reading comprehension technical

englishforeveryone.org Name________________

Date________________

●● AAddvvaanncceedd CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg -- BBiioommiimmeettiiccss

Biomimetics is the billion–dollar industry which draws inspiration from nature to solve

problems in engineering, medicine, and other fields. While human beings have always had a

natural propensity to observe and try to copy the ingenuity of nature, it is only recently that

biomimetics has taken off as a field of its own.

The Renaissance genius Leonardo da Vinci dedicated himself to observing and recording 5

natural phenomena half a millennium ago. His superb graphic renditions of plausible flying

machines are based on his direct observations of birds in flight. His renowned Codex Atlanticus,

along with smaller codices, includes renderings of animal musculature, revealing a fascination

with movement. His erudite studies of flowing hair and water manifest his contemplation of the

movement of waves in nature. However, without modern technology, early inventors like da 10

Vinci were unable to implement their biomimetic insights.

On the other hand, contemporary biomimeticists have access to the technology and

nanotechnology essential to the industry. One tool of enormous utility to today’s biomimetics is

the electron microscope. Being able to see and comprehend the nanoscale construction of natural

structures is crucial to synthesizing those miniscule formations. 15

One person who has taken on the challenge of biomimetics is Robert Fearing, a professor

of electrical engineering at the University of California, Berkeley. A modern–day echo of da

Vinci’s work, Fearing’s current challenge is to create a bio–robotic fly which is small, swift, and

maneuverable enough to deploy on surveillance or rescue missions. Fearing does not aspire to

replicate the fly. Rather, he hopes to isolate the enigmatic natural structures which give it flight, 20

and perhaps find a simpler solution than the 20 muscles which power a fly’s wing. Those 20

muscles allow it to make a 90–degree turn from straight–line flight in under 50 milliseconds,

something even the most advanced planes are not able to accomplish. “Some things are just too

mysterious and complicated to be able to replicate,” says Fearing.

Engineer Anthony Brennan, professor in the University of Florida’s Materials Science 25

and Engineering Department, learned that the pattern of miniscule diamond shapes on shark’s

skin inhibit the growth of algae and other organisms. He created a surface nanotechnology

comprised of billions of microscopic diamond–shaped bumps which repel bacteria and other

microorganisms. His biomimetic plastic wrap is being used in hospitals on typically bacteria–

laden surfaces such as light switches. 30

According to MIT chemical engineer Robert Cohen, “The natural structure provides a

clue to what is useful in a mechanism. But maybe you can do it better.” Cohen recently utilized

nanotechnology to mimic the scales of a desert lizard to produce a water collection device. In a

National Geographic interview, Cohen says, “Looking at pretty structures in nature is not

sufficient. What I want to know is, can we actually transform these structures into an 35

embodiment with true utility in the real world?”

Leonardo would have met today’s technologies with a receptive mind. In his own time,

he was heralded primarily not as an artist, but as an engineer. His orientation as a biomimeticist

might be summed up in his own quotation concerning nature: “Human subtlety will never devise

an invention more beautiful, more simple or more direct than does nature because in her 40

inventions nothing is lacking, and nothing is superfluous.”

QQuueessttiioonnss

11.. According to the passage, how do today’s biomimeticists differ from Leonardo da Vinci?

II)) Leonardo did not have the technology to construct his machines when he

envisioned them.

IIII)) Today’s biomimeticists aspire to improve upon nature, whereas Leonardo

considered nature to be ultimately better than any man–made invention.

IIIIII)) Today’s biomimeticists have conceived of replacing many natural structures with

man–made structures.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only

EE)) II and III only

22.. How is Fearing’s current challenge an echo of da Vinci’s work?

AA)) Fearing is attempting to create a flying machine based on a natural structure.

BB)) Fearing hopes to improve upon the fly’s movement mechanism.

CC)) Fearing aspires to create a miniscule technology.

DD)) Fearing hopes to simplify modern flight technology.

EE)) Fearing is working on electricity.

33.. In line 20, enigmatic most closely means

AA)) discrete

BB)) strategic

CC)) pragmatic

DD)) inscrutable

EE)) determinate

44.. Based on the passage, which modern biomimeticist holds views most similar to those of

Leonardo as exemplified in lines 39–41, and why?

AA)) Robert Fearing –– because he wants to simplify the natural structures that give the fly

flight

BB)) Robert Fearing –– because he believes that some things are too complicated to be able to

replicate

CC)) Anthony Brennan –– because he replicated a structure found in nature

DD)) Anthony Brennan – because he created a surface technology

EE)) Robert Cohen –– because he says, “maybe you can do it better.”

AAnnsswweerrss aanndd EExxppllaannaattiioonnss

11.. The correct answer is D.

II)) Correct. Leonardo did not have the technology to construct his machines when he

envisioned them.

IIII)) Correct. Today’s biomimeticists aspire to improve upon nature, whereas Leonardo

considered nature to be ultimately better than any man–made invention.

IIIIII)) Incorrect. Today’s biomimeticists have not conceived of replacing many natural

structures with man–made structures.

22.. The correct answer is A.

AA)) Correct. Fearing is attempting to create a flying machine based on a natural structure, just

as Leonardo wanted to build a flying machine based on the flight of birds.

BB)) Incorrect. Fearing hopes to improve upon the fly’s movement mechanism, however da

Vinci did not hope to improve on nature.

CC)) Incorrect. Fearing aspires to create a miniscule technology, but da Vinci did not aspire to

create a small technology.

DD)) Incorrect. Fearing hopes to simplify the fly’s natural flight mechanism.

EE)) Incorrect. There is no mention that Fearing is working on electricity. Fearing is an

electrical engineer.


AA)) Incorrect. Discrete means separate. Since Fearing hopes to isolate the structures, or make

them separate, discrete cannot be correct.

BB)) Incorrect. Strategic means planned. Since fearing hopes to isolate these structures, he

does not yet know whether or not they are planned, so strategic cannot be correct.

CC)) Incorrect. Pragmatic means practical. Since Fearing hopes to simplify these structures, he

seems to believe they are not practical or pragmatic, so pragmatic cannot be correct.

DD)) Correct. Inscrutable means puzzling. Fearing is hoping to isolate the structures, so he

seems to believe they are puzzling, so enigmatic is correct.

EE)) Incorrect. Determinate means distinct. Since Fearing hopes to isolate the structures, or

make them determinate or distinct, determinate cannot be correct.

44.. The correct answer is C.

AA)) Incorrect. Robert Fearing –– because he wants to simplify the natural structures that give

the fly flight, whereas da Vinci believed that nature had the simplest answers.

BB)) Incorrect. Robert Fearing –– because he believes that some things are too complicated to

be able to replicate, whereas da Vinci believed that nature had the simplest –– not

complicated – answers.

CC)) Correct. Anthony Brennan –– because, like da Vinci, he replicated a structure found in

nature

DD)) Incorrect – There is no mention that Leonardo created a surface technology.

EE)) Incorrect. Robert Cohen –– because he says, “maybe you can do it better,” whereas da

Vinci thought nature had the best answers.


Date________________

●● AAddvvaanncceedd CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg –– CCoolloonnyy CCoollllaappssee

According to a 2007 statement before the Subcommittee on Horticulture and Organic

Agriculture Committee of the U.S. House of Representatives by May R. Berenbaum, Professor

and Head, Department of Entomology at the University of Illinois Urbana-Champaign,

pollination by native bees was recently estimated to be worth 3 billion dollars annually in the

United States. Other sources estimate pollination to be a 15 billion dollar industry worldwide. 5

Moreover, approximately 3/4 of the 250,000 + species of flowering plants rely on their insect

partners – pollinators – for the vital natural process which transfers pollen grains to receptive

female plants to effect fertilization.

However, up to 80% of honeybees in 35 states have suddenly, inexplicably vanished,

baffling entomologists, beekeepers, farmers, and governments. About 10% of 2.4 million hives 10

disappeared in the U.S. in late 2006 and early 2007 in an enigmatic calamity that has been named

“colony collapse disorder,” or CCD. This mysterious killer has wiped out hives in the U.S. and

overseas – in Italy, Poland, Portugal, Central, South America, and Croatia. Some have theorized

that cell phones disrupt the ability of the insects to navigate – the bees leave the hive, never to

return. Others have surmised that a bee virus corresponding to HIV in humans has somehow 15

inculcated itself into the honeybee population. Still others have laid the blame on pesticides,

most notably a neurotoxin called imidacloprid – IMD, which has been shown by French

researchers to cause disorientation among honeybees. IMD also affects the ability of bees to

forage, affecting hive activity. While most French and some American beekeepers consider IMD

to be a major suspect in CCD, their opinion is not corroborated by American researchers. U.S. 20

scientists continue to pursue the cause, or amalgam of causes, of the disorder. On September 7,

2007, American researchers reported in the journal Science that a newly discovered virus, the

Israeli acute paralysis virus, may be a suspect in the catastrophic loss of honeybees. Meanwhile,

U.S. beekeepers are urgently requesting expeditious resolution to the crisis in the form of

emergency research funding. 25

The impact of CCD is almost unfathomable. One–third of all food is provided by the

pollination of honeybees. In a world without honeybees, there would be almost no fruits or

vegetables, except for those hand–pollinated by humans. At their current rate of disappearance,

honeybees will cease to exist by the year 2035.

QQuueessttiioonnss

11.. It can be inferred from the passage that the U.S. pollination industry is

AA)) the top industrial pollinating nation in the world.

BB)) the second pollinating nation in the world.

CC)) among the top three pollinating nations in the world.

DD)) among the top four pollinating nations in the world.

EE)) among the top five pollinating nations in the world.

22.. In line 20, corroborated most closely means

AA)) disputed.

BB)) omitted.

CC)) corrected.

DD)) supported.

EE)) researched.

33.. Based on the passage, what does CCD cause bees to do?

AA)) Bees no longer leave their hives.

BB)) Bees bring a virus back to the hive.

CC)) Bees get lost and stop pollinating.

DD)) Bees become very active and exhausted.

EE)) Bees suddenly, inexplicably attack their hive mates.



AA)) Incorrect. According to lines 4–6, pollination by native bees was estimated to be worth 3

billion dollars annually in the United States in a 15 billion dollar industry worldwide.

Since 15 billion divided by 3 billion is 5, it can be inferred that the United States is in the

top five industrial pollinating nations. So, although it might be the top pollinating nation,

that information cannot be inferred from the passage.

BB)) Incorrect. According to lines 4–6, pollination by native bees was estimated to be worth 3



top five industrial pollinating nations. So, while it might be the second pollinating nation

in the world, that information cannot be inferred from the passage.

CC)) Incorrect. According to lines 4–6, pollination by native bees was estimated to be worth 3



top five industrial pollinating nations. So, while the U.S. might be in the top three

pollinating nations, that information cannot be inferred from the passage.

DD)) Incorrect. According to lines 4–6, pollination by native bees was estimated to be worth 3



top five industrial pollinating nations. So, while the U.S. might be in the top four

pollinating nations, that information cannot be inferred from the passage.

EE)) Correct. According to lines 4–6, pollination by native bees was estimated to be worth 3



top five industrial pollinating nations.


AA)) Incorrect. Disputed means argued. Lines 20–21 state that U.S. scientists continue to

pursue the cause, or amalgam of causes, of the disorder, because the results of the French

are not corroborated by them. This indicates that they would argue with or dispute the

French diagnosis. So the correct answer cannot be disputed.

BB)) Incorrect. Omitted means left out. Since lines 20–21 state that U.S. scientists continue to

pursue the cause, or amalgam of causes, of the disorder, it seems that the singular

diagnosis of the French has been omitted, so omitted cannot be the correct answer.

CC)) Incorrect. Corrected means made accurate. Since lines 20–21 state that U.S. scientists

continue to pursue the cause, or amalgam of causes, of the disorder, it seems that the

Americans are correcting the diagnosis of the French. So corrected cannot be the correct

answer.

DD)) Correct. Supported means agreed with. Since lines 20–21 state that U.S. scientists

continue to pursue the cause, or amalgam of causes, of the disorder, it seems that the

results of the French are not supported or corroborated by them.

EE)) Incorrect. Researched means studied. Since lines 20–21 state that U.S. scientists continue

to pursue the cause, or amalgam of causes, of the disorder, it is clear that U.S. scientists

are researching the causes of the disorder. So researched cannot be the correct answer.


AA)) Incorrect. Lines 14–15 state that the bees leave the hive, never to return. So it cannot be

correct that the bees do not leave the hive.

BB)) Incorrect. While a virus might be the cause, there is no mention that the bees bring a virus

back to the hive. According to lines 15–16, others have surmised that a virus

corresponding to HIV has somehow inculcated itself into the honeybee population. Since

the passage states that the researchers have surmised it, they are not sure that a virus is

the cause, so this cannot be the correct answer.

CC)) Correct. Lines 14–15 state that the bees leave the hive, never to return. That, with the

information from lines 16–20 – that a neurotoxin called imidacloprid – IMD – has been

shown by French researchers to cause disorientation among honeybees. IMD also affects

the ability of bees to forage, affecting hive activity. Since most French and some

American beekeepers consider IMD to be a major suspect in CCD, these must be the

symptoms that are exhibited by the bees.

DD)) Incorrect. While IMD affects the ability of bees to forage, affecting hive activity, as

stated in lines 18–19, there is no mention that the bees themselves become active.

EE)) Incorrect. According to line 9, up to 80% of honeybees in 35 states have suddenly,

inexplicably vanished. That means they have disappeared. However, they have not

suddenly, inexplicably attacked their hive mates.


Date________________

●● AAddvvaanncceedd CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg –– CCoolluummbbiiaann EExxcchhaannggee

The Columbian Exchange was the “exchange of plants, animals, foods, human

populations (including slaves) communicable diseases, and ideas between the Eastern and

Western hemispheres that occurred after 1492,” according to Wikipedia. The term “Columbian

Exchange,” coined in 1972 by historian Alfred Crosby, took hold and became not only standard

shorthand for the phenomenon which it exemplified, but also a perspective for witnessing 5

societal and ecological events.

When Christopher Columbus made landfall with his crew in the Bahamas in October

1492, two worlds with separate evolutionary histories met. When Europeans began to settle

America’s east coast, they brought with them and cultivated familiar crops – wheat and apples –

as well as familiar weeds, such as dandelion and chickweed. In the 1600s, they introduced cattle 10

and horses, which flourished in the New World climate.

Devastating diseases were introduced to the American population which had no

resistance to them. John R. McNeill, professor of history at Georgetown University, points out

that “when the first inhabitants of the Americas arrived across the Bering land bridge between

20,000 and 12,000 years ago, they brought few diseases with them … they had no domesticated 15

animals, the original source of human diseases such as smallpox and measles. In addition, as they

passed from Siberia to North America, the first Americans had spent many years in extreme

cold, which eliminated many of the disease-causing agents that might have traveled with them.”

Consequently, between 1492 and 1650, over 90% of the Native American population died in

epidemic after epidemic of smallpox, measles, mumps, whooping cough, influenza, chicken pox, 20

and typhus. The loss of labor caused by pathogens indirectly led to the establishment of African

slavery among European immigrants in the Americas, resulting in the importation of malaria and

yellow fever from Africa, causing even more destruction of the Native American population.

The export of American flora and fauna did not revolutionize the Old World as the influx

of European agriculture altered the New World ecosystem. According to Crosby, “the New 25

World’s great contribution to the Old is in crop plants. … Maize, white potatoes, sweet potatoes,

various squashes, chiles, and manioc” augmented and invigorated the European cuisine. Very

few New World creatures traversed the ocean –– the muskrat, the gray squirrel, and a few others,

but they did not precipitate large scale changes in Old World ecosystems.

Although some diseases made the ocean voyage from New World to Old, they did not 30

have appreciable effects on the European population. Crosby stated that, although some deaths

were attributed to ailments from America, “the total is insignificant compared to Native

American losses to smallpox alone.”

