sbi po prelimi

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SBI PO PRELIMINARY MODEL PAPER 10

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Sections Number of questions Marks Duration of Exam

1. English Language 30 30 60 minutes 2. Reasoning 35 35

3. Quantitative Aptitude 35 35

Total = 100 Qs. Total marks = 100

Q. (1 5): Each question below a part of the sentence is printed in bold type. The part printed in bold

type may contain an error. Below each sentence four phrases are given which are numbered (1), (2), (3)

and (4). of these can substitute the part of the sentence in bold type to-correct it. The number of that

part is answer. If the part of the sentence which is printed in bold type is correct as it is, mark (5) i.e.

correction required as your answer.

Q. 1. Cricketers in India earn high salaries in relation with other sports.

(1) in comparison

(2) in comparison with those in

(3) in relation to

(4) when compared to

(5) No correction needed

Q. 2. They will use 200 crore to redesign the park over a five year period.

(1) redesigning the park over a five year period

(2) to redesign of the park over a five year period

(3) to redesigning over a five year period the park

(4) over a five year period to redesign the park


Q. 3. The Government has to ensure that there are no scams as far as compensating goes.

(1) no scams as far as compensation

(2) any scam in compensating


(3) no scams for compensating

(4) no scams are there as far as compensation


Q. 4. The debate did not present the real issues which were touching to the common man in India.

(1) which were touching for

(2) that will be touching on

(3) touching

(4) that were touching for


Q. 5. Members were debarred from contesting elections.

(1) Debarred to contest

(2) debarred to go to contest

(3) debarring contesting

(4) debarred from the contest of

(5) No correction required

Q. (6 10): In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold which are numbered (1), (2),

(3) and (4) of these words may be misspell or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the

wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The number of that word is the answer. If all four words are

correctly and appropriate the answer is (5) i.e. All correct.

Q. 6. 1) Mary constantly talks about herself /2) regardless of other /3) peoples /4) interests. /5) All

correct


Q. 7. 1) All roads, hotels and /2) restaurants in the /3) surrounding area were /4) devastated. /5) All

correct

Q. 8. 1) As soon as Gates /2) presented his /3) proposal Murthy /3) sumoned his /4) advisors. /5) All

correct.

Q. 9. 1) Committee is /2) stranded /3) unless the storm /4) lets up. /5) All correct

Q. 10. 1) The Minister gave an /2) exceptional /3) speech at the /4) inauguration. /5) All correct

Q. (11 20): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These

numbers are again given below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which

fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Physically challenged people have (11) made (12) in the corporate workplace but certainly not as much

as they had (13). We have new laws, rules and (14) relating to physically challenged people in,

workplace, but what we have not changed much is our (15). Physically challenged people have fallen

short in their goals because we (16) the potency of the affluent need to (17) their power. We can (18)

abide by the laws and rules we create in order to (19) physically challenged people an equal opportunity

in the corporate workplace and still not (20) the problems that afflicted and eventually capsized the

physically challenged peoples raft.

Q. 11. (1) undoubtedly (2) perhaps (3) seldom (4) not (5) optimistically

Q. 12. (1) efforts (2) progress (3) automation (4) attempts (5) decisions

Q. 13. (1) predisposed (2) encompassed (3) prescribed (4) foresight (5) expected

Q. 14. (1) cases (2) policies (3) problems (4) revolutions (5) rallies


Q. 15. (1) patterns (2) decision (3) behavior (4) population (5) achievements

Q. 16. (1) retaliate (2) respect (3) permit (4) depleted (5) underestimate

Q. 17. (1) lack (2) diminish (3) know (4)maintain (5) evolve

Q. 18. (1) occasionally (2) submissively (3) them (4) partially (5) scrupulously

Q. 19. (1) deny (2) assure (3) deprive (4) classify (5) share

Q. 20. (1) solved (2) measured (3) emphasise (4) create (5) overcome

Q. (21 25): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in

bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct

as it is and there is no correction required mark (5) i.e. 'No correction required' as the answer.

