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SAMPLE PAPER CLASS – 11TH STD (MEDICAL)
Head Office: 364, 1st Floor, Kohat Enclave, Pitampura, New Delhi -110034 – [ 2 ] – Contact: 08586984577, 09643103458, www.futureedge.in
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SECTION – I (PHYSICS)
1. The length, breadth and thickness of a block are measured as 125.1 cm, 5.1 cm and 0.81 cm. Which of the following measurement is most precise?
(A) Thickness (B) Length (C) Breadth (D) None of the above
2. A dancer (gymnast) is taking turns with her arms and legs stretched. When she pulls her arms and legs in:
(A) The angular velocity decreases (B) Her moment of inertia decreases
(C) The angular velocity increases (D) The angular velocity stays constant
3. A ball is projected from ground vertically upward with a certain velocity. Which of the following curve best represents the variation of velocity of the ball with time?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4. A boy throws a ball from the top of a tower with velocity 20 m/s in horizontal direction. The speed of the ball after 2 second will be nearly
(A) 20 m/s (B) 28 m/s (C) 40 m/s (D) 56 m/s
5. For what value of the two vectors ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆa i 2j k and b 2j i 10k
are mutually perpendicular?
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 14 (D) –6
6. An aeroplane of mass 1000 kg is moving in a circular path of radius 1000 m with speed 720 km/h. The force acting on the aeroplane is
(A) 0 N (B) 40 kN (C) 80 kN (d) 20 kN
7. The dimensions of moment of inertia are:
(A) [M1L2T–1] (B) [M0L–2T0] (C) [M0L2T2] (D) [M1L2T0]
8. A particle is dropped from a height h0 on a horizontal floor. The coefficient of restitution between the particle and the floor is 0.5. What is the maximum height after first rebounce?
(A) h0/2 (B) h0/√2 (C) h0/4 (D) h0/16
SAMPLE PAPER CLASS – 11TH STD (MEDICAL)
Head Office: 364, 1st Floor, Kohat Enclave, Pitampura, New Delhi -110034 – [ 3 ] – Contact: 08586984577, 09643103458, www.futureedge.in
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9. A particle is acted upon by a force F = 10 N which displaces it by 10 m in a direction 60° with the force. The work done by the force will be
(A) 100 J (B) 200 J (C) 86.6 J (D) 50 J
10. What is the moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and radius R about an axis passing through its circumference and parallel to its geometrical axis?
(A) 1/2 MR2 (B) 3/2 MR2 (C) MR2 (D) 2 MR2
11. A solid sphere of mass M is pulled horizontally on a rough surface as shown in figure and the sphere is in pure rolling. The acceleration of centre of mass of the sphere will be
(A) F/M (B) 2F/3M
(C) 2F/5M (D) 5F/7M
12. The value of acceleration due to gravity at the surface of earth is g. What will be value of acceleration due to gravity at a height 2R above the surface of the earth?
(A) g/4 (B) 8g/9 (C) 3g/4 (D) g/9
13. Check up the only correct statement in the following:
(A) A body has a constant velocity and still it can have a varying speed.
(B) A body has a constant speed but it can have a varying velocity.
(C) A body having constant speed cannot have any acceleration.
(D) A body in motion under a force acting upon it must always have work done upon it.
