quiz-biochemistry, marks medical biochemistry

Biochemistry 14Mar2009

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 1 -

1 Metabolic Fuels and Dietary Components

1) A 23-year-old presents for a consult about weight reduction. She works as a corporate

sales consultant for popular womens clothing. At 5 feet 7 inches tall, she weights 99 lbs

and is very afraid she could weight over 100 lbs. Her daily exercise routine includes one

hour of jogging every morning and one hour of walking every evening. Which of the

following is the most likely problem afflicting this patient?

a) Anorexia

b) Depression

c) Obesity

d) Malnutrition

e) Hypothyroidism

2.1) One calorie is equal to:

a) 4.18 Calories

b) 4.18 kilocalories

c) 4.18 kilojoules

d) 4.18 Joules

e) 4.18 calories

2.2) Physicians tend to use units of calories, in part because that is what their patients use

and understand. Food calories are actually Calories. How many calories are in a

Calorie?

a) 10,000

b) 1,000

c) 100

d) 10

e) 1

3.1) When fat is completely oxidized from CO2 to H20, how much fuel energy is

generated (in kcal/g)?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 7

d) 9

e) 11

3.2) An analysis of a patients diet shows they ate 90g carbohydrate, 10g protein, and 10g

fat each day. Approximately how many calories did this patient consume in one day?

a) 440

b) 470

c) 490

d) 740

e) 940

3.3) Glucose, which is the predominant sugar in human blood, is a:

a) Monosaccharide

b) Disaccharide

c) Polysaccharide

d) Triacylglycerol

e) Linear chain of amino acids



3.4) Which of the following accounts for the difference in energy between fats and

carbohydrates/proteins?

a) Nitrogen

b) Water

c) Hydrogen

d) Ammonia

e) Oxygen

4) Other than adipose tissue, which of the following is a primary fuel store in the body?

a) Protein

b) Glucose

c) Alcohol

d) Glycogen

e) Triacylglycerol

5.1) For Body Mass Ratio (BMR), what is the assumed value of kcal/day/kg body

weight?

a) 1

b) 12

c) 24

d) 36

e) 72

5.2) What is the BMR for an average 70kg person?

a) 70 * 1 = 70 kcal/day

b) 70 * 12 = 840 kcal/day

c) 70 * 24 = 1,680 kcal/day

d) 70 * 36 = 2,520 kcal/day

e) 70 * 72 = 5,040 kcal/day

6) Which of the following is NOT a significant factor that affects BMR?

a) Pregnancy

b) Thyroid status

c) Body temperature

d) Age

e) Race

7.1) Which of the following Daily Energy Expenditure (DEE) hourly activity factors is

used for moderate activity, such as hoeing?

a) 1.0

b) 1.5

c) 2.5

d) 5.0

e) 7.0

7.2) For a 60-year-old female, the BMR equation is 10.5W+596. Which of the following

equations would be used for this 50kg patient if she spent her entire day lying in bed?

a) (10.5 * 50 + 596) * 1.0

b) 10.5 * 50 * 1.0 + 596

c) (10.5 * 50 + 596) * 1.5

d) 10.5 * 50 * 1.5 + 596

e) 10.5 * 50 + 596 + 1.0



8) Which of the following equations would be used for the previous patient if she spent 8

hours a day standing and 16 hours a day lying in bed?

a) 10.5 * 50 * 1.0 * 1.5 + 596

b) 10.5 * 50 * 1.0 + 596

c) 10.5 * 50 * (8 *1.5 + 16 * 1.0) + 596

d) (10.5 * 50 + 596) * (8 *1.0 + 16 * 1.5)

e) (10.5 * 50 + 596) * ((8 *1.5 + 16 * 1.0) / 24)

9) What is the DEE hourly activity factor for a 70kg, 25-year-old male who works heavy

labor 6 hours a day, does moderate exercise for 3 hours, sleeps for 7 hours, and sits

upright in a chair watching sports TV for the rest of the time?

a) (6 * 7.0 + 3 * 2.5 + 7 * 5.0 + 8 * 1.5)

b) (6 * 7.0 + 3 * 5.0 + 7 * 1.0 + 8 * 1.5) / 24

c) (6 * 7.0 * 3 * 5.0 * 7 * 1.0 * 8 * 1.5) / 24

d) (6 * 5.0 + 3 * 2.5 + 7 * 1.0 + 8 * 1.5) / 24

e) (6 * 5.0 * 3 * 2.5 * 7 * 1.0 * 8 * 1.5) / 24

10) What is the overall DEE activity factor for a 24-year-old male who does 1.5 hours of

heavy activity (weight lifting and Judo), 1 hour of moderate activity (racquetball), 1.5

hours of light activity, 16 hours of very light activity, and 4 hours of sleep?

a) (1.5 * 7.0 * 1 * 5.0 * 1.5 * 2.5 * 16 * 1.5 * 4 * 1.0)

b) (1.5 * 7.0 + 1 * 5.0 + 1.5 * 2.5 + 16 * 2.0 + 4 * 1.0) / 24

c) (1.5 * 7.0 + 1 * 5.0 + 1.5 * 2.5 + 16 * 1.5 + 4 * 1.0) / 24

d) (1.5 * 5.0 + 1 * 3.0 + 1.5 * 2.5 + 16 * 1.5 + 4 * 1.0) / 24

e) (1.5 * 7.0 + 1 * 3.0 + 1.5 * 2.5 + 16 * 1.5 + 4 * 1.0) / 24

11.1) Which of the following equations is the English equivalent for Body Mass Index

(BMI), from the metric equation weight/height^2 (kg/m^2)?

a) (weight * 2.2) / (height^2)

b) (weight) / (height^2) + 704

c) (weight) / (height^2) + 504

d) (weight * 704) / (height^2)

e) (weight * 504) / (height^2)

11.2) What is the BMI for a 100kg person that is 175cm tall?

a) 100 / (0.175^2)

b) 100 / (1.75^2)

c) 100 / (17.5^2)

d) 220 / (0.175^2)

e) 220 / (1.75^2)

12) If someones daily energy expenditure matched their daily caloric intake and they

worked out two full hours a day, what type of caloric balance would they have?

a) Positive (gain weight)

b) Neutral

c) Negative (lose weight)

13) For a 35-year-old male, the BMR equation is 11.6W+879. If a 120kg 35-year-old

male patient did light work for one hour a day, very light work for fifteen hours a day,

and slept for the rest of the day, what would his DEE be?

a) (11.6 * 120 + 879) * (8 * 1.0 + 15 * 1.5 + 1 * 2.5) / 24 = 3122

b) (11.6 * 120 + 879) + (8 * 1.0 + 15 * 1.5 + 1 * 2.5) / 24 = 2272



c) (11.6 * 120 + 879) * (8 * 1.0 + 15 * 2.5 + 1 * 5.0) / 24 = 4778

d) (11.6 * 240 + 879) * (8 * 1.0 + 15 * 1.5 + 1 * 2.5) / 24 = 5036

e) (11.6 * 240 + 879) + (8 * 1.0 + 15 * 1.5 + 1 * 2.5) / 24 = 3664

14) If the above 120kg 35-year-old male patient ate an average of 585g of carbohydrates,

150g of protein, and 95g of fat each day, what is their kcal/day?

a) 585 * 4 + 150 * 9 + 95 * 4 = 4070

b) 585 * 7 + 150 * 4 + 95 * 4 = 5075

c) 585 * 9 + 150 * 4 + 95 * 4 = 6245

d) 585 * 4 + 150 * 4 + 95 * 7 = 3605

e) 585 * 4 + 150 * 4 + 95 * 9 = 3795

15) Which of the following is true for the above 120kg 35-year-old male patient

regarding their caloric balance?

a) Positive

b) Neutral

c) Negative

16) If a patient consumes an excess of 100 kcal/day (about 8 ounces of full-sugar soda)

for an entire year, about how much weight would he/she gain?

a) ((100 * 365) / 4) / 1000 / 2.2 = 4lbs

b) ((100 * 365) / 9) / 1000 / 2.2 = 2lbs

c) ((100 * 365) / 4) / 1000 * 2.2 = 20lbs

d) ((100 * 365) / 9) / 1000 * 2.2 = 9lbs

e) ((100 * 365) / 9) / 100 * 2.2 = 90lbs

17) Which of the following dietary requirements is usually divided into electrolytes?

a) Water

b) Vitamins

c) Minerals

d) Essential fatty acids

e) Proteins

18) Which of the following dietary requirements is involved in nitrogen balance?

a) Essential fatty acids

b) Vitamins

c) Minerals

d) Carbohydrates

e) Proteins

19.1) Which of the following is NOT a nutritionally essential fatty acid (derived from

plant oils or derived from fish oils)?

a) !-linoleic acid

b) !-linolenic acid

c) "-lipoic acid

d) Eicosapentanoic acid (EPA)

e) Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)

19.2) Which of the following is NOT a nutritionally essential amino acid?

a) Lysine

b) Leucine

c) Threonine

d) Asparagine



e) Valine

19.3) Which of the following is NOT a nutritionally essential amino acid?

a) Histidine

b) Proline

c) Methionine

d) Phenylalanine

e) Tryptophan

20.1) A deficiency in which of the following would lead to dark spots on the skin, spongy

gums, and sunken eyes (scurvy)?

a) Choline

b) Biotin

c) Folate

d) Thiamin

e) Vitamin C

20.2) A deficiency in which of the following would lead to a bright red tongue and

pigmented rash in areas exposed to sunlight (pellagra)?