Q. 21. The US economy is present in the face off a serious recession.

(1) having to face of at present

(2) presently facing up to

(3) presented on the face of

(4) presently facing


Q. 22. Economists have predicted that the country's economic growth falls low to eight percent this

year.

(1) falling as low as

(2) fell to as low as


(3) will fall to as low as

(4) fallen lower than


Q. 23. In all likeness the company will fail to achieve its production targets this year.

(1) With every likeliness

(2) In all likelihood

(3) It is likely for

(4) In every likeness


Q. 24. We have failed assessment of the advantages of outsourcing our IT operations.

(1) in assessment

(2) in not assessing up

(3) to assess

(4) the assessment of


Q. 25. One of the key competencies for managers are ethics and the ability to motivate others.

(1) Among the key competencies

(2) Beside the key competency

(3) Including the key competencies

(4) Within the key competence



Q. (26 30): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of

words have been denoted by numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which pair of words can be filled

up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

Q. 26. _______ the activities of moneylenders could have an adverse impact on those who ____ access

to bank credit.

(1) Encouraging, enjoying

(2) Permitting, denied

(3) Confining, entitled

(4) Promoting, benefit

(5) Curbing, lack

Q. 27. The Budget announced substantial ______ of ____ to critical sectors like education and

healthcare.

(1) expenditure, capital

(2) sanction, initiative

(3) allotment, security

(4) disbursement, investment

(5) allocation, resources

Q. 28. The government has decided not to make any _____ changes in the country's tax _____.

(1) sweeping, regime

(2) transparent, hike

(3) drastically, net

(4) constitutional, revenue

(5) existing, structure


Q. 29. The RBI has _____ a statement that the implementation of KYC norms should not lead to the

denial of banking ____ to customers.

(1) released, asset

(2) issued, services

(3) drafted, clearing

(4)made, tariff

(5) notified, transaction

Q. 30. The new scheme ______ all persons with disabilities defined ____ the Disabilities Act.

(1) discriminates, according

(2) recognises, beneath

(3) profits, within

(4) covers, under

(5) promises, by

Answers

Q. 1. (2) Cricketers are those in cricket so their Salary will be compared with those in other sports

comparison is done between parallel ideas in parallel form.

Q. 2. (5) No correction required.

Q. 3. (1) verb (goes) is preceded by a noun (compensation).

Q. 4. (3) real issues touching the common man affecting the common man. touching does not

required a preposition after it.


Q. 5. (5) debarred means stopped from doing something. election itself is contest so we can not say

contest of election.

Q. 6. (2) correct word is regardless- despite, not being affected by.

Q. 7. (5) All correct devastated - destroyed.

Q. 8. (3) The correct word is summoned ordered them to come or be present somewhere

Q. 9. (4) The correct word is left. lifts up - gets removed or goes away.

Q. 10. (2) the correct spelling is exceptional much greater than usual, especially skill, intelligence

quality etc.

Q. 11. (1) undoubtedly - surely or certainly The adverb should be positive because the sentence after the

contradictory conjunction but is negative (not as much as)

Q. 12. (2) progress to make progress - improve in position.

Q. 13. (5) Expected - wanted (thought that it would be) had is followed by past participle of verb.

(They had expected more progress than they have got.)

Q. 14. (2) Policies - set of ideas or plans agreed officially by a group. so policies can come in continuation

with laws and rules.

Q. 15. (3) behavior- The way we treat a person There may be certain laws and rules for their benefit but

we have not change our behavior towards them.


Q. 16. (5) underestimate - we fail to understand the real potential in them and that needs be

encouraged

Q. 17. (5) evolve - grow better (first form of verb is used after to)

Q. 18.(5) scrupulously - with honesty and correctly as it should be done.

Q. 19. (1)

Q. 20. (5)

Q. 21. (4) Presently facing will be the correct option because the sentence is in the simple present

continuous tense

Q. 22. (3) Because predicted means to show or indicate about something that will happen in future.

Q. 23. (2) Because likeness is a form of like which means love, interest or respect for something or

someone whereas, Likelihood means that how likely something is to happen.

eg. There is very little likelihood of that happening. in all likelihood in any case or condition.

