d) M

32. A man walks 15 m South. Then, turning to his right he walks 15 m. Then, turning to his

left, he walks 10 m. Again turns to his left and walks 15 m. How far is he from his initial

position?

(a) 10 m

(b) 25 m

(c) 15 m

(d) 60 m


33. There are five buses M, N, O, P, Q in a row on a road. Bus M is standing at the front and

Q is standing at the back end. Bus N stands between M and O. Bus P stands between O

and Q. Which bus is in the middle of the five?

(a) M

(b) P

(c) N

(d) Q

34. If ‘+’ stands for ‘multiplication’, ‘<’ stands for ‘division’, ‘÷’ stands for ‘subtraction’, ‘–’

stands for ‘addition’ and ‘⤬’ stands for ‘greater than’. Identify which expression is

correct?

(a) 20 – 4 ÷ 4 + 8 < 2 ⤬ 26

(b) 20 ⤬ 8 + 15 < 5 ÷ 9 – 8

(c) 20 < 2 + 10 ÷ 4 – 6 ⤬ 100

(d) 20 < 5 + 25 ÷ 10 – 2 ⤬ 96

35. One day, Nita left home and cycled 10 km Southwards, turned right and cycled 5 km and

turned right and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometers

will he have to cycle to reach her home straight?

(a) 10 km

(b) 15 km

(c) 20 km

(d) 25 km

36. Rajat moves from his office to the canteen straight at a distance of 12 m. Then, he

turned left and walked for 2 m. Then, he turns left again and walks straight for 12 m.

How far is he from his office?

(a) 10 m

(b) 12 m

(c) 8 m


(d) 2 m

Directions (Q. Nos. 37 and 38) In the following question, two/ four statements are given followed by two/four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Your have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

37. Statements

All apples are bananas.

All bananas are sweet.

Conclusions

I. Some apples are sweet.

II. Some bananas are apples.

(a) Only conclusion I follows

(b) Only conclusion II follows

(c) Either conclusion I or II follows

(d) Both conclusions I and II follow

38. Statements

All metals are silver.

All silver are diamond.

Some diamonds are gold.

Some gold are marbles.

Conclusions

I. Some gold are metals.

II. All metals are diamond.

III. Some silver are marble.

IV. Some gold are silver.




(c) Only conclusion III follows

(d) Only conclusion IV follows

39. Which of the following cubes can be created by folding the given figure?

Question Figure

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


40. Two positions of a dice are given. Which number would be at the top when bottom is 2?

(a) 4

(b) 1

(c) 5

(d) 6

41. Identify the response figure from which the question figure’s pieces have been cut.

Question Figure

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


42.

In the above figure, the circle stand for employed, the square stands for social worker, the triangle stands for illiterate and the rectangle stands for truthful. Employed, truth and illiterate social workers are indicated by which region?

(a) 5

(b) 4

(c) 2

(d) 1

43. Find the missing number.

(a) 37

(b) 45

(c) 47

(d) 57


44.

In the above diagram, parallelogram represents women, triangle represents the sub-inspectors of police and circle represents the graduates. Which numbered area represents women graduate sub-inspectors of police?

(a) 5

(b) 3

(c) 8

(d) 13

Directions (Q. Nos. 45 and 46) In the following questions which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

45. Question Figure

(a)

(b)

(c)


(d)

46. Question Figure

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


47. From the given answer Figure, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/

embedded.

Question Figure

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


48. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From

the given answer figure, indicate how it will appear when opened?

Question Figure

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


49. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the given pattern of numbers

when the mirror is held at MN?

Question Figure

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in anyone of the alternatives.

The set of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets

as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0

to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be

represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘B’ can be represented by 01, 31

etc. and ‘P’ can be represented by 67, 75 etc. similarly, you have to identify the set for

the word ‘CARD’.

Matrix I

0 1 2 3 4

0 A B C D E

1 D C B A E

2 B A D C E

3 D B C A E

4 C D A E B

Matrix Ii

5 6 7 8 9

5 P Q R S T

6 Q S P R T

7 P T R S Q

8 Q S P R T

9 T P S Q R

(a) 32, 00, 56, 10


(b) 40, 21, 68, 44

(c) 11, 33, 57, 22

(d) 02, 42, 77, 20


Part B General Awareness

51. Which one of the following is responsible for the working of Newton's colour disc

experiment?

(a) Formation of pure spectra

(b) Formation of impure spectra

(c) Persistence of vision

(d) Principle of complementary colour

52. The dimension ML T-2 corresponds to

(a) force

(b) work done

(c) acceleration

(d) velocity

53. Who is the founder of quantum theory of radiation?

(a) Einstein

(b) Bohr

(c) Plank

(d) S N Bose

54. Fiber optics cable used in communication, works on the principle of

(a) regular reflection of light

(b) diffuse reflection of light

(c) refraction of light

(d) total internal reflection of light


55. Which was the first electronic computer constructed at the Moore School of

Engineering?

(a) EOVAC

(b) ONIVAC

(c) (c)ENIAC

(d) EDSAC

56. Which among the following standard protocols is the most widely used by the Internet?

(a) HITP

(b) TCP/lP

(c) (C) SMTP

(d) SLIP

57. The outer skin most of the crustaceans are made up of a carbohydrate. This

carbohydrate is

(a) cellulose

(b) galactose

(c) chitin

(d) starch

58. Rutherford's scattering experiment proved the presence of

(a) atoms in all matter

(b) electrons in atoms

(c) neutrons in atoms

(d) nucleus in atoms

59. When a metal is heated in a flame, the electrons absorb energy and jump to higher

energy state. On coming back to the lower energy state, they emit light, which we can

observe in


(a) Raman spectra

(b) Absorption spectra

(c) Emission spectra

(d) Fluorescence

60. Blood pressure may be increased by the excessive secretion of

(a) Thyroxine

(b) Testosterone

(c) Estradiol

(d) Estral

61. The concept of 'Green House Gases' was postulated by

(a) Joseph Furier

(b) Abdul Kalam

(c) M S Swaminathan

(d) Richael Carlson

62. 'Bhopal gas tragedy' 1984 is related to

(a) Aluminium Phosphide

(b) Methyl bromide

(c) Methyl isocyanate

(d) Carbon dioxide

63. The Particulate Matter (PM - 10) exhaled from the polluted atmosphere is often filtered

out during the process of

(a) Coughing

(b) Sneezing

(c) a and b


(d) Urination

64. Sarus crane is the state bird of

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(c) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Paschim Benga

65. The Tongario volcano erupted on November 21, 2012 is in

(a) Australia

(b) Indonesia

(c) Papua New Guinea

(d) New Zealand

66. The Daocheng Yading Airport is located in

(a) Thailand

(b) Philippines

(c) China

(d) Tibet

67. BCCI named the "Indian Cricketer of the year 2011-12" to honour

(a) Sunil Gavaskar

(b) VVS Laxman

(c) Virat Kohli

(d) Yuvraj

68. 'Martyr's Day' is marked on

(a) 1 January

(b) 15 January


(c) 30 January

(d) 9 January

69. Who won the World Carrom Championship 2012?

(a) Rashmi Kumari

(b) Mirabai Chanu

(c) Nishantha Fernando

(d) Nuthaki Priyanka

70. The animal who can consume more salt among the following is

(a) Sheep

(b) Camel

(c) Donkey

(d) Dog

71. Which of the following is only domestic Airport?

(a) Dabolin Airport, Goa

(b) Srinagar Airport

(c) Devi Ahilyabai Holkar Airport

(d) None of the above

72. Tick the correct option with regards to the contribution towards GDP (Gross Domestic

Product) from Agriculture

(a) During 1950-51 (GDP 51.88%) and 2011-12 (GDP 14.01%)

(b) During 1950-51 (GDP 11.00%) and 2011-12 (GDP25%)

(c) During 1990-91 (GDP 29.53%) and 2011-12 (GDP 66.77%)

(d) During 1980-81 (GDP 35.69%) and 2011-12 (GDP 20.69%)


73. Second India-Africa Forum Summit 2011 was held in

(a) Eretrea

(b) Ethiopia

(c) Sudan

(d) Nigeria

74. Where did Aurangzeb die?

(a) Pune

(b) Aurangabad

(c) Ahmadnagar

(d) Mumbai

75. The principle of maximum social advantage is the basic principle of

(a) Micro Economics

(b) Macro Economics

(c) Fiscal Economics

(d) Environmental Economics

76. Which Five Year Plan is not correct among the following?

(a) First 1951-56

(b) Second 1956-61

(c) Third 1961-66

(d) Fourth 1966-71

77. The ordinary and maximum tolerance limit of sound by human being is

(a) 50 db to 70 db

(b) 60 db to 80 db

(c) 65 db to 75 db


(d) 70 db to 85 db

78. An economic theory is a/an

(a) Axion

(b) Proposition

(c) Hypothesis

(d) Tested hypothesis

79. Indian Special Economic Rules amendment came in the year

(a) 2000

(b) 2002

(c) 2004

(d) 2006

80. Provisions of citizenship in Indian Constitution, became applicable in

(a) 1950

(b) 1949

(c) 1951

(d) 1952

81. Who gave the title of 'Sardar' to Ballabh Bhai Patel?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Vinoba Bhave

(c) Women of Bardoli

(d) Peasants of Gujrat

82. According to Marx, the source of value is

(a) Capital

(b) Land


(c) Labour

(d) None of these

83. The National Emergency in India declared by the President of India due to the external

aggression or armed revolt through

(a) Article 352

(b) Article 356

(c) Article 360

(d) Article 368

84. The Community Development Programme was launched in the year

(a) 1950

(b) 1952

(c) 1951

(d) 1953

85. What Satyagraha was held at Nagpur in 1923?

(a) Salt Satyagraha

(b) Individual Satyagraha

(c) Ryots Satyagraha

(d) Flag Satyagraha

86. Which one of the following is not a sect of Buddhism?

(a) Mahayana

(b) Hinayana

(c) Digambar

(d) Theravad


87. Who was the viceroy when Delhi became the capital of British India?

(a) Lord Curzon

(b) Lord Minto

(c) Lord Hardinge

(d) Lord Wavell

88. Who established the Indian Civil Liberties Union in 1936?

(a) Subhash Chandra Bose

(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru

(d) Rajendra Prasad

89. Which of the following was established first?

(a) Banaras Hindu University

(b) University of Bombay

(c) Aligarh Muslim University

(d) University of Allahabad

90. 'Yosemite' is a

(a) River

(b) Peak

(c) Waterfall

(d) Dam

91. The first Indian Satellite Aryabhatta was launched in

(a) 1972

(b) 1975

(c) 1977


(d) 1979

92. Where is the shore based steel plant located?

(a) Tuticorin

(b) Salem

(c) Vishakhapatnam

(d) Mangalore

93. Which two of the following are connected by the North South corridor?

(a) Srinagar and Kanyakumari

(b) Mumbai and Chennai

(c) Amritsar and Kolkata

(d) Hyderabad and Bhopal

94. The pollutants which move downward with percolating ground water are called

(a) Leachates

(b) Pollutates

(c) Earthites

(d) Percolates

95. Lungs are located in the

(a) abdominal cavity

(b) pericardial cavity

(c) peritoneal cavity

(d) pleural cavity

96. Which one of the following is the ideal food for newborn babies?

(a) Water

(b) Sugar


(c) Honey

(d) Milk

97. Transcription means the synthesis of

(a) Lipids

(b) Protein

(c) DNA

(d) RNA

98. Hydrochloric acid is secreted by the cells lining the

(a) Oral cavity

(b) Stomach

(c) Ileum

(d) Colon

99. Emulsification is

(a) breaking fats into small globules

(b) digestion of fats

(c) absorption of fats

(d) storage of fats

100. Taxonomy is a science that deals with

(a) Morphology

(b) Anatomy

(c) Classification

(d) Economic uses


Part C Quantitative Aptitude

101. The minimum value of (x – 2) (x – 9) is

(a) −11

4

(b) 49

4

(c) 0

(d) −49

4

102. If x + y + z = 6 and x2 + y2 + z2 = 20, then the value of x3 + y3 + z3 − 3xyz is

(a) 64

(b) 70

(c) 72

(d) 76

103. The third proportional to

x

y+

y

x and x2 + y2 is

(a) xy

(b) xy

(c) xy3

(d) xy4

104. In a ∆ABC, the side BC is extended upto D. Such that CD = AC, if ∠BAD = 109° and ∠ACB

= 72°, then the value of ∠ABC is

(a) 35°

(b) 60°

(c) 40°


(d) 45°

105. Two circles touch each other internally. Their radii are 2 cm and 3cm. The biggest chord

of the greater circle which is outside the inner circle is of length

(a) 2 2cm

(b) 3 2cm

(c) 2 3cm

(d) 4 2cm

106. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. AB and DC are produced to meet at P. If ∠ADC = 70° and

∠DAB = 60°, then the ∠PBC + ∠PCB is

(a) 130°

(b) 150°

(c) 155°

(d) 180°

107. From a point P which is at a distance of 13 cm from centre O of a circle of radius 5 cm, in

the same plane, a pair of tangents PQ and PR are drawn to the circle. Area of

quadrilateral PQOR is

(a) 65 cm2

(b) 60 cm2

(c) 30 em2

(d) 90 em2

108. ABCD is a cyclic trapezium with AB∥DC and AB diameter of the circle. If ∠CAB = 30°, then

∠ADC is

(a) 60°

(b) 120°

(c) 150°


(d) 30°

109. ABC is a triangle. The bisectors of the internal angle ∠B and external angle ∠C intersect

at ∠D. If ∠BDC = 50°, then ∠A is

(a) 100°

(b) 90°

(c) 120°

(d) 60°

110. AB is the chord of a circle with centre O and DOC is a line segment originating from a

point D on the circle and intersecting AB produced at C such that BC = OD. If ∠BCD = 20°,

then ∠AOD is equal to

(a) 20°

(b) 30°

(c) 40°

(d) 60°

111. In a circle of radius 17 cm, two parallel chords of lengths 30 cm and 16 cm are drawn. If

both the chords are on the same side of the centre, then the distance between the

chords is

(a) 9 cm

(b) 7 cm

(c) 23 cm

(d) 11 cm

112. If sin 𝐴 − 𝐵 =1

2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 cos 𝐴 + 𝐵 =

1

2,𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝐴 > 𝐵 > 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐴 + 𝐵 is an acute angle,

then the value B is

(a) 𝜋

6

(b) 𝜋

12


(c) 𝜋

4

(d) 𝜋

2

113. The fifth term of the sequence for which t1 = 1, t2 = 2 and tn+2 = tn + tn+1 is

(a) 5

(b) 10

(c) 6

(d) 8

114. If (x + 7954 ⤬ 7956) be a square number, then the value of ‘x’ is

(a) 1

(b) 16

(c) 9

(d) 4

115. A can do a piece of work in 12 days while B alone can do it in 15 days. With the help of

C, they can finish it in 5 days. If they are paid Rs. 960 for the whole work how much

money A gets?