a) Riboflavin

b) Vitamin C

c) Niacin

d) Folate

e) Vitamin B12

20.3) A deficiency in which of the following would lead to edema, anorexia, weight loss,

apathy, and confusion (beri-beri)?

a) Vitamin D

b) Vitamin K

c) Niacin

d) Thiamin

e) Vitamin B12

20.4) A deficiency in which of the following would lead to inadequate bone

mineralization (rickets)?

a) Vitamin C

b) Vitamin A

c) Vitamin D

d) Vitamin E

e) Vitamin B6

20.5) A deficiency in which of the following would lead to keratinization of the GI

epithelium, night blindness, and failure to produce tears (xerophthalmia)?

a) Vitamin C

b) Vitamin A

c) Vitamin D

d) Vitamin E

e) Vitamin B6

21) Which of the following is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin?

a) Vitamin A

b) Vitamin C

c) Vitamin D



d) Vitamin E

e) Vitamin K

22) The caloric content per gram of fuel:

a) Is higher for carbohydrates than triacylglycerols

b) Is higher for protein than for fat

c) Is proportionate to the amount of oxygen in fuel

d) Is the amount of energy that can be obtained from oxidation of the fuel

e) Is higher for children than adults

2 The Fed or Absorptive State

1.1) Which of the following is the major carbohydrate of the human diet?

a) Glucose

b) Fructose

c) Maltose

d) Cellobiose

e) Starch

1.2) Which of the following is the major digestive enzyme that works in the mouth and

small intestine?

a) Lactase

b) Sucrase

c) Amylase

d) Lipase

e) Direct absorption by epithelial cells

1.3) Proteins are cleaved to amino acids by proteases. Which of the following proteolytic

enzymes from the pancreas does NOT act in the lumen of the small intestine?

a) Pepsin

b) Trypsin

c) Chymotrypsin

d) Elastase

e) Carboxypeptidase

1.4) Bile salts, which emulsify fats, are created in the ____ and stored in the ____.

a) Pancreas; Liver

b) Pancreas; Gallbladder

c) Liver; Pancreas

d) Liver; Gallbladder

e) Liver; Intestine

1.5) Elevated levels of chylomicrons were measured in the blood of a patient. What

dietary therapy would be most helpful in lowering chylomicron levels?

a) Decreased intake of calories

b) Decreased intake of fat

c) Decreased intake of cholesterol

d) Decreased intake of starch

e) Decreased intake of sugar

1.6) What is absorbed into the intestinal epithelial cells from micro-droplet micelles?

a) Triacylglycerides

b) Amylase and triacylglycerides



c) Free fatty acids and monosaccharides

d) Free fatty acids and chylomicrons

e) Free fatty acids and 2-monoacylglycerols

2) In response to a high carbohydrate meal, insulin is ____ and glucagon is ____.

a) Released; Release

b) Released; Suppressed

c) Suppressed; Suppressed

d) Suppressed; Released

3.1) Which of the following is NOT a liver product of glucose after a meal?

a) Glucagon

b) Glycogen

c) Triacylglycerols

d) CO2

e) ATP

3.2) From which of the following processes do red blood cells get all of their energy?

a) TCA cycle

b) Fatty acid oxidation

c) Electron transport chain

d) Anerobic glycolysis

e) Oxydative phosphorylation

3.3) Which of the following does NOT depend on insulin levels being high to use glucose

as energy?

a) Liver

b) Muscle

c) Brain

d) Adipose tissue

4.1) During the fed state, where are VLDLs created?

a) Intestine

b) Brain

c) RBCs

d) Liver

e) Muscle

4.2) What is the major function of chylomicrons and VLDLs produced in the fed state?

a) Transport of glucose

b) Transport of triacylglycerols

c) Storage of glucose (glycogen)

d) Storage of triacylglycerols (adipose)

e) Making triacylglycerols non-polar

5.1) Amino acids derived from digestion of dietary protein:

a) Provide nitrogen for synthesis of nonessential amino acids in the liver

b) Can be converted to glucose in most tissues

c) Cannot be converted to adipose tissue fat

d) Release nitrogen that is converted to urea in skeletal muscle

e) Are generally converted to body proteins or excreted in the urine

5.2) After digestion of a mixed meal:

a) Insulin stimulates the transport of glucose into the brain



b) Dietary triacylglycerols are transported in the portal vein to the liver

c) Glucagon is released from the pancreas

d) Monosaccharides are transported to adipose tissue via the lymphatic system

e) Glucose levels increase in the blood

3 Fasting

1.1) As glucose levels drop and the fasting state is entered (basal metabolic state), insulin

levels ____ and glucagon levels ____.

a) Decrease; Increase

b) Increase; Decrease

c) Decrease; Decrease

d) Increase; Increase

1.2) Which of the following plays a crucial role in converting glycogen stores to glucose

during the basal metabolic state?

a) Brain

b) Kidney

c) Adipose

d) Muscle

e) Liver

1.3) What is the red blood cell product of glycolysis?

a) Lactate

b) Glycerol

c) Fatty acids

d) Amino acids

e) Triacylglycerols

1.4) During prolonged fasting (starvation), ketone body use is ____ and fatty acid use is

____.

a) Increased; Decreased

b) Increased; Increased

c) Decreased; Decreased

d) Decreased; Increased

2) Which of the following ketone bodies produced in the liver is NOT used as an energy

source by the muscle and kidney?

a) !-Hydroxybutyrate

b) Acetoacetate

c) Acetone

3.1) What supplies amino acids for gluconeogenesis during the basal metabolic state?

a) Liver

b) Adipose

c) Brain

d) RBCs

e) Muscle

3.2) What is the bodys main fuel during fasting?

a) Amino acids

b) Fatty acids

c) Ketone bodies



d) Lactate

e) Urea

3.3) By 24 hours after a meal:

a) Gluconeogenesis in the liver is the major source of blood glucose

b) Muscle glycolysis provides glucose to the blood

c) Muscles convert amino acids to blood glucose

d) Fatty acids released from adipose tissue provide carbon for synthesis of glucose

e) Ketone bodies provide carbon for gluconeogenesis

4) During the fasting state, an increase in glucagon would ____ lipase activity and the

release of fatty acids and would generate ____ acetyl CoA and ketone bodies.

a) Decrease; Less

b) Decrease; More

c) Increase; Less

d) Increase; More

5) Which of the following is NOT a carbon source for gluconeogenesis?

a) Lactate

b) Glycerol

c) Acetyl CoA

d) Amino acids

6) Which of the following increases during prolonged fasting?

a) Brain use of ketone bodies

b) Muscle use of ketone bodies

c) Liver gluconeogenesis

d) Muscle protein degradation

e) Liver production of urea

4 Water, Acids, Bases and Buffers

1.1) What percentage of total body weight is water?

a) 20%

b) 40%

c) 60%

d) 80%

e) 100%

1.2) What type of bonding accounts for waters ability to act as a solvent for polar

organic molecules and inorganic salts?

a) Ionic

b) Covalent

c) Metallic

d) Hydrogen

e) Disulfide

1.3) Which of the following is true about water?

a) Its heat of fusion is high

b) Its head of vaporization is low

c) Its resistance to temperature change is low

d) Its thermal conductivity is low

e) Its heat capacity is low



2) If a patients blood was hyperosmolar from an electrolyte imbalance, what would

happen to the tissue surrounding the vessels?

a) Fluid would move into the tissue from the vessels, expanding the tissue

b) Fluid would move into the tissue from the vessels, lysing the tissue cells

c) No fluid movement would occur

d) Fluid would move into the vessels from the tissue, dehydrating the tissue

e) Fluid would move into the vessels from the tissue, expanding the tissue

3.1) Which of the following is important in maintaining pH homeostasis?

a) Acid

b) Base

c) pKa

d) pKb

e) Buffer

3.2) Since pKa is the reciprocal of the dissociation constant, a stronger acid would yield:

a) An increase in pKa

b) No change in pKa

c) A decrease in pKa

4.1) Based on the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation (pH = pKa + log ([A-] / [HA])), at

what point is the pH of a weak acid equal to its pKa?

a) 0% dissociation

b) 25% dissociation

c) 50% dissociation

d) 75% dissociation

e) 100% dissociation

4.2) A decrease of blood pH from 7.5 to 6.5 would be accompanied by which of the

following changes in ion concentration?

a) A 10-fold increase in hydrogen ion concentration

b) A 10-fold increase in hydroxyl ion concentration

c) An increase in hydrogen ion concentration by a factor of 7.5/6.5

d) A decrease in hydrogen ion concentration by a factor of 6.5/7.5

e) A shift in concentration of buffer anions, with no change in hydrogen ion

concentration

5) Say the pH of the stomach is 3.0, urine is 5.0, plasma is 7.4, and intestines are basic to

counteract the acidity of the stomach. Using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, which

of the following is true?

a) Weak acids will absorb slowly in the stomach

b) Weak bases would not absorb in the intestines

c) Weak bases would absorb in the stomach

d) Weak bases will absorb very quickly in urine

e) Weak bases and acids would absorb in plasma

6) A drug that has a pKa = 3.5 is taken orally. It is known that this drug is absorbed

through the stomach when it has no charge (which is its acid form). What percentage of

this drug will have no charge in the stomach if the pH = 2?

a) 100% - [A-] / [HA] = 96.84%

b) [A-] / [HA] = 3.16%

c) 100% - [HA] / [A-] = 68.38%



d) [HA] / [A-] = 31.62%

7) Which of the following is NOT true for the titration curve of a weak acid, such as

acetic acid?

a) pKa is found at the pH when 0.5 equivalents of OH- are added

b) At pKa, addition of OH- will increase pH

c) At pKa, removal of OH- will decrease pH

d) pKa is found at pH = 7.0

e) A plateau in pH from 0.25 to 0.75 equivalents OH- would indicate buffering

8.1) CO2 entering the red blood cells is converted to:

a) Phosphate

b) Hemoglobin

c) Carbonic acid

d) Bicarbonate

e) Histidine

8.2) The hypothalamus contains the respiratory center and is sensitive to changes in pH.