Q. 24.(3) To assess means to make a judgment about the nature or quality of somebody or something.

eg. It's difficult to assess the effects of these changes.

Q. 25. (1) Among is a preposition and is used for more than two persons or things.

Q. 26. (5) Because curbing means to control or limit something, especially something bad.

eg. A range of policies have been introduced aimed at curbing inflation.


Lack means to have none or not enough of something.

eg. He lacks confidence.

Q. 27. (5) Allocation there means an amount of money, space, etc. that is given to somebody for a

particular purpose.

eg. The allocation of food to those who need it most and

Resources here mean a supply of something that a country has and can use especially to increase their

wealth.

eg. We must make the most efficient use of the available financial resources.

Q. 28. (1) Because sweeping here means having an important effect on a large part of something.

eg. Security forces were given sweeping powers to search homes and

Regimehere means a methods or system of government.

eg. Our tax regime is one of the most favourable ones.

Q. 29. (4) made a statementmeans a announced something publically

tariffcharge or list of charges for providing services.

Issued means the act of supplying or making available things for people to buy or use (a statement can't

be issued).

Q. 30. (4) Covers here means to include something or to deal with something.

eg. The survey covers all aspects of the business and

under according to

eg. The country is now under marital law.


Test 2 Reasoning

Q. (1 5): In the following questions, the symbols@, , % and # are used with the following meaning

as illustrated below:

P % Q means P is not greater than Q.

P Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q

P # Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q

P Q means P is not smaller than Q

P @ Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two

conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true.

Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true.

Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.

Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.

Give answer (5) if both Conclusion I and II are true.

Q. 1. Statements: B @ N, N % R, R F

Conclusions: I. B @ F II. N # F

Q. 2. Statements: D # T, T @ R, R M

Conclusions: I. M # D II. M # T

Q. 3. Statements: K H, H % F, F # J

Conclusions: I. F K II. J H

Q. 4. Statements: W @ G, N G, N % V


Conclusions: I. W @ N II. V G

Q. 5. Statements: T Y, Y % M, M R

Conclusions: I. R # Y II. T M

Q. (6 10): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions:

A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. F is third to the right of B who is second

to the right of E. C is third to the left of E. A is not an immediate neighbor of F.

Q. 6. Who is to the immediate right of F?

(1) C (2) D (3) E (4) B (5) None of these

Q. 7. Who is to the immediate left of C?

(1) B (2) F (3) B or F (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

Q. 8. Who is second the right of C?

(1) A (2) E (3) D (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

Q. 9. Who is to the immediate right of A?

(1) E (2) D (3) C (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

Q. 10. Who are the immediate neighbor of E?

(1) A B (2) D F (3) B D (4) A F (5) None of these

Q. (11 15): Each of the questions below consists of a questions and two statements numbered I and II

given below it you have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer

the question. Read both the statements and -----


Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the sate in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the questions, while the data in

statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer

the question.

Give answer (4) if the data given in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the

question, and

Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q. 11. How many daughters does M have?

I. N and P are sisters of K.

II. M is father of K

Q. 12. On which day of the week did Mohan visit temple?

I. Mohan visited the temple one day after his sister's visit to temple.

II. Mohan's sister visited the temple before Sunday.

Q. 13. What does Ja mean in a code language?

I. ja pa na means go home now in that code language.

II. na da ta means come back home in that code language.

Q. 14. Among M, N, T, P and R each having different weight, who is the heaviest?

I. T is heavier than P and M but lighter than N who is not the heaviest.

II. M is lighter than P.


Q. 15. How is D related to T?

I. D's brother is father of T's sister

II. T's brother is son of D's brother.

Q. 16. In a certain code DOWN is written as 5139 and NEAR is written as 9486. How is RODE written in

that code?

