SSC CHSL Tier-1 Model Paper

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE 1. Select the missing letters.

(1) q, w (2) v, w (3) w,c (4) w, v 2. Which one of the following represents paper,

notebooks and stationery?

3. Two positions of a cube are given. Based on

them find out which number is found opposite number 4 in a given cube?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 Directions (Q. 4-5): In each of the following questions select the missing number from the given responses.

4. (1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 4 5. 64 25 81 36 49 16

14 12 ? (1) 13 (2) 26 (3) 97 (4) 15 Directions (Q. 6-8): In each of the following questions, selectthe related letters/words/number from the given alternatives. 6. 24 : 27 : : ?: 81 (1) 8 (2) 62 (3) 72 (4) 82 7. 47 : 65 : : 59 : ? (1) 95 (2) 110 (3) 106 (4) 118 8. Love: Hate:: Proud: ? (1) Sorrowful (2) Miserable (3) Humble (4) Conceited 9. From amongst the given alternatives, select the

one in which the set of numbers is most like the set of numbers given below:

(7, 12, 22, 37) (1) 2, 7, 12, 32 (2) 3, 8, 18, 33 (3) 4, 8, 19, 34 (4) 8, 13, 22, 38 10. If ‘÷’ means ‘–’, ‘–‘ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means

‘÷’, ‘+’ means ‘×’, then what will be the value of the following?

20 + 6 × 4 – 5 ÷ 7 (1) 28 (2) 32 (3) 34 (4) 36 Directions (Q. 11-12): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 11. 1, 2, 6, 21, 88, ? (1) 412 (2) 400 (3) 484 (4) 445 12. Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, ? (1) Y44B (2) Y66B (3) Y88B (4) Z88B Directions (Q. 13-14): Which one set letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

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13. _ONPM_NPMO_PMON_ (1) PNOM (2) NMPO (3) ONPM (4) MONP 14. Which one set of letters when sequentially

placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

ab_abc_bc_bca_c (1) caab (2) caac (3) bccb (4) baca Directions (Q. 15-16): A word/set of letters given in capital letters is followed by four answer words. Out of these only one cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word/set of letters. Find out that word. 15. EXAMINATION (1) EXAMINE (2) NATION (3) NOTE (4) TONE 16. LEDMENTNOWGEACK (1) KNOWLEDGE (2) GENTLE (3) AGENCY (4) LODGE 17. A statement(s) is /are given followed by

two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statement(s) to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts; you are to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements.

Indicate your answer. Statement: The situation calls for an immediate action. Conclusions: I. The situation is serious. II. Immediate action Is possible. (1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Both I and II follows (4) Neither I nor II

follows 18. Identify the figure that completes the pattern

19. Which of the answer figures is exactly the

mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held at PQ?

Question Figure

Answer Figures :

20. Which one of the answer figures shall complete

the given question figure? Question Figure

Answer Figures

Directions (Q. 21-25): In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three responses. 21. (1) (48,6) (2) (21,7) (3) (24,3) (4) (56,7) 22. (1) Carbon (2) Graphite (3) Diamond (4) Gold 23. (1) 49 (2) 140 (3) 112 (4) 98 24. (1) XRMKL (2) XRMIF (3) XRNLJ (4) XSNLJ 25. (1) Iron (2) Mercury (3) Silver (4) Gold

GENERAL AWARENESS 26. Which among the following ‘MATH’ is related

with Buddhism? (1) Dakhma (2) Chaitya (3) Khangah (4) Angeri 27. Identify the European power from whom

Shivaji obtained cannons and ammunition. (1) The French (2) The Portuguese

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(3) The Dutch (4) The English 28. CR Das and Motilal Nehru formed the ‘Swaraj