If pH begins to drop, what will happen?

a) Breathing will increase

b) Breathing will decrease

c) Breathing will not change

d) Breathing will stop

e) Breathing will become more rhythmic

8.3) As bicarbonate leaves the red blood cell, ____ ions enters as an exchange.

a) Phosphate

b) Sodium

c) Potassium

d) Magnesium

e) Chloride

8.4) Which of the following physiologic/pathologic conditions is most likely to result in

an alkalosis, provided that the body could not fully compensate?

a) Production of lactic acid by muscles during exercise

b) Production of ketone bodies by a patient with diabetes mellitus

c) Repeated vomiting of stomach contents

d) Diarrhea with loss of the bicarbonate anions secreted into the intestine

e) An infection resulting in a fever and hypercatabolism

5 Structures of the Major Compounds of the Body

1) Which of the following groups could NOT be oxidized or reduced?

a) Carboxylic acid

b) Ketone

c) Ether

d) Amino

e) Ester

Match the following functional groups with their condensation products:

2.1) Acid + Alcohol a) Ester

2.2) Acid + Amine b) Thioester

2.3) Acid + Acid c) Amide



2.4) Acid + Sulfhydryl d) Phosphoester

2.5) Phosphoric acid + Alcohol e) Anhydride

3) Which of the following is NOT true:

a) Oxidation involves losing hydrogen

b) Reduction involves gaining electrons

c) Oxidation involves losing oxygen

d) Reduction involves gaining hydrogen

e) Oxidation involves losing electrons

4) Using the greek letter designation, what would be another name for 3-

hydroxybutyrate?

a) Hydroxybutyrate

b) "-hydroxybutyrate

c) !-hydroxybutyrate

d) #-hydroxybutyrate

e) $-hydroxybutyrate

5) The carbonyl group on fructose (ketohexose) is ____ and the carbonyl group on

glucose (aldohexose) is ____.

a) -C=O; -C=OH

b) -C=OH; -C=O

c) -C=O; -C=O

d) -C=OH; -C=OH

e) -COOH; -COOH

6) Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a) D-Glucose and D-Mannose are epimers

b) D-Mannose and D-Galactose are epimers

c) D-Galactose and D-Glucose are epimers

d) Enantiomers are nonsuperimposable mirror images

e) Isomers have the same chemical formula but a different arrangement of atoms

7) In their ring structures, a pyranose will have oxygen between carbons ____ and a

furanose will have oxygen between carbons ____.

a) 1 and 5; 1 and 6

b) 4 and 5; 5 and 6

c) 1 and 2; 1 and 2

d) 5 and 6; 4 and 5

e) 1 and 6; 1 and 5

8) Mutarotation of "-D-Glucopyranose would yield:

a) "-L-Glucopyranose

b) "-D-Glucofuranose

c) "-L- Glucofuranose

d) !-D-Glucopyranose

e) !-L-Glucopyranose

9) How would a sugar be named if the terminal hydroxyl group is oxidized?

a) -onic acid

b) -oate

c) -uronic acid

d) -polyol



e) -hydroxyl

10) Which of the following types of bonds does starch (glycogen) contain?

a) N-glycosidic

b) "-1,4, O-glycosidic

c) "-1,6, O-glycosidic

d) !, O-glycosidic

e) "-1,4, O-glycosidic and "-1,6, O-glycosidic

11) How would a fatty acid be named if it was 18 carbons long and had double bonds at

C9, C12, and C15 from the -COOH end?

a) 18:3

b) 18:3#9,12,15(%4)

c) 18:3#9,12,15(%3)

d) 18:3#9,12,15(%2)

e) 18:3#3,6,9(%9)

12) What type of double bonds cause a fatty acid chain to bend?

a) C-C

b) D

c) L

d) Cis

e) Trans

13) Free radicals, which are harmful to the body, can form from natural events (aging).

Which of the following is another way free radicals could form?

a) Chemotherapy

b) Radiation therapy

c) Bone fracture

d) Hyperkalemia

e) Hypoxia

6 Amino Acids in Proteins

1.1) At a physiologic pH of 7.4, the amino acid amino group carries a ____ charge and

the carboxylic acid group carries a ____ charge. (hydrogen bonding can take place)

a) Neutral; Neutral

b) Positive; Negative

c) Negative; Positive

d) Positive; Positive

e) Negative; Negative

1.2) In amino acids, the pKa for the carboxylic acid group is about ____ and the pKa for

the amino group is about ____.

a) 2; 2

b) 9.5; 9.5

c) 2; 9.5

d) 9.5; 2

e) 7.4; 7.4

1.3) What type of bond holds each amino acid together in a long chain?

a) Disulfide

b) Electrostatic



c) Hydrogen

d) Van der Waals

e) Peptide

2.1) What is the one-letter code for asparagine?

a) A

b) S

c) G

d) N

e) E

2.2) What is the one-letter code for aspartate?

a) D

b) A

c) S

d) P

e) T

2.3) What is the one-letter code for glutamine?

a) Q

b) G

c) H

d) M

e) I

2.4) What is the one-letter code for glutamate?

a) G

b) L

c) U

d) T

e) E

3.1) Which of the following is NOT a polar, uncharged amino acid?

a) Asparagine

b) Aspartate

c) Glutamine

d) Serine

e) Threonine

3.2) Which of the following is NOT a charged amino acid?

a) Histidine

b) Lysine

c) Arginine

d) Glutamate

e) Valine

3.3) Which of the following is NOT a nonpolar, aliphatic amino acid?

a) Glycine

b) Alanine

c) Cysteine

d) Leucine

e) Isoleucine

4.1) Which of the following amino acids contains sulfur?



a) Methionine

b) Histidine

c) Leucine

d) Tyrosine

e) Glutamate

4.2) Which of the following amino acids is negatively charged (acidic)?

a) Lysine

b) Glutamate

c) Arginine

d) Histidine

e) Serine

5.1) What amino acid has ornithine (role in urea production) as a derivative?

a) Histidine

b) Arginine

c) Cysteine

d) Glycine

e) Serine

5.2) What amino acid has melatonin (pineal gland secretion) as a derivative?

a) Phenylalanine

b) Arginine

c) Cysteine

d) Tryptophan

e) Serine

5.3) What amino acid has histamine (role in anti-inflammatory response) as a derivative?

a) Histidine

b) Arginine

c) Cysteine

d) Glycine

e) Serine

5.4) An energy drink is found to contain taurine, a component of bile salts. What amino

acid is taurine a derivative?

a) Histidine

b) Arginine

c) Cysteine

d) Glycine

e) Serine

5.5) Which of the following amino acids is NOT a derivative for acetyl choline,

norepinephrine, or dopamine?

a) Serine

b) Threonine

c) Tyrosine

d) Methionine

e) Phenylalanine

5.6) Which of the following is made from glutamic acid?

a) Porphyrins

b) Histidine



c) Adrenaline

d) Thyroxin

e) #-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

6) Insulin has ____ variations (polymorphisms) in amino acid regions that affect activity.

This allows for the use of bovine and pork insulin to treat diabetes mellitus.

a) Many (poly)

b) Some (oligo)

c) Three (tri)

d) One (mono)

e) No

7) What is the term for genes that are similar to each other because they originated from a

common ancestor?

a) Homolog

b) Ortholog

c) Polymorph

d) Paralog

e) Ohnolog

8) There are at least nine different isoforms of adenylyl cyclase (synthesizes cAMP).

These isozymes allow for:

a) Quicker dampening of cell response

b) Cells to response similarly to the same hormone

c) Cells to response similarly to a different hormone

d) Cells to respond differently to the same hormone

e) Cells to respond differently to a different hormone

9) Isozymes are enzymes with different amino acid sequences but the same function.