(a) Rs. 480

(b) Rs. 240

(c) Rs. 320

(d) Rs. 400

116. Ronald and Elan are working on an assignment. Ronal takes 6 h to type 32 pages on a

computer, while Elan takes 5 h to type 40 pages. How much time will they take, working

together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?

(a) 7 h 30 min

(b) 8 h

(c) 8 h 15 min


(d) 8 h 25 min

117. One man, 3 women and 4 boys can do a piece of work in 96 h, 2 men and 8 boys can do

it in 80 h, 2 men and 3 women can do it in 120 h. 5 men and 12 boys can do it in

(a) 391

11ℎ

(b) 427

11ℎ

(c) 437

11ℎ

(d) 44 h

118. ABC is a right angled triangle, B being the right angle. Mid-points of BC and AC are

respectively B’ and A’. The ratio of the area of the quadrilateral AA’ B’B to the area of

∆ABC is

(a) 1 : 2

(b) 2 : 3

(c) 3 : 4

(d) 2 : 3

119. A square ABCD is inscribed in a circle of unit radius. Semi-circles are described on each

side as a diameter. The area of the region bounded by the four semi-circles and the

circle is

(a) 1 sq unit

(b) 2 sq unit

(c) 1.5 sq unit

(d) 2.5 sq unit

120. If the perimeters of a rectangle and a square are equal and the ratio of two adjacent

sides of the rectangle is 1 : 2, then the ratio of area of the rectangle and that of the

square is

(a) 1 : 1

(b) 1 : 2


(c) 2 : 3

(d) 8 : 9

121. The interest on a certain sum of money is Rs. 22 and the discount on the same sum for

the same time and at the same rate is Rs. 20, find the sum

(a) Rs. 220

(b) Rs. 200

(c) Rs. 210

(d) Rs. 212

122. A retailer purchased radio sets at the rate of Rs. 400 each from a wholesaler. He raised

the price by 30% and then allowed a discount of 8% on each set. His profit will be]

(a) 19%

(b) 78.4%

(c) 22%

(d) 19.6%

123. A reduction in the price of apples enables a person to purchase 3 apples for Rs. 1

instead of Rs. 1.25. What is the percent of reduction in price (approximately)?

(a) 20

(b) 25

(c) 30

(d) 331

3

124. Rs. 700 is divided among A, B, C in such a way that the ratio of the amounts of A and B is

2 : 3 and that of B and C is 4 : 5. Find the amounts (in Rs.) each received, in the order A,

B, C

(a) 150, 250, 300

(b) 160, 240, 300


(c) 150, 250, 290

(d) 150, 240, 310

125. The ratio of monthly incomes of A, B is 6 : 5 and their monthly expenditures are in the

ration 4 : 3. If each of them saves Rs. 400 per month, find the sum of their monthly

incomes

(a) Rs. 2300

(b) Rs. 2400

(c) Rs. 2200

(d) Rs. 2500

126. A and B have together three times what B and C have, while A, B, C together have Rs. 30

more than that of A. If B has 5 times that of C, then A has

(a) Rs. 60

(b) Rs. 65

(c) Rs. 75

(d) Rs. 45

127. A cricket player after playing 10 tests scored 100 runs in the 11th test. As a result, the

average of his runs is increased by 5. The present average of runs is

(a) 45

(b) 40

(c) 50

(d) 55

128. A fruit seller buys some oranges at the rate of 4 for Rs. 10 and an equal number more at

5 for Rs. 10. He sells the whole lot at 9 for Rs. 20. What is his loss or gain per cent?

(a) 𝐿𝑜𝑠𝑠 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 119

81%

(b) 𝐺𝑎𝑖𝑛 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 119

81%


(c) No loss or no profit

(d) Loss per cent 2%

129. 15 L of a mixture contains alcohol and water in the ratio 1 : 4. If 3 L of water is mixed in

it, the percentage of alcohol in the new mixture will be

(a) 15

(b) 162

3

(c) 17

(d) 181

2

130. A man rides at the rate of 18 km/h but stops for 6 min, to change horses at the end of

every 7th km. The time that he will take to cover a distance of 90 km is

(a) 6 h

(b) 6 h 12 min

(c) 6 h 18 min

(d) 6 h 24 min

131. A man rows down a river 15 km in 3 h with the stream and returns in 71

2 ℎ. The rate at

which he rows in still water is

(a) 2.5 km/h

(b) 1.5 km/h

(c) 3.5 km/h

(d) 4.5 km/h

132. There is 100% increase to an amount in 8 yr, at simple interest. Find the compound

interest of Rs. 8000 after 2 yr at the same rate of interest

(a) Rs. 2500

(b) Rs. 2000


(c) Rs. 2250

(d) Rs. 2125

133. If the number p is 5 more than q and the sum of the squares of p and q is 55, then the

product of p and q is

(a) 10

(b) –10

(c) 15

(d) –15

134. If 𝑎 +1

𝑎−2= 4, then the value of

(a) 0

(b) 2

(c) –2

(d) 4

135. If a + b + c = 2s, then 𝑠−𝑎 2+ 𝑠−𝑏 2+ 𝑠−𝑐 2+𝑠2

𝑎2+𝑏2+𝑐2 is equal to

(a) 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 + 𝑐2

(b) 0

(c) 1

(d) 2

136. If 𝑥𝑦(𝑥 + 𝑦) = 1, then the value of 1

𝑥3𝑦3 − 𝑥3 − 𝑦3 is

(a) 3

(b) –3

(c) 1

(d) –1


137. If 𝑎3 − 𝑏3 − 𝑐3 = 0, then the value of 𝑎9 − 𝑏9 − 𝑐9 − 3𝑎3𝑏3𝑐3 is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 0

(d) –1

138. A horse is tied to a post by a rope. If the horse moves along a circular path always

keeping the rope stretched and describes 88 m when it has traced out 72° at the centre

the length of the rope is 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒 𝜋 =22

7

(a) 70 m

(b) 75 m

(c) 80 m

(d) 65 m

139. Maximum value of (2 sin 𝜃 + 3 cos 𝜃) is

(a) 2

(b) 13

(c) 15

(d) 1

140. The value of 152(sin 30° + 2 cos2 45° + 3 sin 30° + 4cos245° + ⋯ . +17 sin 30° +

18cos245°) is

(a) an integer but not a perfect square

(b) a rational number but not an integer

(c) a perfect square of an integer

(d) irrational


141. If 1 + sin 𝛼 1 + sin 𝛽 1 + sin 𝛾 = 1 − sin 𝛼 1 − sin 𝛽 1 − sin 𝛾 , then each

side is equal to

(a) ± sin𝛼 cos𝛽 cos𝛾

(b) ± sin𝛼 sin 𝛽 sin 𝛾

(c) ± sin𝛼 cos𝛽 cos𝛾

(d) ± sin𝛼 sin 𝛽 cos𝛾

142. One of the four angles of a rhombus is 60°. If the length of each side of the rhombus is,

8 cm, then the length of the longer diagonal is

(a) 8 3 𝑐𝑚

(b) 8 cm

(c) 4 3 𝑐𝑚

(d) 8

3 𝑐𝑚

143. If the arcs of square length in two circles subtend angles of 60° and 75° at their centres

the ratio of their radii is

(a) 3 : 4

(b) 4 : 5

(c) 5 : 4

(d) 3 : 5


Direction (Q. No. 144) study the above bar graph showing the production of food grains (in million tonne).

144. What is ratio between the maximum production and the minimum production during

the given periods?

(a) 1 : 2

(b) 2 : 3

(c) 3 : 4

(d) 5 : 2

0

20

40

60

80

100

120

2005 2006 2007 2008 2009

Column1

Column1


Directions (Q. Nos. 145-149) study the following Histogram and answer following questions.

145. The total number of students involved in the data is

(a) 33

(b) 32

(c) 43

(d) 42

146. The maximum number of students got the marks in the interval of

(a) 10-20

(b) 20-30

(c) 30-40

(d) 40-50

147. The least number of students got the marks in the interval

(a) 40-50

(b) 20-30

0

2

4

6

8

10

12

10 20 30 40 50

Nu

mb

er

of

stu

de

nts

⟶

Marks⟶


(c) 10-20

(d) 0-10

148. The ratio of the students obtaining marks in the first and the last interval is

(a) 5 : 4

(b) 6 : 5

(c) 4 : 5

(d) 3 : 4

149. The difference in the amount estimated by the family on interior decoration and

architect’s fees is

(a) Rs. 10000

(b) Rs. 9500

(c) Rs. 7200

(d) Rs. 9600

150. .

In a certain country, allocations to various sectors of the yearly budget per Rs. 1000 crore are represented by this pie-diagram. The expenditure (in Rs.) on Agriculture is

(a) 250 crore

(b) 150 crore


(c) 300 crore

(d) 200 crore


Part D English Comprehension

Directions (Q. Nos. 151 and 152) In the following questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

151.

(a) connivance

(b) connivance

(c) connivance

(d) conivence

152.

(a) maintennance

(b) manteinance

(c) maintenance

(d) mentenance

Directions (Q. Nos. 153-162) In the following questions, you have a passage with 10 questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Passage

Cyber Bogeys

The cyber-world is ultimately ungovernable. This is alarming as well as convenient, sometimes, convenient because alarming. Some Indian politicians use this to great advantage. When there is an obvious failure in governance during a crisis they deflect attention from their own incompetence towards the ungovernable. So, having failed to prevent nervous citizens from fleeing their cities of work by assuring them of proper protection, some national leaders are now busy trying to prove to one another and to panic-prone Indians, that a mischievous neighbour has been using the Internet and social networking sites to spread dangerous rumours. And the Centre's automatic reaction is to start blocking these sites and begin elaborate and potentially endless negotiations with Google, Twitter and Facebook about access to information. If this is the official idea of prompt action at a time of crisis among communities, then Indians have more reason to fear their protectors than the nebulous mischief-makers of the cyber-world. Wasting time gathering proof, blocking vaguely suspicious


websites, hurling accusations across the border and worrying about bilateral relations are ways of keeping busy with inessentials because one does not quite know what to do about the essentials of a difficult situation. Besides, only a fifth of the 245 websites blocked by the Centre mention the people of the North- East or the violence in Assam. And if a few morphed images and spurious texts can unsettle an entire nation, then there is something deeply wrong with the nation and with how it is being governed. This is what its leaders should be addressing immediately, rather than making a wrongheaded display of their powers of censorship.

It is just as absurd and part of the same syndrome, to try to ban Twitter accounts that parody despatches from the Prime Minister's Office. To describe such forms of humour and dissent as 'misrepresenting' the PMO-as if Twitterers would take these parodies for genuine despatches from the PMO-makes the PMO look more ridiculous than its parodists manage to. With the precedent forsuch action set recently by the Chief Minister of West Bengal, this is yet another proof that what Bengal thinks today India will think tomorrow. Using the cyber-world for flexing the wrong muscles is essentially not funny. It might even prove to be quite dangerously distracting.

153. According to the passage, the cyber-world is

(a) beyond the imagination of people

(b) outside the purview of common people

(e) not to be governed

(c) ungovernable

154. The author is of the opinion' that

(a) the centre should start negotiations with Google, Twitter and Facebook

(b) the centre should help the citizens evacuate their city

(c) the centre should not block the sites

(d) the centre should arrest the guilty

155. Which of the following is closest to the meaning of 'nebulous'?

(a) Confused

(b) Vague

(c) Iridescent

(d) Glowing


156. The author's seriousness' regarding the situation can best be described in the following

sentences. Pick the odd one out.

(a) Our leaders should display their powers of censorship when needed

(b) If this is the official idea of prompt action at a time of crisis among communities,

then Indians have more reason to fear their protectors than the nebulous mischief-

maker of the cyber-world

(c) The politicians deflect attention from their own incompetence

(d) If a few morphed images and spurious texts can unsettle an entire nation, then there

is something deeply wrong with the nation

157. The word 'spurious' means

(a) genuine

(b) authentic

(c) substantial

(d) fake

158. The author warns us against

(a) not playing false with the citizens

(b) dangers inherent in the cyber-world

(c) not using the cyber-world judiciously

(d) not protecting the citizens from dangerous politicians

159. 'Parody' means

(a) twist

(b) jeopardize

(c) ridicule

(d) imitate

160. What is the opposite of 'wrong headed'?


(a) silly

(b) sane

(c) insane

(d) insensible

161. The passage suggests different ways of keeping the public busy with 'inessentials'. Pick

the odd one out.

(a) By blocking websites which are vaguely suspicious

(b) By blaming neighbouring countries across the border

(c) By turning the attention of the people to violence in Assam

(d) By getting involved in a discourse on bilateral relations

162. The following is a list of statements made by the author of the above passage. Pick the

odd one out.

(a) It is absurd to ban Twitter accounts that parody despatches from the Prime

Minister's Office

(b) Twitterers take these parodies for genuine despatches from the PMO

(c) To describe such forms of humour as 'misrepresenting' the PMO makes the PMO

look more ridiculous

(d) The precedent for such action was set recently by the Chief Minister of West Bengal

Directions (Q. Nos. 163-167) In the following questions/some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and choose to the appropriate letter (a, b, c). If a sentence is free from error, your answer is (d).

163. In India (a)/ working woman lead a life of dual responsibilities (b)/ if they are married

and have a family. (c)/ No error (d)

164. Greatly to our surprise (a)/ we find the ringleader (b)/ was lame. (c)/ No error (d)

165. They have (a)/ played a game (b)/ last week. (c)/ No error (d)

166. The teacher made the boys (a)/ to do the sum (b)/ all over again. (c)/ No error (d)


167. Many overseas students (a)/ attend colleges (b)/ in the Great Britain. (c)/ No error (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 168-172) In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled with an appropriate word (s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

168. Student-parking should be ….. , students should not be charged to buy parking stickers.

(a) fined

(b) free

(c) costly

(d) cheap

169. If you have roses growing in your garden, you can make a lovely .... of flowers at home.

(a) bouqutte

(b) bucquete

(c) bouquet

(d) bouquet

170. The…. of the middle school is a woman of…..

(a) Principles, Principal

(b) Principals, Principal

(c) Principal, Principle

(d) Principle, Principals

171. With the changing times, most of the students have become business like they are ....

and want to take only those courses which they find rewarding ..

(a) idealistic

(b) pragmatic

(c) enthusiastic

(d) partial


172.