Party’ after. (1) Swadeshi Movement (2) Non-Cooperation Movement (3) Civil Disobedience Movement (4) Quit India Movement 29. Provincial autonomy was introduced in India by

the (1) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (2) Government of India Act, 1919 (3) Government of India act, 1935 (4) Indian Independence Act, 1947 30. Equatorial regions experience (1) warm and dry climate (2) hot and wet climate (3) wet and windy climate (4) moderately pleasant climate 31. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is (1) excessive fuel wood collection (2) excessive soil erosion (3) floods (4) construction of roads 32. Kariba dam is located on the river (1) Zambezi (2) Niger (3) Buene (4) Nile 33. Which is the most extensive soil found in India? (1) Desert soil (2) Laterite soil (3) Alluvial soil (4) Black soil 34. When was the first National Forest Policy

issued by the Government of India? (1) 1952 (2) 1940 (3) 1942 (4) 1999 35. Which of the following subjects does not figure

in the Concurrent List of our Constitution? (1) Forests (2) Trade unions (3) Stock exchanges and futures markets (4) Protection of wild animals and birds 36. Directive Principles of State Policy in the

Indian Constitution were taken from the Constitution of

(1) Britain (2) Ireland (3) USA (4) Canada 37. Parliament exercises control over public

expenditure through (1) Advocate General (2) Comptroller Auditor General (3) Commerce Minister (4) Finance Minister 38. Collective consumption means (1) household consumption (2) individual consumption (3) self-consumption (4) consumption by the citizens of the country 39. The Law Demand expresses

(1) effect of change in price of a commodity on its demand

(2) effect of change in demand of a commodity on its price

(3) effect of change in demand of a commodity over the supply of its substitute

(4) None of the above 40. Which of the following taxes is not shared

between the union and the states? (1) Income tax (2) Excise duty (3) Corporation tax (4) Cess 41. The following particles move with same kinetic

energy. Which of them has maximum momentum?

(1) Electron (2) Proton (3) Deuteron (4) Alpha-Particle 42. Rain drops fall from great height. Which among

the following statements is true regarding it? (1) They fall with that ultimate velocity,

which are different for droplets (2) They fall with same ultimate velocity (3) Their velocity increases and they fall with

different velocity on the earth (4) Their velocity increases and they fall with

same velocity on the earth 43. It is dangerous to observe solar eclips with

naked eyes, because (1) infrared radiations from sun burn our

retina (2) ultraviolet radiations from sun burn our

retina (3) all radiations from sun initiate chemical

reactions in eyes (4) cosmic rays reach eyes more during the

eclipse 44. The Refrigerant Freon is (1) calcium tetra fluoride (2) chlorodifluoro methane (3) fluorspar and feldspar (4) hydrofluorosilisic acid 45. Which of the following processes is used for the

production of biodiesel? (1) Transamination (2) Transcripton (3) Transesterification (4) Translation 46. Which bacterial strain developed from

natural isolates by genetic manipulations can be used for treating oil spills?

(1) Agrobacterium (2) Clostridium (3) Nitrosomonas (4) Pseudomonas 47. Blood pressure is controlled by (1) adrenal gland (2) thyroid gland (3) thymus (4) corpus luteum 48. Which one of the following elements is

associated with teeth disorder? (1) Chlorine (2) Fluorine (3) Bromine (4) Iodine

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49. Which space vehicle put man on the Moon first time?

(1) Apollo (2) Challenger (3) Columbia (4) Explorer 50. Which country finished on top of the medal

standings at the International Shooting Sport Federation World Cup held in Beijing recently?

(1) Mexico (2) Hungary (3) Mexico (4) India (5) China

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE 51. The wheat sold by a grocer contained 10% low

quality wheat. What quantity of god quality wheat should be added to 150 kg of wheat so that the percentage of low quality wheat becomes 5%?

(1) 85 kg (2) 50 kg (3) 135 kg (4) 150 kg 52. On the cash payment that will settle a bill for

250 chairs at Rs 50 per chair, discount of 20% and 15% with a further discount of 5% is given. The Cash payment is –

(1) Rs 8075 (2) Rs 7025 (3) Rs 8500 (4) None of these 53. A shopkeeper sold a TV set for Rs 17,940 with

a discount of 8% and gained 19.6%. If no discount is allowed, then what will be his gain per cent?