14. A body is rotating with angular velocity ˆ ˆ ˆ(3i 4 j k)
The linear velocity of a point having
position vector ˆ ˆ ˆr (5i 6 j 6k)
is
(A) ˆ ˆ ˆ6i 2j 3k (B) ˆ ˆ ˆ18i 3j 2k
(C) ˆ ˆ ˆ18i 13 j 2k (D) ˆ ˆ ˆ6i 2j 8 k
15. In case of uniform circular motion:
(A) Torque is zero (B) Force is central
(C) Work done is zero (D) Acceleration is zero
SAMPLE PAPER CLASS – 11TH STD (MEDICAL)
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16. A neutron travelling with a velocity ‘u’ and kinetic energy ‘E’ collides elastically head on with the nucleus of an atom of mass number ‘A’ at rest. The fraction of total energy retained by the neutron is:
(A) 2A 1
A 1
(B)
2A 1A 1
(C)
2A 1A
(D) 2A 1
A
17. The angle between the vectors ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ(i j) and ( j k) is:
(A) 90º (B) 180º
(C) 0º (D) 60º
18. When a simple pendulum is rotated in a vertical plane with constant angular velocity, centripetal force is:
(A) Maximum at highest point (B) Maximum at lowest point
(C) Same at all points (D) Zero
19. In case of diffusion the number of molecules crossing unit area per unit time is given by:
2 1
2 1
(n n )N D(x x )
Where n1 and n2 are the number of molecules per unit volume at positions x1 and x2. The dimensions of coefficient of diffusion ‘D’ are therefore:
(A) [L2T–1] (B) [LT–2] (C) [L2T4] (D) [LT–3]
20. Tripling the speed of a motor car multiplies the distance needed for stopping it by:
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) Some other number
21. A vehicle is moving on a track as shown in figure. The weight of the vehicle is:
(A) Maximum at A (B) Maximum at B (C) Maximum at C (D) Same at A, B, and C
SAMPLE PAPER CLASS – 11TH STD (MEDICAL)
Head Office: 364, 1st Floor, Kohat Enclave, Pitampura, New Delhi -110034 – [ 5 ] – Contact: 08586984577, 09643103458, www.futureedge.in
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22. ‘Parsec’ is the unit of:
(A) Time (B) Distance
(C) Frequency (D) Angular acceleration
23. Two particles of masses M and 2M are at a distance D apart. Under their mutual gravitational force they start moving towards each other. The acceleration of their centre of mass when they are D/2 apart is:
(A) 2GM/D2 (B) 4GM/D2
(C) 8GM/D2 (D) Zero
24. Angular momentum is:
(A) A polar vector (B) An axial vector (C) A scalar (D) None of these
25. A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above the ground. It hits the ground and bounces up vertically to a height d/2. Neglecting subsequent motion and air resistance, its velocity ‘V’ varies with the height ‘h’ above the ground as:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
SAMPLE PAPER CLASS – 11TH STD (MEDICAL)
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SECTION –II (CHEMISTRY)
26. Molarity of liquid HCl with density 1.17g/cc is:
(A) 36.5 (B) 18.25 (C) 32.05 (D) 4.65
27. Maximum number of molecules are present in:
(A) 15L of H2 gas at STP (B) 5L of N2 gas at STP
(C) 0.5g of H2 gas at STP (D) 10g of O2 gas at STP
28. At which of the following conditions volume of 1 mole gas at 1 bar pressure and 25ºC temperature will be double of the volume of this gas
(A) 50ºC at 1 bar (B) 323ºC at 1 bar (C) 25ºC and 2 bar (D) 100ºC and 0.5 bar
29. How much energy is released when 6 moles of octane is burnt in air? Given ofH for CO2
(g), H2O (l) and C8H18 (l) respectively are – 490, –240 and + 160 kJ mol–1.
(A) – 6240 kJ (B) – 37440 kJ (C) – 35550 kJ (D) – 20000 kJ
30. The uncertainties in the velocities of two particles A and B are 0.05 and 0.02m s–1 respectively. The mass of B is five times to that of the mass of A. What is the ratio of
uncertainties A
B
xx
in their positions?
(A) 2 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.4 (D) 1
31. Oxidation of Cr in CrO5 is
(A) +6 (B) +10 (C) +8 (D) 0
32. Which of the following element is detected by Lassuigne’s extract?
(A) Carbon (B) Oxygen (C) Sulphur (D) Hydrogen
SAMPLE PAPER CLASS – 11TH STD (MEDICAL)
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33. The energy absorbed by each molecule A2 of a substance is 4.4 × 10–19 J and bond energy per molecule is 4.0 × 10–19J. The kinetic energy of the molecule per atom will be:
(A) 2.0×10–20J (B) 2.2×10–19J (C) 2.0×10–19J (D) 4.0 ×10–20J
34. 36 g of metal oxide on reduction give 30 g metal. What should be equivalent mass of metal?