In Crosby’s original work, he eschewed ideological statements. He reminded his readers

that neither the Old nor New World was inferior or superior to the other; the encounter between 35

two worlds was fundamentally an exchange. By 1988, he summarized his long view of the

encounter in this way: “My point is … that the impact of the Encounter is so massive that we

should consider it with the same sense of scale as we do events connected with the endings and

beginnings of the geological periods and eras and their influence on the direction of evolution on

the planet.” 40

QQuueessttiioonnss 45

11.. Which of the following best describes the author’s view of the Columbian Exchange?

II)) Neither the Old World nor the New World was superior to the other.

IIII)) The New World experienced the brunt of the encounter between the Old and New

Worlds.

IIIIII)) The encounter between the Old and New Worlds was fundamentally an even

exchange.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only


22.. It can be inferred from the passage that

AA)) Slaves brought to American from Africa had more resistance to European diseases than

Native Americans did.

BB)) New World creatures were unable to thrive in the climate of the Old World.

CC)) New World pathogens had no effect on the people of the Old World.

DD)) Most human diseases were introduced to humans by animal populations.

EE)) Europeans had more resistance to European diseases than Africans did.

33.. In line 34, eschewed most closely means

AA)) espoused

BB)) avoided

CC)) employed

DD)) created

EE)) discovered



II)) Correct. In lines 34–35, “In Crosby’s original work, he eschewed ideological statements.

He reminded his readers that neither the Old nor New World was inferior or superior to

the other; …”

IIII)) Correct. According to lines 12–13. “Devastating diseases were introduced to the

American population which had no resistance to them.” According to lines 19–23,

“between 1492 and 1650, over 90% of the Native American population died in epidemic

after epidemic of smallpox, measles, mumps, whooping cough, influenza, chicken pox,

and typhus. The loss of labor caused by pathogens indirectly led to the establishment of

African slavery among European immigrants in the Americas, resulting in the

importation of malaria and yellow fever from Africa, causing even more destruction of

the Native American population.” And in lines 30–34, “Although some diseases made the

ocean voyage from New World to Old, they did not have appreciable effects on the

European population. Crosby stated that, although some deaths were attributed to

ailments from America, ‘the total is insignificant compared to Native American losses to

smallpox alone.’”

IIIIII)) Incorrect. According to lines 35–36, “the encounter between two worlds was

fundamentally an exchange.” However, it is not stated that the exchange was an even

exchange.


AA)) Correct. According to lines 19–20, “…between 1492 and 1650, over 90% of the Native

American population died in epidemic after epidemic of smallpox, measles, mumps,

whooping cough, influenza, chicken pox, and typhus.” This shows that Native Americans

had little resistance to European diseases. According to lines According to lines 21–22,

“The loss of labor caused by pathogens indirectly led to the establishment of African

slavery among European immigrants in the Americas, resulting in the importation of

malaria and yellow fever from Africa, causing even more destruction of the Native

American population.” .” Since the African slaves were able to work in conditions which

caused over 90% of the Native American population to die, the African slaves must have

had more resistance to European diseases than the Native Americans did.

BB)) Incorrect. According to lines 27–29, “Very few New World creatures traversed the ocean

–– the muskrat, the gray squirrel, and a few others, but they did not precipitate large scale

changes in Old World ecosystems.” This shows that the animals traveled to the Old

World and, since they did not make large–scale changes, probably made small–scale

changes in Old World ecosystems. Had they not thrived, they would not have made any

changes in the Old World ecosystems at all.

CC)) Incorrect. According to lines 31–33, “Crosby stated that, although some deaths were

attributed to ailments from America, ‘“the total is insignificant compared to Native

American losses to smallpox alone.”’ So it is not correct that New World pathogens had

no effect on the people of the Old World.

DD)) Incorrect. It is not possible to determine from this reading whether most human diseases

were introduced animal populations. The statement in lines 15–16 that “they had no

domesticated animals, the original source of human diseases such as smallpox and

measles” does not establish that most human diseases were introduced by animal

populations.

EE)) Incorrect. It is not possible to determine from this reading whether Europeans had more

resistance to European diseases than Africans did. The statement “The loss of labor

caused by pathogens indirectly led to the establishment of African slavery among

European immigrants in the Americas, resulting in the importation of malaria and yellow

fever from Africa, causing even more destruction of the Native American population”

does not establish that either Europeans or Africans had more resistance to European

diseases.

33.. The correct answer is B.

AA)) Incorrect. He did not espouse or adopt ideological statements, which are statements of a

specific doctrine or ideology. Rather, as pointed out in lines 34–35, “he reminded his

readers that neither the Old nor New World was inferior or superior to the other.”

BB)) Correct. He eschewed or avoided ideological statements, which are statements of a

specific doctrine or ideology. As pointed out in lines 34–35, “he reminded his readers that

neither the Old nor New World was inferior or superior to the other.”

CC)) Incorrect. He did not employ or use ideological statements, which are statements of a



DD)) Incorrect. He did not create or invent ideological statements, which are statements of a



EE)) Incorrect. He did not discover ideological statements, which are statements of a specific

doctrine or ideology. Rather, as pointed out in lines 34–35, “he reminded his readers that

neither the Old nor New World was inferior or superior to the other.” Instead, as pointed

out in lines 36–40, “he summarized his long view of the encounter in this way: ‘“My

point is … that the impact of the Encounter is so massive that we should consider it with

the same sense of scale as we do events connected with the endings and beginnings of the

geological periods and eras and their influence on the direction of evolution on the

planet.”’


Date________________

●● AAddvvaanncceedd CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg -- EEtthhaannooll

Ethanol (CH3CH2OH; which is also called ethyl alcohol, grain alcohol, and EtOH) is a

clear, colorless liquid. It is a renewable biofuel made from starch and sugar–based crops like

corn grain and sugar cane or from cellulosic feedstocks like grass, wood, or recycled

newspapers. Ethanol is a high–octane biofuel which performs so splendidly in internal

combustion engines that early automakers presumed it would be the world’s chief fuel. 5

American proponents of ethanol fuel highlight two principal advantages: its

environmental impact and its energy security benefits.

The adoption of ethanol reduces noxious emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO) and

pollutants from internal combustion engines; hence, it is appreciably less deleterious to the

environment than gasoline. Ethanol made from corn has been shown to reduce harmful emissions 10

by up to 13%, whereas ethanol made from cellulosic materials reduces dangerous emissions by

as much as 88%.

Ethanol is a renewable biofuel; in only six months a new crop can be grown, harvested,

and converted to fuel, so it is profitable for rural crop–producing economies. In addition, it keeps

engines clean and can be used in gasoline engines with no modifications when combining gas 15

with up to 10% ethanol. It can be used in specially modified vehicles called “flexible–fuel” or

“flex–fuel” vehicles in concentrations of up to 85%. Gasoline combined with 85% ethanol is

generally referred to as “E85.” Higher ratios of ethanol in the fuel mixture result in less reliance

on fossil fuels, so there is less dependence on imports.

American opponents of ethanol fuel point to three disadvantages: its price fluctuations, its 20

energy level, and its availability.

The price of ethanol fluctuates on a different cycle than gasoline; therefore, at times

ethanol is more expensive than gasoline, and at times it is cheaper. Another drawback of ethanol

is that it contains less energy per gallon than gasoline; even when it is cheaper per gallon than

conventional fuel, it does not take the vehicle as far as a gallon of gas. A car’s fuel economy with 25

ethanol can be expected to be 20–30% less than a vehicle which burns gasoline. So the

occasional cheaper price is offset by the lower energy yields. In addition, ethanol is not as widely

distributed as gasoline. It is readily available only in the Midwest; other areas have limited

ethanol infrastructure.

The Obama administration is working on expanding the ethanol infrastructure. In a recent 30

interview with 15 newspaper editors, President Obama characterized the U.S. position on

biofuels in this way: “Our challenge, I think, is to see our current ethanol technology as a bridge

to the biofuels technologies of the future. And that’s what we want to invest in, and that’s what

I’ll be directing my Department of Agriculture to focus on.”

QQuueessttiioonnss

11.. It can be inferred from the passage that which of these statements about ethanol is/are true?

II)) Burning ethanol made from wood produces less CO than burning ethanol made

from corn.

IIII)) Burning ethanol made from grain produces less CO than burning gasoline.

IIIIII)) Burning ethanol made from newspapers produces less CO than burning ethanol

made from grass.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only


22.. The author’s primary purpose is to

AA)) describe and define ethanol.

BB)) compare 2 types of ethanol.

CC)) support the adoption of ethanol.

DD)) explain advantages and disadvantages of gasoline.

EE)) explain advantages and disadvantages of ethanol.

33.. In line 9, deleterious most closely means

AA)) dangerous, because it harms the environment less than gas.

BB)) beneficial, because it helps the environment less than gas.

CC)) splendid, because it performs less splendidly than gas.

DD)) unreliable, because it is less unreliable than gas.

EE)) expensive, because it is less expensive than gas.



II)) Correct. Corn is a sugar–based crop, and wood is a cellulosic feedstock, according to line

4. According to lines 10–12, ethanol made from corn reduces harmful emissions by up to

13%, and ethanol made from cellulosic materials reduces harmful emissions by as much

as 88%. According to line 8, one of the noxious (harmful) emissions is carbon monoxide

(CO.) Therefore, burning ethanol made from wood produces less CO than burning

ethanol made from corn.

IIII)) Correct. According to lines 8–10, ethanol reduces noxious emissions such as carbon

monoxide (CO) and pollutants from internal combustion engines; hence, it is appreciably

less deleterious to the environment than gasoline. According to lines 11–13, ethanol made

from corn reduces harmful emissions by up to 13%.

IIIIII)) Incorrect. According to lines 3–4, grass, wood, and recycled newspapers are cellulosic

materials. And while, according to lines 11–12, using ethanol made from cellulosic

materials reduces harmful emissions by up to 88%, there is no comparison made among

the various cellulosic materials.

22.. The correct answer is E.

AA)) Incorrect. While the author describes and defines ethanol in lines 1–6, she goes on to

explain the advantages and disadvantages of using it.

BB)) Incorrect. While the author makes several comparisons between sugar–based ethanol and

cellulosic ethanol, in lines 2–4, lines 10–12 she goes on to explain the advantages and

disadvantages of using it.

CC)) Incorrect. While the author explains the advantages of adopting ethanol in lines 8–19, she

goes on to explain the disadvantages of using it.

DD)) Incorrect. While the author explains that ethanol is less harmful to the environment than

gasoline in lines 8–10 and that gas works better and is more widely available than ethanol

in lines 24–28, she does so only insofar as she is comparing the advantages and

disadvantages of ethanol.

EE)) Correct. The structure of the passage is revealed in lines 6–7, which explain what the

proponents of ethanol highlight as advantages, and in lines 20–21, which explain what

the opponents of ethanol point to as disadvantages.


AA)) Correct. According to line 8, ethanol reduces noxious (harmful) emissions; according to

lines 10–12, ethanol made from corn reduces harmful emissions by up to 13%, and

ethanol made from cellulosic materials reduces harmful emissions by as much as 88%. So

ethanol is less harmful, or less dangerous, than gasoline.

BB)) Incorrect. According to line 8, ethanol reduces noxious (harmful) emissions; according to

lines 10–12, ethanol made from corn reduces harmful emissions by up to 13%, and

ethanol made from cellulosic materials reduces harmful emissions by as much as 88%. So

ethanol is more beneficial, not less beneficial, than gasoline.

CC)) Incorrect. According to lines 4–5, ethanol performs so splendidly in internal combustion

machines that carmakers thought it would be the chief fuel. According to line 15, it keeps

engines clean. And while lines 25–26 point out that a car’s fuel economy can be less with

ethanol than with gasoline, there is no mention that ethanol performs less splendidly than

gas.

DD)) Incorrect. According to lines 4–5, ethanol performs so splendidly in internal combustion

machines that carmakers thought it would be the chief fuel. According to line 25, ethanol

does not take the vehicle as far as a gallon of gas. But there is no mention that it is more

or less unreliable than gas.

EE)) Incorrect. According to lines 9–10, ethanol is appreciably less deleterious to the

environment than gasoline. The expense of gasoline would not cause the environment to

change. According to lines 22–23, the price of ethanol fluctuates on a different cycle than

gasoline; therefore, at ethanol is more expensive than gasoline, and at times it is cheaper.

So, ethanol is not less expensive than gas.


Date________________

●● AAddvvaanncceedd CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg -- GGeenneerraattiioonnss

Authors William Strauss and Neil Howe are known for their theories about cycles of

generations in American history. In their seminal Generations, and the subsequent 13th

Gen, and

The Fourth Turning, they explore the history of America from 1584 to the present as a repeating

cycle of 4 consecutive generational archetypes. They refer to each cycle of four generations as a

constellation, and they posit that each constellational era corresponds to “recurring types of 5

historical events” and moods. They state that adjacent generations do not live similar lives, and

that each generation ages as a singular cohort as time moves forward. If one were to place this

progression on a graph, the line would form a diagonal – which Strauss and Howe call the

“generational diagonal.” According to Strauss and Howe, each generation is comprised of people

who possess 1) common age, 2) common beliefs, and 3) perceived membership in the same 10

generation. A generation is approximately 22 years in length. Since a lifetime may reach 80–90

years, members of 4 generations are alive at one time.

The four generational archetypes identified by Strauss and Howe are Idealist, Reactive,

Civic, and Adaptive. Idealists are “increasingly indulged youths after a secular crisis,” come of

age “inspiring a spiritual awakening,” cultivate principle rather than practicality or pragmatism 15

in midlife, and emerge as “visionary elders.” Reactives grow up “underprotected and criticized

youths during a spiritual awakening,” mature into risk taking adults, unlike the preceding

generation at midlife, mellow into “pragmatic midlife leaders during a secular crisis,” and

become reclusive elders. Civics grow up “increasingly protected youths after a spiritual

awakening,” become “a heroic and achieving cadre of young adults,” build institutions as 20

midlifers, and “emerge as busy midlifers, attacked by the next spiritual awakening.” Adaptives

grow up as “overprotected and suffocated youths during a secular crisis,” unlike the previous

generation as young adults, become “risk–averse, conformist rising adults,” mature into

“indecisive arbitrator leaders during a spiritual awakening,” and become sensitive elders.

The authors believe that the archetypical generations have recurred in fixed order 25

throughout American history with one exception: following the Civil War, one type did not

appear. As each generational archetype shifts from one phase of life to the next, the succeeding

generations line up in a predictably recurring pattern. For example, when the Idealists are elders,

the Reactives are in midlife, the Civics are in rising adulthood, and the Adaptives are in youth.

The central role of the elders, aged 66–87, is that of stewardship, such as supervising and 30

mentoring. The central role of midlife, aged 44–65, is leadership, such as parenting and teaching.

The central role of rising adulthood is activity, such as working and starting families. The central

role of youth, aged 0 to 21 is dependence, such as growing and learning.

35

QQuueessttiioonnss

11.. According to the passage, which of the following statements can be inferred?

II)) At a time when a Reactive generation member is a pragmatic leader, an Idealist

generation member is a visionary elder.

IIII)) At a time when a Civic generation member is a protected youth, a Reactive

generation member is a risk–taking adult.

IIIIII)) At a time when an Adaptive generation member is a sensitive elder, a Civic

generation member is an institution–building midlifer.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only


22.. According to the passage, what happens to the Civic generation as its members enter midlife?

AA)) It is attacked by Idealists who are coming of age.

BB)) It is attacked by Idealists who are visionary elders.

CC)) It is attacked by Reactives who are pragmatic leaders.

DD)) It is attacked by Adaptives who are rising adults.

EE)) It is attacked by Adaptives who are youths.

33.. In line 15, pragmatic most closely means

AA)) acting on the basis of principle.

BB)) behaving in a hermit–like way.

CC)) being in the final stage of life.

DD)) acting in a practical way.

EE)) behaving in a reckless way.



II)) Correct. Since the Reactives are one generation younger than the Idealists, the

member of the Reactive generation are one life phase younger than the members of

the Idealist generation. Therefore, when the Idealists are elders, the Reactives are in

midlife (lines 28–29.)