(1) 6514 (2) 6154 (3) 9154 (4) 3154 (5) None of these

Q. 17. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BOARDING each of which has as many

letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

Q. 18. How many such digits are there in the number 284371 each of which is as far away from the

beginning of the number as when they are arranged in descending order?


Q. 19. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters AREN using each letter only

once in each word?


Q. 20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that

does not belong to that group?

(1) Table (2) Chair (3) Bench (4) Desk (5) Wood

Q. 21. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group . Which is the one that

does not belong to that group?

(1) 27 (2) 64 (3) 125 (4) 216 (5) 384


Q. 22. If 'Q' means x ; T means '-'; 'R' means '' and 'K' means '+' then 24 R 4 Q 8 K 6 T 10 =?

(1) 48 (2) 24 (3) 44 (4) 2/3 (5) None of these

Q. 23. In a certain code ORGANISE is written as BHSPDRHM. How is DOUBTFUL written in that code?

(1) CVPEKTES (2) CVPIMVGU (3) ATNCKTES (4) ATNCMVGU (5) None of these

Q. 24. What should come next in the following letter series?

A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F A B C D E F ?

(1) A (2) G (3) H (4) B (5) None of these

Q. 25. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the second, the fourth

and the tenth letters of the word MAJESTICAL, which of the following will be the second letter of that

word? If no such word can. Be made, give 'X' as the answer and if more than one such word can be

made, give Y is, the answer.

(1) M (2) E (3) L (4) X (5) Y

Q. (26 30): (i) 'P x Q' means 'P is brother of Q'.

(ii) 'P - Q' means 'P is mother of Q'.

(iii) 'P + Q' means 'P is father of Q'.

(iv) 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q'.

Q. 26. Which of the following means 'M is niece of N'?

(1) M x R - N (2) NJ + M D (3) N J + M (4) N x J - M (5) None of these

Q. 27. Which of the following means 'B is grandfather of F'?

(1) B + J - F (2) B - J + F (3) B x T F (4) B T + F (5) None of these

Q. 28. How is M related to K in the expression 'B + K T x M'?


(1) Son (2) Daughter (3) Son or daughter (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

Q. 29. In a certain code language 'pit ne' means 'come here'; 'ne ta ja' means 'come and go' and 'ja sa re'

means 'you and me'. What does 'ta' mean in that code language?

(1) come (2) and (3) here (4) go (5) Cannot be determined

Q. 30. 'RT is related to VX' and 'BD' is related to 'FH', in the same way as 'KM' is related to

(1) NP (2) OR (3) OQ (4) PR (5) None of these

Q. (31 35): In each question below are three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II

and III. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from

commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three

given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4)

and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.

Q. 31. Statements: Some tablets are jugs.

Some jugs are pots.

All pots are plates.

Conclusions: I. Some plates are jugs.

II. Some pots are tablets.

III. Some plates are tablets.

(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows (5) Only II and III follow

Q. 32. Statements: All chairs are rings.

Some rings are sticks.

All sticks are branches.

Conclusions: I. Some branches are chairs.


II. Some branches are rings.

III. Some sticks are chairs.

(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows (5) Only I and II follow

Q. 33. Statements: All bulbs are chairs.

All chairs are tables.

All tables are mirrors.

Conclusions: I. Some mirrors are bulbs.

II. Some tables are bulbs.

III. All chairs are mirrors.

(1) Only I and II follow (2) Only I and III follow (3) Only II and III follow (4) All follow (5) None of these

Q. 34. Statements: All knives are hammers.

No hammer is sword.

Some swords are nails.

Conclusions: I. Some nails are hammers.

II. Some swords are knives.

III. No nail is hammer.

(1) None follows

(2) Only either I or III follows

(3) Only II follows

(4) Only III follows

(5) Only I follows

Q. 35. Statements: Some fruits are trees.


All trees are jungles.