1. John's at ... institute studying French.

2. They're building ... school at the end of our street.

3. Do they live in ... United Kingdom or somewhere else?

(a) a, the, an

(b) an, a, the

(c) the, a, an

(d) the, an, a

Directions (Q. Nos. 173-175) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

173. Parsimony

(a) Expenditure

(b) Bankruptcy

(c) Bribery

(d) Miserliness

174. Tribulation

(a) Palpitation

(b) Suffering

(c) Weakness

(d) Stimulation

175. The Prime Minister goes on the ramparts of the Red Fort to hoist the National flag.

(a) rompway

(b) staircase

(c) parapet


(d) scaffold

Directions (Q. Nos. 176-178) In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

176. Lunacy

(a) Sanity

(b) Stupidity

(c) Sensibility

(d) Insanity

177. Obtuse

(a) Sharp witted

(b) Transparent

(c) Timid

(d) Blunt

178. Inadvertently

(a) Secretly

(b) Accidentally

(c) Completely

(d) Deliberately

Directions (Q. Nos. 179-183) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/ Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

179. What egged you on to become a social worker?

(a) urged

(b) dampened

(c) hindered


(d) discouraged

180. Many politicians in India are not fit to hold a candle to Mahatma Gandhi.

(a) superior

(b) equal

(c) inferior

(d) indifferent

181. She must be paying through the nose for the face left.

(a) paying less than necessary

(b) paying too much

(c) paying the right amount

(d) paying reluctantly

182. He is putting the cart before the horse by purchasing furniture before buying a house.

(a) doing a thing in the wrong way

(b) doing a thing in the right way

(c) committing a great crime

(d) doing things meticulously

183. Casting pearls before swine

(a) speaking nice words and convincing them

(b) offering good things to undeserving people

(c) uplifting the needy for their welfare

(d) doing worthwhile things to unknown people

Directions (Q. Nos. 184-193) In the following questions, a sentence/part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined sentence/part of the sentence at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).


184. It became clear that the strangers were heading into a serious disaster.

(a) along

(b) towards

(c) on

(d) No improvement

185. 20 km are not a great distance in these days of fast moving vehicles.

(a) is not a great distance

(b) are not too great a distance

(c) aren't proving a great distance

(d) No improvement

186. I adapted a new method to solve the problem.

(a) I have been adopted

(b) I adopted

(c) I was adapted

(d) No improvement

187. Hoping not to be disturbed, I sat down in my easy chair to read the book, I won as a

prize.

(a) I had won as a prize

(b) I have won as prize

(c) I had to win as a prize

(d) No improvement

188. If you are living near a market place you should be ready to bear the disturbances

caused by traffic.

(a) to bear upon


(b) to bear with

(c) to bear away

(d) No improvement

189. The more they earn, more they spend on luxury items.

(a) more they should spend

(b) the more they spend

(c) the more they ought to spend

(d) No improvement

190. You have come here with a view to insult me.

(a) to insulting me

(b) of insulting me

(c) for insulting me

(d) No improvement

191. A little rail-road engine was empolyed by a station yard for doing small pieces of work.

(a) was made by a station yard

(b) was used at the station yard

(c) was employed at the station yard

(d) No improvement

192. From an aesthetic point of view, the painting did not appeal to me.

(a) From the Viewpoint of aesthetics, the painting did not appeal to me.

(b) The painting had no aesthetic appeal to me

(c) From an aesthetic point of view, the painting had a little appeal to me

(d) No improvement


193. The child tossed in bed burning with fever.

(a) The child in bed, burning with fever tossed

(b) The child burning with fever, tossed in bed

(c) The child burning in bed tossed with fever

(d) No improvement

Directions (Q. Nos. 194-200) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

194. An apartment building in which each apartment is owned separately by the people living

in it, but also containing shared areas.

(a) Condominium

(b) Multiplex

(c) Duplex

(d) Caravan

195. A group of three powerful people.

(a) Trio

(b) Tritium

(c) Trivet

(d) Triumvirate

196. Operation of the body after death.

(a) Post-mortem

(b) Obituary

(c) Homage

(d) Mortuary


197. Not allowing the passage of light.

(a) Oblique

(b) Opaque

(c) Optique

(d) Opulant

198. Science regarding principles of classification.

(a) Taxidermy

(b) Taxonomy

(c) Toxicology

(d) Classicology

199. A political leader appealing to popular desires and prejudices.

(a) Dictator

(b) Tyrant

(c) Popularist

(d) Demagogue

200. Enclosed in a small closed space.

(a) Closophobia

(b) Clusterophobia

(c) Claustrophobia

(d) Liftophobia


SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2013: (Answers)

1 d 51 c 101 d 151 c

2 d 52 a 102 c 152 c

3 b 53 c 103 a 153 d

4 (*) 54 d 104 a 154 a

5 b 55 c 105 d 155 b

6 b 56 b 106 a 156 a

7 c 57 c 107 b 157 d

8 d 58 d 108 b 158 c

9 c 59 c 109 a 159 c

10 a 60 c 110 d 160 b

11 b 61 a 111 b 161 c

12 d 62 c 112 b 162 b

13 d 63 c 113 d 163 b

14 b 64 b 114 a 164 b

15 d 65 d 115 d 165 a

16 b 66 c 116 c 166 b

17 d 67 c 117 c 167 c

18 c 68 c 118 c 168 b

19 d 69 (*) 119 b 169 d

20 d 70 b 120 d 170 c

21 a 71 d 121 a 171 b

22 d 72 a 122 d 172 c

23 a 73 b 123 a 173 d

24 d 74 c 124 b 174 b

25 a 75 b 125 c 175 c

26 a 76 d 126 b 176 a

27 a 77 d 127 c 177 a

28 b 78 d 128 a 178 d

29 d 79 d 129 b 179 a

30 d 80 a 130 b 180 b

31 b 81 c 131 c 181 b

32 b 82 c 132 d 182 a

33 (*) 83 a 133 c 183 b

34 c 84 b 134 b 184 b

35 b 85 d 135 c 185 a

36 d 86 c 136 a 186 b

37 d 87 c 137 c 187 a


38 b 88 c 138 a 188 b

39 b 89 b 139 b 189 b

40 d 90 (*) 140 c 190 a

41 d 91 b 141 a 191 b

42 d 92 c 142 a 192 b

43 d 93 a 143 c 193 b

44 b 94 a 144 d 194 a

45 c 95 d 145 a 195 d

46 b 96 d 146 b 196 a

47 c 97 d 147 d 197 b

48 d 98 b 148 c 198 b

49 c 99 a 149 Wrng ques 199 d

50 c 100 c 150 d 200 c


SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2013: (Explanations)

1. (d) Due to absence of letter 'E' in the main word, the word 'TEASE' cannot be formed.

2. (d) Due to absence of letter 'D' in the main word, the word 'TENDER' cannot be formed.

3. (b) Due to absence of letter 'N' in the main word, the word 'LANCER' cannot be formed.

4. (*) Observe the following pattern:

5. (b) Observe the following pattern:


7. (c) From the Given equation => 10 + 10 + 10 – 10 x 10 = 10 From option (c), after interchanging the signs

10 x 10 ÷ 10 – 10 + 10 = 10


⇒ 10 x 1 – 10 + 10 = 10

⇒ 20 – 10 = 10

8. (d) From the Given equation ⇒ (8 – 8) + 8 x 32 = 64

From option (d), after putting signs

(8 + 8) ÷ 8 x 32 = 64

⇒ 16 + 8 x 32 = 64

⇒ 2 x 32 = 64

9. (c) From the Given equation = 25 A 37 C 2 B 4 R 1

According to the question, after putting signs

25 + 37 x 2 ÷ 4 – 1

= 62 x 2 ÷ 4 – 1 (BODMAS Rule not applied)

= 124 ÷ 4 – 1

= 31 – 1 = 30

10. (a) As, 'Sculptor' made Idol with help of 'Chisel'. Similarly, 'Gardener' plough garden with the help of 'Harrow'.

11. (b) As, 'Moon' is a 'Satellite'. Similarly, 'Earth' is a 'Planet'.

12. (d) Observe the following pattern:




15. (d) As, 25 and 25 ⤬ 7 = 175

Similarly, 32 and 32 ⤬ = 160

16. (d) Except 'Agra', all others are mountain places.

17. (b) Except 'Hen', all others are young one.

18. (c) Observe the following pattern:

Hence, 'VUST' is different from the other three.


Hence, 'HGJL' is different from the other three.


(a) 1 and 12 – 1 = 0

(b) 2 and 22 – 1 = 3

(c) 3 and 32 – 1 = 8

(d) 4 and 42 – 1 = 15 # 27

Hence, (4, 27) is different from the other three.

21. (a) Only in (96, 24), first number is multiple of second number.


22. (d) Words in meaningful ascending order are as follows:

Sensation Perception Assimilation Scheme formation Accomodation

(5) (2) (4) (3) (1)

23. (a) Words in meaningful order starting from the inner layer are as follows:

Lithosphere Hydrosphere Biosphere Atmosphere

(4) (1) (3) (2)

24. (d)The pattern of series are as follows:

25. (a) The pattern of series are as follow:

26. (a) (a) As, 7, 2 ⇒ (7 – 2) + (7 + 2) ⇒ 59

5, 3 ⇒ (5 – 3) + (5 + 3) ⇒ 28

9, 1 ⇒ (9 – 1) + (9 + 1) ⇒ 810

and 2, 1 ⇒ (2 – 1) + (2 + 1) ⇒ 13

Similarly, 5, 4 ⇒ (5 – 4) + (5 + 4) = 19

27. (a) The pattern of series are as follows:


28. (b) See the below table:

Col 1 Col 2 Col 3

81(92) 64(82) 16(42)

4(22) 9(32) 49(72)

36(62) 16(42) 25(52)

108(9⤬2⤬6) 96(8⤬3⤬4) 140(4⤬7⤬5)

29. (d) As, 25 = 5 ⤬5 (in first row)

and 30 = 5 ⤬ 6 (in second row)

Similarly, 35 = 7 ⤬ 5 (in third row)

30. (d) As, 24 ⤬ 2 + 5 = 53 (in first column)

and 51 ⤬ 4 + 7 = 211 (in second column)

Similarly, 67 ⤬ + 5 = 407 (in third column)

31. (b) As given in the question, M > G> H and M> Q

∴ M > Q > G > H

Hence, H is the most leaned person in the group.

32. (b) Man’s walking direction are as follows:

Hence, required distance (OD) = OA + AD (BC)

= (15 + 10) m

= 25 m


33. (*) Buses standing order are as follows:

M N O P Q

34. (c) Observe the below options:

(a) 20 – 4 ÷ 4 + 8 < 2 x 26

= 20 + 4 – 4 x 8 – 2 > 26

= 24 – 4 x 4 > 26

= 24 – 16 > 26

= 8 > 26 (False)

(b) 20 x 8 + 15 < 5 ÷ 9 – 8

= 20 > 8 x 15 ÷ 5 – 9 + 8

= 20 > 8 x 3 – 9 + 8

= 20 > 24 – 9 + 8

= 20 > 32 – 9 = 20 > 23 (False)

(c) 20 < 2 + 10 ÷ 4 – 6 x 100

= 20 ÷ 2 x 10 – 4 + 6 > 100

= 10 x 10 – 4 + 6 > 100

= 106 – 4 > 100

= 102 > 100 (True)

(d) 20 < 5 + 25 ÷ 10 – 2 x 96

= 20 ÷ 5 x 25 – 10 + 2 > 96

= 4 x 25 – 10 + 2 > 96

= 100 – 10 + 2 > 96

= 102 – 10 > 96

= 92 > 96 (False)


35. (b) Nits’s walking directions are as follows:

Hence, required distance (OD) = OC(=AB) + CD

= (5 + 10)km = 15km

36. (d) Rajat’s walking directions are as follows:

Hence, required distance (OC) = AB = 2m

37. (d) According to the given statements, venn-diagram is as follows:

Conclusions

I. √

II. √

38. (b) According to the given statements, venn-diagram is as follows:


Conclusions

I. √

II. √

III. ⤫

IV. ⤫

39. (b)

Opposite faces are:

A ⇔ D

B ⇔ F

C ⇔ E

∴ From above it can be observed that Opposite faces cannot adjacent to each other. Hence, answer figure (b) can be created by folding the given figure.

40. (d) ∴ Number 3 appear in same face. Hence, 2 is opposite to number 6 and 5 is opposite to number 1.

41. (d)

Hence, from the answer figure (d) question figure's pieces have been cut.

42. (d)

(d) Number 1 is common in all four figures. Hence, number 1 region represents employed, truthful and illiterate social workers.

43. (d) As, (42 + 32 + 52 + 22) ÷ 2 = 27 (middle number)

and (52 + 62 + 22 + 32) ÷ 2 = 37 (middle number)


Similarly, (52 + 22 + 22 + 92) ÷ 2 = 114 ÷ 2 =17 (middle number)

44. (b) Since Number 3 is common in all three figures. Hence, number 3 area represents women graduate sub-inspectors of police.

45. (c) Answer figure (c) will complete the pattern of the given question figure.

46. (b) Answer figure (b) will complete the pattern of the given question figure.

47. (c)

Hence, in answer figure (c) question figure is hidden/embedded.

48. (d) answer figure (d) will appear when a piece of paper is folded and punched as shown in the questo figures.

49. (c)

Hence, when the mirror is held at MN answer figure (c) is the exact mirror image of the question figure.

50. (c)

C ⟶ 11, 23, 32, 40

A ⟶ 00, 13, 21, 33, 42

R ⟶ 57, 68, 77, 88, 99

D ⟶ 03, 10, 22, 30, 41

∴ CARD ⟶ 11, 33, 57, 22

51. (c) Persistence of vision is responsible for the working of Newton's colour disc experiment.


52. (a) The dimension MLT–2 corresponds to force. Force is the product of mass of the body and its acceleration.

53. (c) Max Plank explained the distribution of energy in the spectrum of radiations of a hot body by his Quantum Theory of Radiation. According it, the Radiant energy is always in the form of tiny bundles of light called quanta i.e., the energy is absorbed or emitted discontinuously, each quantum has some definite energy. Which depends upon the frequency of the radiations.

54. (d) An optical fiber is a flexible transparent fiber made of glass (silica) or plastic. It can function as a wave guide or light pipe to transmit light between the two ends of the fiber. Its transmits light along its axis by the process of total internal reflection.

55. (c) ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator And Computer) was the first electronic general-purpose computer. ENIAC (1946) was designed to calculate artillery firing tables for the US Army's Ballistic Research Laboratory. It constructed at the University of Pennsylvania's Moore School of Electrical Engineering.

56. (b) The Internet protocol suite is the networking model and a set of communications protocols used for the Internet and similar networks. It is commonly known as TCP/IP, because its most important protocols the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and the Internet Protocol (IP) were the first networking protocols defined in this standard.

57. (c) Chitin is a long-chain polymer of a N-acetylglucosamine, a derivative of glucose and is found in many places throughout the natural world. It is the main component of the cell-walls of fungi, the exoskeletons of arthropods such as crustaceans and insects.

58. (d) Rutherford's scattering experiment proved the presence of nucleus is atoms. It suggests that the entire mass of an atom is concentrated on its centre at the nucleus, the nucleus is surrounded by electrons that more around the nucleus with a very high speed in circular paths called orbits.

59. (c) The emission spectrum of a chemical element or chemical compound is the spectrum of frequencies of electromagnetic radiation emitted due to an atom's electrons making a transition from a high energy state to a lower energy state.

60. (c) Blood pressure may be increased by the excessive secration of Estradiol (Sex Harmone).

61. (a) The theory that gases in the atmosphere might increase Earth's temperature was first postulated by Joseph Fourier in 1827, a scientist who also seems to have coined the term "Green House Gases".