IIII)) Correct. Since the Civics are one generation younger than the Reactives, the

members of the Civic generation are one life phase younger than the members of

the Reactive generation. Therefore, when the Reactives are adults, the Civics are

youths (lines 28–29.)

IIIIII)) Incorrect. Since the Adaptives are one generation younger than the Civics, the

members of the Adaptive generation are one life phase younger than the members

of the Civic generation. Therefore, when the Civics are midlifers, the Adaptives are

not elders; they are rising adults (lines 28–29.)

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only



AA)) Correct. According to lines 20–21, Civics “emerge as busy midlifers, attacked by the next

spiritual awakening.” The generation which attacks them is the Idealist generation, which

comes of age “inspiring a spiritual awakening,” shown in lines 14–15.

BB)) Incorrect. According to lines 20–21, Civics “emerge as busy midlifers, attacked by the

next spiritual awakening.” The generation which attacks them is the Idealist generation,

which comes of age “inspiring a spiritual awakening,” shown in lines 14–15. When the

idealists age, they become “visionary elders,” as shown in line 16.

CC)) Incorrect. According to lines 20–21, Civics “emerge as busy midlifers, attacked by the

next spiritual awakening.” The generation which attacks them is the Idealist generation,

which comes of age “inspiring a spiritual awakening,” shown in lines 14–15. When the

Civics are in midlife, the Reactives are elders, as can be inferred from line 29. When “the

Reactives are in midlife, the Civics are in rising adulthood.” When the Reactives are at

midlife, they do not attack. Instead, they “mellow into ‘“pragmatic midlife leaders during

a secular crisis”’ according to line 18.

DD)) Incorrect. Although it can be inferred that when the Civics are midlifers, the Adaptives

are rising adults (line 29), the generation which attacks the Civics is the Idealist

generation, which comes of age “inspiring a spiritual awakening,” shown in lines 14–15.

EE)) Incorrect. Since the Adaptives are one generation younger than the Civics, the members

of the Adaptive generation are one life phase younger than the members of the Civic

generation. Therefore, when the Civics are midlifers, the Adaptives are not youths; they

are rising adults (lines 28–29.)


AA)) Incorrect. Principle is a belief or set of beliefs. According to lines 14–15, Idealists ̀

“cultivate principle rather than practicality or pragmatism in midlife.” Therefore,

principle is not the same as pragmatism.

BB)) Incorrect. A hermit is a reclusive person, who tends avoid other people. According to

lines 18–19, Reactives are “pragmatic midlife leaders during a

secular crisis,” who become reclusive elders. Since they become reclusive (which means

hermit–like) elders after being pragmatic leaders, the word pragmatic cannot mean

behaving in a hermit–like way.

C) Incorrect. The final stage of life is old age. Since Reactives are “pragmatic midlife

leaders during a secular crisis” as stated in line 18, the word pragmatic cannot refer to

the final stage of life.

D) Correct. Acting in a practical way means acting in a way to get things done. According

to lines 14–15, Idealists “cultivate principle rather than practicality or pragmatism in

midlife.” So practicality is similar to pragmatism.

EE)) Incorrect. Behaving in a reckless way means behaving in a way that invites danger.

Reactives mature into risk taking adults, according to lines 16–17 and mellow into

“pragmatic midlife leaders during a secular crisis.” Since they move from being risk–

taking (reckless) adults to pragmatic midlife leaders, the word pragmatic cannot mean

behaving in a reckless way.


Date________________

●● AAddvvaanncceedd CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg -- HHuubbbbllee

The 32,000–word novella The Time Machine by H.G. Wells, published in 1895, is

generally credited with popularizing the idea of time travel by means of a time machine, a

vehicle which takes the occupant backward or forward in time. Dozens of sequels and

adaptations over the years have further promoted the notion. Indeed, Albert Einstein’s Theory of

Special Relativity lays the foundation for the possibility of time travel. So far, no one has 5

demonstrated the ability to travel in time. However, time machines have been constructed, and

they do allow glimpses into the past.

The most efficacious time machine currently in existence is the Hubble Telescope, named

after the American astronomer Edwin P. Hubble. Its capability to locate distant astronomical

targets and lock in on them, permitting their faint light to aggregate on its detectors, allows it to 10

peer far into the past. Light travels 186,000 miles per second. The Hubble Telescope has looked

back in time at 10,000 galaxies whose light left them billions of years ago. Therefore, utilizing

the telescope as time machine, astronomers are able to contemplate galaxies as they were eons

ago.

Although the telescope was launched into space in 1990, its inception was almost a half–15

century earlier as astronomer Lyman Spitzer, Jr. mulled over the possibility of a large space

telescope in a 1946 report, “Astronomical Advantages of an Extra–Terrestrial Observatory.”

Because the earth is bathed in its constantly churning atmosphere, earth–based telescopes cannot

penetrate deep space; the atmosphere distorts the view. Telescopes were constructed on

mountains, but there was still no way to wholly escape the effects of the layers of gases 20

enveloping the earth.

During the 1960s, the Space Race between the then–Soviet Union and the United States

was accelerating. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) was established.

Funds for space endeavors were abundant, and plans for a large space telescope, by then

designated the LST, were underway. The designs called for a 2.4–meter primary telescope mirror 25

which could be transported into space by one of NASA’s rockets. According to National

Geographic’s Imaging Space and Time, the resolving power of the deep space telescope would

be “equivalent to being able to distinguish the left and right headlights of a car in California seen

from New York, or features less than 1/30,000th

the size of the full moon. This was at least a

tenfold increase over the atmospheric limit.” 30

One of the primary challenges involved in successfully transporting the telescope into

space was protecting the mirror from the jarring vibrations that occur during launch. It was

crucial that the mirror be able to withstand the shuttle’s vicissitudes as well as the volatile

atmospheric conditions found in space. If not, the precise shape of the mirror could be

compromised, and its imaging capability significantly weakened. 35

After the telescope had been launched, astronomers subsequently realized that the

primary mirror had not been ground correctly. A lens in the test instrument was about one

millimeter askew, which is large by optical standards. In 1993, space–walking astronauts

installed corrective lenses which improved the eyesight of the Hubble. In 2009, the corrective

lenses themselves were replaced with a supersensitive spectrograph with built–in corrective 40

lenses. The new spectrograph is expected to provide insight into the origins of stars and galaxies.

The successor to Hubble, the James Webb Space Telescope, is expected to be launched in

2014. It will observe only in infrared, so it will complement the Hubble Telescope, which

observes in the visible and ultraviolet light ranges.

Hubble currently has the capability to view galaxies that were formed 13.7 billion years 45

ago, long before humans existed, in an area called the Hubble Ultra Deep Field. Astronomers

aspire to see beyond the Hubble Ultra Deep Field to a time that is devoid of galaxies, a time

before galaxies had formed. If H.G. Wells was onto something in his novella, that time may be

close at hand. As one of the characters in the popular work asked, “If Time is really only a fourth

dimension of Space, why is it, and why has it always been, regarded as something different? And 50

why cannot we move in Time as we move about in the other dimensions of Space?”

Less than a decade after Wells’ novella, Einstein’s Special Theory Relativity seemed to

concur with Wells’ character by proposing that traveling through space at the speed of light

would alter time by causing it to dilate, raising the possibility of not merely glimpsing the past,

but perhaps traveling to it. 55

QQuueessttiioonnss

11.. According to the passage, which of the following statements is/are true of the Hubble

Telescope?

II)) It is unable to observe light on the infrared part of the spectrum.

IIII)) It will be replaced by the James Webb Space Telescope in 2014.

IIIIII)) It was initially constructed in 1946, but not launched until 1990.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only


22.. According to the passage, who had the idea for the Hubble Telescope?

AA)) H.G. Wells

BB)) Albert Einstein

CC)) Lyman Spitzer, Jr.

DD)) Edwin P. Hubble

EE)) James Webb

33.. In line 33, vicissitudes most closely means

AA)) long delays which may compromise the shuttle launch

BB)) toxic emissions which may cause corrosion around the mirror

CC)) sound waves which may penetrate the mirror

DD)) atmospheric conditions which may compromise the mirror

EE)) shaking and quivering which may cause changes in the mirror

44.. In the context of the passage, which of the following best articulates the author’s opinion of

the inception of the Hubble?

AA)) It was a pipedream with little imminent chance of success.

BB)) It was a literary vehicle with little basis in reality.

CC)) It was an emergency response to the quickening Space Race.

DD)) It was based on a scientific proposition which was not proven.

EE)) It was a waste of time and money which were needed elsewhere.

55.. The primary purpose of the passage is to

AA)) draw a comparison between H.G. Wells’ notion of time travel with Albert Einstein’s

Special Theory of Relativity.

BB)) discuss the construction of the Hubble Space Telescope as a tool for exploring deep

space.

CC)) examine difficulties which precipitated construction of corrective lenses for the

Hubble’s primary mirror.

DD)) describe the circumstances which underlay the mid–century national drive toward a large

space–based observatory.

EE)) dispute the argument that the Hubble Telescope functions as a modern–day time

machine.

66.. It can be inferred that the author regards time travel as

AA)) an effective hook for a work of fiction, but an improbability in the reality of astronomy.

BB)) an interesting literary notion, but proven to be impossible by Einstein’s Special Theory.

CC)) a persuasive topic in fiction, as well as a hypothetical possibility in light of Einstein’s

Special Theory.

DD)) a ridiculous idea whose time has come and gone, as well as an astronomical

improbability.

EE)) the incoherent literary construction of a fictional author, with little relevance to today’s

scientific community.

77.. It can be inferred from the passage that scientists believe that time is

AA)) a constant.

BB)) unidirectional.

CC)) a spatial dimension.

DD)) an impenetrable mystery.

EE)) an imaginary construction.



II)) Correct. It is unable to observe light on the infrared part of the spectrum. It will be

replaced by the James Webb Space Telescope in 2014.

IIII)) Incorrect. It will not be replaced by the James Webb Space Telescope in 2014; it

will be complemented by it.

IIIIII)) Incorrect. It was initially constructed as part of the Space Race, but not launched

until 1990.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only



AA)) Incorrect. H.G. Wells wrote a novella about time travel.

BB)) Incorrect. Albert Einstein theorized about space and time.

CC)) Correct. Lyman Spitzer, Jr. wrote a 1946 paper about a space–based observatory.

DD)) Incorrect. The Hubble Telescope was named after Edwin P. Hubble.

EE)) Incorrect. The successor to the Hubble Telescope is named after James Webb.


AA)) Incorrect. There was no mention of launch delays in the passage.

BB)) Incorrect. There was no mention of toxic emissions in the passage.

CC)) Incorrect. There was no mention of sound waves in the passage.

DD)) Incorrect. Although volatile atmospheric conditions were mentioned in the same

sentence, this factor that may occur in addition to vicissitudes experienced during launch.

EE)) Correct. Vicissitudes are jarring changes or difficulties. Therefore, shaking and quivering

which may cause changes in the mirror is the best answer. Even if you don’t know the

definition of this difficult GRE vocabulary word, you can infer its meaning from the

sentences which come before and after. The passage states that, “One of the primary

challenges involved in successfully transporting the telescope into space was protecting

the mirror from the jarring vibrations that occur during launch,” and if this was not

accomplished, then, “The precise shape of the mirror could be compromised, and its

imaging capability significantly weakened.”


AA)) Correct. Astronomer Lyman Spitzer, Jr. mulled over the possibility of a large space

telescope in a 1946 report, as explained in lines 16–17. He did not plan the observatory. It

was a pipedream with little imminent chance of success.

B) Incorrect. It was a literary vehicle at the time of H.G. Wells, as shown in line 1. By the

1940s, it was a possibility, as shown in line 17.

CC)) Incorrect. It was built during the Space Race because money was available, as explained

in line 24.

DD)) Incorrect. It was based on scientific facts, as Spitzer explained in his 1946 report, line 17.

EE)) Incorrect. A successor telescope is being planned, which would not happen if it were a

waste of time of money, lines 42–43.


AA)) Incorrect. Although the passage draws a comparison between H.G. Wells’ notion of time

travel with Albert Einstein’s Special Theory of Relativity, the passage goes on to discuss

the Hubble Space Telescope as a time machine.

BB)) Correct. The passage discusses the construction of the Hubble Space Telescope as a tool

for exploring deep space, such as the Hubble Ultra Deep Field and beyond.

CC)) Incorrect. The passage only briefly touches on the difficulties which precipitated

construction of corrective lenses for the Hubble’s primary mirror.

DD)) Incorrect. The passage does not describe the circumstances which underlay the mid

century national drive toward a large space–based observatory.

EE)) Incorrect. The passage does not dispute the argument that the Hubble Telescope functions

as a modern–day time machine.


AA)) Incorrect. The author regards time travel as an effective hook for a work of fiction, but

hopes for its implementation in the reality of astronomy.

BB)) Incorrect. The author regards time travel as an interesting literary notion, but time travel

has not been proven to be impossible by Einstein’s Special Theory.

CC)) Correct. The author regards time travel to be a persuasive topic in fiction, as well as a

hypothetical possibility in light of Einstein’s Special Theory.

DD)) Incorrect. The author does not suggest that time travel is a ridiculous idea whose time and

come and gone, nor does the author suggest that is it an astronomical improbability. The

author says that H.G. Wells’ idea was popular, and expresses the hope of eventual

possible time travel.

EE)) Incorrect. The author does not suggest that time travel is the incoherent literary

construction with little relevance to today’s scientific community. The author says that

H.G. Wells’ idea was popular, and that the Hubble is, in fact, a time machine.


AA)) Incorrect. Einstein’s Special Theory suggests that time can be manipulated through

speed of travel, as explained in lines 53–54, so time is not a constant.

BB)) Incorrect. Since time might be manipulated through speed of travel, as explained in lines

53–54, it is not necessarily considered unidirectional.

CC)) Correct. It is thought to be some sort of spatial dimension, alluded to in lines 46–54.

DD)) Incorrect. Einstein’s Special Theory suggests that it is not an impenetrable mystery, lines

4–5 and 53–54.

EE)) Incorrect. Scientists hope to be able to view beyond the Hubble Ultra Deep Field, which is

a time, as explained in lines 45–48. It is not an imaginary construction.


Date________________

●● AAddvvaanncceedd CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg –– IInntteelllliiggeennccee AAuuggmmeennttaattiioonn

The terms “intelligence augmentation” and “intelligence amplification” evoke images of

human beings with computer chips embedded in their skulls or bizarre accoutrements attached to

their heads. However, according to an article entitled Get Smart by Jamais Cascio, human

beings’ ability to augment their intelligence is precisely the prowess which has empowered us to

survive “a series of convulsive glacial events” evinced by the last ice age. 5

Neurophysiologist William Calvin asserts that the human species continues to evolve

cognitively and to create its own cognitive evolution in two basic ways: external and internal.

Cascio states that humans have been externally augmenting their intelligence for

millennia. By developing written language, we boosted our capacity to share information over

space and time. Other advancements, such as agricultural and industrial technologies, reduced 10

the exigencies of manual labor. Current external digital systems augment human intelligence by

allowing us to perform tasks that would be unfeasible with recourse only to the rational skills of

a singular human brain. Cascio cites as examples the “powerful simulations and massive data

sets (which) allow physicists to visualize, understand, and debate models of an 11–dimension

universe, real–time data from satellites, global environmental databases, and high–resolution 15

models (which) allow geophysicists to recognize the subtle signs of long–term changes to the

planet,” and similar man–made interactions which have the functional effect of augmenting

human intelligence. Conceivable potential software could incorporate individual “attention

filters” or “focus assistants” which would discern and highlight your individual preferences in a

computer display, permitting you to focus and direct your computer searches more efficiently 20

than you do now. It could incorporate individualized planning and foresight systems which could

allow people to play “what–if” with their life choices. Such systems could co–evolve with people

to produce intimate technologies which would become “something akin to collaborative

intuition,” through web–based information systems with personalized components, according to

Cascio. 25

Somewhat more problematic in social terms might be pharmacological intelligence

augmentation, evoking Brave New World nightmares – pharmaceutically placated people

tranquilized to zombie–like subservience to the collective and a central bureaucracy dedicated to

its own continued survival. However, as with external cognitive augmentation, the future has

arrived –– in the form of, for example, ADD drugs, pharmaceutical agents which mitigate sleep 30

disorders, and antidepressants, all of which enhance human problem–solving ability and

cognitive efficiency. According to Cascio, “people who don’t know about (such drugs) or don’t

want to use them will face stiffer competition from people who do. From the perspective of a

culture immersed in athletic doping wars, the use of such drugs may seem like cheating. From

the perspective of those who find they’re much more productive using this form of enhancement, 35

it’s no more cheating than getting a faster computer or a better education.”