Creatine kinase is created in two distinct forms in the body. Which of the following has a

mix of these forms, allowing for tissue recognition during damage?

a) Brain

b) Skeletal muscle

c) Cardiac muscle

d) Smooth muscle

e) Pancreas

10) Which of the following is NOT true regarding insulin and C-peptide?

a) C-peptide functions in repair of the muscular layer of the arteries

b) C-peptide connects the A and B chains of insulin

c) Proinsulin splits into insulin and C-peptide

d) Proinsulin is cleaved in three locations

e) Bovine and pork insulin would cause an immune response in all human patients

11) Which of the following is NOT a post-translational modification of amino acids?

a) Glycosylation

b) Isozymation

c) Fatty acylation

d) Prenylation

e) Regulatory modification

7 Structure/Function Relationships in Proteins



1) How are amino acids arranged in a primary protein structure?

a) Helical

b) Crossed

c) Folded

d) Perpendicular

e) Linear

2.1) Which of the following characterizes "-helix regions of proteins?

a) They all have the same primary structure

b) They are formed principally by hydrogen bonds between a carbonyl oxygen

atom in one peptide bond and the amide hydrogen from a different peptide bond

c) They are formed principally by hydrogen bonds between a carbonyl atom in

one peptide bond and the hydrogen atoms on the side chain of another amino acid

d) They are formed by hydrogen bonding between two adjacent amino acids in

the primary sequence

e) They require a high content of proline and glycine

2.2) In contrast with the "-helix, !-sheets form:

a) With the peptide hydrogen bonds on the same strand

b) With the peptide hydrogen bonds on an adjacent strand

c) With covalent bonding

d) With ionic bonding

e) With peptide bonds between a carbonyl oxygen and an amide

3.1) What helps distinguish globular proteins from fibrous proteins?

a) "-helices

b) !-sheets

c) Molecular weight

d) Freezing/melting point

e) Solubility

3.2) In the actin fold of globular proteins, ____ is bound into the middle of the cleft by

amino acid residues, which promotes a conformational change and cleaves to ____.

a) cAMP; AMP

b) cAMP; ADP + P

c) ATP; AMP

d) ATP; ADP + P

e) Actin; Myosin

4) What type of proteins are geometrically linear, arranged around a single axis, and have

a repeating unit structure?

a) Globular

b) Fibrous

c) Membrane-spanning

5) What protein structure refers to the association of individual polypeptide chain

subunits in a geometrically and stoichiometrically specific manner?

a) Primary

b) "-helix

c) !-sheet

d) Tertiary

e) Quaternary



6.1) Which of the following is characteristic of globular proteins?

a) Hydrophilic amino acids tend to be on the inside

b) Hydrophobic amino acids tend to be on the outside

c) Tertiary structure is formed by hydrophobic and electrostatic interactions

between amino acids, and by hydrogen bonds between amino acids and between

amino acids and water

d) Secondary structures are formed principally by hydrophobic interactions

between amino acids

e) Covalent disulfide bonds are necessary to hold the protein in a rigid

conformation

6.2) A protein has one transmembrane domain composed entirely of an "-helical

secondary structure. Which of the following amino acids would you expect to find in the

transmembrane domain?

a) Proline

b) Glutamate

c) Lysine

d) Leucine

e) Arginine

6.3) Autopsies of patients with Alzheimer disease show protein aggregates called

neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques in various regions of the brain. These plaques

exhibit the characteristic staining of amyloid. Which of the following structural features

is the most likely characteristic of at least one protein in these plaques?

a) A high content of !-pleated sheet structure

b) A high content of "-helical structure

c) A high content of random coils

d) Disulfide bond crosslinks between polypeptide chains

e) A low-energy native conformation

7) At lower levels of pO2 in oxygen-using tissues, hemoglobin cannot bind oxygen as

well as myoglobin. This is because myoglobin is a globular protein composed of a single

polypeptide chain with ____ O2 binding site(s), and hemoglobin has ____ binding site(s).

a) 2; 2

b) 1; 1

c) 1; 2

d) 1; 3

e) 1; 4

8.1) When the amount of oxygen bound to myoglobin or hemoglobin is plotted against

the partial pressure of oxygen (pO2), myoglobin has a ____ curve and hemoglobin has a

____ curve.

a) Sigmoidal; Hyperbolic

b) Hyperbolic, Sigmoidal

c) Linear; Hyperbolic

d) Sigmoidal; Linear

e) Linear; Sigmoidal

8.2) In the hemoglobin T (tense) state there is ____ affinity for O2 and in the R (relaxed)

state there is ____ affinity for O2.

a) Low; No



b) High; Low

c) Low; High

d) High; No

e) No; No

9) Each immunoglobulin (IgG) molecule contains two light (L) and two heavy (H) chains

joined by disulfide bonds. Each light chain has a variable domain (VL) and a region of

constant amino acid sequence (CL). Each heavy chain has ____ variable domain(s) (VH)

and ____ constant domain(s) (CH).

a) 2; 2

b) 1; 1

c) 1; 2

d) 1; 3

e) 1; 4

10) What determines how a proteins folds?

a) Primary structure

b) "-helix structure

c) !-sheet structure

d) Tertiary structure

e) Quaternary structure

11) Which of the following would NOT cause denaturization of a protein (loss of

function)?

a) Nonenzymatic glycosylation

b) Temperature changes

c) pH changes

d) Solvent used

e) !-pleated sheet formation

12) In sickle-cell disease, single point valine substitution on the beta chain of hemoglobin

creates a knob, which can bind into a groove on the alpha chain, with oxygen saturation

dependent affinity. At high oxygen saturations (lungs), the chains ____. At low oxygen

saturations (capillaries), the chains ____.

a) Do not bind together; Bind together to form polymers

b) Bind together to form polymers; Do not bind together

c) Break down; Bind together to form polymers

d) Bind together to form polymers; Break down

e) Break down; Break down

13) Measurement of which of the following can aid diagnosis of crush injury necrosis and

myocardial infarction soon after an event?

a) Hemoglobin

b) Myoglobin

c) Troponin

d) Actin

e) Myosin

14.1) Which of the following prion diseases is associated with ritualistic cannibalism in

the Fore tribes people?

a) Mad-cow disease (bovine spongiform encephalopathy)

b) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)



c) Iatrogenic CJD

d) Kuru

e) Scrapie

14.2) Which of the following prion diseases is associated with infection?

a) Mad-cow disease (bovine spongiform encephalopathy)

b) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

c) Iatrogenic CJD

d) Kuru

e) Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker Syndrome

8 Enzymes as Catalysts

1) Which of the following is NOT true about enzymes?

a) They catalyze reactions

b) The provide specificity to reactions

c) They bind to the reaction product

d) They provide regulatory control to reactions

e) They are usually proteins

2) Which of the following involves a conformational change to a substrate active site

with binding of an enzyme?

a) Lock-and-key

b) Induced fit

c) Coenzymes

d) Competitive inhibition

e) Competitive catalyst

3.1) Most coenzymes are derived from:

a) Carbohydrates

b) Triacylglycerols

c) Proteins

d) Vitamins

e) Minerals

3.2) In the absence of their enzyme, coenzymes have ____ activity and ____ specificity.

a) Weak; Strong

b) Strong; Weak

c) Weak; Weak

d) Strong; Strong

3.3) Activation-transfer coenzymes usually participate directly in catalysis by forming

what kind of bonds?

a) Hydrogen

b) Van der Waals

c) Covalent

d) Ionic

e) Electron transfer

3.4) Oxidation-reduction coenzymes form what kind of bonds?

a) Hydrogen

b) Van der Waals

c) Covalent



d) Disulfide

e) Electron transfer

3.5) What cofactor (metal ion) is needed for the binding of ATP?

a) Mg++

b) Ca++

c) K+

d) Na+

e) Cl-

3.6) A patient was born with a congenital mutation in an enzyme, severely affecting its

ability to bind an activation-transfer coenzyme. As a consequence:

a) The enzyme would be unable to bind the substrate of the reaction

b) The enzyme would be unable to form the transition state complex

c) The enzyme would normally use a different activation-transfer coenzyme

d) The enzyme would normally substitute the functional group of an active site

amino acid residue for the coenzyme

e) The reaction could be carried out by the free coenzyme, provided the diet

carried an adequate amount of its vitamin precursor

4.1) In general, enzymes are the most effective when pH is ____ and temperature is about

____ degrees Celsius.

a) Neutral; 37

b) Basic; 37

c) Acidic; 37

d) Neutral; 25

e) Basic; 25

4.2) A patient developed a bacterial overgrowth in his intestine that decreased the pH of

the luminal contents from their normal pH of approximately 6.5 down to 5.5. This

decrease in pH is likely to:

a) Denature proteins reaching the intestine with their native structure intact

b) Disrupt hydrogen bonding essential for maintenance of tertiary structure

c) Inhibit intestinal enzymes dependent on histidine for acid-base catalysis

d) Inhibit intestinal enzymes dependent on active site lysine for binding substrate

e) Have little effect on hydrolases

5.1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding enzymes?

a) Enzymes are proteins and can be denatured

b) Enzymes act at a very low concentration

c) Enzymes will only react with one or a very small number of compounds

d) Enzymes are very small molecules, much smaller than their substrates

e) Some enzymes require the presence of one or more metal ions for activity

Match the description (enzyme inhibition mechanism) with the drug:

A) Oganophosphate, B) Aspirin, C) Penicillin, D) Allopurinol

5.2) Transition state analog that binds to glycopeptidyl transferase

5.3) Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

5.4) Suicide inhibitor of xanthine oxidase. Used as a treatment for gout.