62. (c) Bhopal gas tragedy, was a gas leak incident in India, considered the world's worst industrial disaster. It occurred on the night of 2-3 December 1984 at the Union Carbide India


Limited (UCIL) pesticide plant in Bhopal. Madhya Pradesh, over 5 lakh people were exposed to methyl isocynate gas and other chemicals.

63. (c) The particulate matter (PM -10) exhaled from the polluted atmosphere is often filtered out during the process of coughing and sneezing.

64. (b) Sarus crane is the state bird of Uttar Pradesh.

65. (d) Mount Tongario is a compound volcano in the Taupo volcanic zone of the North Island of New Zealand. Its Te Mari craters erupted in 2012, for the first time since 1897.

66. (c) Daocheng Yading Airport is located in Daocheng country in Graze Tibetan Autonomous Prefecture of Sichuan Province. China.

67. (c) Virat Kohli has been named the Indian Cricketer of the year for 2011-12, picking up the Polly Umrigar Trophy and a cheque for Rs. 5 lakh at the BCCI awards function in Mumbai on Nov 22,2012.

68. (c) 30 January is observed as Martyr's Day at the National level. The date was chosen as it marks the assassination of Mahatma Gandhi in 1948.

69. (*) 6th World Carrom Championship 2012 held in Sri Lanka during 31 Oct. to 4th Nov. 2012 in Galadare hotel, Colombo. In this event Nishanta Fernando (Sri Lanka) won the men's single and Rashmi Kumari (India) won the women's single trophy. The team title won by Indian team.

70. (b) The camel's physiology allows it to cope with the salt intake from its food and from drinking salty water indeed, they need the salt and in the absence of natural source of salt, need to be given a daily ration of as much as 45-60 grams.

71. (d)

72. (a) On the eve of planning (1950-51) agriculture generated as much as 51 % of the country's national income. As per the 2011-12, quick estimates, agriculture and allied activities accounted for 14.01 % of the GDP, at constant 2004-05 prices.

73. (b) The second India-Africa Forum Summit 2011 was held at Addis Ababa (Ethiopia). The leaders discussed significant aspects of the India-Africa partnership with the objective of enhancing and widening its ambit for mutual benefit.

74. (c) Aurangzeb died in Ahmadnagar on 20 February 1707 at the age of 88 years.

75. (b) The principle of maximum social advantage was introduced by British economist Hugh Dalton. According to him, Public Finance is concerned with income and expenditure of public authorities and with the adjustment of one with the other.


76. (d) In 1966, the Government of India declared the devaluation of rupee, with a view to increase the exports of the country. So, the fourth plan was postponed and three annual plan were implemented. Some of the economists called this period, i.e., from 1966 to 1969, Plan Holiday.

77. (d) The ordinary and maximum tolerance limit of sound by human being is 70 db to 85 db.

78. (d) An economic theory is a tested Hypothesis.

79. (d) Indian Special Economic Rules amendment came in the year 2006.

80. (a) Provisions of citizenship in Indian Constitution become applicable from 26th January, 1949.

81. (c) Women of Bardoli gave the title of 'Sardar' to Ballabh Bhai Patel during Bardoli Satyagrah (1928).

82. (c) According to Marx's labour theory of value, human labour is the only source of net new economic value.

83. (a) Article 352 confers power on the President to make a proclaimation of Emergency on the grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion.

84. (b) The community development programme was launched on a pilot basis in 1952 to provide for a substantial increase in the country's agricultural programme and for improvements in systems of communication in rural health and hygiene and in rural education.

85. (d) Flag Satyagraha were conducted mostnotably in the city of Nagpur in 1923 but also in many other parts of India.

86. (c) Digambar is a sect of Jainism. They believed in the retention of the rule of nudity.

87. (c) Lord Hardinge II (1910-1916) was the viceroy, when Delhi (1911) became the capital of British India.

88. (c) The Indian Civil Liberties Union was established by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1936.

89. (b) The University of Mumbai (Bombay) is one of the oldest and premier universities in India. It was established in 1857 consequent upon "Woods Education Dispatch".

90. (*) Yosemite is a United States National park in the central Eastern portion of California. Yosemite is internationally recognized for its spectacular granite cliffs, water falls, clear streams, Gaint sequoia groves and bio-diversity.


91. (b) The first Indian Satellite Aryabhatta was launched on April 19,1975 from Bainkanoor Space Centre.

92. (c) Vizagh Steel Plant, Vishakhapatnam is the only Indian shore based steel plant founded in 1971.

93. (a) North-South corridor connects Srinagar to Kanyakumari.

94. (a) Leachates are pollutants which move downward with percolating ground water.

95. (d) Lungs are located in the pleural cavity.

96. (d) Milk is an ideal food for Newborn babies.

97. (d) Transcription means the synthesis of RNA on a DNA template.

98. (b) Hydrochloric acid (HCI) is a component of Gastric acid. It is produced by cells lining the stomach.

99. (a) Emulsification is the breakdown of large fat globules into smaller, uniformly distributed particles. It is the first preparation of fat for chemical digestion by specific enzymes.

100. (c) Taxonomy is the academic discipline of defining groups of biological organisms on the basis of shared characteristics and giving names to those groups.

101. (d)

2

2

2

2

( 2) ( 9)

( 9 18)

( 1 18)

121 12111 18

4 4

11 49

2 4

11

2

49

4

49 ( 2) ( 9)

4

x x

x x x

x x

x x

x

On putting x

Minimum value of x x


102. (c)

2 2 2

2 2 2 2

2

3 3 3

2 2 2

, 6

20

,

( ) 2( )

(6) 20 2( )

36 20 2( )

16 2( )

( ) 8

3

( ) ( ( )

Given x y z

x y z

According to the question

x y z x y z xy yz zx

xy yz zx

xy yz zx

xy yz zx

xy yz zx

x y z xyz

x y z x y z xy yz zx

6(20 8)

6 12 72

103. (a)

2 2

2

22 2

2 2

2 2

.Let the third proportional be c

x ya

y x

b x y

bc

a

x yc

x y

y x

x y

x yc

xy

c xy


104. (a) According to the question,

180 72 108

36

108

109 36 73

180 (72 73 )

ACD

AC CD

CAD CDA

ACD

BAC

ABC

180 145 35

105. (d)

2 2

2 2

4 3 1

2, '

,

3 1

9 1 8

2 2

2 2 2

4 2

OM MN ON

cm

O N radius at inner circle

In PMO

PM OP OM

PM cm

cm

PQ

cm


106. (a) According to the question,

.

180 70 110

180 60 120

ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral

ABC

and BCD

(180 110 ) (180 120 )

70 60 130

PBC PCB

107. (b)

2 2

2 2

,

90

,

13 5

169 25


OPQ ORP

In OQP QP OP OQ

144 12

1 12 5

2

30

2 30

60

cm

Area of OQP

sq cm

Area of PQDR

sq cm


108. (b) According to the Question,

90ACB

In ABC,

CAB+ CBA+ ACB=180°

30°+90°+ CBA=180°

CBA=180° 120°=60°

ABCD is a cyclic trapezium.

ADC=180° 60°

= 120°

109. (a)

,

180 2 50 180

50 0

50

,

2 180 2 180

2 ( ) 0

2( 50) 0

100

In BDC

y x x

y x

x y

In ABC

y x A

y x A

A

A

110. (d) According to the question,


,

, 180 ( )

180 (20 20 )

180 40 140

180 140 40

OD BC

Then OB BC

BCO BOC

Then OBC BCO BOC

OBA

( )

,

180 ( )

180 (40 40 )

180 80 100

180 (

OB OA radius of circle

Then OBA OAB

AOB OBA OAB

AOD AOB BOC)

180 (100 20 )

180 120 60


111. (b)

2 2

2 2

2 2

2 2

30

16

,

17 15

289 225

64 8

,

17 8

289 64 225 15

Re tan 15 8 7

CD cm

AB cm

Then OM OC CM

OM

cm

Similarly

ON OA AN

cm

quired dis ce cm

112. (b)

1sin( )

2

sin( ) sin 30

30 ...(i)

1cos( )

2

cos( ) cos 60

30 ...(ii)

From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get

B=15

15

180

12

A B

A B

A B

A B

A B

A B

Value of B


113. (d)

2 1

1 2 1 1

3 1 2

1 2

2

3

3

2 1

1,

..( )

, 1, 2

1, 2 . ( ),

1 2

3

,

n n n

l

l

n n n

Given

t t t

On putting n

t t t

t t t i

Given t t

On putting t t in Eq i we get

t

t

Again

t t t

On putting

2 2 2 2 1

4 2 3

4

4

2 1

3 2 3 3 1

5 3 4

5

5

2,

2 3

5

, 3,

3 5

8

n n n

n

t t t

t t t

t

t

Similarly putting n

t t t

t t t

t t t

t

t

114. (a) From option (a),

2

2

1

1 7954 7956

1 7954 7954 2

1 7954 2 7954

1 7954 7955

x


115. (d)

1 1 1' 1 day's work

5 12 15

12 5 4

60

1

20

1 1 1: : : :

12 15 20

: : 5 : 4 : 3

960 5' share .

12

. 400

C s

A B C

A B C

A s Rs

Rs

116. (c)

32' 1

6

40' 1 8

5

32( : ) ' 1 :8

6

32 : 48

2 : 3

110

110 2 44

5

6 44 8 15 min

32

Ronald s h work

Elan s h work

Ronald Elan s h work

Total pages

Type by Ronald pages

Time taken by Ronald h


117. (c)

1(2 8 ) ' 1

80

1 (1 4 ) ' 1

160

1 (1 3 4 ) ' 1

96

1 1 1 3 ' 1

96 160 240

1 (2 3 ' ) 1

20

1 1 1 2 ' 1

120 240 240

(2 8 ) ' 1

M B s h work

M B s h work

M W B s h work

W s h work

M W s h work

M s h work

M B s h work

1

80

1 1 8 ' 1

80 240

2 1

240 120

5 12 (5 12 ) ' 1

2 240 8 120

1 1

96 80

176 11

80 96 480

480 7 (5 12 ) 43

11 11

B s h work

M B s h work

M B will finish h

118. (c) According to the question,

By theorem,

Area of ∆AA’B = Area of ∆BA’ B’


= Area of ∆ B’ A’ C

Hence, the required ratio = 3 : 4

119. (b) According to the question,

2

2

2

(1)

2 2

2 2

2 2

1 1 -

2 2

4

2, 4•

4 4

2

2

Area of circle sq unit

dSide of square ABCD unit

Area of square ABCD sq unit

Area of semi circle ABN

sq unit

Hence the required area

sq unit

120. (d) Let the length of rectangle be 2x and breadth x.

Let the side of square be a.

According to the question,


2

2 2

2

22

4 2(2 )

4 2 3

4 6

4 2

6 3

tan 2 2

2 82

3 9

8 Re :

9

8 : 9

a x x

a x

a x

x a x a

Area of rec gle x x x

aa

Area of square a

aquired ratio a

121. (a) Let the sum be x.


22100

2200 ...( )

100

2022 20

100

200 20

10

10 . ( ),

10 2200

2200

10

220

Re . 220

x r t

x r t i

Discount r tInterest Discount

r t

r t

r t

On putting r t in Eq i

x

x

x

quired sum Rs

122. (d) CP of one radio = Rs. 400



400 400 30%

400 30400

100

400 120 . 520

8%

520 (100 8)

100

520 92. 478.40

100

(478.4 400) 100

400

78.4 10019.6%

400

Marked price

Rs

Discount

SP of one radio after discount

Rs

Per cent profit

123. (a) (1.25 1) 100

Per cent of reduction= 20%1.25

124. (b)

: 2 : 3

: 4 : 5

: : 8 :12 :15

700 8A's share= .160

35

700 12B's share= .240

35

700 8C's share= .300

35

A B

B C

A B C

Rs

Rs

Rs

125. (c) Let the monthly income A and B be Rs. 6x and Rs. 5x.



6 400 4

5 400 3

18 1200 20 1600

2 400

400

2

200

11

11 200

. 2200

x

x

x x

x

x

x

Total monthly income x

Rs

126. (b) According to the question,

3

30

30

3 30

. 90

5

5 30

6 30

5 5

A B B C

and A B C A

B C

A B

A B Rs

B C

C C

C

B

127. (c) Let the average of runs in 10th test was x.


Sum of 10th innings = 10x

Sum of 11th innings = 11(x + 5)

10x + 100x = 11x + 55

x = 45

Present average of runs = 45 + 5 =50


128. (a) Let the bought oranges in initial was x.

10 1 .

4

10 .

4

,

10 1 .

5

10 .

5

10 10 90 2

4 5 20

9.2

20 1 .

9

2

CP of orange Rs

xCP of x oranges Rs

According to the case II

CP of orange Rs

xCP of x oranges Rs

CP of oranges x x

Rs x

SP of orange Rs

SP of x oranges Rs40

.9

9 40

2 9

81 80

18 18

100

918

2

100 2

18 9

200 100

162 81

191 %

81

x

x xLoss

x x

xPer cent loss

x

x

x


129.(b)

15

: 1: 4

15 13

5

15 3

12

:

3 : (12 3)

3:15

1: 5

1 100 Re

6

Total mixture L

Alcohol Water

Quantity of alcohol in the mixture

L

Quantity of water in the mixture

L

Alcohol Water in the new mixture

quired percentage

216 %

3

130. (b)

18 /

6 min

, 90 7 12

7

12 .

12 12 6

72min

1 12 mi

Rate of riders km h

Time taken by riders to change horses


Because he stops every km

So he stops times

Time taken by riders in times

h n

90 1 12 min

18

5 1 12 min

6 12 min

Total time h

h h

h


131. (c)

15' 5 /

3

15'

15

15 2

15

2 /

1' 5 2

2

3.5 /

Man s rate with current km h

Man s rate agamst current

km h

Man s rate of still water

km h


132. (d)

int .