Cognitive amplification, whether by external or internal means, may constitute evolution,

if Calvin’s assertion is correct. Some societies may readily embrace it, while others may shy

away. As science fiction writer William Gibson observes, “The future is already here; it’s just

unevenly distributed.” 40

QQuueessttiioonnss

11.. The author is mainly concerned about

AA)) various dangers of intelligence augmentation.

BB)) the advantages of intelligence augmentation.

CC)) the basic methods of intelligence augmentation.

DD)) some scientists who are working on intelligence augmentation.

EE)) the differences between external and internal intelligence augmentation.

22.. The author’s use of the phrase “somewhat more problematic in social terms” refers to

AA)) the difficulty of making cognitive enhancement widely available.

BB)) the difficulty of making pharmacological enhancement socially acceptable.

CC)) equalizing cognitive competitive advantages among social groups.

DD)) bureaucracies which hamper cognitive enhancement activities.

EE)) the relationship between external and internal intelligence augmentation.

33.. As it is used in line 27, the word placated most closely means

AA)) deprived.

BB)) enhanced.

CC)) cured.

DD)) assisted.

EE)) quieted.

44.. In the context of the passage, which of the following best articulates the author’s opinion?

A) Intelligence amplification by external means might be more difficult to achieve than by

internal means.

B) Cognitive augmentation does not really constitute evolution.

C) Some people consider intelligence enhancement to be a form of cheating.

D) External and internal intelligence enhancement might constitute evolution in cultures that

accept them.

E) Personalized software could be misused by a bureaucracy intent on its own continued

survival.

55.. The primary purpose of the passage is to

AA)) describe different kinds of intelligence enhancement.

BB)) discuss society’s reactions to pharmacological cognitive augmentation.

CC)) examine the differences between external and internal intelligence enhancement.

DD)) dispel misgivings about humanity’s attempts at creating its own evolution.

EE)) illustrate the limitations of external intelligence augmentation.



AA)) Incorrect. Although the author alludes to dangers involved with intelligence

augmentation, she does not specifically mention any dangers. The ability to play “what–

if” with life choices, mentioned in line 23, could portend a dangerous situation. People’s

fears of a Brave New World situation, mentioned in lines 27–28, allude to dangers

discussed by Aldous Huxley in his novel entitled Brave New World. However, danger is

not the author’s main concern.

BB)) Incorrect. Although the author discusses the advantages of intelligence augmentation, this

is not her main concern. Lines 8–25 mostly discuss the methods of external intelligence

enhancement, and lines 29–32 discuss the advantages of internal intelligence

enhancement. These are interspersed with comments about fear related to intelligence

enhancement (lines 27–28) and some doubt regarding intelligence augmentation (33–34),

so the advantages of intelligence augmentation are not the author’s main concern.

CC)) Correct. In the second paragraph, the author introduces the topic of cognitive

augmentation by stating that the “neurophysicist William Calvin asserts that the human

species continues to evolve cognitively and to create its own cognitive evolution in two

basic ways: external and internal.”

DD)) Incorrect. Although several scientists are mentioned, the scientists are not the author’s

main concern. The author of Get Smart, Jamais Cascio, may or may not be a scientist.

Neurophysicist William Calvin is mentioned in the second paragraph when the author

introduces the topic. The only other person mentioned by name is science fiction writer

William Gibson. Geophysicists are mentioned in line 16, but the scientists involved in

intelligence augmentation are not the author’s main concern.

EE)) Incorrect. Although the author discusses both external and internal intelligence

augmentation, she does not say much about the differences between the two types of

cognitive enhancement. The only difference she mentions is in lines 26–27 – “Somewhat

more problematic in social terms might be pharmacological intelligence augmentation.”


AA)) Incorrect. The author seems to say that pharmacological agents for intelligence

enhancement are already readily available. She says in lines 29–32, “as with external

cognitive augmentation, the future has arrived – in the form of, for example, ADD drugs,

pharmaceutical agents which mitigate sleep disorders, and antidepressants, all of which

enhance human problem–solving ability and cognitive efficiency.”

BB)) Correct. The author mentions social acceptance of intelligence augmentation in several

places in the passage. In lines 26–29, she says, “somewhat more problematic in social

terms might be pharmacological intelligence augmentation, evoking Brave New World

nightmares – pharmaceutically placated people tranquilized to zombie–like subservience

to the collective and a central bureaucracy dedicated to its own continued survival,”

which points up societal fear of pharmaceutical augmentation. In lines 32–34, she also

says, “people who don’t know about (such drugs) or don’t want to use them will face

stiffer competition from people who do. From the perspective of a culture immersed in

athletic doping wars, the use of such drugs may seem like cheating,” which shows a

moral resistance to pharmacological augmentation. Finally, in lines 38–39, the author

says, “some societies may readily embrace it, while others may shy away,” which points

to a larger societal aversion to pharmacological intelligence augmentation.

CC)) Incorrect. The author does mention competition between people who take advantage of

pharmacological intelligence boosts and people who do not. (lines 32–36) However, this

is not the subject that the author finds problematic. The problematic issue is overcoming

fear of pharmacological agents. In lines 26–29, she says, “Somewhat more problematic in

social terms might be pharmacological intelligence augmentation, evoking Brave New

World nightmares – pharmaceutically placated people tranquilized to zombie–like

subservience to the collective and a central bureaucracy dedicated to its own continued

survival,” which points up societal fear of pharmaceutical augmentation.

DD)) Incorrect. Although the author mentions bureaucracies, she does so in the context of a

nightmarish scenario in which the bureaucracies provide pharmaceutical agents in order

to placate the people, not to enhance their intelligence. In lines 26–29, she says,

“somewhat more problematic in social terms might be pharmacological intelligence

augmentation, evoking Brave New World nightmares – pharmaceutically placated people

tranquilized to zombie–like subservience to the collective and a central bureaucracy

dedicated to its own continued survival,” which points up societal fear of pharmaceutical

augmentation.

EE)) Incorrect. Although the author discusses both external and internal methods of

augmentation, she does not discuss the relationship between the two, except in lines 29–

30, when she says, “as with external cognitive augmentation, the future has arrived,” and

in the concluding paragraph when she says, “Cognitive amplification, whether by

external or internal means, may constitute evolution, if Cascio’s assertion is correct.”


AA)) Incorrect. In lines 27–28, the statement “pharmaceutically placated people tranquilized to

zombie–like subservience to the collective” rules out the possibility that the word

placated could mean deprived. If they were pharmaceutically deprived, they would not be

tranquilized.

B) Incorrect. In lines 27–28, the statement “pharmaceutically placated people tranquilized to


placated could mean enhanced. If they were pharmaceutically enhanced, they would not

be tranquilized.

CC)) Incorrect. In lines 26–28, the statement “Somewhat more problematic in social terms

might be pharmacological intelligence augmentation, evoking Brave New World

nightmares – pharmaceutically placated people tranquilized to zombie–like subservience

to the collective” rules out the possibility that the word placated means cured, as it would

not be nightmarish to be cured.

DD)) Incorrect. In lines 27–28, the statement “pharmaceutically placated people tranquilized


placated could mean assisted. If they were pharmaceutically assisted, they would not

be tranquilized or zombie–like.

EE)) Correct. In lines 27–28, the statement “pharmaceutically placated people tranquilized

zombie–like subservience to the collective” points to the likelihood that the word

placated means something similar to tranquilized, or quieted.


AA)) Incorrect. In lines 8–24, the author mentions many methods of external intelligence

augmentation, including writing, agricultural and industrial technologies, digital systems,

satellites, databases, attention filters, software, web–based information systems, and other

computer systems. In lines 30–31, she mentions only 3 kinds of pharmacological agents

to enhance intelligence. Therefore, external enhancements do not seem to be more

difficult to achieve than internal enhancements.

BB)) Incorrect. In lines 37–38, the author states that “cognitive amplification, whether by

external or internal means may constitute evolution if Calvin’s assertion is correct.” The

author, however, neither agrees nor disagrees that the assertion is correct.

CC)) Incorrect. In lines 32–34, the statement “According to Cascio, ‘“people who don’t know

about (such drugs) or don’t want to use them will face stiffer competition from people

who do. From the perspective of a culture immersed in athletic doping wars, the use of

such drugs may seem like cheating’” is not the author’s opinion. It is a quotation from

Cascio, the author of the Get Smart article.

DD)) Correct. In the concluding paragraph, the author states, “Cognitive amplification, whether

by external or internal means may constitute evolution, if Calvin’s assertion is correct.

Some societies may readily embrace it, while others may shy away.”

EE)) Incorrect. Rather than pointing to the possible misuse of personalized software, the

reference to personalized software is positive, in lines 23–26, “Such systems could co–

evolve with people to produce intimate technologies which would become “something

akin to collaborative intuition,” through web–based information systems with

personalized components, according to Cascio.”


A) Correct. In the second paragraph, the author introduces the topic of cognitive

augmentation by stating that the “neurophysicist William Calvin asserts that the human

species continues to evolve cognitively and to create its own cognitive evolution in two

basic ways: external and internal.”

BB)) Incorrect. The author touches on the reaction of society to cognitive enhancement in lines

26–27 when she states, “Somewhat more problematic in social terms might be

pharmacological intelligence augmentation,” in line 34, “the use of such drugs may seem

like cheating,” and in lines 37–38 when she says, “Some societies may readily embrace

it, while others may shy away.” However, these ideas are not developed.

CC)) Incorrect. Although the author discusses both external and internal intelligence

augmentation, she does not say much about the differences between the two types of

cognitive enhancement. The only difference she mentions is in lines 26–27 – “Somewhat

more problematic in social terms might be pharmacological intelligence augmentation.”

DD)) Incorrect. The author mentions societal misgivings regarding cognitive enhancement in

lines 26–27 when she says, “Somewhat more problematic in social terms might be

pharmacological intelligence augmentation,” in line 34, “the use of such drugs may seem

like cheating,” and in lines 37–38 when she says, “Some societies may readily embrace

it, while others may shy away.” The author does not dispel these misgivings.

EE)) Incorrect. In lines 8–25, the author discusses external intelligence augmentation. She does

not mention limitations of any of the enhancements.


Date________________

●● AAddvvaanncceedd CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg -- SSaalltt

Salt is a mineral that consists mostly of sodium chloride (NACl). It is an essential nutrient

for animals, yet it is toxic to most plants. In her novel Tongue, author Kyung Ran Jo recounts

this legend about salt: “A long time ago, a princess told the king, ‘I love you as much as I love

salt.’ Believing it to be an insult, the king banished his daughter from his kingdom. But after a

long time, the king realized the value of salt and the depth of his daughter’s love for him.” 5

Saltiness is one of the basic tastes perceived by the tongue, making it an esteemed and

ubiquitous food flavoring. It also “retains vegetables’ vivid colors when parboiling, removes

astringency from salad greens, freezes ice cream, quickly cools boiling water, maintains the

freshness of cut flowers, removes stains on clothing, alleviates pain in your neck, is an ingredient

in soap,” according to Jo. Darlene McFarlane in her article “15 Household Uses for Table Salt” 10

recommends testing an egg’s freshness by placing it in a cup of salt water. An egg that floats is

not fresh. Ants will not venture onto a salt-covered surface, according to McFarlane, so she

suggests sprinkling it on windowsills and in doorways to repel them from your residence.

Salt’s historical distinction lies not so much in its taste or any of its aforementioned

amazing talents, however, as in its suitability as a preservative. Salt has been used as a food 15

preservative for centuries. One of the oldest documented saltworks is the Xiechi Lake near

Yuncheng in Shanxi, China. Salt was harvested from its surface as early as 6000 B.C. Salt, along

with salted birds and salt fish, was unearthed with funereal offerings in ancient Egyptian tombs

from the third millennium B.C. Less than half a century later, Egypt instituted exportation of salt

fish to the Phoenicians, who in turn traded Egyptian salt fish with their commercial partners 20

throughout North Africa, engendering the establishment of wide-ranging trade associations

throughout the Mediterranean region. Similarly, in the first millennium B.C., Celtic people

exchanged salted meat for wine and other luxury goods from ancient Greece and Rome. The

wide expanse of the Celtic salt trade is exemplified by the shared Celtic, Greek, and Egyptian

root word for salt, hal, which is iterated in the names of saltworks throughout the region: Halle 25

and Schwäbisch Hall in Germany, Halych in Ukraine, and Galicia in Spain.

Throughout history, salt has been deemed a precious commodity. In fact, the word

“salary” is derived from the Middle English salaire, from the Latin salarium, which means a

payment made in salt (sal) or for salt, from salarius which means “pertaining to salt.” Many

historians agree that the Latin word salarium is related to salt and soldiers, but stress that the 30

original association is unclear. Some surmise that soldiers were remunerated in salt. Some

postulate that the word soldier itself is derived from the word for salt. Even today, a hard-

working employee might be said to be “worth his salt” or might be commended for “soldiering

on.”

QQuueessttiioonnss

11.. The author’s primary purpose is to

AA)) relate the history of salt.

BB)) describe the value of salt.

CC)) enumerate the myriad uses of salt.

DD)) discuss the areas where salt was traded.

EE)) explain the etymology of the word “salt.”

22.. In line 21, engendering most closely means

AA)) causing.

BB)) encountering.

CC)) requiring.

DD)) restricting.

EE)) stopping.

33.. The function of the passage’s final sentence is to

AA)) summarize the main uses of salt discussed in the passage.

BB)) explain the etymological roots of several city names.

CC)) repeat the fact that Roman soldiers were paid in salt.

DD)) illustrate the modern uses of salt.

EE)) emphasize the value of salt.



AA)) Incorrect. While the author discusses the history of salt in the first, third, and fourth

paragraphs, and focuses on the history of salt in lines 14-23, the history of salt is not the

main thrust of the passage. The author’s main purpose is to show the value of salt, and

she does so by enumerating its many uses, both now and throughout history, as she does

in lines 7-16, and in underlining its value by showing what a desired commodity it has

been through history. The author shows that salt has historically been a desired

commodity in lines 17-27. She underlines its value by showing that many languages

share the same root word for salt in lines 23-26 which suggests a long history of salt

trade. She then underlines her point by showing that even today’s language retains the

idea that salt is valuable, in the final sentence.

BB)) Correct. In every paragraph, the author discusses the value of salt. In line 5 of the first

paragraph, the phrase “… the king realized the value of salt and the depth of his

daughter’s love for him” mentions the value of salt. In lines 6 and 7 of the second

paragraph, the sentence “Saltiness is one of the basic tastes perceived by the tongue,

making it an esteemed and ubiquitous food flavoring” introduces the paragraph with the

idea of salt’s value by stating that salt is “esteemed,” which means valuable. Line 14

introduces the third paragraph with the phrase “Salt’s historical distinction lies not so

much in its taste…” showing the distinctiveness, or value of salt. And line 27 introduces

the fourth paragraph with the sentence “Throughout history, salt has been deemed a

precious commodity,” which also underlines the value of salt.

CC)) Incorrect. While the author does enumerate many uses for salt in lines 7-14 and 15-16,

she does so in order to illustrate the ways in which salt is valuable.

DD)) Incorrect. While the author does discuss the salt trade in lines 19–25, she does so in order

to illustrate the value of salt. For example, in lines 22-23, the author discusses the salt

trade with the phrase, “in the first millennium B.C., Celtic people exchanged salted meat

for wine and other luxury goods from ancient Greece and Rome” in order to show that

salt was traded for other valuable items.