(1) 25% (2) 26.4% (3) 24.8% (4) 30% 54. Cost of ticket per person for a show for the 1st

day is Rs 15, for the second day it is Rs 7.50 and for the 3rd day it is Rs 2.50. Ratio of persons buying the tickets on the three days is 2 : 5 : 13. Find the average cost of ticket per person.

(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) Can’t be

determined 55. Cost of a diamond is directly proportional to

square of its weight. A diamond breaks into 4 pieces and the ratio of their weights is 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. After splitting total cost of diamond becomes Rs 1,40,000. What was the initial cost of diamond?

(1) 2 Lakh (2) 2.5 Lakh (3) 3 Lakh (4) 4.7 Lakh 56. X and Y entered into partnership with Rs 700

and Rs 600 respectively. After 3 months, X withdrew 2/7 of his stock of but after 3 months, he puts back 3/5 of what he had withdrawn. The profit at the end of the year is Rs 726. How much of this should X receive?

(1) Rs 336 (2) Rs 366 (3) Rs 633 (4) Rs 663 57. A man borrows Rs 3000 at 10% compound rate

of interest. At the end of each year he pays back Rs 1000. How much amount should he pay at the end of the third year to clear all his dues?

(1) Rs 1425 (2) Rs 1683 (3) Rs 1700 (4) Rs 1720 58. A, B and C can do a work in 8, 16 and 24 days

respectively. They all begin together. A continues to work till it is finished, C left after 2 days and B, one day before its completion. In what time is the work finished?

(1) 7 days (2) 47/9 days (3) 6 days (4) Can’t be determined 59. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 hrs. and

30 hrs. respectively. Both the pipes are opened to fill the tank but when the tank is one-third full, a leak develops in the tank through which one-fourth water supplied by both pipes goes out. What is the total time taken to fill the tank?

(1) hrs (2) 15 hrs. (3) 12 ½ hrs. (4) 9 ½ hrs 60. Mumbai express left Delhi for Mumbai at 14.30

hrs running at a speed of 60 km/hr. Rajdhani express left Delhi for Mumbai on the same day at 16.30 hrs running at a speed of 80 km/hr. How far from Delhi will the two trains meet?

(1) 400 km (2) 420 km (3) 480 km (4) 440 km 61. A man who can swim 48 m/min in still

water, swims 200 m against the current and 200 m with the current. If the difference between those two times is 10 min, find the speed of current.

(1) 30 m/min (2) 29 m/min (3) 31 m/min (4) 32 m/min

62. is equal to

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

63. The value of is

(1) 0.1 (2) 10 (3) 100 (4) 1000

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64. The radius of the base of a conical vessel is 10 cm and its height is 48cm. This vessel is full of water. This is poured into a cylindrical vessel having base radius 20 cm. the depth of water in the vessel is

(1) 2.1 cm (2) 5.2 cm (3) 3.6 cm (4) 4 cm 65. Water is being pumped out through a

circular pipe whose internal diameter is 7cm. If the flow of water is 12 cm per second, how many litres of water is being pumped out in one hour?

(1) 1663.2 litre (2) 1500 litre (3) 1747.6 litre (4) 2000 litre

66. If , the value of is

(1) 2 (2)

(3) –2 (4) 67. If x + 2 is a factor of (x + 1)7 + (2x + k)3, k

being real, then the value of k is: (1) –1 (2) –4 (3) 5 (4) 4 68. The angle of elevation of a pole at a point p is

tan–1 (5/12). On walking 300m towards the pole, the angle of elevation of the pole is tan–1 (3/4). The height of the pole is

(1) 300 m (2) 281 (1/4) m (3) 375m (4) None of these 69. (sin A + cosec A)2 + (cos A + sec A)2 = ? (1) 7 + tan2 A + cot2 A (2) 4 + tan2 A (3) 5 + tan2 A (4) 6 + tan2A + cot2