5.5) Covalent acetylation of serine in the enzyme prostaglandin endoperoxide synthase

Match the description with the therapeutic agent:

6.1) Activates the fibrinolytic enzyme system a) Asparaginase



6.2) Produced form E. coli to dissolve MI clots b) Tissue plasminogen activator

6.3) Used in treatment of certain types of leukemia c) Streptokinase

7) Which of the following enzymes in serum following an uncomplicated myocardial

infarction (MI) would be the first to increase above its upper limit?

a) ALT - Alamine aminotransferase

b) AST - Aspartate

c) CK - Creatine Kinase

d) LDH - Lactate dehydrogenase

9 Regulations of Enzymes

1.1) Which of the following describes a characteristic feature of an enzyme obeying

Michaelis-Menten kinetics?

a) The enzyme velocity is at 1/2 the maximal rate when 100% of the enzyme

molecules contain bound substrate

b) The enzyme velocity is at 1/2 the maximal rate when 50% of the enzyme

molecules contain bound substrate

c) The enzyme velocity is at its maximal rate when 50% of the enzyme molecules

contain bound substrate

d) The enzyme velocity is at its maximal rate when all of the substrate molecules

in solution are bound by the enzyme

e) The velocity of the reaction is independent of the concentration of enzyme

1.2) If Km for glucose is 5mM, what is the initial and final velocity with regard to Vmax

(using Michaelis-Menten equation) if blood glucose goes from 5mM to 20mM?

a) 0.50 Vmax; 0.80 Vmax

b) 1.0 Vmax; 0.75 Vmax

c) 0.25 Vmax; 0.125 Vmax

d) 0.25 Vmax; 0.40 Vmax

e) 0.50 Vmax; 0.75 Vmax

1.3) Enzyme ____ is dependent on (proportional to) substrate concentration and enzyme

____ is dependent on (proportional to) enzyme concentration.

a) Reactant; Product

b) Product; Reactant

c) Velocity; Product

d) Product; Velocity

e) Velocity; Reactant

2) Km of the enzyme for a substrate is the concentration of substrate required to reach:

a) Vmax

b) 3/4 Vmax

c) 1/2 Vmax

d) 1/4 Vmax

e) Km and Vmax are independent of each other

3.1) In ____ inhibition, Km increases and Vmax does not change. In ____ inhibition,

Vmax changes and Km does not.

a) Non-competitive; Un-competitive

b) Un-competitive; Competitive

c) Competitive; Un-competitive



d) Non-competitive; Competitive

e) Competitive; Non-competitive

3.2) What type of inhibition is mixed in that it changes both Vmax and Km?

a) Competitive

b) Non-competitive

c) Un-competitive

4.1) Which of the following describes a characteristic of most allosteric enzymes?

a) They are composed of single subunits

b) In the absence of effectors, they generally follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics

c) They show cooperativity in substrate binding

d) They have allosteric activators that bind in the catalytic site

e) They have irreversible allosteric inhibitors that bind at allosteric sites

4.2) In generally, activators of allosteric enzymes bind more tightly to the high-affinity T

state of the enzyme than the T state.

a) True

b) False

5) In a plot of velocity (vi/Vmax) versus substrate concentration, an activator would shift

the curve to the ____, change ____, but not change ____.

a) Left; Km; [S]

b) Right; Vmax; Km

c) Left; Vmax; Km

d) Right; Km; Vmax

e) Left; Km; Vmax

6.1) What is the rate-limiting enzyme in the pathway of glycogen degradation, degrading

to glucose 1-phosphate and regulated by AMP?

a) Glycolase

b) Amylase

c) Glycogen phosphorylase

d) Protein kinase

e) Glyceraldehyde

6.2) Adrenaline indirectly increases ____, which activates protein kinase A, starting the

phosphorylation cascade.

a) Phosphorylase kinase

b) Glycogen phosphorylase a

c) Glycogen phosphorylase b

d) cAMP

e) cGMP

7) Ca++/calmodulin is an example of a dissociable modulator protein that binds to a

number of different proteins and regulates their function. This is done by:

a) Modifying the enzyme

b) Inhibition of the catalyst

c) Addition of a coenzyme

d) Modifying the catalytic site

e) Blocking glycogen phosphorylase kinase

8) Inactive precursor enzymes (zymogens) must undergo ____ to be activated.

a) Reversible proteolytic cleavage



b) Irreversible proteolytic cleavage

c) Lysosomal activation

d) Secretory vesicle secretion

e) Cleavage during synthesis

9) In a Lineweaver-Burk plot, a competitive inhibitor will have a(n) ____ slope with the

same y-axis (1/Vmax) as no inhibitor, and a pure non-competitive inhibitor will have a(n)

____ slope with the same x-axis (-1/Km) as no inhibitor.

a) Increased; Decreased

b) Decreased; Increased

c) Increased; Increased

d) Decreased; Decreased

10 Relationship between Cell Biology and Biochemistry

1.1) Which of the following is NOT a major lipid component of plasma membranes?

a) Sphingomyelin

b) Phosphatidyl-choline

c) Ethanolamine

d) Diphosphatidyl glycerol

e) Phosphatidyl-serine

1.2) Which of the following is a characteristic of the plasma membrane?

a) It is composed principally of triacylglycerols and cholesterol

b) It contains principally nonpolar lipids

c) It contains phospholipids and their acyl groups extending into the cytosol

d) It contains more phosphatidylserine in the inner than outer leaflet

e) It contains oligosaccharides sandwiched between the inner and outer leaflets

2) Cholesterol maintains membrane fluidity by binding to the ____ pocket of

phophoacylglycerols, binding with cholesterols ____ group.

a) Cis; Hydroxyl

b) Trans; Hydroxyl

c) Cis; Hydrogen

d) Trans; Hydrogen

3) Which of the following transport mechanisms uses ATP but does not directly couple

with the ATP, and the electrochemical potential difference created by pumping ions out

of the cell is used?

a) Simple diffusion

b) Facilitated diffusion

c) Ligand-gated channels

d) Active transport

e) Secondary active transport

4.1) In the active transport Na+/K+ ATPase pump, ____ Na+ ion(s) is/are pumped out of

the cell and ____ K+ ion(s) is/are pumped into the cell.

a) 1; 1

b) 2; 2

c) 3; 3

d) 3; 2

e) 3; 1



4.2) The Na+/glucose cotransporter uses a(n) ____ transport mechanism and involves

pumping in ____ Na+ ion(s) with glucose into the cell.

a) Active; One

b) Secondary active; One

c) Ligand-gated; One

d) Active; Two

e) Secondary active; Two

5) Most lysosomal enzymes are:

a) Proteases

b) Glycosidases

c) Hydrolases

d) Sulfatases

e) Nucleases

f) Lipases

6) The ____ process involves clatherin-coated pits. The ____ process involves AA, FA,

and CHOs being released into the cytosol and undigested material forming lipofuscin

granules.

a) Receptor-mediated endocytosis; Phagocytosis

b) Receptor-mediated endocytosis; Receptor-mediated endocytosis

c) Phagocytosis; Receptor-mediated endocytosis

d) Phagocytosis; Phagocytosis

7.1) The electron transport chain (ETC) takes place in the ____ membrane of the

mitochondria and the tricarboxylic acid cycle (TCA) takes place in the ____ membrane

of the mitochondria.

a) Outer; Inner

b) Inner; Outer

c) Outer; Outer

d) Inner; Inner

e) Neither take place within the mitochondria

7.2) The cristae are infoldings in the mitochondria to make more space for:

a) TCA cycle

b) Cory cycle

c) Glycolysis

d) Gluconeogenesis

e) ETC

11 Cell Signaling by Chemical Messengers

1.1) Which of the following is a general characteristic of all chemical messengers?

a) They are secreted by one cell, enter the blood, and act on a distant target cell

b) To achieve a coordinated response, each messenger is secreted by several types

of cells

c) Each messenger binds to a specific protein receptor in a target cell

d) Chemical messengers must enter cells to transmit their message

e) Chemical messengers are metabolized to intracellular second messengers to

transmit their message



1.2) Which of the following is a characteristic of chemical messengers that bind to

intracellular transcription factor receptors?

a) They are usually cytokines or polypeptide hormones

b) They are usually small molecule neurotransmitters

c) They exert rapid actions in cells

d) They are transported through the blood bound to proteins

e) They are always present in high concentrations in the blood

2) During neurotransmission in a muscle cell, what ion triggers fusion of the vesicle with

the plasma membrane, causing acetylcholine to be released into the synaptic cleft?

a) Na+

b) Ca++

c) Cl-

d) K+

e) Mg++

3) The nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, which allows Na+ into the cell and K+ out of the

cell, is made up of ____ subunits with ____ membrane-spanning helical regions per

subunit.

a) 4; 4

b) 5; 5

c) 4; 5

d) 5; 4

4) The drug edrophonium chloride is given for temporary treatment of myasthenia gravis

(MG). This drug works by:

a) Inhibits Ca++ release

b) Inhibits T-lymphocytes

c) Inhibits B-lymphocytes

d) Inhibits acetylcholine

e) Inhibits acetylcholinesterase

5) Which type of chemical messengers are important in limiting the immune response to

a specific location in the body, a feature that helps prevent the development of

autoimmune disease?

a) Endocrine

b) Paracrine

c) Autocrine

6.1) What is the function of cytokines?

a) Transmit signals at synaptic junctions

b) Regulate metabolism via the blood stream

c) Kill invading microorganisms

d) Respond to cell injury

e) Stimulate cell proliferation

6.2) What is the function of eicosanoids (e.g. prostaglandins, thromboxanes,

leukotrienes)?