EE)) Incorrect. While the author does discuss the etymology of various words associated with

the root words of salt in lines 25-34, she does so in order to illustrate the value of salt.

For example, in lines 27-29, the author writes “In fact, the word ‘salary’ is derived from

the Middle English salaire, from the Latin salarium, which means a payment made in salt

(sal) or for salt, from salarius which means ‘pertaining to salt”’ in order to underline the

value of salt.


AA)) Correct. The salt trade caused wide-ranging trade associations throughout the

Mediterranean region

BB)) Incorrect. The phrase “engendering the establishment of wide-ranging trade associations

throughout the Mediterranean region” seems to rule out the possibility that engendering

would mean encountering. It is unlikely that the beginning of the salt trade would have

randomly encountered the beginning of wide–ranging trade in the area. It is more likely

that there would have been a cause-effect relationship between the two situations. The

following discussion of the shared root words for salt, “The wide expanse of the Celtic

salt trade is exemplified by the shared Celtic, Greek, and Egyptian root word for salt, hal,

which is iterated in the names of saltworks throughout the region: Halle and Schwäbisch

Hall in Germany, Halych in Ukraine, and Galicia in Spain” seems to seal the notion that

the salt trade caused increased regional trade.

CC)) Incorrect. While it is true that the beginning of the salt trade caused the increase in trade

in the region, it seems unlikely that the beginning of the salt trade required increased

trade. The section stating that “Egypt instituted exportation of salt fish to the Phoenicians,

who in turn traded Egyptian salt fish with their commercial partners throughout North

Africa, engendering the establishment of wide-ranging trade associations throughout the

Mediterranean region. Similarly, in the first millennium B.C., Celtic people exchanged

salted meat for wine and other luxury goods from ancient Greece and Rome” shows that

increased trade was a mutually advantageous development, but probably not a

requirement.

DD)) Incorrect. It is unlikely that the word engendering would mean restricting. The statement

that “Egypt instituted exportation of salt fish to the Phoenicians, who in turn traded

Egyptian salt fish with their commercial partners throughout North Africa, engendering

the establishment of wide-ranging trade associations throughout the Mediterranean

region. Similarly, in the first millennium B.C., Celtic people exchanged salted meat for

wine and other luxury goods from ancient Greece and Rome” indicates that trade was

increased, not restricted.

EE)) Incorrect. It is unlikely that the word engendering would mean stopping. The statement

that “Egypt instituted exportation of salt fish to the Phoenicians, who in turn traded

Egyptian salt fish with their commercial partners throughout North Africa, engendering

the establishment of wide-ranging trade associations throughout the Mediterranean

region. Similarly, in the first millennium B.C., Celtic people exchanged salted meat for

wine and other luxury goods from ancient Greece and Rome” indicates that trade was

increased, not stopped.


AA)) Incorrect. While the passage does discuss the many uses of salt, including a section in the

final paragraph, “Some surmise that soldiers were remunerated in salt,” which postulates

one use of salt, the final sentences does not summarize these uses as much as it shows

that the value of salt is shown even in today’s idiom.

BB)) Incorrect. While the final paragraph does discuss etymology, as in lines 27-30 which

state, “In fact, the word ‘salary’ is derived from the Middle English salaire, from the

Latin salarium, which means a payment made in salt (sal) or for salt, from salarius which

means ‘pertaining to salt,”’ the section relating to city names is located in lines 25-26

which include the phrase “…root word for salt, hal, which is iterated in the names of

saltworks throughout the region: Halle and Schwäbisch Hall in Germany, Halych in

Ukraine, and Galicia in Spain,” and the final sentence is unrelated to city names; rather, it

shows that the value of salt is shown even in today’s language.

CC)) Incorrect. Lines 31-32 state, “Some surmise that soldiers were remunerated in salt. Some

postulate that the word soldier itself is derived from the word for salt,” however it is by

no means certain that soldiers were paid in salt or that the word solider itself is derived

from the word for salt. These are hypotheses, not facts. The final sentence shows that

even today’s language reflects the value of salt, but it does not say that Roman soldiers

were paid in salt.

DD)) Incorrect. The final sentence does not discuss the modern uses of salt. It discusses the

modern use of language regarding salt. The final sentence, “Even today, a hard-working

employee might be said to be ‘worth his salt’ or might be commended for ‘soldiering

on”’ does not mention the uses of salt.

EE)) Correct. The phrase “a hard-working employee might be said to be ‘worth his salt’”

means that the employee is as valuable as salt, pointing out the value of salt.


Date________________

●● AAddvvaanncceedd CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg –– TThhee GGrreeaatt DDeebbaatteess

The first of the Great Debates, between Senator John F. Kennedy of Massachusetts and

the incumbent Vice President Richard Nixon on September 26, 1960, centered around domestic

issues. The topic of the next debate, on October 7, was a clash over U.S. policy regarding two

small islands off the Chinese coast, and on October 13, this controversy continued. On October

21, the final debate, the candidates focused on American/Cuban relations. 5

Few of the 70 million viewers could have fathomed what this first–ever televised

presidential debate augured, not only for this specific series of debates, but more importantly for

the preeminent role the fledgling medium would play in the future of the political arena.

A pallid Nixon arrived at the Chicago CBS studios after a grueling day of campaigning.

The previous August a knee infection had sidelined him. He was still twenty pounds 10

underweight, and he perspired profusely in an ill–fitting shirt. Moreover, he declined makeup to

burnish his hospital pallor. The freshly–painted studio backdrop had dried to an ashen hue that

obscured his matching suit.

The Democratic contender by contrast exuded a robust glow after a month of

campaigning in California. He had spent his day rehearsing potential questions and relaxing. An 15

aide later admitted that he supplemented his natural glow with a smidge of makeup. He was fit,

trim, and confident.

Despite the remarkably similar agendas and arguments of the Republican and the

Democrat, TV viewers unequivocally believed Kennedy to be the victor – whereas people who

had followed the debates on the radio held the opposite opinion. The age of TV had arrived, and 20

the subsequent party shuffle proved the undeniable potency of television.

QQuueessttiioonnss

11.. The author is mainly concerned about

AA)) the debating styles of John Kennedy and Richard Nixon during the 1960 Great Debates

BB)) the domestic issues which affected the result of 1960 Great Debates

CC)) the health of Richard Nixon at the time of the 1960 Great Debates

DD)) the number of television viewers who tuned in to the 1960 Great Debates

EE)) the effect of television on the results of the 1960 Great Debates

22.. It can be inferred from the passage that

AA)) Kennedy was a better debater than Nixon

BB)) Nixon was the unequivocal winner of the 1960 debates

CC)) The Democrat beat the Republican in the 1960 election

DD)) Nixon was more prepared for the first debate than Kennedy

EE)) Kennedy and Nixon disagreed strongly on issues on the home front.

33.. According to the passage, which of the following was true of Richard Nixon?

AA)) He had a five o’clock shadow during the first debate.

BB)) He wore a brown suit during the first debate.

CC)) He warned of the impending Cuban crisis.

DD)) He limped onstage for the first debate.

EE)) He lost his job after the election.



AA)) The debating styles of John Kennedy and Richard Nixon during the 1960 Great Debates

were similar, since TV viewers and radio listeners ended up with different opinions of

who won the debates.

BB)) The candidates had similar agendas and arguments, so domestic issues were not pivotal.

CC)) Richard Nixon was not sick at the time of the 1960 Great Debates. He was thin and pale,

but there is no mention that he was sick.

DD)) The number of television viewers who tuned in to the 1960 Great Debates was not the

author’s main concern.

EE)) Correct. The effect of television on the results of the 1960 Great Debates was the main

concern of the author


AA)) Kennedy was not a better debater than Nixon: people who followed the debates on radio

thought Nixon had won the debates.

BB)) Nixon was not the unequivocal winner of the 1960 debates; people who watched the

debates on TV thought Kennedy was the winner.

CC)) Correct. The Democrat beat the Republican in the 1960 election; there was a party

shuffle. This is mentioned in the last line (21) of the passage. Since Nixon, the

Republican, was the incumbent, the shuffle resulted in Democrats taking office.

DD)) There is no mention of whether Nixon was more prepared for the first debate than

Kennedy. Kennedy rehearsed the day of the debate.

EE)) Kennedy and Nixon did not disagree strongly on issues on the home front. They had

similar agendas and arguments.


AA)) He had a five o’clock shadow during the first debate. While this fact is widely known, it

is not mentioned in the passage.

BB)) He did not wear a brown suit during the first debate. His suit was obscured by the ashen–

colored – gray – paint.

CC)) Whether Nixon warned of the impending Cuban crisis was not mentioned in the passage.

DD)) Whether Nixon limped is not mentioned in the passage.

EE)) Correct. Nixon lost his job after the election. Since there was a party shuffle, the

incumbent lost his job. The incumbent Vice President was Richard Nixon.


Date________________

●●

BBeeggiinnnniinngg CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg –– TThhee FFlluu

The flu is the common name for influenza. The flu is a respiratory sickness. The flu can

be mild. The flu can be bad. Sometimes the flu can even cause death. Each year in the U.S., 5% -

20% of people get the flu. Each year in the U.S., up to 60 million people get the flu. Each year in

the U.S., about 200,000 people go to the hospital because of the flu. Each year in the U.S., about

36,000 people die from problems related to the flu. 5

The flu is caused by a virus. A virus is a germ. People can spread the virus. The virus can

live in tiny drops of liquid. If you have the virus, you can spread it by coughing. You can get the

virus by touching a something that has the virus on it and then touching your eyes, nose, or

mouth.

A flu shot can prevent the flu. The nasal flu mist can also prevent the flu. The shot and 10

the nose spray are vaccines. Talk to your doctor about getting a vaccine. You can get information

about the flu shot and nasal spray from your local health department.

If you get the flu, you might get a headache. You might have a fever. You might have a

cough and a runny nose. You might have a sore throat. You might feel very tired. Your body

might hurt all over. Some people have diarrhea and vomiting. 15

You can help stop the spread of the flu virus. The Centers for Disease Control remind

you to cover your cough. You should cough into a tissue and throw the tissue away. Or you can

cough into the inside of your elbow, into your own clothing. The Centers for Disease Control

also remind you to clean your hands. You can use hand sanitizer. You should use an alcohol-

based hand sanitizer for the best results. You can use soap and water. You should wash your 20

hands with warm water and soap for at least 20 seconds. Studies show that washing your hands

for 2 minutes with hot, soapy water is the best way to get the most germs off your hands. Be sure

to wash under your fingernails and between your fingers.

QQuueessttiioonnss

11.. According to the passage, which of the following statements is/are true?

II)) At least 5% of the U.S. population gets the flu each year.

IIII)) There are three types of flu vaccine.

IIIIII)) Each year in the U.S., about 20% of people who have the flu die from it.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only


22.. What is the main idea of the fifth paragraph?

AA)) How to wash your hands

BB)) How long to wash your hands

CC)) How to stop the spread of the virus

DD)) What studies have shown about hand-washing

EE)) Why you should cough into your elbow

33.. In line 11, vaccine most closely means

AA)) nose

BB)) health

CC)) protection

DD)) shot

EE)) spray



II)) Correct. Lines 2-3 state that “Each year in the U.S., 5% -20% of people get the flu.”

Therefore, the lowest percentage of people who gets the flu in the U.S. each year is

5%. That means that at least 5% of the U.S. population gets the flu each year.

IIII)) Incorrect. Lines 10-11 state that “The shot and the nose spray are vaccines.” The flu

shot and the nose spray comprise two types of vaccine. While there may be three or

more types of vaccine, only two types of vaccine are mentioned in the passage.

IIIIII)) Incorrect. Line 3 states that “Each year in the U.S., up to 60 million people get the

flu.” Lines 4-5 state that “Each year in the U.S., about 36,000 people die from

problems related to the flu.” Twelve million is 20% of 60 million. Since up to 60

million people in the U.S. have the flu each year, 12 million people in the U.S.

would be about 20% of the people in the U.S. who have the flu. Since about 36,000

people die from problems associated with the flu, the statement is not correct.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only



AA)) Incorrect. While lines 20-23 state that “You should wash your hands with warm water

and soap for at least 20 seconds. Studies show that washing your hands for 2 minutes

with hot, soapy water is the best way to get the most germs off your hands. Be sure to

wash under your fingernails and between your fingers,” this procedure is outlined as a

recommendation of the Centers for Disease Control as a method of stopping the spread of

the flu, not as the main idea of the paragraph.

BB)) Incorrect. While lines 20-23 state that “You should wash your hands with warm water

and soap for at least 20 seconds. Studies show that washing your hands for 2 minutes

with hot, soapy water is the best way to get the most germs off your hands,” this

procedure is outlined as a recommendation of the Centers for Disease Control as a

method of stopping the spread of the flu, not as the main idea of the paragraph.

CC)) Correct. Line 16 states that “You can help stop the spread of the flu virus.” The passage

then outlines methods of stopping the spread of the virus. These include coughing into a

tissue and throwing the tissue away (line 17), coughing into the inside of your elbow (line

18), and cleaning your hands (line 19). The remainder of the paragraph outlines the

recommended methods of cleaning your hands.

DD)) Incorrect. While lines 21-22 state that “Studies show that washing your hands for 2

minutes with hot, soapy water is the best way to get the most germs off your hands,” the

passage gives this information to support the main idea that you can help stop the spread

of the virus (line 16), and that one way of stopping the spread of the virus is by cleaning

your hands (line 19).

EE)) Incorrect. While lines 17-18 state “Or you can cough into the inside of your elbow, into

your own clothing,” the reason for coughing into your elbow is not given.


AA)) Incorrect. Lines 10-11 state that “The shot and the nose spray are vaccines.” Since the

nose spray is a vaccine, the word vaccine cannot mean nose.

BB)) Incorrect. Lines 10-11 state, “The flu shot can prevent the flu. The nasal flu mist can also

prevent the flu. The shot and the nose spray are vaccines. Talk to your doctor about

getting a vaccine.” Since the shot and the nose spray can prevent the flu, they are items

which can promote health. However, they are not health itself. Therefore, the vaccine is

not health itself, but a way of promoting good health.

CC)) Correct. Lines 10-11 state, “The flu shot can prevent the flu. The nasal flu mist can also

prevent the flu. The shot and the nose spray are vaccines.” Since the shot and the nasal

flu mist can both prevent the flu, and both the shot and the nasal flu mist are vaccines, it

stands to reason that the vaccine can protect against the flu. Therefore, the vaccine is a

form of protection from the flu.

DD)) Incorrect. Line 11 states that “The shot and the nose spray are vaccines.” While the shot

is one type of vaccine, it is not the only vaccine, and there is no statement in the text that

all shots are vaccines.

EE)) Incorrect. Line 11 states that “The shot and the nose spray are vaccines.” While the spray

is one type of vaccine, it is not the only vaccine, and there is no statement in the text that

all sprays are vaccines.


Date________________

●●

BBeeggiinnnniinngg CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg –– NNuuttss

There is a small difference between nuts and seeds. Many seeds often are called nuts. For

example, hazelnuts are nuts. Chestnuts are nuts. Beechnuts are nuts. Acorns are nuts. But, Brazil

Nuts are not nuts. Cashews are not nuts. Peanuts are not nuts. Pistachios are not nuts. So what are nuts? A true nut is a fruit with one seed. True nuts have very hard shells.

True nuts do not open on their own. You must crack a true nut to open it. 5

Cooks often call seeds “nuts.” In addition, English speakers often call seeds, “nuts.” The

difference between nuts and seeds is small, so it is not necessarily wrong to call a seed a nut.

Nuts are good for your health. Seeds are also good for your health. Nuts and seeds

contain a lot of oil. They also contain a lot of energy for your body. Nuts are a good snack food.

Seeds are also a good snack food. Nuts are good for the heart. Seeds are also good for the heart. 10

Nuts help you grow. Seeds also help you grow. Nuts are good for the skin. Seeds are also good

for the skin.