A 70. The length of the diagonal BD of the

parallelogram ABCD is 18cm. If P & Q are the centroid of the ΔABC and ΔADC respectively then the length of the line segment PQ is

(1) 4 cm (2) 6 cm (3) 9 cm (4) 12 cm 71. If an angle of a parallelogram is two third

of its adjacent, then the smallest angle of the parallelogram is

(1) 108° (2) 54° (3) 72° (4) 81° 72. The area of a square is equal to that of a

rectangle. The length of rectangle is 5 cm more than the side of square and width is 3 cm less than the side of square. The perimeter of the rectangle is

(1) 17 cm (2) 26 cm (3) 30 cm (4) 34 cm Directions (Q. 73-75): Number of toys of five types (A to E) manufactured over the years (in

thousands) is given below. Study the table and answer the following questions.

73. The approximate percentage increase in

production of D type toys from 2003 to 2005 was

(1) 5% (2) 19% (3) 27% (4) 25% 74. The percentage drop in production of ‘A’ type

of toys from 2002 to 2004 was (1) 10% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 30% 75. The approximate percentage increase of the

production of all types of toys from 2005 to 2006 was

(1) 9% (2) 10% (3) 11% (4) 12%

ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions (Q. 76-78): In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase given in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase given in bold 76. Between a Rock and a Hard Place (1) managing things easily (2) facing two hurdles (3) Being faced with two difficult choices (4) making things too tough 77. It will be wise on your part to let the bygones

be bygones. (1) resist the past (2) ignore the past (3) recollect the past (4) revive the past 78. Threw down the gauntlet (1) threw the challenge (2) abused any insulted (3) behaved as an important (4) put conditions Directions (Q. 79-80): In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the word given in bold

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79. Nabob (1) Bigwig (2) Doubter (3) Frolic (4) Converse 80. Qualm (1) Distress (2) Impunity (3) Persevere (4) Scruple Directions (Q. 81-82): In these questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the word given in bold. 81. Blarney (1) Recede (2) Castigate (3) Foster (4) Set aside 82. Philistine (1) cultured (2) libertine (3) sober (4) educated Directions (Q. 83-85): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence 83. A style in which a writer makes display of his

knowledge. (1) Ornate (2) pedantic (3) Artificial (4) Showy 84. The arrangement of events or dates in the order

of their occurrence (1) reckoning (2) menology (3) Chronology (4) Pun 85. To take back, withdraw or renounce (1) Repent (2) Retrace (3) Refuse (4) Recant

86. In this question, four words are given out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find that correctly spelt word

(1) Seige (2) Pharoah (3) Laison (4) Ebb Directions (Q. 87-89): In these questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives 87. The pilot was………..injured, he died within

half an hour. (1) seriously (2) fatally (3) fatefully (4) vitally 88. Let us take him upon his word. I see no room

for any………in the matter. (1) duplicity (2) deviation (3) cynicism (4) difference

89. The top ranking manager _________ his success in the profession to his managing director’s guidance.

(1) accounts (2) attributes (3) agrees (4) considered Directions (Q. 90-92): In these questions, read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (4). (Ignore errors of Punctuation, if any.) 90. The artist who was giving detailed description

of the sculptures was speaking fluently French. (1) The artist who was giving (2) detailed description of the sculptures (3) was speaking fluently French (4) No error 91. The opposition disrupted proceedings in both

Houses of Parliament for the second consecutive day above the plight of farmers in the country.

(1) The opposition disrupted proceedings (2) both Houses of Parliament for the second

consecutive day (3) above the plight of farmers in the country (4) No error 92. The later part of Gandhi’s life till he was

assassinated was in considerable measure the life of the nation as well.