7) Which of the following would most likely bind to an intracellular receptor versus a

plasma membrane receptor?

a) Steroid hormones

b) Peptide hormones

c) Cytokines

d) Catecholamines

8) Heptahelical receptors, which contain 7-membrane spanning "-helices, are the most

common type of plasma membrane receptors. They work through:

a) Simple diffusion

b) Facilitated diffusion

c) Second messengers

d) Active transport

e) Secondary active transport

9) Tyrosine kinase receptors include Ras, MAP, phosphatidylinositol phosphates, and

insulin. Once a receptor ____ is formed, tyrosine kinase domains phosphorylate each

other and the residues form binding sites for signal transducer proteins.

a) Monomer

b) Dimer

c) Trimer

d) Oligomer

e) Polymer

10.1) JAK-STAT receptors, which have no intrinsic kinase activity, are often used to:






10.2) What type of receptors are associated with the Smad family of proteins?

a) JAK-STAT

b) PIP2

c) Insulin receptors

d) Serine/Threonine kinases

e) Ras and MAP kinases

11.1) Following the activation of heptahelical receptors, which subunit of the

heterotrimeric G protein is released as GTP is exchanged in for GDP?

a) " (alpha)

b) ! (beta)

c) # (gamma)

11.2) What is the cellular target/goal of diacrylglycerol (DAG)?

a) PKA

b) PKG

c) PKC

d) Calmodulin

e) Ca++ release from ER/SR

11.3) What is the cellular target/goal of inositol triphosphate (IP3)?



a) PKA

b) PKG

c) PKC

d) Calmodulin

e) Ca++ release from ER/SR

12) What secondary messenger(s) is/are created when phospholipase C (PLC) catalyzes

the hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol?

a) cAMP

b) cGMP and cAMP

c) IP3

d) DAG

e) DAG and IP3

13) Which of the following is NOT a signaling pathway termination method?

a) Stimulus is taken away

b) Stimulus is increased to over-saturate the receptor

c) Signal is degraded by an esterase

d) Second messenger is degraded

e) Receptor is phosphorylated or dephosphorylated

14) Nitric oxide (NO) is an exception to the rule that intracellular receptors are gene

transcription factors since it is a lipophilic gas that can diffuse into the cell. NO is a

receptor associated with:

a) cAMP

b) cGMP

c) Ca++

d) DAG

e) IP3

12 Structure of the Nucleic Acids

1.1) Euchromatin is diffuse chromatin seen during what cell phase?

a) Prophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Telophase

e) Interphase

1.2) The poly (A) tail is a sequence of ____ nucleotides at the ____ end.

a) Adenine; 3

b) Guanine; 3

c) Adenine; 5

d) Guanine; 5

1.3) In deoxyribose (sugar in DNA), what ribose carbon lacks a hydroxyl group?

a) C1

b) C2

c) C3

d) C4

e) C5



2.1) A polynucleotide chain of DNA is held together by what molecule between the 3

and 5 carbons of adjacent nucleotides?

a) Sodium

b) Magnesium

c) Phosphate

d) Sulfide

e) Oxygen

2.2) In DNA, the bond between the deoxyribose sugar and the molecule above question is

which of the following?

a) Polar

b) Ionic

c) Hydrogen

d) Covalent

e) Van der Waals

3) AT-rich DNA would denature before GC-rich DNA because adenine and thymine are

stabilized by ____ hydrogen bonds, while guanine and cytosine are stabilized by ____

hydrogen bonds.

a) 1; 2

b) 2; 1

c) 2; 3

d) 3; 2

e) 1; 3

4.1) For the following DNA sequence, determine the sequence and direction of the

complementary strand: 5-ATCGATCGATCGATCG-3

a) 5-ATCTATCGATCGATCG-3

b) 3-ATCGATCGATCGATCG-5

c) 5-CGAUCGAUCAUCGAU-3

d) 5-CGATCGATCGATCGAT-3

e) 3-CGATCGATCGATCGAT-3

4.2) DNA exhibits directionality in what form?

a) 3 => 3

b) 5 => 3

c) 3 => 5

d) 5 => 5

5) Prokaryote ribosomes are 70S formed by ____ and eukaryote ribosomes are 80S

formed by ____.

a) 60S and 20S; 50S and 40S

b) 60S and 50S; 40S and 30S

c) 50S and 20S; 60S and 20S

d) 60S and 40S; 50S and 30S

e) 50S and 30S; 60S and 40S

6) Which of the following is NOT a core histone, involved in the packing of DNA?

a) H4

b) H3

c) H1

d) H2A



e) H2B

7.1) What type of RNA carries amino acids to ribosomes and ensures that they are

incorporated into the appropriate positions in the growing polypeptide chain?

a) RNA

b) mRNA

c) rRNA

d) tRNA

e) snRNP

7.2) What type of RNA is converted into the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide chain?

a) RNA

b) mRNA

c) rRNA

d) tRNA

e) snRNP

13 Synthesis of DNA

1) What is the function of ligase?

a) Works with continuous 5 => 3 synthesis

b) Works on the leading strand

c) Undoes the work of DNA polymerase

d) Joins the Okazaki fragments

e) Winds the leading and lagging strands together

2) Which of the following relieves the torsional strain on the parental duplex of DNA

caused by unwinding during synthesis?

a) DNA polymerase

b) Primase

c) Helicase

d) DNA ligase

e) Topoisomerase

3.1) The key mechanistic failure in patient with xeroderma pigmentosum involves which

of the following?

a) Mutation in the primase gene

b) Inability to excise a section of the UV-damaged DNA

c) Mutation of one of the mismatched repair components

d) Inability to synthesize DNA across the damaged region

e) Loss of proofreading capacity

3.2) What can cause two adjacent pyrimidines to form a covalent dimmer (DNA thymine

dimmer)?

a) UV light

b) High pH

c) Low pH

d) Benzo[a]pyrene

e) High heat

3.3) What type of DNA repair acts when replication finds an incorrect, but normal base?

a) Nucleotide excision repair

b) Base excision repair



c) Mismatch repair

d) Transcription-coupled repair

4) Benzo[a]pyrene, from cigarette smoke, becomes carcinogenic when it is:

a) Hydrolyzed

b) Reduced

c) Oxidized

d) Phosphorylated

e) Cleaved

5) ddIs terminate cell grown (DNA antiviral medication) when converted to ddCs

because of the absence of a ____ group on either the 2 or 3 carbon.

a) Hydrogen

b) Phosphate

c) Ester

d) Hydroxyl

e) Amino

14 Transcription: Synthesis of RNA

1.1) Which of the following is considered the promoter sequence (Pribnow box) in the

prokaryote E. coli?

a) TATAAT

b) PyAPy

c) AUG

d) ATG

e) AGGT

1.2) Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) contains both intronic and exonic sequences.

It is modified such that a ____ is added to the 5 end and a ____ is added to the 3 end.

a) Promoter; Cap

b) Cap; Poly (A) tail

c) Poly (A) tail; Cap

d) Cap; Promoter

e) Promoter; Terminator

2.1) The short transcript AUCCGUACG would be derived from which of the following

DNA sequences? (all are 5 to 3)

a) ATCCGTACG

b) CGTACGGAT

c) AUCCGUACG

d) TAGGCATGC

e) GCATGCCTA

2.2) In a segment of a transcribed gene, the nontemplate strand of DNA has the following

sequence: 5-AGCTCACTG-3 What will be the corresponding sequence in the RNA

produced from this segment of the gene?

a) CAGUGAGCU

b) AGCUCACUG

c) CAGTGAGCT

d) UCGAGUGAC

e) GTCACTCGA



2.3) Which of the following eukaryotic DNA control sequences does not need to be in a

fixed location, and is most responsible for high rates of transcription of particular genes?

a) Promoter

b) Promoter-proximal element

c) Enhancer

d) Operator

e) Splice donor site

2.4) Which of the following is true of both eukaryotic and prokaryotic gene expression?

a) After transcription, a 3 poly A tail and a 5 cap are added to mRNA

b) Translation of mRNA can begin before transcription is complete

c) mRNA is synthesized in the 3 o 5 direction

d) RNA polymerase binds at a promoter region upstream to the gene

e) Mature mRNA is always precisely co-linear to the gene from which it was

transcribed

2.5) DNA is read in the ____ direction and RNA is synthesized in the ____ direction.

a) 5 => 3; 5 => 3

b) 5 => 3; 3 => 5

c) 3 => 5; 5 => 3

d) 3 => 5; 3 => 5

2.6) The coding strand of DNA is the same as the associated mRNA EXCEPT for:

a) mRNA uses U instead of T

b) mRNA uses T instead of U

c) mRNA uses G instead of C

d) mRNA uses C instead of G

e) mRNA uses A instead of T

3) Which of the following is the correct sequence leading to mRNA synthesis?

a) hnRNA => Capping => Poly A tail => Exon removal

b) pre-RNA => Poly A tail => Capping => Intron removal

c) pre-RNA => Capping => Poly A tail => Intron removal

d) hnRNA => Poly A tail => Capping => Intron removal

e) hnRNA => Capping => Poly A tail => Intron removal

4.1) Enhancer elements ____ affect the ____ of transcription.

a) Negatively; Speed

b) Negatively; Frequency

c) Positively; Speed

d) Positively; Frequency

4.2) The proximal element could be found immediately ____ to the ____.

a) 3; Cap

b) 3; Poly A tail

c) 5; Cap

d) 5; Poly A tail

4.3) What elements are proteins that bind to DNA and facilitate or prevent the binding of

RNA polymerase?

a) Cis-actin

b) Trans-actin

c) Distal



d) Proximal

e) Silencer

5.1) Rifampin/Rifamycin is a tuberculosis drug that inhibits ____ in ____.

a) DNA polymerase; Eukaryotes

b) DNA polymerase; Prokaryotes

c) RNA polymerase; Eukaryotes

d) RNA polymerase; Prokaryotes

5.2) Zidovudine (AZT), a drug given to treat HIV, inhibits viral:

a) RNA polymerase

b) DNA polymerase

c) Reverse transcriptase

d) DNA ligase

e) Topoisomerase

5.3) "-amanitin, a poison found in certain mushrooms, inhibits ____ in ____.