Many animals eat nuts. Squirrels eat nuts. Mice eat nuts. Chipmunks eat nuts. Raccoons

eat nuts. Birds eat nuts. Even some dogs eat nuts.

Many animals eat seeds. Birds eat seeds. Mice eat seeds. Even some snakes eat seeds. 15

There are hundreds of nuts that people and animals can eat. There are hundreds of seeds

that people and animals can eat. But many nuts and seeds are inedible. Look in a book or check

on the internet before trying to eat unfamiliar seeds and nuts. Learn if new foods are safe and

healthful by reading about them before tasting them.

QQuueessttiioonnss


II)) Cashews are true nuts.

IIII)) A nut is a fruit.

IIIIII)) True nuts do not open naturally.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only


22.. What is the main idea of the third paragraph?

AA)) Many cooks do not understand what nuts are.

BB)) In normal speech, some seeds are called nuts.

CC)) Seeds are nuts, but nuts are not seeds.

DD)) Nuts and seeds are small.

EE)) The English language uses the wrong words for seeds.

33.. In line 17, inedible most closely means

AA)) familiar

BB)) not good for health

CC)) not able to be eaten

DD)) unbelievable

EE)) safe to eat



II)) Incorrect. Line 3 states that “Cashew nuts are not nuts.”

IIII)) Correct. Line 4 states that “A true nut is a fruit with one seed.”

IIIIII)) Correct. Line 5 states that “True nuts do not open on their own.” Since they do not

open on their own, they do not open naturally.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only



AA)) Incorrect. While line 6 states that “Cooks often call seeds “nuts,” it does not state that

cooks do not understand what nuts are. It is a statement of language use, not a statement

of knowledge. Since it is an incorrect interpretation of the sentence, it is not the main

idea of the paragraph.

BB)) Correct. Line 6 states that “…English speakers often call seeds, “nuts.”

CC)) Incorrect. Lines 6-7 state that “difference between nuts and seeds is small.” There is

nothing which says that seeds are nuts. So this cannot be the main idea of the

paragraph.

DD)) Incorrect. While it may be true that most nuts and seeds are small, the sentence in lines 6-

7 actually states that the difference between nuts and seeds is small. So this is not the

main idea of the paragraph.

EE)) Incorrect. Lines 6-7 state that “In addition, English speakers often call seeds, “nuts.” The

difference between nuts and seeds is small, so it is not necessarily wrong to call a seed a

nut.”


AA)) Incorrect. Since the following sentence (lines 17-18) reminds readers to “Look in a book

or check on the internet before trying to eat unfamiliar seeds and nuts.” If the seeds and

nuts are unfamiliar, they cannot be familiar. So the word inedible cannot mean

familiar.

BB)) Incorrect. Lines 18-19 remind readers to “Learn if new foods are safe and healthful …”

To learn if foods are healthful means to learn whether foods are good for health.

Checking whether they are good for health means that it is unknown whether the food is

good for health or not.

CC)) Correct. Inedible food is food that is unable to be eaten.

DD)) Incorrect. The word inedible is similar to the word “incredible,” which means

unbelievable. The word incredible is not used in this reading passage.

EE)) Incorrect. Lines 18-19 remind readers to “Learn if new foods are safe and healthful …”

To learn if foods are safe means that it is unknown whether the foods are safe or not. So

the word inedible cannot mean safe.


Date________________

●●

BBeeggiinnnniinngg CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg –– PPaappeerr

Paper has many uses. People draw on paper. People paint on paper. People write on

paper. People clean with paper. People make boxes out of paper. People blow their noses on

paper. Books are made of paper. Magazines are made of paper. Some money is printed on paper.

Sandpaper is made of paper. Wallpaper is made of paper.

Some paper is made from plants. Some paper is made from cotton. Some paper is made 5

from bamboo. Some paper is made from wheat. Most paper is made from trees. 95% of paper is

made from trees. Some paper is made from pine trees. Some paper is made from oak trees. Some

paper is made from maple trees. Some paper is recycled. When paper is recycled, new paper is

made from old paper.

Some people say they work in paper-free offices. Some people think computers will take 10

away the need for paper. But people will always need to blow their noses. People will want to

sand surfaces with sandpaper. People will want to paint or draw on paper. People will want to

put things in paper boxes. So, people will probably need to use paper for many more years.

QQuueessttiioonnss


II)) Ninety-five percent of paper is made from pine trees.

IIII)) Computers will take away the need for paper.

IIIIII)) There will probably always be uses for paper.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only


22.. What is the main idea of the second paragraph?

AA)) What is made of paper

BB)) What paper is made of

CC)) What people think of paper

DD)) The many uses of paper

EE)) The future of paper

33.. In line 12, sand most closely means

AA)) grainy mineral

BB)) paint or color

CC)) polish or smooth

DD)) use for storage

EE)) draw



II)) Incorrect. According to line 7, “Ninety–five percent of paper is made from trees.

Some paper is made from pine trees.”

IIII)) Incorrect. According to lines 10-11, “Some people think computers will take away

the need for paper.” So while it might be true that computers will take away the

need for paper, the passage states that it is some people’s opinion, not a fact.

IIIIII)) Correct. According to lines 13-14, “People will probably always need to use paper.”

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only



AA)) Incorrect. The second paragraph tells what paper is made of. For example, according to

line 5, “Some paper is made from plants. Some paper is made from cotton.” The first

paragraph tells what is made of paper. According to lines 3-4, “Books are made of paper.

Magazines are made of paper.”

BB)) Correct. The second paragraph tells what paper is made of. For example, according to

line 5, “Some paper is made from plants. Some paper is made from cotton.”

CC)) Incorrect. The second paragraph tells what paper is made of. For example, according to

line 5, “Some paper is made from plants. Some paper is made from cotton.” The third

paragraph contains some information about what people think. For example, according

to lines 10-11, “Some people think computers will take away the need for paper.”

DD)) Incorrect. The second paragraph tells what paper is made of. For example, according to

line 5, “Some paper is made from plants. Some paper is made from cotton.” The first

paragraph tells about the many uses of paper. For example, according to line 1, “Paper

has many uses. People draw on paper. People paint on paper.”

EE)) Incorrect. The second paragraph tells what paper is made of. For example, according to

line 5, “Some paper is made from plants. Some paper is made from cotton.” The third

paragraph discusses the future of paper. For example, according to lines 10-11, “Some

people think computers will take away the need for paper. But people will always need to

blow their noses.”


AA)) Incorrect. In lines 11–12, the word sand is used as a verb. According to the passage,

“Some people will want to sand surfaces with sandpaper.” While the word sand does

sometimes refer to a mineral, that usage of sand is a noun, not a verb. So in this case,

the word sand cannot mean a grainy mineral.

BB)) Incorrect. While it is true that people paint or color on surfaces and that there is a

reddish–brown color which is called sand, paint or color is probably not the meaning of

sand as it is used in this line, because the following sentence states that “Some people

will want to paint or draw on paper.”

CC)) Correct. The meaning of sand in this sentence is to smooth or polish. Since sandpaper

has a rainy surface, it smoothes or polishes other surfaces when it is rubbed against them.

DD)) Incorrect. Since the third paragraph contains a listing of possible future uses of paper,

storage does appear as one of the possible uses. However, it appears in line 13 – “Some

people will want to put things in paper boxes.” Since putting things in boxes is storing

things, this is the sentence where storage is listed. So it is unlikely that sand means use

for storage.

EE)) Incorrect. Since the third paragraph is a listing of possible future uses of paper,

drawing on paper does appear as one of the possible future uses. However it is used in

lines 13-14, “Some people will want to paint or draw on paper.” So sand probably does

not refer to drawing.


Date________________

●●

BBeeggiinnnniinngg CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg –– SSooaappss aanndd DDeetteerrggeennttss

Soaps and detergents are used for washing. Soaps and detergents are used for cleaning.

People usually use detergent to wash clothes. People usually use detergent to wash dishes.

People usually use soap to wash their bodies.

Soap has a long history. There was soap in Ancient Babylon. There was soap in Ancient

Egypt. Some people think there was soap before people wrote history. 5

Soap and detergent are similar, but soap and detergent are not exactly the same. Soaps are

made of natural products. Detergents are made of man-made products.

In some cases, soap is better than detergent. For example, soap is milder on the skin.

Soap is milder on the environment. Soap is biodegradable – nature’s processes clean soap up.

Soap does not build up in rivers. Soap does not cause pollution in rivers. Soap does not build up 10

in streams. Soap does not cause pollution in streams.

In some cases, detergent is better than soap. For example, soap builds up in clothes after

many washings. Detergent does not build up in clothes after many washings. Soap loses its

cleaning power in clothes over time. Detergent does not lose its cleaning power in clothes over

time. 15

QQuueessttiioonnss


II)) Soap is made of natural or man-made products.

IIII)) Detergents are less mild than soaps.

IIIIII)) Detergent washes out of clothing.

IIVV))

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only


22.. What is the main idea of the fifth paragraph?

AA)) How soaps and detergents are made

BB)) What soap and detergent are used for

CC)) Which product causes less pollution

DD)) How soap loses its cleaning power

EE)) When detergent is better than soap

33.. In line 9, biodegradable most closely means

AA)) man-made

BB)) dangerous

CC)) permanent

DD)) easy to clean up

EE)) hard to clean up



II)) Incorrect. Line 7 states that “Soaps are made of natural products. Detergents are

made of man-made products.”

IIII)) Correct. Lines 8-9 state that “For example, soap is milder on the skin. Soap is

milder on the environment.” Since soap is milder than detergent, detergent is less

mild than soap.

IIIIII)) Correct. Line 14 states that “Detergent does not build up in clothes after many

washings.” Since detergent does not build up, or stay, in clothing, it must wash out.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only



AA)) Incorrect. Line 7 in the third paragraph explains how soap and detergent are made of

different products, when it states that “Soaps are made of natural products. Detergents are

made of man-made products,” the fifth paragraph gives examples of ways in which

detergent is sometimes better than soap. For example, the fifth paragraph states that

“Soap loses its cleaning power in clothes over time. Detergent does not lose its cleaning

power in clothes over time.”

BB)) Incorrect. While lines 1-2 explain the uses of soaps and detergents when they state that

“Soaps and detergents are used for washing. Soaps and detergents are used for cleaning,”

the fifth paragraph gives examples of ways in which detergent is sometimes better than

soap. For example, the fifth paragraph states that “Soap loses its cleaning power in

clothes over time. Detergent does not lose its cleaning power in clothes over time.”

CC)) Incorrect. While lines 9-11 explain that soap causes less pollution when they state that

“Soap is milder on the environment. Soap is biodegradable – nature’s processes clean

soap up. Soap does not build up in rivers. Soap does not cause pollution in rivers. Soap

does not build up in streams. Soap does not cause pollution in streams,” the fifth

paragraph gives examples of ways in which detergent is sometimes better than soap. For

example, the fifth paragraph states that “Soap loses its cleaning power in clothes over

time. Detergent does not lose its cleaning power in clothes over time.”

DD)) Incorrect. While line 14 states that “Soap loses its cleaning power in clothes over time,” it

does not tell how soap loses its cleaning power.

EE)) Correct. The fifth paragraph gives examples of ways in which detergent is sometimes

better than soap. For example, the fifth paragraph states that “Soap loses its cleaning

power in clothes over time. Detergent does not lose its cleaning power in clothes over

time.”


AA)) Incorrect. Since line 7 states that “Soaps are made of natural products,” and line 9 states

that “Soap is biodegradable,” the word biodegradable cannot mean man-made.

BB)) Incorrect. Since lines 8-9 state that “soap is milder on the skin. Soap is milder on the

environment,” and line 9 states that “Soap is biodegradable,” the word biodegradable

cannot mean dangerous.

CC)) Incorrect. Since lines 9-10 state that “nature’s processes clean soap up,” the word

biodegradable cannot mean permanent.

DD)) Correct. Since lines 9-10 state that “nature’s processes clean soap up,” the word

biodegradable probably means easy to clean up.

EE)) Incorrect. Since lines 9-10 state that “nature’s processes clean soap up,” the word

biodegradable probably doesn’t mean hard to clean up.


Date________________

●●

BBeeggiinnnniinngg CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg –– TThhee SSuunn

The sun is a star. The sun is at the center of the solar system. The sun is the largest object

in the solar system. It is more than 99.8% of the mass of the solar system. More than one million

earths could fit inside the sun!

From earth, the sun looks like a yellow ball in the sky. A long time ago, people didn’t

know what the sun was. Many people told stories about the sun. People in many countries told 5

stories about the sun. In some stories, people said the sun was a god. Some people gave names to

the sun. The Greeks named it Helios. The Romans named it Sol. The name Solar System comes

from the Roman name Sol.

The sun is very hot. On the surface, it is about 5,510 ° Celsius. That’s equal to about

11,000 ° Fahrenheit. The inside of the sun is even hotter. The core of the sun is 15,000,000 °C! 10

That’s 27,000,000 °F!

The light from the sun is very bright. People must not look directly at the sun. Looking

directly at the sun will hurt your eyes.

People need the sun’s heat and light to live. Animals need the sun’s heat and light to live.

Plants need the sun’s heat and light to live. Plants make food with sunlight. People and animals 15

eat the plants. Plants also use the sun to make oxygen. People and animals need to breathe

oxygen.

Today people do not tell stories about the sun. Today people do not think the sun is a god.

But, people know that the sun is necessary for life on earth.

20

QQuueessttiioonnss


II)) The sun is over a million times brighter than the earth.

IIII)) Some people used to think the sun was a god.

IIIIII)) The sun’s surface is cooler than its core.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only


22.. The main idea of the second paragraph is to explain

AA)) what the sun is.

BB)) what the sun looks like.

CC)) how people reacted to the sun.

DD)) who the Greeks and Romans were.

EE)) who did not know what the sun was.

33.. In line 10, core most closely means

AA)) center

BB)) gas

CC)) oxygen

DD)) surface

EE)) temperature



II)) Incorrect. While lines 2-3 state that more than a million earths could fit inside the

sun, there is no mention there that the sun is a million times brighter than the earth.

And while line 12 states that the light from the sun is very bright, it does not

compare the brightness of the sun to the brightness of the earth. So while the sun

may be a million times brighter than the earth, there is no such statement in the

passage.

IIII)) Correct. Line 6 states that in some stories, people said the sun was a god.

IIIIII)) Correct. Lines 9-11 state that the surface temperature is 5510 °C or 11,000 °F,

whereas the core, or inside of the sun is 15,000,000 °C or 27,000,000 °F. So the

surface of the sun is much cooler than its core.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only



AA)) Incorrect. While lines 4-5 state that a long time ago, people didn’t know what the sun

was, there is no explanation in paragraph 2 of what the sun is.

BB)) Incorrect. While line 4 states that from earth, the sun looks like a yellow ball in the sky,

this information is given only as background information, not as the main idea of the

paragraph.

CC)) Correct. The first sentence of the paragraph tells what the sun looks like. The remainder

of the paragraph tells about people’s reactions to the sun – that they didn’t know what it

was, that they told stories about it; also that some people thought it was a god, and that

some people named it.

DD)) Incorrect. While line 6 states “The Greeks named it Helios. The Romans named it Sol,”

there is no explanation of who the Greeks and Romans were.

EE)) Incorrect. While lines 4-5 state that a long time ago, people did not know what the sun

was, there is no mention of the specific people who did not know what it was. While

lines 6-7 state that the Greeks and Romans gave names to the sun, the passage does not

specify that they did not know what the sun was.


AA)) Correct. Lines 9 and 10 compare the surface temperature of the sun with the temperature

of its core: “The inside of the sun is even hotter. The core of the sun is 15,000,000 °C!”

BB)) Incorrect. While the sun is made of gas, in this passage, the gas is not mentioned.

Instead, this section compares the surface of the sun to the core of the sun. Since both the

surface and the core would be made of the same material, the meaning gas would not

make sense for the word core.