(A) 36 (B) 40 (C) 24 (D) 20
35. Masses of equal volume of CH4 and a gas X are in ratio of 1 : 5. What would be vapour density of gas X?
(A) 0.5 (B) 20 (C) 40 (D) 80
36. The absolute enthalpy of neutralization (standard value = – 57.33 kJ mol–1) of the reaction, 2 2MgO(s) 2HCl MgCl H O will be (in the terms of numerical values)
(A) Less than – 57.33 kJ mol –1 (B) – 57.33 kJ mol–1
(C) Greater than – 57 kJ 33 mol–1 (D) 57.33 kJ mol–1
37. Which of the following will be corresponding to highest wavelength in Hydrogen’s atomic spectra?
(A) 1st line of Balmer series (B) 1st line of Lyman series
(C) 1st line of Paschen series (D) 1st line of Brackett series
38. What is the correct IUPAC name of 2 5 3
2
C H CH CH|CH OH
?
(A) 2-hydroxy methyl Butane (B) 2-Ethyl Propane-1-ol
(C) 2-Methyl Butane-1-ol (D) Ethyl, methyl ethanol
SAMPLE PAPER CLASS – 11TH STD (MEDICAL)
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39. What would be the number of e– with m = 0 in Ni2+ ion? (At. No. of Ni = 28)
(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 10 (D) 15
40. Which of the following will have highest most negative value of e– gain enthalpy?
(A) Cl (B) F (C) Br (D) Br
41. What would be shape and geometry of SO2?
(A) Trigonal planar and tetrahedral (B) Bent shape and trigonal planar
(C) Linear, linear (D) Trigonal planar, pyramidal
42. One mole of methanol when burnt in O2, gives out 723kJ mol–1 heat. If one mole of O2 is used, what will be the amount of heat evolved?
(A) 723 kJ (B) 924kJ (C) 482kJ (D) 241 kJ
43. Which of the following is a disproportionation reaction?
(A) 3 2CaCO CaO CO
(B) Zndust2 2 2 2 2CH Cl CH Cl CH CH ZnCl
(C) 2 3 3H O CH COONa CH COOH NaOH
(D) HH C=O + OH CH - OH + CH COO3 3
44. If molecular mass of Na2HPO4 is M. What will be equivalent mass of Na2HPO4 in given
reaction? 2 4 3 4 2Na HPO Na PO H O
(A) M/3 (B) M/2 (C) 2M (D) M/1
SAMPLE PAPER CLASS – 11TH STD (MEDICAL)
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45. Which of the following is a incorrect match name of enthalpy of reaction?
Reaction Enthalpy of Process
(A) 4 2 2 2CH 2O CO 2H O
Heat of Combustion
(B) diamond 2 2 2C O CO 2H O Heat of formation
(C) H H 2H
Bond energy
(D) 2 4 2 4 21 1NaOH H SO Na SO H O2 2
Heat of Neutralisation
46. Which of the following has biggest size?
(A) Li+(aq) (B) Na+(aq) (C) K+(aq) (D) Rb+(aq)
47. Lithium is a substance with lowest reduction potential because
(A) This is above hydrogen in reactivity series
(B) Lowest ionization energy
(C) Highest heat of hydration (D) All of these
48. Standard enthalpies of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40, and 50 JK– mol–1 respectively. For the
reaction 2 2 31 X Y XY , H 30kJ2 2
to be at equilibrium, the temperature should be
(A) 750 K (B) 1000 K (C) 1250 K (D) 500 K
49. Assume each reaction is carried out in an open container for which reaction will H E ?
(A) 5 3 2PCl (g) PCl (g) Cl (g) (B) 2 22CO(g) O (g) 2CO (g)
(C) 2 2H (g) Br (g) 2HBr(g) (D) 2 2 2C(s) 2H O(g) 2H (g) CO (g)
50. For a reaction, 2 c2NOCl g 2NO g Cl g ,K at 427OC is 3 ×10–6L mol–1. The value of Kp is nearly:
(A) 7.5 × 10–5 (B) 2.50 × 10–5 (C) 2.5 × 10–4 (D) 1.75 × 10–4
SAMPLE PAPER CLASS – 11TH STD (MEDICAL)
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SECTION –III (BIOLOGY)