,

8 2 ,

int 2

8

100

252 25

2

112 %

2

,

. 8000

25%

2

Let the rate of simple erest be r and principal x


After yr principal x

then erest x x x

x rx

r r

r

According to the case II

P Rs

r

2

2

2

2

1100

258000 1

2 100

98000

8

8000 81.10125

64

int 10125 8000

.2125

t yr

rA P

A

Rs

Compound erest

Rs


133. (c)

2 2

2

,

5 ...( )

55 ...( )

. ( ),

( )


p q i

p q ii

Squaring both sides in Eq i we get

p q 2

2 2

(5)

2 25

55 2 2

2 30

15

p q pq

pq

pq

pq

134. (b)

22

22

22

1 exp , 4

2

2 ,

12 4 2

2

12 2

2

,

12 2 4

2

12 4 2

2

12 2

2

Given ression aa

Subtracting from both sides

aa

aa

On squaring both sides

aa

aa

aa


135. (c)

2 2 2 2

2 2 2

2 2 2 2 2 2 2

2 2 2

2 2 2 2

2 2 2

2 2 2 2

2 2 2

2 2 2

2 2 2

, 2

2 2 2

4 2 ( )

4 2 2

1

Given a b c s

s a s b s c s

a b c

s a sa s b sb s c sc s

a b c

s a b c s a b c

a b c

s a b c s s

a b c

a b c

a b c

136. (a)

3 3

3 3 3 3

3 3

3 3

3 3

3 3

3 3

3 3

3 3

3 3

. ( ) 1

,

[ . ( )] (1)

[ 3 ( )] 1

13 ( )

13 ( )

, . ( ) 1

13 1

13

x y x y

On cubing both sides

x y x y

x y x y xy x y

x y xy x yx y

xy x y x yx y

Given x y x y

x yx y

x yx y


137. (c)

3 3 3

3 3 3

3 3 3 3 3

9 9 9 3 3 3 3

3 3 3

9 3 9 3 3 3

9 9 9 3 3 3

exp , 0

,

( ) ( )

3 ( )

,

3

3 0

Given ression a b c

a b c

On cubing both sides we get

a b c

a b c b c b c

On putting b c a

a b c b c a

a b c a b c

138. (a)

cov

72 88

36088 440

72

2 440 ( )

440 440 7

2 2 22

70

Circumference erd in

m

Total circurcumference of circle

m

r m r length of repe

r

r m

139. (b)

2sin 3cos

2cos 3sin

max min 0

2cos 3sin 0

2tan

3

Let x

dx

d

dxfor or

d


140. (c)

2 2 2

2 2

152(sin 30 2cos 45 3sin 30 4cos 45 ......... 17sin 30 18cos 45

1 1 1 1 1152 2 3 4 ......... 18

2 2 2 2 2

1152 1 2 3 ......18

2

76 18 1938 18 9

2

19 2 18 19 (19) (6)

A perf

1

ect square

141. (a)

142. (a)

32 8cos30 2 8 8 3

2

Length of longer diagonal

143. (c)

1 1

2 2

2

1

1

2

/

/

75

60

5

4

areaangle

radius

area angler

r area angle

angle

angle

r

r

144. (d) Required ratio = 100 : 40 = 5: 2

145. (a) Total number of students = 4 + 6 + 10 + 8 + 5 = 33

146. According to the Histogram,

Clearly, maximum number of students is in 20 – 30 interval.

147. (d) Clearly, minimum number of students is in 0 – 10 interval.


148. (c) Required ratio = 4: 5

149. Wrong question

150. (d) Expenditure on Agriculture = 720


∴ Required expenditure 72 1000

.200 crore360

Rs

151. (c) Correctly spelt connivance

152. (c) Maintenance

153. (d) Clearly mentioned in the first line.

154. (a) Clearly, mentioned in the middle of above passage.

155. (b) vague

156. (a)

157. (d) fake

158. (c)

159. (c) ridicule

160. (b) sane means free from mental disturbance.

161. (c)

162. (b)

163. (b) replace ‘woman’ to ‘women’

164. (b) replace find to found is part form

165. (a) remove have

166. (b) remove ‘to’

167. (c) remove-s from students

168. (b) free


169. (d) correct word is bouquet.

170. (c) Principal and principle

171. (b) pragmatic

172. (c)

173. (d) Miserliness

174. (b) Suffering

175. (c) Parapet means-railing along the edge of a balcony.

176. (a)

177. (a) Sharp-witted where as obtuse means mentally slow person.

178. (d) Deliberately

179. (a) urged

180. (b) not fit to hold a candle means ‘to be inferior’.

181. (b) paying too much

182. (a)

183. (b)

184. (b) use towards

185. (a) 20 km is a definite value.Hence use ‘is’ with definite value.

186. (b) adopted

187. (a)

188. (b) to bear with

189. (b) use the more they spend.

190. (a) use with a view to verb Ist + ing i.e., to insulting me.

191. (b)

192. (b)


193. (b)

194. (a) Condominium

195. (d) Triumvirate means a board of three officials jointly responsible for some task.

196. (a) Post-mortem

197. (b) Opaque

198. (b) taxonomy-Concerned with the Classification.

199. (d) Demagogue

200. (c) Claustrophobia


SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2012: (Complete Question Paper)

Part A General Intelligence and Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-9): In these questions select the related letters/words/numbers from the given alternatives.

1. 9 : 80 :: 100 : ?

(a) 901

(b) 1009

(c) 9889

(d) 9999

2. 25 : 125 :: 36 : ?

(a) 180

(b) 206

(c) 216

(d) 318

3. 335 : 216 :: 987 : ?

(a) 868

(b) 867

(c) 872

(d) 888

4. BEGK: ADFJ :: PSVY : ?

(a) ROUX

(b) ORUX

(c) LQUT

(d) LOQT


5. AZBY : CXDW :: EVFU : ?

(a) GTHS

(b) GHTS

(c) GSTH

(d) TGSH

6. BDFH: SUWY:: CEGI : ?

(a) QTWZ

(b) PTVX

(c) JLNP

(d) TVXZ

7. food: man :: fuel: ?

(a) wood

(b) fire

(c) heat

(d) smoke

8. Spiritual: Belief :: Orchestral: ?

(a) Theatre

(b) Situation

(c) Music

(d) Direction

9. Latter: Former :: Hazardous: ?

(a) Risky

(b) Comfortable

(c) Safe

(d) Harmful


Directions (Q. Nos. 10-18): Find word/number/letter/number pair from alternatives.

10.

(a) VWY

(b) QRT

(c) LMO

(d) JKL

11.

(a) BE

(b) GJ

(c) NP

(d) QR

12.

(a) 400

(b) 484

(c) 625

(d) 729

13.

(a) 1000

(b) 1725

(c) 2744

(d) 4096

14.

(a) 12 - 16

(b) 60 - 80

(c) 30 - 50

(d) 36 - 48


15.

(a) CX

(b) DW

(c) JQ

(d) LR

16.

(a) Cyclotron

(b) Basic

(c) Pascal

(d) Fortran

17.

(a) Rooster

(b) Buck

(c) Gander

(d) Peahen

18.

(a) Booklet

(b) Pamphlet

(c) Voucher

(d) Brochure

19. Which word will appear third in the dictionary?

(a) Ballium

(b) Ballistics

(c) Ballerina

(d) Ballistite

20.


Which word will appear last in the dictionary?

(a) Laugh

(b) Latch

(c) Laurels

(d) Latitude

21. Arrange the given words in a meaningful order

1. Infant

2. Adolescent

3. Child

4. Old

5. Adult

(a) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5

(b) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4

(c) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

(d) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

Directions (Q. Nos. 22 and 23): Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

22. c_ab_ca_bc_a

(a) b c a b

(b) a b c b

(c) b a c b

(d) c b a c

23. _ba_bab_babb_b

(a) b a a a

(b) a b b b

(c) b a b b


(d) a b a b

Directions (Q. Nos. 24-27): Select the missing number from the given responses.

24. 500, 484, 459, ?, 374

(a) 384

(b) 432

(c) 418

(d) 423

25. MNOPWXYZRSTUBCD?

(a) A

(b) E

(c) I

(d) F

26. 60, 69, 85, ?, 146

(a) 110

(b) 117

(c) 109

(d) 120

27. 46, 50, 47, 55, 49, 61, ?

(a) 54

(b) 52

(c) 57

(d) 51

28. The average age of 25 subordinates in an office is 30 yr. If the age of Manager is added, the average increases to 31 yr. What is the age of the Manager?

(a) 26

(b) 36


(c) 46

(d) 56

29. Class A has students twice that of class B. After adding 20 students to class A and 30 students to class B, the total number of students in both the classes is 140. What is the number of students in class A in the beginning?

(a) 30

(b) 60

(c) 80

(d) 140

30. Find the lowest number which when divided by 8, 12, 15 and 20 leaves the remainder 2.

(a) 360

(b) 242

(c) 122

(d) 82

31. If B becomes A and P becomes 0, what will K becomes in the English alphabet?

(a) L

(b) J

(c) H

(d) N

32. The given word is followed by 4 responses, one of which cannot be formed by using the letters of the word given 'CAMBRIDGE'. Find out the word.

(a) BRIDGE

(b) CAME

(c) BRIDE

(d) CAMP

33. IF SEASONAL is written as ESSANOLA, how can SEPARATE be written in that code?

(a) SEAPARET


(b) ESPARATE

(c) ESPAARTE

(d) ESAPARET

34. In certain code, 'RAGHA V AN' is written as 'GARV AHNA'. In that code which word will be written as MATHAVAN?

(a) TAMVAHNA

(b) TAMV AHAN

(c) TAMHAVNA

(d) MATVAHNA

35. IF 'FRIEND' is coded as 'IULHQG' how will you code 'ENEMY'?

(a) HQHPB

(b) HQHPA

(c) HQEMY

(d) HQHPG

36. In a coded language, if the word 'EQUATION' is coded as 'GSWCVKQP', then how is the word 'DONKEY' be coded?

(a) FQPMGA

(b) YEKNOD

(c) GWCVKJ

(d) PQKUCW

37. If 38 + 15 = 66 and 29 + 36 = 99, then 82 + 44 = ?

(a) 77

(b) 88

(c) 80

(d) 94


38. IF + means +, - means x, x means + , + means -, given the value of 45 + 9 - 3 x 15 + 2.

(a) 40

(b) 36

(c) 56

(d) 28

Directions (Q. Nos. 39 and 40): Select the missing number from the given responses.

39.

7 8 6

4 9 5

3 2 ?

25 70 29

(a) 9

(b) 8

(c) 1

(d) 5

40.

3 4 5

6 7 8

9 1 2

57 11 ?

(a) 42


(b) 21

(c) 11

(d) 18

41. From the given details, estimate the number of people affected by Tuberculosis in particular locality in the year 1994.

1994 1995 1996 1997 1998

? 92 113 141 176

(a) 99

(b) 85

(c) 71

(d) 78

42. A man started from a place walked towards North for 5 km then turned 90° to his right and walked another 5 km. Then he turned 45° to his right and walked 2 km and turned as 45° to his left. What is his direction now?

(a) South

(b) South-East

(c) East

(d) South-West

43. A boy running towards South, turns to his right and runs. Then he turns to his right and finally turns to his left. Towards which direction is he running now?

(a) East

(b) West

(c) South

(d) North

Directions (Q. Nos. 44 and 45): One statement is given followed by two conclusion I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any follow from the given statements.


44. Statement To keep myself updated, I always listen to 9 o'clock news on radio.

Conclusions

I. The person does not read newspaper.

II. Recent news is available only on radio.

(a) Only conclusion I is implicit

(b) Only conclusion II is implicit

(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is implicit

(d) Both conclusions are implicit

45. Statement All wealthy people are happy in life.

Conclusions

I. Wealth and happiness are directly related.

II. Wealth leads to happiness in life.



(c) Both conclusion I and II follow

(d) Neither conclusions I nor II follow


Directions (Q. Nos. 46 and 47): Which answer figure will complete the question figure?

46. Question Figure

Answer Figures

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure in hidden/embedded.

Question Figure

Answer Figures

(a)

(b)

(c)


(d)

Direction (Q. No. 48): A piece of paper is folded and cut as show below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

48. Questions Figures

Answer Figures

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

49. Select the correct option that will be the mirror reflection of the problem figure.

Question Figure


Answer Figures

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in anyone of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can represented first by its row and next by its column e.g., 'P' can be represented by 11, 32 etc. and 'K' can be represented by 65, 78 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word SALM.

Matrix I

0 1 2 3 4

0 P A I V R

1 I P R A V

2 A R V P I

3 V I P R A

4 R V A I P


Matrix II

5 6 7 8 9

5 S L K M E

6 K M S E L

7 M E L K S

8 L K E S M

9 E S M L K

(a) 55, 20, 56, 59

(b) 79, 13, 69, 75

(c) 96, 34, 76, 89

(d) 67, 21, 85, 97


PART- B General Awareness

51. A movement along the demand curve of a commodity occurs due to change in

(a) income of the consumers

(b) its own price

(c) taste of the consumers

(d) expectation of the consumers

52. GNP calculation through expenditure method does not include

(a) Gross Domestic Private Investments

(b) Net Foreign Investments

(c) Depreciation Expenditures

(d) Private Consumption Expenditure

53. The Lobb-Douglas Production function Q = AL ak(1-a) is based on

(a) increasing returns to scale

(b) decreasing returns to scale

(c) constant returns to scale

(d) fluctuating returns to scale

54. Find the odd one out of the following

(a) Delhi Transport Corporation

(b) Indian Railways

(c) Kingfisher Airlines

(d) Reliance Industries Limited

55. Monetary Policy in India is laid down and executed by

(a) Union Government

(b) ASSOCHAM

(c) Reserve Bank of India


(d) FICCI

56. Which one of the following subjects is not available on the Union List?

(a) Census

(b) Banking

(c) Trade Union

(d) Foreign Loan

57. The term 'closure' in Parlimentary terminology implies

(a) the end of session of Parliament

(b) stoppage of debate on a motion

(c) end of a day's proceedings


58. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Article 14-Equality before law

(b) Article 16-Equal opportunities

(c) Article 17-Abolition of titles

(d) Article 18-Permission of military titles

59. Which of the following Presidents held office for two consecutive terms?

(a) Dr. S Radhakrishnan

(b) Dr. Zakir Hussian

(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(d) Both 'a' and 'c'

60. Which Amendment Act reduced the voting age from 21 to 18?

(a) 42nd

(b) 44th

(c) 52nd

(d) 61st


61. Match the following

A.

B.

C.

D.

Vikrama Era

Saka Era

Kalachuri Era

Gupta Era

1.

2.

3.

4.

A D 248

A D 320

58 B C

A D 78

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 3 4 1 2

(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 2 1 4 3

62. Mahavira was the

(a) 21st Tirthankara

(b) 24th Tirthankara

(c) 23rd Tirthankara

(d) 22nd Tirthankara

63. Which one among the following woman scholars challenged the invincible Yainavalkyain debate?

(a) Ghosa

(b) Apala

(c) Maitreyi

(d) Gargi

64. Which one of the following event made the crown of England to take over the Indian Administration?

(a) Battle of Plassey

(b) Battle of Buxar


(c) The Carnatic Wars

(d) The Sepoy Mutiny

65. Who built the famous Dilwara temple At Mount Abu in Rajasthan in the 13th century?

(a) Mahendrapala

(b) Mahipala

(c) Rajyapala

(d) Tejapala

66. GIS stands for

(a) Global Institute for Soils

(b) Geographical International Studies

(c) Geographical Information Systems

(d) Global Information Statistics

67. Which of the following is a Trans Himalayan river?

(a) Ganga

(b) Yamuna

(c) Sutlej

(d) Ravi

68. Match the following using codes given below

List I

(Forest Type)

List II

(Regions)

A.

B.

C.

D.

Tropical Evergreen

Monsoon

Temperate

Mangrove

1.

2.

3.

4.