(1) The later part of Gandhi’s life till he (2) was assassinated was in considerable

measure (3) the life of the nation as well (4) no error Directions (Q. 93-95): In these questions, a sentence or a part of sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (4) 93. You have come here with a view to insult me. (1) to insulting me (2) of insulting me (3) for insulting me (4) No improvement 94. Bad habits must be nipped at the bud. (1) nipped off the bud (2) nipped in the bud (3) nipped on the bud (4) No improvement 95. One cannot have a few doubts about safety

when a spaceship takes off. (1) any doubts (2) some doubts (3) lot of doubts (4) No improvement

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Directions (Q. 96-100): In the following questions, you have four brief passages with 5 questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives. Blame it on broken hearts and bereavement, to mere shyness and busy routines, millions of us suffer from some form of loneliness. Like a disease, it cuts across class, age groups and gender, leaving very few of us immune. And it's not Robinson Crusoe's loneliness, where a person is cut-off from society, but it's loneliness despite living amid dear ones and neighbours, despite the Internet and social networking, crowded towns and shopping malls."People can be alone without being lonely, or lonely in a crowd", says one research paper on the subject. Those affected by loneliness are generally not keen to talk about it. They feel ashamed or embarrassed or simply do not have anyone to discuss the problem with. "Globally, modern urban living has become more and more individualistic and loneliness is a byproduct of it, "says a psychologist. "Relationships in present times have become transient, the concept of extended family has weakened and our circle of friends has narrowed." 96. Who according to the author, suffers from

lonelines ? (1) Only shy people (2) Bereaved people (3) Many people (4) A few people 97. Loneliness is like (1) a disease (2) shyness (3) an immunity (4) a broken heart 98. "Robinson Crusoe's loneliness" means (1) living on an island (2) being cut-off from society (3) being hated by society (4) having no family 99. Why wouldn't those affected by loneliness want

to talk about it ? (1) They feel ashamed or have no one to

discuss with. (2) They are too busy (3) No one interested. (4) They are immune to it 100. The author writes that (1) people feel lonely only when they are

alone. (2) people can be alone and not feel lonely. (3) loneliness is caused by Robinson Crusoe

(4) the concept of extended family is still strong.

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ANSWER KEY

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

1 (3) The word formed by the letter given in the boxes is sandwich.

2 (1) 3 (2) From the two views of the dice, it is clear

that 2 lies opposite 4. 4 (2) Align 3 + 18 = 21 4 + 23 = 27 ? + 27 = 33 ? = 33 – 27 = 6

5 (1) First Column,

Second Column,

Third column, 6 (3) 27 × 3 = 81 24 × 3 = 72 7 (1) 4 + 7 = 6 + 5 = 11 5 + 9 = 9 + 5 = 14 so, ans is 95. 8 (3) Love is opposite of hate , so proud is

opposite of humble. 9 (2) 7 + 5 = 12; 12 + 10 = 22; 22 + 15 = 37 Similarly, 3 + 5 = 8; 8 + 10 = 18; 18 + 15 = 33

10 (1) 11 (4) The given number series is based ont he

following pattern:

12 (3) First Letters :

Second Letters :

Third Letters :

13 (4) MONP/MONP/MONP/MONP Therefore? =MONP 14 (1) ab c /abc/ a bc/ a bc/a b c Therefore? = caab 15 (1) There is only one ‘E’ in the given word. 16 (3) There is only no ‘Y’ letter in the given

word. 17 (3) Clearly, both I and II follows. If situation

calls for an immediate action, the matter seems to be serious.

18 (4) In figure (d) the triangle is inverted. 19 (1) 20 (1)

21 (2) 22 (4) Graphite and Diamond are allotropes of

carbon, a non – metal. Gold is metal. 23 (1) The number 49 is a perfect square. 24 (2) There is a vowel in the letter group

XRMIF 25 (2) Mercury is found in liquid form at the

normal temperature and pressure. 51 (4) Let x kg of good quality wheat is added in

150 kg of wheat. 95% of (150 + x) = 135 + x 150 × 95 + 95x = 35

52 (1) Original price of 250 chairs = 250 × 50 =

Rs. 12500 Price after discount

53 (4) SP = Rs. 17940, Discount = 8%

Gain = 19.6% (Given)