51. Family tree of organisms on the basis of taximetrics is called
(A) Cladogram (B) Cryptogram (C) Dendrogram (D) Monograph
52. According to three kingdom classification, achlorophyllousthallophytes are included in
(A) Protista (B) Plantae (C) Fungi (D) Metaphyta
53 Backbone of peptidoglycan in bacterial cell wall is made of alternating units of
(A) NAM and tetrapeptide chain (B) NAM and NAG
(C) NAG and amino acid (D) Muramic acid and teichoic acid
54. Which one of the following types of bacterial conjugation leads to sexduction?
(A) Hfr × F– (B) Hfr × F+ (C) Hfr × Hfr (D) F+ × F–
55. Holophyticprotistans exhibiting large sap vacuole and primordial utricle are
(A) Noctiluca and Thiospirillum (B) Melosira and Physarum
(C) Ciliates and Sarcodines (D) Naviculaand Melosir
56. Sexual structure of pigmented moulds are
(A) Antheridia and oogonia (B) Spermatangia and carpogonia
(C) Ascogonia and antheridia (D) Archegonia and antheridia
57. Special structure in the thallus of lichen which is analogous to the stomata of higher plants is
(A) Cyphellae (B) Cephalodia (C) Isidia (D) Soredia
58. Aposporously formed gametophyte in Funaria will be
(A) Haploid (B) Diploid (C) Triploid (D) Polyploid
59. Actinostele is related to
(A) Medullated stele (B) Eustele (C) Dictyostele (D) Nonmedullated stele
60. Megasporophyll of gymnosperm is equivalent to
(A) Ovule (B) Carpel (C) Endosperm (D) Embryosac
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61. Cell organelle enriched with oxidative enzymes is
(A) Golgi bodies (B) Lysosome (C) Mitochondria (D) ER
62. Which one of the following organelles is involved in gluconeogenesis in germinating fatty seeds?
(A) Peroxisome (B) Mitochondria (C) Sphaerosomes (D) Glyoxysomes
63. Isobrachial chromosomes are
(A) Acrocentric (B) Telocentric (C) Sub-metacentric (D) Metacentric
64. Zygotic meiosis occurs in
(A) Ferns (B) Moss (C) Algae (D) Angiosperms
65. Decision of cell division occurs during
(A) G1-phase (B) S-phase (C) G2-phase (D) M-phase
66. Phragmoplast is associated with
(A) Karyokinesis (B) Cytokinesis (C) Cell elongation (D) More than one option is correct
67. Find correct match
Column – II Column - II
(a) P A (i) Fabaceae
(b) (ii) Solanaceae
(c) 1 2 (2) (9) 1)C A (iii) Liliaceae
(d) (iv) Asteraceae
(A) (a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (ii), d(i) (B) (a)(i), (b) (iv), c(iii), (d) (ii)
(B) (a) (ii), (b) (iii), (c) (i), (d) (iv) (D) (a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d)(ii)
68. Inflorescence characterised by fleshy receptacle and trimorphic flowers is
(A) Capitulum (B) Hypanthodium (C) Cincinnus (D) Cyathium
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69. Find incorrect statement with respect to meristematic tissue
(A) Cells are isodiametric without intercellular spaces
(B) Absence of ergastic substances
(C) Cells have primary wall only (D) Plastids are present
70. Light coloured and physiologically active element of xylem in matured woody dicots is
(A) Tracheids (B) Primary xylem vessels
(C) Duramen (D) Alburnum
71. What is true for plasmolysed cells?
(A) DPD = OP + TP (B) DPD = OP – TP (C) OP = TP (D) s p
72. First balanced culture solution with macronutrients, micronutrients and chelating agent was prepared by
(A) Knop (B) Sachs
(C) Arnon and Stout (D) Arnon and Hoagland
73. To reduce one CO2 molecule in sorghum plant, total number of assimilatory powers required is
(A) 2 NADPH2 and 3 ATP (B) 2 NADPH2 and 5 ATP
(C) 12 NADPH2 and 18 ATP (D) 12 NADPH2 and 30 ATP
74 First decarboxylation in TCA cycle occurs at which substrate level?
(A) Pyruvate (B) Oxaloacetate (C) Oxalosuccinate (D) -ketoglutarate
75. Pre-harvest fruit drop in tomato is checked by application of
(A) NAA (B) IBA (C) NAAM (D) TIBA
76. Which of the following is common ancestral larval form for echinoderms and hemichordates?
(A) Dipleura larva (B) Tornaria larva (C) Glochidium larva (D) Ammocoete larva
77. Ecdysone is moulting hormone in insects, which is secreted by
(A) Mehlis glands (B) Green gland (C) Uricose gland (D) Prothoracic gland
78. Which of the following is correct digital formula of the hindlimb of frog?
(A) 0, 2, 2, 3, 3 (B) 0, 2, 3, 4, 3 (C) 2, 2, 3, 4, 3 (D) 2, 2, 2, 3, 4
SAMPLE PAPER CLASS – 11TH STD (MEDICAL)
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79. Which larval stage of Ascarisis infective?