CC)) Incorrect. Lines 9 and 10 compare the surface temperature of the sun with the

temperature of its core. Lines 16-17 state that plants use sunlight to make oxygen, not

that the sun itself is made of oxygen.

DD)) Incorrect. Lines 9-10 compare the temperature of the surface of the sun with the

temperature of the core. Since the comparison is made between the surface and the core,

the word core could not mean surface.

EE)) Incorrect. Lines 9-10 compare the heat level (which is the temperature) of the surface of

the sun with the heat level of the core of the sun. Since the comparison is being made of

the temperature of the surface and the temperature of the core, the word core could not

mean temperature.


Date________________

●●

BBeeggiinnnniinngg CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg –– TThhee WWhhiittee HHoouussee

The White House is the home and office of the President of the United States. The

White House is located at 1600 Pennsylvania Avenue in Washington, D.C. The first

president to live in the White House was John Adams. He moved into the White House in

1800. Now President Barack Obama lives in the White House.

An architect named James Hoban made the plans for the White House. Hoban 5

won a design contest held by Pierre Charles L’Enfant. L’Enfant was the main architect

for the capital city of Washington, D.C. The White House was built between 1792 and

1800. It was built of limestone and painted white.

During the War of 1812, the British Army set fire to the White House. President

James Madison moved out while the house was rebuilt. In 1817, James Monroe moved 10

into the White House.

At first, people called the building the “President’s Palace.” However, because

kings and queens live in palaces, “President’s Palace” was not a good name for the house.

President Theodore Roosevelt gave the building the name it has today – The White

House. 15

QQuueessttiioonnss 11.. According to the passage, which of the following statements is/are true?

II)) All the Presidents of the United States have lived in the White House.

IIII)) The White House was painted white to cover up marks left from the fire.

IIIIII)) James Madison was President of the United States during the War of 1812.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only


22.. What is the main idea of the second paragraph?

AA)) The main architect of the capital city

BB)) The design and construction of the White House

CC)) The building materials and color of the White House

DD)) The years of White House construction

EE)) The reasons for building the White House

33.. In line 12, palace most closely means

AA)) office

BB)) castle

CC)) home

DD)) building

EE)) tower



II)) Incorrect. Lines 2-4 state that “The first president to live in the White House was

John Adams. He moved into the White House in 1800. Now President Barack

Obama lives in the White House. Lines 9-11 state that “During the War of 1812, the

British Army set fire to the White House. President James Madison moved out

while the house was rebuilt. In 1817, James Monroe moved into the White House.

While other Presidents may have lived in the White House, only these four

Presidents are said in the passage to live or have lived there.

IIII)) Incorrect. Line 8 states that “The house was built of limestone and painted white.”

Line 9 states that “During the War of 1812, the British Army set fire to the White

House.” While the House may have been repainted to cover the marks of the fire,

there is no mention of this idea in the passage.

IIIIII)) Correct. Lines 9-10 state that “During the War of 1812, the British Army set fire to

the White House. President James Madison moved out while the house was

rebuilt.”

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only



AA)) Incorrect. While lines 6-7 explain that Pierre Charles L’Enfant was the main architect of

the capital city, this information is background information to explain the selection of

Hoban as the White House architect; it is not the main idea.

BB)) Correct. The entire paragraph is about the design and construction of the White House.

The only sentence which is not directly about the design and construction of the White

House is in lines 6-7: “L’Enfant was the main architect for the capital city of Washington,

D.C.” This sentence is background information to explain the selection of the White

House architect.

CC)) Incorrect. While line 8 states that “The house was built of limestone and painted white,”

this information is only part of the main idea of the paragraph, which is the design and

construction of the White House.

DD)) Incorrect. While lines 7-8 state that “The White House was built between 1792 and

1800,” this information is only part of the main idea of the paragraph, which is the

design and construction of the White House.

EE)) Incorrect. While lines 5-6 explain the reason that James Hoban was selected as the White

House architect, there is no mention in the paragraph of the reason for building the White

House.


AA)) Incorrect. While line 1 states that “The White House is the home and office of the

President of the United States,” the word palace cannot mean office. A phrase in line 13

states that “kings and queens live in palaces.” Since kings and queens do not live in

offices, this cannot be the correct response.

BB)) Correct. A phrase in line 13 states that “kings and queens live in palaces.” Since kings

and queens live in castles, it stands to reason that palaces are the same as castles.

CC)) Incorrect. While line 1 states that “The White House is the home and office of the

President of the United States,” the word palace probably does not mean home. A phrase

in line 13 states that “kings and queens live in palaces.” Since kings and queens usually

do not live in typical homes, this is probably not the correct response.

DD)) Incorrect. The word palace probably does not mean building. A phrase in line 13 states

that “kings and queens live in palaces.” Since kings and queens do not live in generic

buildings, this is probably not the correct response.

EE)) Incorrect. The word palace probably does not mean tower. A phrase in line 13 states that

“kings and queens live in palaces.” Since kings and queens do not live in towers, this is

probably not the correct response.


Date________________

●●

BBeeggiinnnniinngg CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg -- WWaatteerr

Water is the most common liquid in the world. Lakes contain water. Rivers contain

water. Ponds contain water. Canals contain water. Oceans contain water. The water in rivers,

ponds, and canals is fresh water. The water in oceans is salt water.

About 70% of the world is covered by water. About 97% of water in the world is salt

water. Only 3% of the world’s water is fresh water. Fresh water is not salty. 5

People usually think of water as a liquid. But water freezes to form a solid. The solid is

called ice. And water boils to form a gas. The gas is called steam or vapor.

Clouds are made of water. Water falls from clouds as rain. When it is cold, water falls as

snow. Sometimes water falls as sleet. Sleet is partly water and partly ice. Sometimes water falls

as hail. Hail is ice. 10

People need water to live. Animals need water to live. Insects need water to live. Plants

need water to live. All living things in the world need water to live.

People all over the world need to drink clean water to live. About one billion people in

the world do not have clean drinking water. The largest cause of preventable human death in the

world is drinking water that is unsanitary. 15

QQuueessttiioonnss


II)) Ninety-seven percent of snow is made of salt water.

IIII)) The largest cause of preventable human death is drinking water that is unsanitary..

IIIIII)) About 1,000,000,000 people in the world do not have clean water to drink.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only


22.. What is the main idea of the first paragraph?

AA)) Fresh water is necessary for life.

BB)) Most water in the world is salt water.

CC)) Water is the most common liquid in the world.

DD)) People cannot drink most of the world’s water.

EE)) Only 3% of the world’s water is not salt water.

33.. In line 15, unsanitary most closely means

AA)) not available

BB)) not clean

CC)) not in liquid form

DD)) used for another purpose

EE)) salty



II)) Incorrect. While line 3 states that 97% of the world’s water is salty, there is no

information in the passage concerning the amount of salt, if any, in snow.

IIII)) Correct. Lines 13-14 state that the largest cause of preventable human death is

drinking water that is unsanitary. Unsanitary means not clean.

IIIIII)) Correct. Lines 12-13 state that one billion people in the world do not have clean

drinking water. One billion is the written form of the number 1,000,000,000.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only



AA)) Incorrect. While the last paragraph states that water is necessary for life, this information

is not given in the first paragraph.

BB)) Incorrect. While line 3 states that most of the world’s water is salt water, this is not the

main idea of the paragraph.

CC)) Correct. The first sentence of the paragraph states that water is the most common liquid

in the world. Lines 2-4 expand that idea. Therefore, it is the main idea of the paragraph.

DD)) Incorrect. While it is true that people do not drink salt water, and it is true that 97% of the

world’s water is saltwater, as stated in line 3, this information is not stated in paragraph

1.

EE)) Incorrect. While lines 3-4 state that only 3% of the world’s water is not salty, this

information is given as support for the main idea – that water is the most common liquid

in the world.


AA)) Incorrect. While it is possible that water is not available to people in many places in the

world because only 3% of the world’s water is not salty, there is no mention in the

passage that water is not available.

BB)) Correct. Unsanitary water is not clean.

CC)) Incorrect. While lines 5-9 give information about water that is not in liquid form, there is

no mention that these forms of water would cause death.

DD)) Incorrect. Although it is true that water is used for many purposes other than drinking,

there is no mention of these purposes in the passage.

EE)) Incorrect. While lines 2-4 discuss salt water, and while drinking salt water may cause

death, there is no mention in the passage that salt water causes death.


Date________________

●●

IInntteerrmmeeddiiaattee CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg -- CClloocckkss

Clocks are used to measure time. Clocks are used to show the time. Clocks are used so

that people can agree on the time.

People use clocks to measure units of time that are shorter than natural units. Natural

units are the day, the month, and the year. The sun rises at the beginning of each day. The moon

is new at the beginning of each month. The sun appears at the same place in the sky at the 5

beginning of each year.

The clock is a very old invention. Sundials were used in ancient times. Sundials work by

measuring shadows that are cast by the sun. Candle clocks were used a very long time ago.

Candle clocks work by measuring the time it takes for the wax to melt. Hourglasses are similar to

candle clocks because they also measure the time it takes for something to happen. Hourglasses 10

work by measuring the time it takes for sand to pour through a small opening into a glass.

Mechanical clocks appeared in the 13th

century in Europe. They work with a system of moving

gears. The gears always move at the same speed. Pendulum clocks work with a swinging weight.

The swinging weight is called a pendulum. The pendulum makes the clock parts move.

Now people typically use mechanical clocks or digital clocks. Digital clocks show 15

numbers on a screen. The numbers represent the time. Some people use auditory clocks.

Auditory clocks use language to tell the time aloud. Computers also use clocks. Computers use

internal clocks in order to work properly.

In today’s world, clocks are everywhere –– in homes, schools, offices, and public places.

Many people live their lives according to the clock. People go to work and return home 20

according to the clock. School days start and end according to the clock. Airplanes take off and

land according to the clock. It is fun to imagine a world without clocks!

QQuueessttiioonnss


II)) The clock is people’s oldest invention.

IIII)) Sundials were the first kind of clock that people invented.

IIIIII)) Mechanical clocks contain gears.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only


22.. What is the main idea of the third paragraph?

AA)) Why clocks are used

BB)) How sundials work

CC)) How hourglasses are similar to candle clocks

DD)) What types of clocks have been invented

EE)) How mechanical clocks are different from digital clocks

33.. In line 16, auditory most closely means

AA)) related to machines

BB)) related to numbers

CC)) related to hearing

DD)) related to moving parts

EE)) related to the sun



II)) Incorrect. While line 7 states that “The clock is a very old invention,” it does not

state that the clock is people’s oldest invention.

IIII)) Incorrect. While line 7 states that “Sundials were used in ancient times,” there is no

mention of whether it was the oldest type of clock.

IIIIII)) Correct. Lines 11-12 state that “Mechanical clocks appeared in the 13th

century in

Europe. They work with a system of moving gears.”

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only



AA)) Incorrect. Line 3 in paragraph 2 explains why clocks are used with the statement

“People use clocks to measure units of time that are shorter than natural units.”

BB)) Incorrect. While lines 7-8 explain how sundials work with the statement “Sundials work

by measuring shadows that are cast by the sun,” this is only one explanation of how a

type of clock works in a series of types of clocks and their workings. This is not the main

idea of the paragraph.

CC)) Incorrect. While lines 9-10 explain how hourglasses are similar to candle clocks, this is

only one explanation of how these clocks work in a series of types of clocks and how

they work. This is not the main idea of the paragraph.

DD)) Correct. The paragraph is a listing of various types of clocks and how they work.

EE)) Incorrect. While lines 12-13 explain what mechanical clocks are and how they work by

stating “Mechanical clocks appeared in the 13th

century in Europe. They work with a

system of moving gears. The gears always move at the same speed,” there is no mention

of digital clocks in paragraph 3. More information is given about mechanical clocks and

digital clocks in paragraph 4: “Now people usually use mechanical clocks or digital

clocks. Digital clocks show numbers on a screen. The numbers represent the time.”


AA)) Incorrect. Lines 15-17 tell about three kinds of clocks – mechanical, digital, and

auditory. Since these words are related to three different types of clocks, auditory

cannot mean mechanical.

BB)) Incorrect. Lines 15-17 tell about three kinds of clocks – mechanical, digital, and

auditory. Lines 15–16 state that “Digital clocks show numbers on a screen.” Since

numbers on a screen are related to digital clocks, it is unlikely that the word auditory is

related to numbers.

CC)) Correct. Since line 17 states that “Auditory clocks use language to tell the time aloud,”

and hearing the sense which would be associated with time told aloud, it is very likely

that the word auditory is related to hearing.

DD)) Incorrect. Lines 15-17 tell about three types of clocks – mechanical, digital, and

auditory. Since lines 12-13 state that “Mechanical clocks appeared in the 13th

century in

Europe.” and “They work with a system of moving gears,” it seems that mechanical

clocks are related to moving parts, not primarily auditory clocks. So the word auditory is

most likely not related to moving parts.

EE)) Incorrect. Lines 15-17 tell about three types of clocks – mechanical, digital, and auditory.

The sun is mentioned in lines 6-8 with the sentences “Sundials were used in ancient

times. Sundials work by measuring shadows that are cast by the sun.” Sundials were

invented long before other clocks mentioned in this passage. It is unlikely that the word

auditory is related to the sun.


Date________________

●●

IInntteerrmmeeddiiaattee CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg –– HHyybbrriidd VVeehhiicclleess

A hybrid vehicle is a vehicle which uses two or more kinds of propulsion. Most hybrid

vehicles use a conventional gasoline engine as well as an electric motor to provide power to the

vehicle. These are usually called hybrid-electric-vehicles, or HEVs. Hybrids use two types of

propulsion in order to use gasoline more efficiently than conventional vehicles do. Most hybrid

vehicles use the gasoline engine as a generator which sends power to the electric motor. The 5

electric motor then powers the car. In conventional vehicles, the gasoline engine powers the

vehicle directly.

Since the main purpose of using a hybrid system is to efficiently use resources, most

hybrid vehicles also use other efficient systems. Most hybrid vehicles have regenerative braking

systems. In conventional vehicles, the gasoline engine powers the brakes, and the energy used in 10

braking is lost. In regenerative braking systems, the energy lost in braking is sent back into the

electrical battery for use in powering the vehicle. Some hybrid vehicles use periodic engine shut-

off as a gas–saving feature. When the vehicle is in idle, the engine temporarily turns off. When

the vehicle is put back in gear, the engine comes back on. Some hybrids use tires made of a stiff

material which rolls easily and prevents drag on the vehicle. 15

Hybrid vehicles save up to 30% of the fuel used in conventional vehicles. Since hybrid

vehicles use less gasoline, the cost of operating them is less than the cost of operating

conventional vehicles. Therefore, hybrid vehicles are gaining in popularity. According to a

recent study, over the five years it typically takes for a person to pay for a car, a typical hybrid

car driver would save over $6,000 in gasoline costs. Almost all the world’s major automakers are 20

planning and producing safe and comfortable hybrid vehicles to meet the demand for these

increasingly popular vehicles.

Although hybrid vehicles do represent a marked improvement in environmentally

conscious engineering, there still remains one significant potential drawback: battery disposal.

Batteries are difficult to dispose of in an environmentally safe manner. To properly dispose of 25

the battery in a hybrid car requires substantial effort. If the battery is not disposed of properly,

the environmental impact of a hybrid car can be equal, if not greater than, that of a regular gas

only car.

Since hybrid vehicles use less gasoline than conventional vehicles, they put fewer

emissions into the atmosphere than conventional vehicles do. As hybrids become more popular, 30

conventional vehicles are being used less, and the level of emissions being put into the air is

decreasing. Hybrid vehicles are an example of an energy-efficient technology that is good for

both consumers and the environment.

QQuueessttiioonnss


II)) Two braking systems are used in most hybrid vehicles.

IIII)) Approximately 30% of vehicles on the road are hybrid vehicles.

IIIIII)) Some HEVs have engines which turn off when the vehicle is not moving.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only


22.. According to the passage, HEVs use two types of propulsion mainly in order to

AA)) go faster.

BB)) use gasoline efficiently.