SIwaliks

Shillong

Paschim Banga

Nilgiris


A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3

(b) 3 1 4 2

(c) 2 1 4 3

(d) 3 4 1 2

69. On which river is the Nagarjunasagar Project located?

(a) Krishna

(b) Godavari

(c) Cauvery

(d) Tapti

70. Suez canal joins

(a) Persian Gulf and Arabian Sea

(b) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea

(c) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea

(d) Red Sea and Arabian Sea

71. Drug which helps about calmness is to reduce anxiety and brings about calmness is

(a) tranquiliser

(b) diuretic

(c) analgesic

(d) antihistamine

72. A keel is absent in

(a) chicken

(b) ostrich

(c) duck

(d) peacock


73. Broad spectrum antibiotics are produced by

(a) streptomyces

(b) aspergillus

(c) pencillium

(d) bacillus

74. The pigment that protect plants from harmful effect of ultraviolet rays is

(a) chlorophyll

(b) carotenoid

(c) phycocyanin

(d) plastic

75. Glycogen, starch and cellulose are polymers of

(a) fructose

(b) glucose

(c) lactose

(d) maltose

76. Black death is

(a) cancer

(b) plague

(c) AIDS

(d) gonorrhea

77. Stars appear to move from East to West because the

(a) whole universe is moving from East to West

(b) Earth is revolving round the Sun

(c) Earth is rotating from East to West

(d) Earth is rotating from West to East


78. On the Moon, an astronaut cannot drink lemonade with the help of straw because

(a) acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is less

(b) there is no atmosphere on the Moon

(c) lemonade evaporates instantaneously on the Moon


79. A particle moving with uniform speed

(a) must have uniform velocity

(b) cannot have uniform velocity

(c) may have uniform velocity

(d) will have no velocity

80. Device which uses sound waves for detection and ranging is called

(a) radar

(b) sonar

(c) pukar

(d) None of these

81. What is the name of the network topology in which there are bi-directional links between each possible node?

(a) Ring

(b) Star

(c) Tree

(d) Mesh

82. LAN stands for

(a) Local Area Nodes

(b) Large Area Network

(c) Large Area Nodes

(d) Local Area Network


83. Dry Ice is nothing but

(a) gaseous carbon dioxide

(b) washing soda

(c) solid carbon dioxide

(d) carbon monoxide

84. Which one of the following is obtained as slag in a blast furnace?

(a) Calcium Carbonate

(b) Calcium Sulphate

(c) Calcium Chloride

(d) Calcium Silicate

85. When H2 gas is allowed to expand from a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure the temperature of the gas

(a) decreases to a small extent

(b) increases

(c) does not change

(d) decreases suddenly

86. In the industrial production of vegetable ghee, the process involved is

(a) dissociation

(b) reduction

(c) oxidation

(d) ionization

87. Which of the following weeds has been found useful to check water pollution caused by industrial affluents?

(a) Parthenium

(b) Elephant grass

(c) Water hyacinth


(d) Both 'a' and 'b'

88. In which year the Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant of the former USSR had accident that caused escape of radio nuclides into atmosphere?

(a) 1979

(b) 1980

(c) 1984

(d) 1986

89. Certain desert lizards excrete their wastes in dry form. This serves as a means of

(a) protective mechanism against their predators

(b) limiting factor of the organism

(c) adaptation of the organism to the environment

(d) countering the problem of food scarcity

90. Which one is regarded as "World heritage forest"?

(a) Nandan Kanan in Odisha

(b) Kaziranga in Asom

(c) Sundarbans in Paschim Banga

(d) Indian Botanical Garden, Shibpur in Paschim Banga

91. Kidney can be taken from a dying person who has the

(a) cessation of neurological function only

(b) cessation of cardiac function only

(c) cessation of respiratory function only

(d) cessation of kidney function only

92. There is no life on Moon because it has no

(a) nitrogen

(b) sulphur

(c) oxygen


(d) water

93. Losoong is a festival celebrated in

(a) Tibet

(b) Arunchal Pradesh

(c) Sikkim

(d) Kerala

94. The commodity for which India spends the largest amount to import is

(a) foodgrains

(b) crude petroleum

(c) fertilizers

(d) iron and steel

95. In which categories did Marie Curie win her two different Nobel Prizes?

(a) Physics and Chemistry

(b) Chemistry and Medicine

(c) Physics and Medicine

(d) Chemistry and Peace

96. Michail Phelps won ………. gold medals in swimming events in the Beijing Olympics.

(a) 6

(b) 7

(c) 8

(d) 9

97. Spot the odd one from the following

(a) Tarapur

(b) Trombay

(c) Kalpakkam

(d) Narora


98. Which one of the following players has the unique distinction of winning 50 Doubles Titles in ATP tour history?

(a) Leander Paes

(b) Andy Roddick

(c) Novak Djokovic

(d) Roger Federer

99. As per the 2011 census, the state with the largest gap in male and female literacy is

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Rajasthan

(d) Kerala

100. Which among the following is termed 'Hot Money'

(a) FII

(b) FDI

(c) ADR

(d) GDR


PART- C Quantitative Aptitude

101. The nest term of the series 1, 5, 12, 24, 43 is

(a) 51

(b) 62

(c) 71

(d) 78

102. The least multiple of 13 which when divided by 4, 5, 6, 7 leaves remainder 3 in each case is

(a) 3780

(b) 3783

(c) 2520

(d) 2522

103. The simplest value of 1 1 1 1

+ + + is2+ 3 3+ 4 4+ 5 5+ 6

(a) 3( 2-1)

(b) 2( 3-1)

(c) 3-1

(d) 2-1

104. A and B are partners in a business. A contributes 1

4 of the capital for 15 month and B

received 2

3 of the profit. Find for how long B’s money was used.

(a) 6 month

(b) 8 month

(c) 10 month

(d) 12 month


105. If 21 is added to a number, it becomes 7 less than thrice of the number. Then, the number is

(a) 14

(b) 16

(c) 18

(d) 19

106. Two men A and B are started a job in which A was thrice as good as B and therefore took 60 days less than B to finish the job. How many days will they take to finish the job if they start working together?

(a) 15 days

(b) 20 days

(c) 1

222

days

(d) 25 days

107. A rectangular garden is 100 m x 80m. There is a path along the garden and just outside it. Width of the path is 10 m. The area of the path is

(a) 1900 sq m

(b) 2400 sq m

(c) 3660 sq m

(d) 4000 sq m

108. A dealer offered a machine for sale for Rs. 27500 but even if he had charged 10% less, he would have made a profit of 10%. The actual cost of the machine is

(a) Rs. 22000

(b) Rs. 24250

(c) Rs. 22500

(d) Rs. 22275

109. An employer reduces the number of employees in the ratio 8 : 5 and increases their wages in the ratio 7 : 9. As a result, the overall wages bill is


(a) increased-in the ratio 56 : 69

(b) decreased in the ratio 56 : 45

(c) increased in the ratio 13 : 17

(d) decreased in the ratio 17 : 13

110. The average age of a jury of 5 is 40. If a member aged 35 resigns and a man aged 25 becomes a member, then the average age of the new jury is

(a) 30 yr

(b) 38 yr

(c) 40 yr

(d) 42 yr

111. With average speed of 40 km/h, a train reaches its destination in time. If it goes with an average speed of 35 km/h, it is late by 15 min. The total journey is

(a) 30 km

(b) 40 km

(c) 70 km

(d) 80 km

112. A man makes a profit of 20% on the sale by selling 20 articles for Rs. 1. the number of articles he bought by Rs. 1 is

(a) 20

(b) 24

(c) 25

(d) 30

113. The number of seats in an auditorium is increased by 25%. The price of a ticket is also increased by 12%. Then the increase in revenue collection will be

(a) 40%

(b) 35%

(c) 45%


(d) 48%

114. A ship is moving at a speed of 30 km/h. To know the depth of the ocean beneath it. it sends a radiowave which travels at a speed 200 m/s. The ship receives the signal after it has moved 500 m. The depth of the ocean is

(a) 143

2 km

(b) 12 km

(c) 6 km

(d) 8 km

115. A person takes a loan of Rs. 10000 partly from a bank at 8% per annum and remaining from another bank at 10% per annum, He pays a total interest of Rs. 950 per annum. Amount of loan taken from the first bank (in Rs.) is

(a) 2500

(b) 5200

(c) 2050

(d) 5020

116. If 2

2

1a + = 98 (a > 0),

athen the value of 3

3

1a +

awill be

(a) 535

(b) 1030

(c) 790

(d) 970

117. If x = 1 + 2 + 3, then the value of 4 3 2(2x - 8x - 5x + 26x - 28) is

(a) 6 6

(b) 0

(c) 3 6

(d) 2 6


118. If the distance two points (0, -5) and (x, 0) is 13 unit, then x equal to

(a) 10

(b) ± 10

(c) 12

(d) ± 12

119. If 4x = 18y, then the value of 1x

yis

(a) 1

3

(b) 7

2

(c) 2

3

(d) 3

2

120. If 1

x + = 5,x

then the value of

4

2

2

1x +

x

x - 3x + 1is

(a) 70

(b) 50

(c) 110

(d) 55

121. If x = 2 + 3,y = 2 - 3, then the value of 2 2

3 3

x + y

x + yis

(a) 7

38

(b) 7

40


(c) 7

19

(d) 7

26

122. If 2 2 2a + b + c = 2(a - b - c) - 3, then the value of 2a - 3b + 4c

(a) 3

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 4

123. If 1

2x - = 6,2x

then the value of 2

2

1x +

16xis

(a) 19

2

(b) 17

2

(c) 18

3

(d) 15

2

124. If 1

5a + = 5,3a

the value of 2

2

19a +

25ais

(a) 34

5

(b) 39

5

(c) 42

5

(d) 52

5


125. The area of the triangle formed by the lines 5x + 7y = 35, 4x + 3y = 12and x-axis is

(a) 160

sq units3

(b) 150

sq units3

(c) 140

sq units13

(d) 10 sq units

126. In an obtuse-angle triangle ABC, ∠ A is the obtuse angle and O is the orthocenter. If ∠ BOC = 54°, then ∠ BAC is

(a) 108°

(b) 126°

(c) 136°

(d) 116°

127. If the ratio of area of two similar triangles is 9 : 16, then the ratio of their corresponding sides is

(a) 3 : 5

(b) 3 : 4

(c) 4 : 5

(d) 4 : 3

128. Let BE and CF be the two medians of a ∆ ABC and G be their intersection. Also let EF cut AG at O. Then, AO : OG is

(a) 1 : 1

(b) 1 : 2

(c) 2 : 1

(d) 3 : 1

129. If S is the circumcentre of ∆ ABC and ∠ A = 50°, then the value of ∠ BCS is

(a) 20°


(b) 40°

(c) 60°

(d) 80°

130. AC and BC are two equal chords of a circle. BA is produced to any point P and CP, wen joined cuts the circle at T. Then,

(a) CT : TP = AB : CA

(b) CT : TP = CA : AB

(c) CT : CB = CA : CP

(d) CT : CB = CP : CA

131. PQ is a direct common tangent of two circles of radii r1 and r2 touching each other externally at A. then, the value of PQ2 is

(a) r1r2

(b) 2r1r2

(c) 3r1r2

(d) 4r1r2

132. BC is the chord of a circle with centre O. A is a point on major arc BC as shown in the above figure. What is the value of ∠ BAC + ∠ OBC =?

(a) 120 °

(b) 60 °

(c) 90 °

(d) 180 °

133. Two circles with radii 5 cm and 8 cm touch each other externally at a point A. If a straight line through the point A cut the circles at points P and Q respectively, then AP : AQ is

(a) 8 : 5


(b) 5 : 8

(c) 3 : 4

(d) 4 : 5

134. If l is the in-centre of ∆ ABC and ∠ A = 60°, then the value of ∠ BIC is

(a) 100°

(b) 120°

(c) 150°

(d) 110°

135. The external bisectors of ∠ B and ∠ C of ∆ ABC meet at point P. If ∆ BAC = 80°, then ∠ BPC is

(a) 50°

(b) 40°

(c) 80°

(d) 100°

136. When a pendulum of length 50 cm oscillates, it produces an arc of 16 cm. The angle so formed in degree measure is (approx).

(a) 18°25’

(b) 18°35’

(c) 18°20’

(d) 18°08°

137. If x, y are positive acute angles x + y < 90° and sin (2x - 20°) = cos (2y + 20°), then the value of sec (x + y) is

(a) 2

(b) 1

2

(c) 1

(d) 0


138. If 5 tan θ = 4, then the value of 5 sin θ - 3 cos θ

5 sin θ + 3 cos θis

(a) 1

7

(b) 2

7

(c) 5

7

(d) 2

5

139. The least value of (4 sec2 θ + 9 cosec2 θ) is

(a) 1

(b) 19

(c) 25

(d) 7

140. If tan(x + y) tan (x – y) = 1, then the value of tan 2x

3is

(a) 1

3

(b) 2

3

(c) 3

(d) 1

141. If x = cosec θ – sinθ and y = sec θ – cosθ, then the value of x2y2 (x2 + y2 + 3) is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3


142. If π

0 < θ < ,2y cosθ = x sinθ2

and 2x secθ – y cosec θ = 3, then the value of x2 + 4y2 is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

143. When the angle of elevation of the sun increases from 30° to 60°, the shadow of a post is diminished by 5 m. Then, the height of the post is

(a) 5 3

m2

(b) 2 3

m5

(c) 2

m5 3

(d) 4

m5 3

144. A rail road curve is to be laid out on a circle. What radius should be used if the track is to change direction by 25° in a distance of 42 m?

(a) 91.64 m

(b) 90.46 m

(c) 89.64 m

(d) 93.64 m

145. If sin θ + sin2 θ = 1, then the value of cos12 θ + 3 cos10 θ + 3 cos8 θ + cos6 θ - 1 is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) -1

(d) 2


Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): Read the given information carefully and the questions given below.

Population of five adjacent areas of a town, in the year of 2010, are represented in the following pie-chart. The ratio of the numbers of males to that of females in these areas are stated in the table below. The total of the population in all the five areas is 72 lakh.

Ratio of numbers of males (M) to females (F)

Areas S1 S2 S3 S4 S5

Ratio M : F 3 : 2 4 : 1 7 : 3 2 : 3 13 : 7

146. 12 lakh is the population of the area

(a) S1

(b) S3

(c) S5

(d) S4

147. The number of males in the areas S1 and S4 together is

(a) 13.8 lakh

(b) 8.2 lakh

(c) 16.2 lakh

(d) 15.8 lakh

148. The ratio of number of females in the area S2 to that in the area S5 is

(a) 7 : 9


(b) 36 : 13

(c) 9 : 7

(d) 13 : 36

149. If in the year 2010, there was an increase of 5% population in the area S1 and 8% increases in population of the area S3 compared to the previous year, then the ratio of population in the areas S1 and S3 in the year 2009 was

(a) 3 : 10

(b) 27 : 10

(c) 27 : 70

(d) 10 : 3

150. The average of females population in all the five areas is lower than the female population in each of the areas

(a) S1 and S2

(b) S2 and S5

(c) S2 and S4

(d) S4 and S5


PART- D English Comprehension

Directions (Q. Nos. 151-155): In these questions some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error to the appropriate letter (a, b, c). If there is no error, your is (d).