a) DNA polymerase; Eukaryotes

b) DNA polymerase; Prokaryotes

c) RNA polymerase; Eukaryotes

d) RNA polymerase; Prokaryotes

15 Translation: Synthesis of Proteins

1) DNA is synthesized and transcribed to mRNA, which is translated (tRNA on

ribosomes) to a protein. This process can be circumvented by which of the following

enzymes?

a) RNA polymerase

b) DNA polymerase

c) Reverse transcriptase

d) DNA ligase

e) Topoisomerase

2) The anticodon is a set of three nucleotides on the 3-end of ____, which corresponds to

the codon on the ____.

a) tRNA; mRNA

b) mRNA; tRNA

c) tRNA; rRNA

d) rRNA; tRNA

e) tRNA; hnRNA

Match the following descriptions with their terms:

3.1) All organisms use the same genetic code a) Degenerate

3.2) Only one codon specifies one amino acid b) Unambiguous

3.3) Each codon is read only once c) Non-Overlapping

3.4) An amino acid may have more than one codon d) Universality

3.5) Where is there an exception to universaility such that certain nucleotide sequences

do not code as they do elsewhere?

a) Golgi

b) Cytoplasm

c) Nucleus

d) Lysosome



e) Mitochondria

4.1) What type of mutations involves a change that produces a stop codon?

a) Point

b) Silent

c) Missense

d) Nonsense

e) Deletion

4.2) What type of mutation involves a change that specifies the same amino acid?

a) Point

b) Silent

c) Missense

d) Nonsense

e) Deletion

5.1) In the read-out of the genetic code in prokaryotes, which of the following processes

acts before any of the others?

a) tRNAi alignment with mRNA

b) Termination of transcription

c) Movement of the ribosome from one codon to the next

d) Recruitment of termination factors to the A site

e) Export of mRNA from the nucleus

5.2) During the initiation of translation in eukaryotes, a tRNA complex is formed with:

a) His (CAU)

b) Ser (UCG)

c) Met (AUG)

d) Gly (GGG)

e) Val (GUA)

5.3) During the elongation phase of translation in eukaryotes, the start codon is located at

the ____ site with the ____ determining what will form a peptide bond at the A site.

a) P; Codon

b) P; Anticodon

c) A; Codon

d) A; Anticodon

5.4) What causes peptidyltransferase to hydrolyze the bond between the peptide chain

and tRNA, terminating translation?

a) tRNA codon

b) tRNA anticodon

c) mRNA condon

d) tRNA stop codon

e) Release factors

6) Which of the following is NOT considered a post-translational modification?

a) Fatty acylation

b) Methylation

c) Prenylation

d) Aminoacylation

e) ADP-ribosylation



7) I-cell disease (Mucolipidosis II) is a disorder of protein targeting where ____ proteins

are not sorted properly from the Golgi to the target.

a) Mitochondrial

b) RER

c) SER

d) Lysosomal

e) Nucleic

Match the site/mode of action with the antibiotic:

8.1) Binds to 50S, prevents translocation a) Streptomycin

8.2) Binds to 30S, inhibits aminoacyl-tRNA b) Tetracycline

8.3) Binds to 50S, inhibits peptidyltransferase c) Chloramphenicol

8.4) Binds to 30S, prevents initiation complex d) Erythromycin

16 Regulation of Gene Expression

1) Each eukaryotic gene has its own promoter. In prokaryotes (bacteria), genes are

organized in:

a) Specific transcription factors

b) Transactivators

c) Promoter-proximal elements

d) Response elements

e) Operons

2.1) The inducer exhibits positive control by binding to a ____ molecule, ____ the

process of transcription.

a) mRNA operator; Increasing

b) mRNA operator; Decreasing

c) Repressor molecule; Increasing

d) Repressor molecule; Decreasing

e) Co-repressor; Increasing

2.2) Catabolism of alternative sugar sources is repressed, cAMP levels are low, RNA pol

is not recruited, and the lac operon is not transcribed in the presence of:

a) Insulin

b) Glucagon

c) Glycogen

d) Glucose

e) Lactose

2.3) Attenuation of transcription of the Trp operon occurs with ____ levels of Trp,

exhibiting ____ control.

a) High; Negative

b) High; Positive

c) Low; Negative

d) Low; Positive

3.1) Which of the following describes that segments of DNA can move from one location

to another in the genome to allow the production of different proteins (e.g. production of

antibodies)?

a) Transcriptional control

b) Post-transcriptional control



c) Translational control

d) Post-translational control

e) Gene alteration

3.2) Which of the following would explain globin being synthesized when heme levels

are high in the cell but not when they are low? (eIFs regulated by phosphorylation)





e) Gene alteration

3.3) Which of the following involves regulating the assembly of the transcription

complex containing the RNA pol and its binding to the TATA box and the promoter?





e) Gene alteration

17 Use of Recombinant DNA Techniques in Medicine

Will be covered in the Molecular Genetics Module

18 The Molecular Biology of Cancer

Will be covered in the Oncology Module

19 Cellular Bioenergentics: ATP and O2

1.1) A negative value of #G(0) of ATP hydrolysis (equimolar substrates and products)

indicates that the reaction will proceed in a ____ direction with the ____ of energy.

a) Reverse; Gain

b) Reverse; Release

c) Forward; Gain

d) Forward; Release

1.2) Which statement best describes the direction a chemical reaction will follow?

a) Under standard conditions, a reaction will proceed in the forward direction if

the free energy #G(0) is positive

b) The direction of a reaction is independent of the initial substrate and product

concentrations because the direction is determined by the change in free energy

c) The concentration of all of the substrates must be higher than all of the

products to proceed in the forward direction

d) The enzyme for the reaction must be working at better than 50% of its

maximum efficiency for the reaction to proceed in the forward direction

e) A reaction with a positive free energy will proceed in the forward direction if

the substrate concentration is raised high enough

1.3) Which of the following bioenergetic terms or phrases is correctly defined?

a) The first law of thermodynamics states that the universe tends toward a state of

increased order



b) The second law of thermodynamics states that the total energy of a system

remains constant

c) The change in enthalpy of a reaction is a measure of the total amount of heat

that can be released from changes in the chemical bonds

d) #G(0) of a reaction is the standard free energy measured at 37C and pH of 7.4

e) A high-energy bond is a bond that releases more than 3 kcal/mole of heat when

it is hydrolyzed

2) The highest-energy phosphate bond in ATP is located between which of the following

groups?

a) Adenosine and phosphate

b) Ribose and phosphate

c) Ribose and adenine

d) Two hydroxyl groups in the ribose ring

e) Two phosphate groups

3) Which of the following is NOT an example of how the energy in ATP is used to do

work?

a) Protein conformational change in skeletal muscle

b) Na+/K+ pump

c) Anabolic protein synthesis

d) Methane synthesis

e) Glycogen synthesis

4) The transfer of phosphate from ATP to glucose occurs in two steps. Given the

following reactions and #G(0)s, what can be said?

Glucose + Pi => glucose-6-P + H20 #G(0) = +3.3 kcal/mole

ATP + H20 => ADP + Pi #G(0) = -7.3 kcal/mole

a) Glucose-6-P will be formed in the initial reaction

b) ATP will transfer to glucose as is due to additive coupling of reactions

c) Heat energy must be added to the initial reaction to make glucose-6-P

d) Only conversation of ATP to ADP will occur

e) The overall #G(0) causes the reaction to work in reverse

5) Reactions in the cell with a positive #G(0) can proceed in the forward direction if the

concentration of ____ is raised to high enough levels, or if the concentration of ____ is

decreased to very low levels.

a) Substrate; Product

b) Product; Substrate

c) Substrate; Enzyme

d) Enzyme; Substrate

e) Product; Enzyme

6) Which of the following best describes thermogenesis?

a) Energy expended for the purpose of conserving heat equal to that expended for

ATP production

b) Energy expended for the purpose of conserving heat in addition to that

expended for ATP production

c) Energy expended for the purpose of generating heat equal to that expended for

ATP production



d) Energy expended for the purpose of generating heat in addition to that

expended for ATP production

7.1) Which of the following statements correctly describes reduction of one of the

electron carriers, NAD+ or FAD?

a) NAD+ accepts two electrons as hydrogen atoms to form NADH2

b) NAD+ accepts two electrons that are each donated from a separate atom of the

substrate

c) NAD+ accepts two electrons as a hybrid ion to form NADH

d) FAD releases a proton as it accepts two electrons

e) FAD must accept two electrons at a time

7.2) Our cells spend ATP very rapidly and thus ATP needs to be replenished. Which of

the following (electron-carrying) allows for this replenishing to get more ATP for the

electron transport chain?

a) cAMP

b) FAD

c) ADP

d) Enzymes

e) Coenzymes

20 Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle

1.1) The starting molecule in the TCA cycles has ____ carbons and the ending molecule

has ____ carbons.

a) 6; 6

b) 5; 5

c) 4; 4

d) 6; 4

e) 4; 6

1.2) What compound follows after isocitrate in the TCA cycle?

a) Citrate

b) "-ketoglutarate

c) Succinyl-CoA

d) Succinate

e) Fumerate

1.3) What compound follows after GDP is converted to GTP in the TCA cycle?

a) Citrate

b) "-ketoglutarate

c) Succinyl-CoA

d) Succinate

e) Oxaloacetate

2) Which of the following describes the products of the TCA cycle?

a) 2CO2 + 4NADH + FADH2 + GTP

b) 3CO2 + 4NADH + FADH2 + 2GTP

c) 2CO2 + 2NADH + FADH2 + GTP

d) CO2 + 3NADH + FADH2 + GTP

e) 2CO2 + 3NADH + FADH2 + GTP



3.1) Which of the following coenzymes is unique to "-ketoacid dehydrogenase

complexes?

a) NAD+

b) FAD

c) GDP

d) H2O

e) Lipoic acid

3.2) A patient diagnosed with thiamine deficiency exhibited fatigue and muscle cramps.