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New SP without discount = Rs. 19500 Gain = 19500 – 15000 = Rs.4500

∴ Gain percent = 54 (1) Let no. of persons buying the tickets on the

three days are 2x, 5x, 13x respectiely. ∴ No. of total tickets bought = 20x From ques., total cost of tickets = 15 × 2x + 7.5 × 5x + 2.5 × 13x = (30 + 37.5 + 32.5) x = (100.0)x = Rs. 100x ∴ average cost of ticket per person

= 55 (4) Let weight of diamond = x \ From ques., Initial cost of diamond = kx2 where k = constant Let the weights of 4 pieces be y, 2y, 3y, 4y

respectively, ∴ x = y + 2y + 3y + 4y x = 10y ...(1) again, from ques., ky2 + k(2y)2 + k (3y)2 + k(4y)2 = 140000 ⇒ 30 ky2 = 140000

\ 56 (2) X’s investment

= (700 × 3) + = Rs. 7320 Y’s investment = 600 × 12 = Rs. 7200 ∴ X’s share from profit

57 (2) Given, P = Rs.3000, r = 10% p.a., n = 3

years Let the total amount given by man = A Now, by formula Amount

=

= 3993 – 1210 – 1100 = Rs. 1683 58 (2) Let the work be finished in x days. Then,

59 (1) Together both pipe can fill the tank in

One third tank can be filled in 4 hr. Now, there is a leak which can empty the

tank in (12 × 4) h = 48 h. So, two-third tank can be filled in

So, total time to fill the mark

= 60 (3) Let two train meet at a distance x from

Delhi. Then, x = 60 × t1 (Mumbai express)

t1 = 8 hr. ∴ Required distance x = 60 × t1 = 60 × 8 =

480 km. 61 (4) Let the speed of current be x m/min. Then, speed with current = (48 + x) m/min. and Speed against the current = (48 – x)

km/h.

62 (3)

63 (2) In the denominator of question then the

solution is

64 (4) r = 10 cm, h = 48 cm

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Volume of the water in the conical vessel = volume of the water in the cylindrical

vessel

65 (1) , h = 12 cm Volume of the water in pipe in 1 sec.

Volume of water stored in (3600 seconds)

1hr. = 66 × 7 cm3 Volume of water stored in (3600 seconds)

1 hr. = 66 × 7 × 3600 cm3 = 1663200 cm3

66 (1) Now,

67 (3) Let p(x) = (x + 1)7 + (2x + k)3 Since (x + 2) is a factor of p(x). ⇒ p(–2) = 0 [by factor theorem]

∴ k = 5

68 (2)

Since

...(1)

...(2) On dividing (1) and (2), we have

Height of pole = 69 (1) (sinA + cosecA)2 + (cosA + secA)2 = sec2A + 2 cosA.secA = 7 + cot2A +

tan2A

70 (2) ABCD is a parallelogram whose diagonal

BD = 18 cm. Let both the diagonals bisect at O ⇒ DO =

OB = 9 cm. Since DO and BO are medians of ΔADC

and ΔABC. Also P asd Q are centroids of ΔADC and

ΔABC

and [centroid of a Δ divides each median in the

ratio of 2 : 1]

and

71 (3) Let one of the two adjacent angles be of

x°,

other adjacent angle =

Now, [Adjacent angles of a parallelogram are

supplementary]

Smallest angle 72 (4) Let the side of the square be x cm Length of the rectangle = (x + 5) cm Its breadth = (x – 3) cm

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Perimeter of the rectangle

= 2 × 17 = 34 cm. 73 (2) Production of type D toys in 2003 = 105

thousand Production of type D toys in 2005 = 125

thousand % increase

= (app) 74 (1) Production of type A toys in 2002 = 200

thousand Production of type A toys in 2004 = 180

thousand

% decrease = 75 (3) Total production in 2005 = 675 thousand Total production in 2006 = 750 thousand % increas in production

= (app)

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