151. Instead of being (a)/ helpful he was (b)/ being hindrance. (c)/ No error (d)

152. Where (a)/ have I (b)/ to deposit fees? (c)/ No error (d)

153. By the time she had finished her work (a)/ I had nearly given up (b)/ all hope of arriving at the part in time. (c)/ No error (d)

154. Some categorically suspected (a)/ having seen the (b)/ guard and thief together. (c)/ No error (d)

155. He was (a)/ not in position to state (b)/ the speed the ship travelled. (c)/ No error (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 156-160): In these questions sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate words. Four alternative are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

156. I ………. lunch one hour ago.

(a) have had

(b) had had

(c) have

(d) had

157. He though that my car ………. for sale.

(a) is

(b) was

(c) has been

(d) will be

158. He tried to prevent me ………. doing my duty.

(a) against

(b) at


(c) with

(d) from

159. To the dismay of the student body, the class president was ………. berated by the principal at the school assembly.

(a) ignominiously

(b) privately

(c) magnanimously

(d) fortuitously

160. I would apologize if I ………. you.

(a) am

(b) was

(c) have been

(d) were

Directions (Q. Nos. 161-165): In this questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

161. Gaol

(a) destination

(b) Garden

(c) Jail

(d) Bird

162. Loathing

(a) Warmth

(b) Affectation

(c) Hatred

(d) Affection


163. Pragmatic

(a) Intelligent

(b) Wise

(c) Religious

(d) Practical

164. Notion

(a) Thought

(b) Fact

(c) Truth

(d) Hypothesis

165. Vivacious

(a) Poisonous

(b) Energetic

(c) Tricky

(d) Slow

Directions (Q. Nos. 166-170): In these questions choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

166. Hasten

(a) Dash

(b) Dawdle

(c) Hurry

(d) Scurry

167. Spirited

(a) Animated

(b) Excited

(c) Lively


(d) Dull

168. Forthright

(a) Blunt

(b) Tricky

(c) Candid

(d) Plainspoken

169. Antagonism

(a) Cordiality

(b) Animosity

(c) Hostility

(d) Enmity

170. Vanity

(a) Humanity

(b) Humility

(c) Pretension

(d) Arrogance

Directions (Q. Nos. 171-175): In these questions four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentences. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

171. The project is carried over to this year, and we need to keep the ball rolling.

(a) to continue the work

(b) more information

(c) to do better

(d) new strategies

172. The host team bore the palm in the league matches.

(a) played quite well


(b) was victorious

(c) was defeated

(d) played a very boring match

173. Just keep your wig on. Everything will be alright.

(a) hold on to your wig, so it won't fall off

(b) get another hair cut

(c) calm down

(d) take off your wig

174. Parents pay through their nose for their children's education.

(a) by taking loans

(b) an extremely high price

(c) grudgingly

(d) willingly

175. Monica's habit of picking holes in every relationship-is very irksome.

(a) admiring people

(b) finding fault

(c) criticizing people

(d) arguing with people

Directions (Q. Nos. 176-180): In these questions a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (a), (b), (c) which may improve the sentences. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your is (d).

176. His life is hanging with a thread.

(a) from

(b) by

(c) to

(d) No improvement


177. After twenty years of exile, the prisoner was in the end of his tether.

(a) on

(b) though

(c) at

(d) No improvement

178. Grandfather is often so tired that he drops of in his armchair.

(a) slides away

(b) falls out

(c) slips in

(d) No improvement

179. The court was forced to respect the profundity of the learned judge's knowledge.

(a) probity

(b) proximity

(c) prodigality

(d) No improvement

180. He has lost his nearly all many pets.

(a) all his nearly many pets

(b) his many pets nearly all of them

(c) nearly all his many pets

(d) No improvement

Directions (Q. Nos. 181-185): In this questions out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

181. A group of three books, films etc, that have the same subject or characters

(a) Trinity

(b) Trilogy

(c) Trio


(d) Tripod

182. A study of the human race

(a) Anthropology

(b) Archaeology

(c) Ethnology

(d) Etymology

183. An expert in the area of the fine or other arts

(a) Neophyte

(b) Amateur

(c) Connoisseur

(d) Enthusiast

184. The art of preserving skin of animals, birds, fishes

(a) Topology

(b) Taxonomy

(c) Seismology

(d) Taxidermy

185. Chanting of magic spells

(a) Narration

(b) Recitation

(c) Incartation

(d) Utterance

Directions (Q. Nos. 186-190): In these questions four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

186.

(a) Abracadebra

(b) Abracadebri


(c) Abracadabra

(d) Abrakadabra

187.

(a) Apparrel

(b) Aparell

(c) Aparel

(d) Apparel

188.

(a) Refferee

(b) Refere

(c) Referre

(d) Referee

189.

(a) Commissioner

(b) Comissioner

(c) Commissionar

(d) Comissionor

190.

(a) Etiquete

(b) Etiquette

(c) Ettiquette

(d) Ettiquete


Directions (Q. Nos. 191-200): In these questions you have two brief passages with 5 questions in each passage.

Read the passages carefully and choose the best to each question out of the four alternatives.

Passage I

"Nobody knows my name" is the title of one of James Baldwin's celeberated books, Who knows the name of the old man sitting amidst ruins pondering over his hubble-bubble? We do not. It does not matter. He is there like the North Pole, the Everest and the Alps but with one difference. The North pole, the Everest and the Alps will be there when he is not there any more. Can we really say this? "Dust thou act to dust returneth" was not spoken of the soul. We do not know whether the old man's soul will go marching on like John Brown's. While his body lies mouldering in the grave or becomes ash driven by the wind or is immersed in water, such speculation is hazardous. A soul's trip can take one to the treacherous sholas of metaphysics where there is no "yes" or "no". "Who am I?" asked Tagore of the rising sun in the first dawn of his life, he received no answer. "Who am I?" he asked the setting sun in the twilight of his life. He received no answer.

We are no more on solid ground with dust which we can feel in our hands, scatter to the wind and wet with water to turn it into mud. For this much is sure, that in the end, when life's ceaseless labour grinds to a halt and man meets death, the brother of sleep, his body buried or burnt, becomes dust. In the form of dust he lives, inanimate yet in contact with the animate. He settles on files in endless government almirahs, on manuscripts written and not published on all shelves, on faces and hands. He becomes ubiquitous all pervasive sometimes sneaking even into hermetically scaled chambers.

191. What is the difference between the old man and the North Pole, the Everest and the Alps?

(a) He ponders over his bubble-bubble while they don't

(b) They are known to all while he is known to none

(c) They remain while he will soon become dust

(d) They are not as old as he

192. What according to the passage, happens to a person's soul after death?

(a) The soul also dies with the body

(b) The soul continues to live after the body is dead

(c) The soul certainly becomes dust after death

(d) It is dangerous to guess


193. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) The rising sun told Tagore who he was

(b) The rising sun did not tell Tagore who he was

(c) The rising sun advised Tagore to ask no questions

(d) The rising sun told Tagore that he would becomes dust

194. What happens to man after he becomes dust?

(a) He disappears from the world for ever

(b) He appears in the form of man again

(c) He becomes all pervasive as dust

(d) He often sneaks into hermetically sealed chambers

195. What figure of speech is used in the expression 'the brother of sleep'?

(a) Simile

(b) Metaphor

(c) Oxymoron

(d) Irony

Passage II

To write well you have to be able to write clearly and logically, and you cannot do this unless you can thin clearly and logically. If you cannot do this yet you should train yourself to do it by taking particular problems and following them through, point by point to a solution; without leaving anything out and without avoiding any difficulties that you meet.

At first you find clear, step-by-step thought very difficult. You may find that your mind is not able to concentrate. Several unconnected ideas may occur together. But practice will improve your ability to concentrate on a single idea and think about it clearly and logically. In order to increase your vocabulary and to improve your style, you should read widely and use a good dictionary to help you find the exact meanings and correct usages of words.

Always remember that regular and frequent practice is necessary if you want to learn to write well. It is no good waiting until you have an inspiration before you write. Even with the most famous writers, inspiration is rare. Someone said that writing is ninety-nine per cent hard work and one per cent inspiration, so the sooner you get into the habit of disciplining yourself to write, the better.


196. To write well, a person must train himself in

(a) dealing with a difficult problem

(b) not leaving anything out

(c) thinking clearly and logically

(d) following a step-by-step approach

197. Initially it is difficult to write because

(a) a good dictionary is not used

(b) ideas occur without any sequence

(c) aids to correct writing are not known

(d) exact usages of words are not known

198. According to the passage, writing style can be improved by

(a) thinking logically

(b) writing clearly

(c) undergoing training

(d) reading widely

199. Famous writers have achieved success by

(a) using their linguistic resources properly

(b) disciplining their skill

(c) following only one idea

(d) waiting for inspiration

200. All the following words mean 'exact' except

(a) precise

(b) accurate

(c) very

(d) erect


SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2012: (Answers)

1. d

2. c

3. a

4. b

5. a

6. d

7. b

8. c

9. c

10. d

11. c

12. d

13. b

14. c

15. d

16. a

17. d

18. c

19. d

20. c

21. b

22. c

23. b

24. d

25. b

26. a

27. b

28. d

29. b

30. c

31. b

32. d

33. d

34. a

35. a

36. a

37. c

38. d

39. c

40. b

41. d

42. c

43. b

44. c

45. c

46. c

47. c

48. d

49. c

50. b

51. b

52. c

53. c

54. d

55. c

56. c

57. b

58. c

59. c

60. d

61. b

62. b

63. c

64. d

65. d

66. c

67. c

68. c

69. a

70. b

71. b

72. a

73. a

74. b

75. b

76. b

77. d

78. b

79. c

80. b

81. d

82. d

83. c

84. d

85. b

86. b

87. c

88. d

89. c

90. c

91. a

92. d

93. c

94. b

95. a

96. c

97. b

98. a

99. c

100. a

101. c

102. b

103. b

104. c

105. a

106. c

107. d

108. c

109. b

110. b


111. c

112. b

113. a

114. a

115. a

116. d

117. a

118. d

119. b

120. d

121. d

122. b

123. a

124. b

125. a

126. b

127. b

128. d

129. b

130. c

131. d

132. c

133. b

134. b

135. a

136. c

137. a

138. a

139. c

140. a

141. b

142. d

143. a

144. a

145. a

146. c

147. a

148. c

149. *

150. c

151. c

152. b

153. a

154. a

155. d

156. d

157. b

158. d

159. a

160. d

161. c

162. c

163. d

164. a

165. b

166. b

167. d

168. b

169. a

170. b

171. a

172. b

173. c

174. b

175. b

176. b

177. c

178. d

179. d

180. c

181. b

182. a

183. c

184. d

185. c

186. c

187. d

188. b

189. a

190. b

191. c

192. d

193. b

194. c

195. b

196. c

197. b

198. d

199. b

200. d

171 SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide

SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2012: (Explanations)

1. (d)

As 92 – 1 = 81 – 1 = 80

Similarly, 1002 – 1 = 9999

2. (c)

As we know 52 = 25 and 53 = 125

Similarly, 62 = 36 and 63 = 216

3. (a)

As we know 335 – 216 =119

Similarly, 987 - ? = 119

Hence, ? = 987 – 119 = 868

4. (b)

As we observe,

Similarly,


5. (a)

As we observe ,

Similarly,

6. (d)

As we observe,

Similarly,

7. (b)

As Man depends on food. Similarly, fire depends on fuel.

8. (c)

Belief comes from spiritual. Similarly, music comes from orchestral.

9. (c) Observe the following:

opposite

opposite

Former Latter

Similarly, Hazardous Safe


10. (d)

Except option (d) all others are not a sequence of letters.

11. (c) Observe the following:

B (2) + E (5) → 7 (odd)

G (7) + J (10) → 17 (odd)

N (14) + P (16) → 30 (even)

Q (17) + R (18) → 35 (odd)

Hence, option (c) is odd option.

12. (d)

In option (d), As required, the sum of first and second digit is equal to third digit.

13. (b)

Except option (b), all other are cubes.

14. (c) Observe the below pattern:

12 16 60 80 36 48

4 ×3 (4 ×4)' (4 ×15) (4 × 20) and (4 ×9) (4 × 12)

Hence, option (c).

15. (d)

opposite

opposite

opposite

C X

D W

J Q

Hence, option (d).

16. (a)

Except option (a), all others a computer language.

17. (d)

Except option (d), all others are masculine.


18. (c)

Except option (c), all others presents a detail.

19. (d)

Dictionary arrangement of words

(c) (b) (d) (a)Ballerina Ballictics Ballistite Ballium

∴ Word of third position → (d) Ballistite

20. (c) Dictionary arrangement of words

(b) (d) (c)(a)

Latch Latitude Laugh Laurels

∴ Last words in dictionary → Laurels.

21. (b)

(1) (3) (2) (5) (4)Infant Child Adolescent Adult Old

⇒ 1, 3, 2, 5, 4

22. (c) The following is the pattern in letter series-

c b a/b a c/a c b/c b a

⇒ bacb

23. (b) The following is the pattern in letter series-

a b/a b b/a b b b/a b b b b

⇒ a b b b

24. (d)

25. (b)

MNOP/WXYZ/RSTU/BCDE

∴ At ? position ⇒ E


26. (a)

Hence, ? ⇒ 110

27. (b)

Hence, ? ⇒ 52

28. (d)

Let the age of manager = x years

According to question,

25 × 30 + x = 31

26

x = 26 ×31-25×30

= 806 - 750

= 56 yr

29. (b)

Let the number of student in class A in the beginning = x

So number of student in class B in the beginning = x

2

According to the given question,


x(x + 20) + + 30 = 140

2

3x + 50 = 140

2

3x = 140 - 50

2

90 × 2 x = = 60

3

30. (c)

LCM of 8, 12, 15, 20 = 120

∴ Required number = 120 + 2 = 122

31. (b) Observe the below relation-

-1 -1

-1

B A, P O

K J

32. (d)

Since the letter ‘P’ is not present in the keyword and hence, the word ‘CAMP’ cannot be made from the letters of the word ‘CAMBRIDGE’.

33. (d)

As,

Similarly,

34. (a)

As,


Similarly,

35. (a)

As,

Similarly,

36. (a)

As,

Similarly,

37. (c)

38 + 15 = 66, 29 + 36 = 99


⇒ (3 + 8) × (1 + 5) = 66

⇒ (2 + 9) × (3 + 6) = 99

Similarly,

82 + 44 ⇒ (8 +2) × (4 + 4) = 10 × 8 = 80

38. (d)

45 + 9 – 3 × 15 ÷ 2

Conversion according to question,

⇒ 45 ÷ 9 × 3 + 15 – 2

= 5 × 3 + 15 – 2

= 15 + 15 – 2

= 28

39. (c)

7 × 4 – 3 = 25

8 × 9 – 2 = 70

6 × 5 – ? = 29

∴ ? = 30 – 29 = 1

40. (b)

3 + 6 × 9 = 57

4 + 7 × 1 = 11

Similarly,

5 + 8 × 2 = 21

41. (d)


42. (c)

From the given figure, now that boy running towards West.