All jungles are roads.

Conclusions: I. All fruits are jungles.

II. Some roads are fruits.

III. Some jungles are fruits.

(1) Only I and II follow

(2) Only I and III follow

(3) Only II and III follow

(4) All follow

(5) None of these

Answers

Q. 1. (4) B > N < R > F

B > F False

N < F False

Q. 2. (2) D < T > R > M

M < D False

M < T True

Q. 3. (1) K = H < F < J

F > K True

J > H False


Q. 4. (4) W > G < N < V

W > N False

V > G False

Q. 5. (4) T > Y < M > R

R < Y False

T = M False

Q. (6 10):

Q. 6. (3)

Q. 7. (1)

Q. 8. (5)

Q. 9. (5)

Q. 10. (4)

Q. 11. (4)


Male

Female O

K is male are female is not clear.

Q. 12. (4)Mohan visited the temple after his sister's visit but it is not said in both sentences that on

which day Mohan sister visit.

Q. 13. (4) Given information is not sufficient because we can't decide between "go and now" which is

coded as ja.

Q. 14. (1) According to question

R N T P M

M P

R is heaviest.

Q. 15. (4) Information about D is not sufficient.

Q. 16. (2)

Q. 17. (3) B O A R D I N G


Q. 18. (4)

Number = 2 8 7

Descending order = 8 7 2

Q. 19. (3) NEAR, EARN

Q. 20. (5) Table, chair, bench and desk are made of wood, while wood is natural thing.

Q. 21. (5) (3)3 = 27

(4)3 = 64

(5)3 = 125

(6)3 = 216

(7)3 = 343

Q. 22. (3) 24 R 4 Q 8K 6T 10 = ?

24 4 8 + 6 - 10 = ?

6 8 - 4 = ?

? = 44

Q. 23. (1)

Q. 24. (2) A |AB |ABC |ABCD |ABCDE |ABCDEF|ABCDEFG


Q. 325. (5) MAEL : following words can be formed.

MEAL, MALE, LAME

Q. (26 30):

Q. 26.(2)

Q. 27. (5)

In option (ii) and (iv) B is female while in

Option (iii) B is not exist. Hence only

Option must be checked.

Q. 28. (3)

Gender of M is cant be determined.

Q. 29. (4)


Q. 30. (3)

Q. 31. (2) Some jugs are pots (I) and all pots are plates (A) [I+A = I] Some plates are jugs and Some tables

are Jug.(I) only I follow.

Q. 32. (3) Some rings are sticks (I) and all sticks are branches (A) [I+A = I] some rings are branches I

conversion in some branches are ring. Only II follow

Q. 33. (4) Conclusion I follows from statement I, II and III

A + A + A = (A conversion I)

Conclusion II follows from st. I and II

A + A = (A conversion I)

Conclusion III follows from st. II & III

A + A = A

Q. 34. (2) No conclusion follows directly from the given statements but conclusion I and III

form I - E type complementary pair.

Q. 35. (3) Some fruits are tree (I) and all tree are jungle (A) [I+A = I] Some fruits are jungles I conversion

to I some jungles are fruits III follow. Some fruits are Jungle (I) and all jungle are roads (A) [I+A = I] some

fruits are roads (I) conversion to I some roads are fruits II follow.


Test 3 Quantitative Aptitude

Q. 1. Two numbers are less than the third number by 50%and 54%respectively. By how much percent is

the second number less than the first number?

(1) 13 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Q. 2. In how many different ways can the letters of the word BLOATING be arranged?

(1) 40320 (2) 5040 (3) 2520 (4) 20160 (5) None of these

Q. 3. The average of 5 numbers is 306.4. The average of the first two numbers is 431 and the average of

the last two numbers is 214.5. What is the third number?


Q. 4. Fifty six men can complete a piece of work in 24 days. In how many days can 42 men complete the

same piece of work?