(A) First stage larva (B) Second stage larva
(C) Third stage larva (D) Fifth stage larva
80. Which of the following protozoan secretes cellulase enzyme?
(A) Entodiniumcaudatum (B) Entamoebahistolytica
(C) Elphidium (D) Trypanosomacruzi
81. Which of the following is not true about chondrichthyes?
(A) Swim bladder is absent (D) Spiral valve occurs in the intestine
(C) Mouth is ventral (D) Strictly oviparous
(A) A, B and C (B) A and B (C) A and C (D) D only
82. Which of the following is peptide bond?
(A) – CO.NH – (B) – C.O.C – (C) – C.N.C – (D) ||O
C.O.C
83. Select odd one
(A) Glucose (B) Galactose (C) Mannose (D) Fructose
84. Which one of the following is not an essential fatty acid?
(A) Oleic acid (B) Linoleic acid (C) Linolenic acid (D) Arachidonic acid
85. Which of the following is the simplest amino acid?
(A) Tryptophan (B) Proline (C) Aspartic acid (D) Glycine
86. Which of the following enzyme has maximum turnover number?
(A) Catalase (B) Urease
(C) Carbonic anhydrase (D) Lactate dehydrogenase
87. Which one of the following is the strongest cartilage?
(A) Hyaline cartilage (B) Yellow elastic cartilage
(C) White fibrous cartilage (D) Calcified cartilage
88. Which one is the major component of plasma protein?
(A) Albumin (B) Globulin (C) Prothrombin (D) Fibrinogen
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89. Which one is not absent in axon?
(A) Golgi complex (B) Nissl bodies (C) Mitochondria (D) ER
90. Monocondylic skull is found in
(I) Frog (II) Reptiles (III) Birds (IV) Mammals
(A) I, II and III (B) I and IV (C) II and III (D) II, III and IV
91. Radula is foundin
(A) Pila sp. (B) Lamellidens sp. (C) Chiton sp (D) Pinctada sp
92. Hairs occur in all mammals except those of
(A) Chiroptera (B) Rodentia (C) Cetacea (D) Primates
93. Indentify the type of connective tissue and their components given in the figure.
(A) A–White blood cells, B–Red blood cells, C–Platelests, D–Blood
(B) A–Haversian system, B–Central canal, C-Lacuna, D - Bone
(C) A-macrophages system, B-Central Canal, C-Lacuna D-Bone
(D) A-Haversian system, B-Red blood cells, C-White Blood cells, D-Blood
94. Muller’s fibres occur in which part ?
(A) Heart (B) Kidney (C) Pancreas (D) Retina
95. Paurometaboly is
(A) Anabolism (B) Catabolism
(C) Camplete metabolism (D) Incomplete metamorphosis
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96. The simple eyes of cockroach are called
(A) Eyelets (B) Fenestreae (C) Ommatidia (D) Ocellism
97. Organ of mastication in cockroach is
(A) Mandible (B) Labrum (C) Labium (D) Maxilla
98. In competitive inhibition, which of the following is true?
(A) E I EI (B) E I EI S EIS
(C) E I SI (D) ES I ESI
99. Match the following columns.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Triglycerides 1. Galactose
(B) Lactose 2. Glycerol
(C) RNA 3. Plamitic acid
(D) Pleats 4. Uracil
(E) Bee-wax 5. Secondary structure
Coces:
A B C D E
(A) 4 1 5 2 3
(B) 5 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 1 4 5 2
(D) 2 1 4 5 3
100. Latimeria
(A) Is coelacanth (B) Has two dorsal fins
(C) Possesses two pairs of external nares (D) All of the above
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