43. (b)

From the given figure, now that boy running towards west

44. (c)

By the given statement, neither conclusion I nor II is implicit.

45. (c)

By the given statement, both conclusions are implicit.

46. (c)

Hence, option (c) is correct .

47. (c)



48. (d)

Hence, option (d) is correct .

49. (c)


50. (b)

By option (b),

S → 79

A → 13

L → 69

M → 75

⇒ SALM → 79, 13, 69, 75

51. (b)

52. (c)

53. (c)

54. (d)

55. (c)

56. (c)


57. (b)

58. (c)

59. (c)

60. (d)

61. (b)

62. (b)

63. (c)

64. (d)

65. (d)

66. (c)

67. (c)

68. (c)

69. (a)

70. (b)

71. (b)

72. (a)

73. (a)

74. (b)

75. (b)

76. (b)

77. (d)

78. (b)

79. (c)

80. (b)

81. (d)

82. (d)


83. (c)

84. (d)

85. (b)

86. (b)

87. (c)

88. (d)

89. (c)

90. (c)

91. (a)

92. (d)

93. (c)

94. (b)

95. (a)

96. (c)

97. (b)

98. (a)

99. (c)

100. (a)

101. (c)

102. (b)

By option (b), 3783 ÷ 13 = 291

and 3783 – 3 = 3780, which is divided by 4, 5, 6 and 7.


103. (b)

1 1 2- 3 = ×

2+ 3 2+ 3 2- 3

= 3- 2

similarly,

1 1 = 4- 3, = 5- 4

3+ 4 4+ 5

1and = 6- 5

5+ 6

simplest value

= 3- 2+ 4- 3+ 5- 4+ 6- 5

= 6- 2= 2 3-1

104. (c)

3 B contributer

4

,

1 3 2 215 : x 1 :

4 4 3 3

5 1

2

x=10 month

Let of the capital for x month

According to question

x

105. (a)

Let the number to be x.


X + 21 = 3x - 7

2x = 21 + 7

28X = 14

2

106. (c)


Let A and B can do a work in x days and 3x days respectively.


3x - x = 60

2x = 60

60 x = 30

2

Time taken to complete the work

30 90 122 days

30 90 2

107. (d)

From Figure,

Area of the path = Area of PQRS - Area of ABCD

= 120 100 - 100 80

=100 40 = 4000 sq m

108. (c)

Let, the actual cost of the machine = Rs. x


110 100 - 10 x 27500

100 100

90 100 x = 27500

100 110

x = Rs. 22500

109. (b) Solution below-


Given, Ratio in number of employees = 8 : 5

And ratio in their wages = 7 : 9

After increment, ratio in their wages

= 8 7 : 9 5

= 56 : 45

hence, the overall wages bill is decreased in the ratio 56 : 45


Let the average age of new jury = X yr


5 40 - 35 + 25 = X

5

5X = 200 - 10

190 X = 38 yr

5

111. (c) Solution below-

Let, the total journey = X km


X X 15 - =

35 40 60

X 1

280 4

280 X = = 70 km

4



Let , the number of articles bought by Rs. 1 be X

SP - CP Percentage profit = 100

CP

1 1 -

20 x 20 = 1001

x

20 1 1 = 100

x 20

x

20 100 = 5 -

x x

120 x = = 24

5

113. (a) Solution below-

Here, X 25% y = 12%

Required percentage

25 12 25 + 12 + %

100

= 37 + 3 = 40 %


Let, The depth of ocean = h km

Speed of ship = 30 km/h

30 5 25 = = m/s

18 3


25Time taken to cover 500 m at the speed of m/s

3

500 = 60 s

25

3

Distance covered by radiowave in 60 s

= 200 60

2 2 2

22

= 12000 m or 12 km

In OCB,

OC CB - OB

1 OC = 6

4

5 23 OC = = 5.99 (approx.)

4

143Which is equal to

2


Let, amount of loan taken from the first bank be Rs. x

10000 - x 10 1x 8 1 + 950

100 100

2x 1000 - = 950

100

2x = 50 100

x = Rs. 2500


116. (d) Solution below-

2

2

2

2

2

33

3

3

3

3

3

3

1 a + = 98

a

1 a + + 2 = 100

a

1 a + = 100

a

1 a + 100 = 10

a

1a + 10

a

1 1 1a + + 3a. + = 1000

a a a

1a + + 3 10 = 1000

a

1 a +

a

a

= 1000 - 30 = 970



2

2

2

4 2 3 2

4 3 2

x = 1 + 2 + 3

x - 1 = 2 + 3

x - 2x + 1 = 2 + 3 + 2 6

x - 2x = 4 + 2 6....................( )

x - 2x - 4 = 2 6

,

- 4x + 16 - 4x 16 - 8x = 24

- 4x - 4x 16 - 8

i

Squaring both side

x x

x x

4 3 2

4 3 2

2

2

= 0

2 - 8x - 8x + 32x - 16 = 0

2 - 8x - 5x + 26x - 28

= 3x - 6x - 12

= 3 x - 2x - 12

x

x

= 3 4 + 2 6 - 12

= 12 + 6 6 - 12

= 6 6


2 2

2

2

Distance between two points (0, -5) and (x, 0) = 13 unit

x - 0 + 0 + 5 13

x + 25 = 169

x 169 - 25

x = 144


Given, 4x = 18y

x 9 =

y 2

x 9 7 - 1 = - 1 =

y 2 2




22 2

33 3

222

3

x + y - 2xy + y =

+ y x + y - 3xy x + y

4 - 2 xy = 2 - 3 = 1

4 - 3 4

14 7 = 52 26

x

x


2 2 2

2 2 2

2 2 2

+ b + c = 2 a - b - c - 3

a - 2a + 1 + b + 2b + 1 + + 2c + 1 = 0

a - 1 + b + 1 + c + 1 0

a - 1 = 0, b + 1 = 0, c + 1 = 0

a = 1, b = -1, c = -1

2a - 3b + 4c = 2 1 - 3(-1) + 4(-1) = 1

a

c

2

2

3432

2

3

3

3

1 + = 5

x

x - 5x + 1 = 0

x - 3x + 1 = 2x.........................(i)

11 x xxxx =

x - 3x + 1 2

1 1 = x

2 x

1 1 = x + - 3 x +

2 x

x

x

1

x

1 = 125 - 15

2

= 55



2 2

2 2

2

2

1 1 1 + 4 +

16 4 4

1 1 = 2 - + 2

4 2

1 19 = 6 + 2 =

4 2

x xx x

xx


2

2

2

2

15a + = 5

3a

5 1 3a + = 5

3 5a

1 5 3 3a + = = 3

5a 5

On squaring both side,

1 19a + +2.3a. = 9

25a 5a

1 6 399a + = 9 - =

25a 5 5


Given,


1 2 3 2 3 1 3

5x + 7y = 35 .................(i)

4x + 3y = 12 .................(ii)

Co -ordinate of intersection point of given

-84 80.( ) (ii) is ,

13 13

,

of ABC

1= y + y +

2

Eqs i and

From figure

Area

x y x y x 1 2 y

1 80 80 - 84= 3 0 + 7 0 + . 0 0

2 13 13 13

1 80 3 80 7= +

2 13 13

1 80 4 160= = sq units

2 3 3

y


From figure, BOC = 54

,

MAN = 360 - 90 + 90 + BOC

= 360 - 180 + 54

= 126

BAC = MAN = 126

In ABCD



2

In similar triangles.

( Ratio of their corresponding sides)

= Ratio of area of two similar triangles.

Ratio of their corresponding sides

9 =

16

= 3 : 4


The mid points of sides AC and AB are E, F respectively

EF BC

In ABD,

AF AO =

FB OD

AO = 1

OD

AO = OD

AO = OG + GD

1 AO = OG + AG

2

AO

1 = OG + AO + OG

2

1 3 AO = OG

2 2

AO : OG = 3 : 1


The angle substened at the centre is double to that substened in the arc


= 2 BAC

= 2 50 = 100

BSC,

BS = SC = Radius of circle

=

+ 2 = 180

2 = 180 -100

=

BSC

In

BCS CBS

BSC BCS

BCS

BCS

80 = 40

2



,

ABCT is a cyclic

ATC = 180 -

PB is a straight line

PAC = 180 -

PAC and ATC,

ATC = PAC = 180 -

AC = AC

From figure

Quadrilateral

In

PCA = TCA

PAC ~ ATC

AC CT =

PC AC

AC CT =

PC BC

CT : CB = CA : CP [ AC = BC]


figureFrom

1 2

1 2

2 2 2 2

2 2

1 2 1 2

1 2

Distance between centre of circles.

OO' = r r

OO' M

O'M = O' Q - MQ

= O' Q - OP

= r - r

PQ = OM = (O' O) - (O'M)

= r r - r - r

= 4r r

In



The angle substened at the centre is double to that substened in the arc.

BOC = 2 BAC

In BOC,

BOC + 2 OBC = 180

2 BAC + 2 OBC = 180

180 BAC + OBC = = 90

2


Let AB and AC are the diameters of two circles.


AB = 10 cm, AC = 16 cm

From figure,

In PAB and QAC,

APB = AQC

PAB = QAC

PBA = ACQ

PAB ~ QAC

AP AB =

AQ AC

AP

AQ

10 = 5 : 8

16


From Figure,

A BIC = 90 +

2

60 = 90 + = 120

2


From figure,


A BPC = 90 -

2

80 = 90 - = 50

2


Circumference of a circle

= 2

= 2 50 [ R = 50]

= 100 cm

Angle substened at the centre by a circle

= 360

Angle substened at the centre by an arc BC

360= 16

100

360 16 7=

100 22

18.33 or 18 20'

R

(approx.)


Given,

sin(2 20 ) cos(2 20 )

cos 90 - 2x - 20 = cos( 2y+ 20 )

90 - 2 - 20 2y + 20

90 x + y = = 45

2

sec(x + y) = sec 45 2

x y

x



5 sin cos 3

cos

sin cos 5 3

cos

5 tan - 3

5 tan + 3

4 5. 3

15 = 4 7

5. 35


2 2 2 2

2 2

2 22 2

2 2

2

4 sec + 9 cosec = 4 1 + tan + 9 1 + cot

13 + 4 tan + 9 cot

AM GM

4 tan + 9 cot 4 tan 9 cot

2

4 tan + 9 cot = 2 36

12

Minimum value of 4 sec + 9 cose

2c

13 + 12 = 25



, tan y tan (x - y) = 1

tan y = cot (x - y)

tan y = tan 90 - (x - y)

y = 90 - (x - y)

2x = 90

90 x = = 45

2

2 2 45 tan = tan

3 3

Given x

x

x

x

x

= tan 30

1 =

3


2 22 2

2 2

2 2

2 22 2

2

+ y + 3 = cosec - sin + sec - cos 3

= cosec + sec - 3 + 3

1 =

sin cos

= cosec - sin sec - cos

1 1 = - sin

sin cos

x

x y

2

22 2

22 2

2 2

2 2 2 2 2 2

2 2

- cos

1 - sin 1 - cos =

sin cos

cos sin = = cos sin

sin cos

1 + y + 3 = cos sin

sin cos

= 1

x y x



, 2y cos = x sin ...........................(i)

1 x 2y =

sec cosec

x sec - 2y cosec = 0 ..................(ii)

and 2x sec - y cosec = 3...................(iii)

By Eqs. (i

Given

2 22 2

2 2

) and (ii), we get

y = sin

By Eq. (i), x = 2 cos

x + 4y = 2 cos + 4 sin

= 4 cos + sin

= 4


, the height of the post = h mLet


ACB,

h tan 30 = ..........( )

5 + x

DAB,

h tan 60 =

x

h x =

3

. (i)

1 h =

3 53

5 +

33

In

i

In

By Eq

h

h

= h

h 5 h - =

3 3

5 3 5 3 h = =

22 3m


Length of the road for substened a angle of 25

= 40 m

Length of the road for substened a angle of 360

40 = 360 = 576 m

25

Radius of a circular r

576oad =

2

576 7 = = 91.64 m

2 22



2

2

2

12 10 8 6

34 2

22 2

sin + sin = 1

sin = 1 - sin

sin = cos ..................(i)

cos + 3 cos + 3 cos + cos = 1

= cos + cos - 1

= sin + cos - 1

= 2

1 -1

= 0


5

the given pie-chart,

72 lakh 360

36012 lakh 12 = 60

72

The population of area S is 12 lakh.

In


1

4

3 45 s in area S = 72

5 360

= 5.4 lakh

2 105 s in area S = 72

5 360

Number of male

Number of male

1 4

= 8.4 lakh

n s in area S and S

= 5.4 + 8.4 = 13.8 lakh

total umber of male



2

5

1 135 fe in area S = 72

5 360

7 60 fe in area S = 72

20 360

1 135 72

5 360 Required ratio =7 60

7220 360

= 9 : 7

Number of male

Number of male

149. (*)Solution below-

1

1

3

area S in 2010

45 = 72

360

area S in 2009

9 100 60 = = lakh

105 7

area S in 2010

15 =

360

Total population of

Total population of

Total population of

3

72 = 3 lakh

area S in 2009

3 100 25 = = lakh

100 8 9

60 9Required ratio = = 108 : 35

7 25

Total population of



1

2

3

fe in area

2 45 S = 72 = 3.6 lakh

5 360

fe in area

1 135 S = 72 = 5.4 lakh

5 360

fe in area

3 15 S = 72 =

10 360

Number of males

Number of males

Number of males

4

0.9 lakh

fe in area

3 105 S = 72 = 12.6 lakh

5 360

Number of males

151. (c)

Put ‘a’ in place of ‘being’.

152. (b)

‘I have in place of ‘have I’.

153. (a)

Remove the word ‘had’.

154. (a)

Put ‘have’ before ‘categorically’.

155. (d)

Put ‘had’ after ‘ship’.

156. (d)

157. (b)

158. (d)

159. (a)

160. (d)


161. (c)

162. (c)

163. (d)

164. (a)

165. (b)

166. (b)

167. (d)

168. (b)

169. (a)

170. (b)

171. (a)

172. (b)

173. (c)

174. (b)

175. (b)

176. (b)

177. (c)

178. (d)

179. (d)

180. (c)

181. (b)

182. (a)

183. (c)

184. (d)

185. (c)

186. (c)


187. (d)

188. (b)

189. (a)

190. (b)

191. (c)

Answer can be drawn from the sixth sentence of the first paragraph.

192. (d)

Answer can be drawn from the ninth sentence of the first paragraph.

193. (b)

Answer can be drawn from the eleventh sentence of the first paragraph.

194. (c)

Answer can be drawn from the second sentence of the second paragraph.

195. (b)

196. (c)

Answer can be drawn from from the very first sentence of the first paragraph.

197. (b)

Answer can be drawn from the third sentence of the second paragraph.

198. (d)

Answer can be drawn from the last sentence of the second paragraph.

199. (b)

Answer can be drawn from the last two sentence of the last paragraph.

200. (d)


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