(1) 18 (2) 32 (3) 98 (4) 48 (5) None of these

Q. 5. A man takes 6 hours 35 minutes in walking to a certain place and riding back. He would have taken

2 hours less by riding both ways. What would be the time he would take to walk both ways?

(1) 4hrs 35 mins (2) 8hrs 35 mins (3) 10 hrs (4) 8 hrs 25 mins (5) None of these

Q. (6 10): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.

Number of Males & Females staying in various Societies

Societies Males Females

A 250 350

B 400 150

C 300 275

D 280 300

E 180 250

F 325 300


Percentage of Children (Males & Females) in the Societies

Societies Children Male Children

Female Children

A 25% 40% 60%

B 40% 75% 25%

C 16% 25% 75%

D 25% 80% 20%

E 40% 50% 50%

F 24% 46% 54%

Q. 6. What is the ratio of the number of adult females to the total number of female children staying in

all the societies together?

(1) 243 : 82 (2) 112 : 71 (3) 82 : 243 (4) 71 : 112 (5) None of these

Q. 7. What is the total number of female children staying in all the societies together?

(1) 314 (2) 433 (3) 410 (4) 343 (5) None of these

Q. 8. What is the ratio of the total number of adult males in Societies A and B together to the total

number of adult males in Societies E and F together?

(1) 75 : 79 (2) 14 : 17 (3) 79 : 75 (4) 17 : 14 (5) None of these

Q. 9. What is the total number of members staying in all the societies together?

(1) 3520 (2) 3360 (3) 4100 (4) 3000 (5) None of these

Q. 10. What is the difference between the number of male children in Society B and the number of male

children in Society F?

(1) 84 (2) 14 (3) 96 (4) 26 (5) None of these


Q. (11 15): Study the following pie-chart carefully and answer the questions given below.

Percentage of People in a city working in Night Shifts from various Industries

Percentage of Females from various

Industries working in night shifts.

Industries Females

IT 20%

Gaming 20%

Call centre

45%

Sales 60%

Banking 40%

Chemical Industries

15%

Q. 11. What is the ratio of the men to the women working in night shifts from the Call Centre industry?

(1) 9 : 11 (2) 7 : 5 (3) 8 : 13 (4) 11 : 7 (5) None of these

Q. 12. What is the approximate average number of females working in night shifts from all the industries

together?

(1) 2227 (2) 4481 (3) 3326 (4) 2823 (5) 4107


Q. 13. What is the total number of men working in night shifts from all the industries together?

(1) 28297 (2) 25788 (3) 28678 (4) 26887 (5) None of these

Q. 14. The number of women from the gaming industry is what per cent of the total number of people

working in the night shifts from all the industries together?

(1) 5.6 (2) 3.6 (3) 3.2 (4) 4.4 (5) None of these

Q. 15. What is the difference between the total number of men and the total number of women

working in night shifts from all the industries together?

(1) 13254 (2) 13542 (3) 13524 (4) 13363 (5) None of these

Q. (16 20): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.

Number of people working in various departments from various organizations

Departments A B C D E

HR 1050 1015 976 888 1004

Finance 1017 960 786 1025 963

Marketing 1382 1384 1275 1300 1290

Production 1542 1545 1550 1570 1580

Accounts 786 745 801 800 735

Legal 48 54 36 30 53

Q. 16. The total number of employees working in the legal department is approximately what per cent

of the total number of employees working in HR department of all the organization together?

(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 6 (5) 10

Q. 17. What is the approximate difference between the average number of people working in Marketing

and Production departments from all the organization together?

(1) 578 (2) 231 (3) 330 (4) 1156 (5) 300

Q. 18. What is the ratio of the total number of employees working in organization A to the total number

of employees working in organization E?


(1) 225 : 233 (2) 71 : 75 (3) 75 : 71 (4) 233 : 215 (5) None of these

Q. 19. What is the total number of employees from all the departments working in all the organizations

together?