CC)) provide a comfortable ride.

DD)) provide a safe driving experience.

EE)) put fewer emissions into the atmosphere.

33.. In line 9, regenerative most closely means

AA)) electric

BB)) gasoline

CC)) powerful

DD)) restorative

EE)) second–generation

44.. In the context of the passage, which of the following best articulates how the author regards

the topic?

AA)) Conventional vehicles may be more powerful than hybrid vehicles, but hybrid vehicles

are the more socially responsible vehicles to operate.

BB)) Since hybrid vehicles use less gasoline and put fewer emissions into the atmosphere than

conventional vehicles, they are better for drivers and for the environment.

CC)) Conventional vehicles are faster than hybrid vehicles, but hybrid vehicles are better for

the environment than conventional vehicles.

DD)) Since hybrid vehicles are much less expensive to purchase and operate than conventional

vehicles, they are a smarter buy than conventional vehicles.

EE)) Two sources of propulsion provide more power to a hybrid vehicle, making it more

powerful and faster than a conventional vehicle, so it is more socially responsible to buy

a conventional vehicle.



II)) Incorrect. According to line 1, “A hybrid vehicle is a vehicle which uses two or

more kinds of propulsion,” not braking systems. While line 9 states that “Most

hybrid vehicles have regenerative braking systems,” there is no mention that they

use any additional type of braking system.

IIII)) Incorrect. While line 16 states that “Hybrid vehicles save up to 30% of the fuel used

in conventional vehicles,” there is no mention of the percentage of hybrid vehicles

on the road.

IIIIII)) Correct. Some HEVs have engines which turn off when the vehicle is not moving.

According to line 13, “When the vehicle is in idle, the engine temporarily turns

off.”

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only



AA)) Incorrect. There is no mention of the vehicles’ speed anywhere in the passage.

BB)) Correct. According to line 8, “the main purpose of using a hybrid system is to efficiently

use resources,” and lines 16–17 and 23 state that “hybrid vehicles use less gasoline,” and

since the fuel source, or resource, of conventional vehicles is gasoline, this is the correct

answer.

CC)) Incorrect. While line 21 states that “automakers are planning and producing safe and

comfortable hybrid vehicles,” line 8 states that “the main purpose of using a hybrid

system is to efficiently use resources.”

DD)) Incorrect. While line 21 states that “automakers are planning and producing safe and

comfortable hybrid vehicles,” line 8 states that “the main purpose of using a hybrid

system is to efficiently use resources.”

EE)) Incorrect. While lines 29-30 state that hybrid vehicles “put fewer emissions into the

atmosphere than conventional vehicles do,” line 8 states that “the main purpose of using

a hybrid system is to efficiently use resources.”


AA)) Incorrect. According to lines 11–12, “In regenerative braking systems, the energy lost in

braking is sent back into the electrical battery for use in powering the vehicle.” If the

braking systems were electric, the energy would come from the electric system; it would

not be sent to the electrical system. So regenerative cannot mean electric.

BB)) Incorrect. According to lines 10–12, “In conventional vehicles, the gasoline engine

powers the brakes, and the energy used in braking is lost. In regenerative braking

systems, the energy lost in braking is sent back into the electrical battery for use in

powering the vehicle.” Since gasoline engines are compared to systems which use

regenerative braking, gasoline cannot mean the same as regenerative.

CC)) Incorrect. Lines 8–9 state that “most hybrid vehicles also use other efficient systems.

Most hybrid vehicles have regenerative braking systems.” Although it is possible that an

efficient system could be powerful, power is not its main attribute – efficiency is. So it is

unlikely that regenerative means powerful.

DD)) Correct. According to lines 11–12, “In regenerative braking systems, the energy lost in

braking is sent back into the electrical battery for use in powering the vehicle.” So the

energy puts back or restores the electrical battery’s power, which means that the word

regenerative is likely to mean restorative.

EE)) Incorrect. Since the word regenerative contains the prefix re– and the root word

generative, it seems logical that it could mean second–generation, especially coupled

with the idea that hybrid vehicles are a new type or new generation of vehicles. However,

the sentence in lines 11–12, “In regenerative braking systems, the energy lost in braking

is sent back into the electrical battery for use in powering the vehicle” seems to indicate

that the word regenerative describes the action or function of the braking system rather

than its place in vehicular genealogy.


AA)) Incorrect. While it may be true that conventional vehicles are more powerful than hybrid

vehicles, there is no mention in the passage that conventional vehicles are more

powerful than hybrid vehicles.

BB)) Correct. In the last paragraph, the author makes all of these points. Lines 16-17 state that

“Since hybrid vehicles use less gasoline than conventional vehicles, they put fewer

emissions into the atmosphere than conventional vehicles do.” Lines 32-33 state that

“Hybrid vehicles are an example of an energy–efficient technology that is good for both

consumers and the environment.” The author does mention the potential drawbacks in

improper battery disposal, but this does not contradict their overall view regarding the

benefit of hybrid vehicle usage.

CC)) Incorrect. While it may be true that conventional vehicles are faster than hybrid vehicles,

there is no mention in the passage that conventional vehicles are faster than hybrid

vehicles.

DD)) Incorrect. While lines 16-17 state that “Since hybrid vehicles use less gasoline, the cost of

operating them is less than the cost of operating conventional vehicles,” there is no

mention of the cost of purchasing hybrid vehicles.

EE)) Incorrect. There is no mention in the passage that two sources of propulsion make the

hybrid vehicle either more powerful or faster.


Date________________

●●

IInntteerrmmeeddiiaattee CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg -- PPhhoottooggrraapphhyy

In 1760, a man named Tiphaigne de la Roche made a bizarre prediction. In an imaginary

story called Giphantie, mirror images of scenes from nature could be captured permanently on a

canvas covered with a sticky material. After the material dried in darkness, the image would

remain on the canvas forever. At the time, the idea was unheard of. It was not until the following

century that the concept of photography was born, starting with some experiments by Nicéphore 5

Niépce.

Nicéphore Niépce, who was a French inventor, was interested in lithography, which is a

printmaking technique. He was experimenting with lithography when he found a way of copying

etchings onto glass and pewter plates using a chemical that changes when it is exposed to light.

He learned to burn images onto the plates and then print the images on paper. He shared his 10

findings with Louis Jacques Mandé Daguerre, who improved the process and announced it to the

French Academy of Sciences in 1839. The Daguerreotype, the photography method named after

Daguerre, met with great success. It was so successful, in fact, that French newspapers said the

French public had an illness called Daguerreotypomania! Daguerreotypes were inexpensive and

were suitable for portraiture. People called the Daguerreotype a “mirror with a memory.” Some 15

portrait artists went out of business when Daguerreotypes came into vogue. Others became

Daguerreotypists, now known as photographers.

Photography took off and today includes You Tube fans, I–Reporters, and everybody

with a cell phone camera. Today photography captures life around the globe. The bizarre

prediction of Mr. de le Roche has come true, and then some. 20

But how was the prediction of mirror-image pictures made in the first place? Was de la

Roche’s prediction of mirror-image photography just a lucky guess? Or was the Daguerreotype a

picture-perfect case of life imitating art?

QQuueessttiioonnss


II)) Photographic images were shown in de la Roche’s book Giphantie.

IIII)) Nicéphore Niépce experimented with printmaking.

IIIIII)) Louis Jacques Mandé Daguerre invented photography.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only


22.. In line 1, bizarre most closely means

AA)) common

BB)) humorous

CC)) obvious

DD)) popular

EE)) strange

33.. In the context of the passage, which of the following best articulates the author’s opinion?

AA)) It is hard to know how de le Roche predicted a photographic-type process a full century

before photography was invented.

BB)) It is hard to draw a comparison between early Daguerreotypists and modern-day

photographers.

CC)) It was inaccurate to say that the Daguerreotype was a “mirror with a memory,” since the

images were not reversed.

DD)) It is difficult to understand why the French public preferred Daguerreotypes to painted

portraiture.

EE)) It was difficult for portrait artists to acquire the skills necessary to become

Daguerreotypists.



II)) Incorrect. Photographic images were not shown in de la Roche’s book Giphantie.

According to lines 1-3, “In an imaginary story called Giphantie, mirror images of

scenes from nature could be captured permanently on a canvas …” Since the story

was an imaginary story about images, the images were not shown. Further, according

to line 1, the story was a prediction, which tells about something that does not yet

exist.

IIII)) Correct. According to lines 6-7, “Nicéphore Niépce, who was a French inventor,

was interested in lithography, which is a printmaking technique. He was

experimenting with lithography …” Since he was experimenting with lithography,

and lithography is a type of printmaking, then he was experimenting with

printmaking.

IIIIII)) Incorrect. It is not stated in the passage that Daguerre invented photography.

According to line 10, Daguerre improved the process which had been shared with

him by Nicéphore Niépce.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only



AA)) Incorrect. The prediction could not have been common. According to line 4, “At the

time, the idea was unheard of.” When something is unheard of, it is very uncommon or

completely nonexistent.

BB)) Incorrect. The story was imaginary (line 1), and the idea was unheard of (line 4), and

while some imaginary stories might be humorous, there is nothing which indicates that

the prediction was humorous.

CC)) Incorrect. Something which is obvious is easy to see. Since the prediction was made in an

imaginary story (line 1), the idea was unheard of (line 4), and photography was not

invented until the following century (lines 4-5), all stated in the first paragraph, the

prediction could not have been obvious.

DD)) Incorrect. The prediction could not have been popular. In order for something to be

popular, it must be well-known. Since this idea was unheard of, according to line 4, it

was not well-known, and therefore it was not popular.

EE)) Correct. The prediction was strange.


AA)) Correct. The last paragraph shows the author’s difficulty understanding how the 25

prediction was made. “But how was the prediction of mirror-image pictures made in the

first place? Was de la Roche’s prediction of mirror-image photography just a lucky

guess? Or was the Daguerreotype a picture-perfect case of life imitating art?”

BB)) Incorrect. In lines 14-15, the author writes, “Others became Daguerreotypists, now

known as photographers.” Here the author states that Daguerreotypists are the same as

photographers, so she has no difficulty comparing them.

CC)) Incorrect. Although may be true that the phrase is inaccurate, there was no mention that

the term “mirror with a memory” was inaccurate.

DD)) Incorrect. In lines 12-14, the author writes, “It was so successful, in fact, that French

newspapers said the French public had an illness called Daguerreotypomania!

Daguerreotypes were inexpensive and were suitable for portraiture,” which shows that

the French public liked Daguerretypes because they were inexpensive and suitable for

portraiture.

EE)) Incorrect. In lines 14-15, the author writes, “Others (other portrait artists) became

Daguerreotypists, now known as photographers.” There was no mention of the difficulty

of acquiring photography skills.


Date________________

●●

IInntteerrmmeeddiiaattee CCrriittiiccaall RReeaaddiinngg –– TThhee RRoobbiinn

The North American Robin is usually called the “robin.” The robin is a bird. The male robin

has a bright red breast. The robin has a cheerful song.

Robins live throughout North America. They live in Canada. They live in Alaska. They live

in the 48 lower states. In the winter, robins go south. In the winter, some robins go to central

Mexico. Some robins go to the Pacific coast. 5

Robins eat during the day. Robins eat beetles. Robins eat berries. Robins eat fruits. Robins

eat about 40% invertebrates like beetles and grubs. Robins eat about 60% fruits and berries. Mother

robins find food for baby robins. Father robins find food for baby robins. Baby robins eat worms.

Baby robins eat other soft-bodied animals too.

Squirrels prey on robin eggs and baby robins. Snakes prey on baby robins and robin eggs. 10

Some other birds prey on baby robins and robin eggs. Blue jays prey on baby robins and robin eggs.

Crows prey on baby robins and robin eggs. Hawks prey on adult robins. Cats prey on adult robins.

Snakes prey on adult robins.

To stay safe, robins stay vigilant. Robins pay close attention to their surroundings. When

they gather in groups, they watch other robins for signs of danger. Robins give loud warning calls 15

when a dangerous predator approaches. Although robins are territorial, they band together for

protection from predators.

The robin is a sign a spring. Some people think that seeing the first robin of springtime brings

good luck.

QQuueessttiioonnss


II)) Some robins go to South America during the winter.

IIII)) The female robin has a bright red breast.

IIIIII)) Cats hunt adult robins.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only


22.. What is the main idea of the fourth paragraph?

AA)) Squirrels hunt baby robins.

BB)) Other animals prey on robins.

CC)) Adult robins do not care for their young.

DD)) Crows and hawks hunt adult robins.

EE)) Other birds steal robin eggs.

33.. In line 14, vigilant most closely means

AA)) attentive

BB)) dangerous

CC)) noisy

DD)) safe

EE)) territorial



II)) Incorrect. Lines 4-5 state that “In the winter some robins go to central Mexico.

Some robins go to the Pacific coast.” While some robins may go to Central

America during the winter, there is no information in the passage about Central

America.

IIII)) Incorrect. Lines 1-2 state that “The male robin has a bright red breast.” There is no

mention of the coloring of the female robin.

IIIIII)) Correct. Line 13 states that “Cats prey on adult robins.” To prey on means to hunt,

so it is true that cats hunt adult robins.

AA)) I only

BB)) II only

CC)) III only

DD)) I and II only



AA)) Incorrect. While line 10 states that “Squirrels prey on robin eggs and baby robins,” the

paragraph goes on to list other animals which prey on, or hunt, robins and their eggs. So

the main idea does not center on squirrels, but rather on animals which prey on robins

and their eggs.

BB)) Correct. Lines 10-12 list the animals which prey on baby robins and robin eggs. Lines

12-13 list animals which prey on adult robins. Therefore, the entire paragraph is centered

on animals which prey on robins.

CC)) Incorrect. While lines 10-12 list animals which prey on baby robins and robin eggs, and

lines 12-13 list animals which prey on adult robins, there is no mention that the adult

robins do not care for their young.

DD)) Incorrect. Lines 12-13 state that “Crows prey on baby robins and robin eggs. Hawks prey

on adult robins.” However, there is no mention that crows prey on adult robins or that

hawks prey on baby robins and robin eggs.

EE)) Incorrect. While lines 10-12 state that some animals prey on baby robins and robin eggs,

the main idea does not center on the robin eggs, but rather on the animals which prey on

robins.


AA)) Correct. According to line 14, “To stay safe, robins are vigilant. Robins pay close

attention to their surroundings.” Vigilant robins are robins which pay close attention to

their surroundings. To pay attention means to be attentive. Therefore, vigilant must

mean attentive.

BB)) Incorrect. According to lines 14-16, “To stay safe, robins are vigilant. Robins pay close

attention to their surroundings. When they gather in groups, they watch other robins for

signs of danger.” Since vigilant robins watch for signs of danger, it stands to reason that

the word vigilant does not mean dangerous.

CC)) Incorrect. According to lines 14-16, “To stay safe, robins are vigilant. Robins pay close

attention to their surroundings. When they gather in groups, they watch other robins for

signs of danger. Robins give loud warning calls when a dangerous predator approaches.”

Although vigilant robins do give loud or noisy warning calls in when there is a dangerous

predator in the area, the other sentences in the paragraph center on the attentiveness, the

watchfulness, and the awareness of danger that robins possess. So their noisiness seems

to stem from their vigilance, but noisy does not mean the same as vigilant.

DD)) Incorrect. According to line 14, “To stay safe, robins are vigilant.” While vigilance and

safety seem to go together, they do not have the same meaning. So the word safe does

not mean the same as vigilant.

EE)) Incorrect. The paragraph states, “To stay safe, robins are vigilant. … Although robins are

territorial, they band together for protection from predators.” While banding together for

protection is a way of staying safe or to find protection from predators, robins are also

said to be territorial. Being territorial seems to mean something very different from

banding together. Therefore, if birds are vigilant for safety and if they also band together

for safety, vigilant cannot mean the same as territorial.

reading comprehension technical

Documents

enigmatic natural structures

challenge of biomimetics

natural propensity

todays biomimetics

robert fearing

pretty structures

ingenuity of nature

natural phenomena half