(1) 26960 (2) 28910 (3) 28190 (4) 29660 (5) None of these

Q. 20. The number of people working in the Finance department from organization B is approximately

what per cent of the total number of employees working in organization B?

(1) 12 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 17 (5) 25

Q. (21 25): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions given below.

Out of a total number of commuters commuting daily in a city, 17,171 commuters commute only by

trains. 7359 commuters commute only by bikes and 22,077 commuters commute only by buses. 14,718

commuters commute only by their private cars and 4,906 commuters commute only by autos. 7,359

commuters commute only by taxis. 26,983 commuters commute by buses as well as trains. 9812

commuters commute by autos as well as trains. 12265 commuters commute by buses as well as autos.

Q. 21. The total number of commuters commuting by trains forms what per cent of the total number of

commuters commuting daily?

(1) 22 (2) 44 (3) 14 (4) 36 (5) None of these

Q. 22. The total number of commuters commuting by autos forms what per cent of the total number of


(1) 10 (2) 18 (3) 22 (4) 4 (5) None of these

Q. 23. The total number of commuters commuting by bikes and taxis together forms what per cent of

the total number of commuters commuting daily?

(1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 16 (5) None of these


Q. 24. What is the total number of commuters in the city commuting daily?

(1) 122650 (2) 126250 (3) 162250 (4) 152260 (5) None of these

Q. 25. The number of commuters commuting only by bus forms what per cent of the total number of


(1) 40 (2) 22 (3) 32 (4) 18 (5) None of these

Q. (26 30): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below.

Units of Raw Material Manufactured and Sold by a Company Over the Years

(Units in Cores)

Q. 26. What is the average number of units sold over the years?

(1) 440000000 (2) 4400000 (3) 440000 (4) 44000000 (5) None of these

Q. 27. What is the ratio of the difference between the number of units manufactured and sold in the

year 2005 to the difference between the number of units manufactured and sold in the year 2006?

(1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 3 : 5 (5) None of these

Q. 28. What is the ratio of the number of units manufactured in the year 2003 to the number of units

manufactured in the year 2007?

(1) 7 : 11 (2) 9 : 14 (3) 7 : 9 (4) 9 : 11 (5) None of these


Q. 29. What is the approximate per cent increase in the number of units sold in the year 2007 from the

previous year?

(1) 190 (2) 70 (3) 60 (4) 95 (5) 117

Q. 30. What is the difference between the number of units manufactured and the number of units sold

over the years?

(1) 50000000 (2) 5000000 (3) 500000000 (4) 500000 (5) None of these

Q. 31. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200%and the denominator of the fraction in

increased by 150%, the resultant fraction is

what is the original fractions?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5) None of these

Q. 32. Samiara, Mahira and Kiara rented a set of DVDs at a rent of Rs. 578. If they used it for 8 hours, 12

hours and 14 hours respectively, what is Kiara's share of rent to be paid ?

(1) Rs. 238 (2) Rs. 204 (3) Rs. 192 (4) Rs. 215 (5) None of these

Q. 33. Kamlesh bought 65 books for Rs 1,050 from one shop and 50 books for Rs 1,020 from another.

What is the average price he paid per book?

(1) Rs. 36.40 (2) Rs. 18.20 (3) Rs. 24 (4) Rs. 18 (5) None of these

Q. 34. In an election between two candidates, one got 52%of the total valid votes. 25% of the total vote

were invalid. The total number of votes was 8400. How many valid votes did the other person get?


Q. 35. The ratio of length to breadth of a rectangular plot is 8 : 5 respectively. If the breadth is 60 metres

less than the length, what is the perimeter of the rectangular plot?

(1) 260 metres (2) 1600 metres (3) 500 metres (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these


Answers

Q. 1. (5) Suppose the third number is 100.

Then first no = 50 and second no = 46

required % =

100 = 8

Q. 2. (1) Required no. of ways = 8! = 40320.

Q. 3. (5) Average of the five no. Total = 306.4 5 = 1532

Average of first two number = 431

Total sum = 431 2 = 862

Average of last two number = 214.5

total sum = 214.52 = 429

Third number = 1532862 429 = 241

Q. 4. (2) Formula,

m1d1 = m2d2

m1 = 56 d1= 24

m2 = 42 d2 = ?

d2 =

= 32

Q. 5.(2) Walking + Riding = 6 hrs 35 min........(1)

Riding + Riding = 4 hrs 35 min.........(2)

(1) & (2)


= 2 walking = 8 hrs 35 min.

Q. 6. (1) Female children in society

A = 60% of 25% of (250+350) = 90

B = 25% of 40% of (150+400) = 55

Similarly, for

C = 69, D = 29, E = 86 and F = 81

total female children

= 90 + 55 + 69 + 29 + 86 + 81 = 410

No. of adult females = (350 + 150 +

275 + 300 + 250 + 300) - 410 = 1215

reqd ratio = 1215 : 410 = 243 : 82

Q. 7. (3) As obtained in sol. no. 66.

Q. 8. (4) Number of male in A and B.

=250+400

= 650

Number of male in E and F

= 180 + 325

= 505

Ratio = 650:505

= 17:14

Q. 9. (2)


Society Male Female Total

A 250 350 600

B 400 150 550

C 300 275 575

D 280 300 580

E 180 250 430

F 325 300 625

Q. 10. (3) Required difference

=(75% of 40% of 550) (46% of 24% of 625) = 165 - 69 = 96

Q. 11. (5) Required ratio = 55% : 45% = 11 : 9

Q. 12. (1) (Industry) (Female)

I.T. 40250

= 966

Play 40250

= 1449

Call centre 40250

= 5796

Sells 40250

= 1932

Banking 40250

= 2254

Chemistry Industry

40250

= 966

Average number

=

= 2227 (approx)

Q. 13. (4) Required no. of men


= 40250-13363 = 26887

Q. 14. (2) required % = % %

100

= 3.6

Q. 15. (3) Required diff = 26887 - 13363 = 13524

Q. 16. (1) Required % =

100 = 4%

Q. 17. (2) According to question

=

= 231.2

= 231 (approx.)

Q. 18. (5) Required ratio = 5825 : 5625= 233 : 225

Q. 19. (3) Total no. of worker.

= A+B+C+D+E

= 5825+5703+5424+5613+5625

= 28190

Q. 20. (4) Required % =

100 = 17%


Q. 21. (2) Req % =

100

= 44%

Q. 22. (3) Required % =

= 22%

Q. 23. (1) Required % =

100

= 12%

Q. 24. (1) Total number of commuters in the city who commuting daily

= 17171 + 7359 + 22077 + 14718 + 4906 + 7359 + 26983 + 9812 + 12265

= 122650

Q. 25. (4)

100 = 18%

Q. 26. (4) Req. average = 4.4 cr

= 44000000

Q. 27. (3) According to the question

Ratio = (5.55) : (5 3)

= .5 : 2

= 1 : 4

Q. 28. (2) Ratio = 4.5 : 7

= 9 : 14

Q. 29. (5) Required % increase


=

100 =

100

= 117.

Q. 30. (1) According to the question

Difference = 27 22 = 5 crore

Q. 31. (2) Let the fraction

According to the question

=

=

=

=

Q. 32. (1) Ratio of hours = 8 : 12 : 14

578

Share of kiyara =

Rs. 238

Q. 33. (4) Given

Total price of 65 books = 1050

Total price of 50 books = 1020

Total price = 1050 + 1020 = 2070

Total books = 65+50 = 115


Average price of 115 books

=

= 18

Q. 34. (3) Total valid votes = 75%of 8400 = 6300

Votes got by the other person

= 48% of 6300

= 3024

Q. 35. (5) Difference of ratio = 8 - 5 = 3 then, 3 = 60

1=

= 20

So, length is 20 8

= 160

Breadth = 20 5 = 100

Perimeter = (100 + 160) 2

= 520m.

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