The muscle cramps have been related to an accumulation of metabolic acids. Which of

the following metabolic acids is most likely to accumulate in a thiamine deficiency?

a) Isocitric acid

b) Pyruvic acid

c) Succinic acid

d) Malic acid

e) Oxaloacetic acid

3.3) Succinate dehydrogenase differs from all other enzymes in the TCA cycle in that it is

the only enzyme that displays which of the following characteristics?

a) It is embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane

b) It is inhibited by NADH

c) It contains bound FAD

d) It contains Fe-S centers

e) It is regulated by a kinase

3.4) Coenzyme A is synthesized from which of the following vitamins?

a) Niacin

b) Riboflavin

c) Pantothenate

d) Vitamin A

e) Vitamin C

3.5) Which of the following is NOT a coenzyme required for TCA cycle enzymes?

a) Lipoic acid

b) Riboflavin

c) CoA, FAD, NAD+

d) Niacin

e) Cobalamin

4) How many ATP equivalents (high energy phosphate bonds) are produced in the TCA

cycle per consumption of one acetyl CoA molecule?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 8

e) 10

5.1) Regulation of metabolic pathways generally occurs at rate-limiting steps. Both

isocitrate dehydrogenase and "-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase respond directly to changes

in the relative levels of:

a) ATP

b) ADP



c) GTP

d) GDP

e) Acetyl CoA

5.2) In contracting heart muscle, what activates isocitrate dehydrogenase and "-

ketoglutarate dehydrogenase?

a) Na+

b) Cl-

c) K+

d) Ca++

e) Mg++

5.3) A child born with pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC) deficiency would likely

present with what type of severe birth complication?

a) Inability to use glucose

b) Ketoacidosis

c) Lactic acidosis

d) Lack of oxaloacetate

e) Inability to use the electron transport chain

5.4) PDC can be rapidly activated though mechanisms involving which of the following?

a) Acetyl CoA

b) NADH

c) ADP

d) Pyruvate

e) Insulin

6) Which of the following is NOT a source of acetyl CoA for the TCA cycle?

a) Decarboxylation of oxaloacetate

b) Degradation of ketone bodies

c) !-oxidation of fatty acids

d) Acetate from the diet

e) Leucine and isoleucine oxidation

21 Phosphorylation and Mitochondrial Function

1.1) What is the final acceptor in the electron transport chain?

a) NADH

b) FADH+

c) FADH2

d) NAD+

e) O2

1.2) What is the net energy yield of oxidative phosphorylation, in ATP equivalents, per

each mole of FADH2 oxidized?

a) 1.5

b) 2.5

c) 4

d) 5

e) 10

2.1) Which of the following is the only compound of the electron transport chain that is

NOT protein bound?



a) NADH dehydrogenase

b) Succinate dehydrogenase

c) Coenzyme Q

d) Cytochrome b-c1 complex

e) Cytochrome c oxidase

2.2) Which of the following is associated with Fe++ reduction (only) as electrons are

accepted during the electron transport chain?



c) Coenzyme Q



2.3) Which of the following involves Cu+ ions facilitating the collection of four electrons

and the reduction of O2 in the electron transport chain?



c) Coenzyme Q



2.4) Which of the following have Fe-S centers to transfer electrons?

a) NADH dehydrogenase and succinate dehydrogenase

b) Succinate dehydrogenase and coenzyme Q

c) Coenzyme Q and cytochrome b-c1 complex

d) Cytochrome b-c1 complex and cytochrome c oxidase

e) Cytochrome c oxidase and NADH dehydrogenase

3) Cyanide poisoning inhibits cytochrome oxidation at which of the following locations

in the electron transport chain?

a) Complex I

b) Complex III

c) Complex IV

d) Coenzyme Q

e) Cytochrome C

4.1) Which of the following would be expected for a patient with an OXPHOS disease?

a) A high ATP:ADP ratio in the mitochondria

b) A high NADH:NAD+ ratio in the mitochondria

c) A deletion of the X chromosome

d) A high activity of complex II of the election transport chain

e) A defect in the integrity of the inner mitochondrial membrane

4.2) Dinitrophenol acts as an uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation by which of the

following mechanisms?

a) Activating the H+ ATPase

b) Activating coenzyme Q

c) Blocking proton transport across the inner mitochondrial membrane

d) Allowing for proton exchange across the inner mitochondrial membrane

e) The proton motive force will be decreased to a value less than zero



4.3) A 25-year-old female presents with chronic fatigue. A series of blood tests are

ordered, and the results suggest that her red blood cell count is low because of iron

deficiency anemia. Such a deficiency would lead to fatigue because of which of the

following?

a) Her decrease in Fe-S centers is impairing the transfer of electrons in the

electron transport chain

b) She is not producing as much H2O in the electron transport chain, leading to

dehydration, which has resulted in fatigue

c) Iron forms a chelate with NADH and FADH2 that is necessary for them to

donate their electrons to the electron transport chain

d) Iron acts as a cofactor for !-ketoglutarate DH in the TCA cycle, a reaction

required for the flow of electrons through the electron transport chain

e) Iron accompanies the protons that are pumped from the mitochondrial matrix to

the cytosolic side of the inner mitochondrial membrane. Without iron, the proton

gradient cannot be maintained to produce adequate ATP.

4.4) What types of DNA or RNA are attacked by OX/PHOS disease?

a) mRNA and tRNA

b) mRNA and rRNA

c) mtDNA and mRNA

d) nDNA and mtDNA

e) nDNA and tRNA

5.1) As ATP is used in the body for energy and ADP levels increase, proton influx

through the ATP synthase increases to create more ATP. This also causes the

electrochemical gradient to ____. But, this happens simultaneously/coupled with the

restoration of the transmembrane electrochemical gradient by increasing proton pumping

and electron flow through the electron transport chain. The result is ____ O2

consumption.

a) Change; No change in

b) Increase; Increased

c) Decrease; Decreased

d) Increase; Decreased

e) Decrease; Increased

5.2) Brown fat thermogenesis works through ____ and is for ____ thermogenesis.

a) Uncoupling; Shivering

b) Coupling; Shivering

c) Uncoupling; Non-shivering

d) Coupling; Non-shivering

6) The inner mitochondrial membrane forms a tight permeability barrier to all polar

molecules, including ATP, ADP, Pi, anions such as pyruvate, and cations such as Ca++,

H+, and K+. ATP-ADP translocase helps transport:

a) ATP and ADP out of the mitochondria

b) ATP and ADP into the mitochondria

c) ATP out of the mitochondria and ADP into the mitochondria

d) ADP out of the mitochondria and ATP into the mitochondria



7) If a cell is ischemic, there is no O2 for the electron transport chain. ATP runs

backwards to ADP, making adenine, and opening the mitochondrial permeability

transition pores (MPTPs). What affect would this have on the cell?

a) Increased ATP use

b) Decreased ADP use

c) Decreased oxygen consumption

d) Increased oxygen consumption

e) Inability to create an electron gradient

22 Generation of ATP from Glucose Glycolysis

1.1) A major role of glycolysis is which of the following?

a) To synthesize glucose

b) To generate energy

c) To produce FADH2

d) To synthesize glycogen

e) To use ATP to generate heat

1.2) Starting with glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and synthesizing one molecule of

pyruvate, the net yield of ATP and NADH would be which of the following?

a) 1 ATP, 1 NADH

b) 1 ATP, 2 NADH

c) 1 ATP, 4 NADH

d) 2 ATP, 1 NADH

e) 2 ATP, 2 NADH

f) 2 ATP, 4 NADH

g) 3 ATP, 1 NADH

h) 3 ATP, 2 NADH

i) 3 ATP, 4 NADH

1.3) when glycogen is degraded, glucose 1-phosphate is formed. Glucose 1-phosphate

can then be isomerized to glucose 6-phosphate. Starting with glucose 1-phosphate, and

ending with 2 molecules of pyruvate, what is the net yield of glycolysis, in terms of ATP

and NADH formed?

a) 1 ATP, 1 NADH

b) 1 ATP, 2 NADH

c) 1 ATP, 3 NADH

d) 2 ATP, 1 NADH

e) 2 ATP, 2 NADH

f) 2 ATP, 3 NADH

g) 3 ATP, 1 NADH

h) 3 ATP, 2 NADH

i) 3 ATP, 3 NADH

1.4) Which of the following statements correctly describes an aspect of glycolysis?

a) ATP is formed by oxidative phosphorylation

b) 2 ATP are used in the beginning of the pathway

c) Pyruvate kinase is the rate-limiting enzyme

d) One pyruvate and three CO2 are formed from the oxidation of one glucose

molecule



e) The reactions take place in the matrix of the mitochondria

1.5) How many moles of ATP are generated by the complete aerobic oxidation of 1 mole

of glucose to 6 moles of CO2?

a) 2-4

b) 10-12

c) 18-22

d) 30-32

e) 60-64

1.6) How many net ATPs are produced in anaerobic glycolysis?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 4

d) 8

e) 12

2) Which of the following enzymes is NOT associated with ATP use or ATP gain?

a) Hexokinase

b) Phosphofructokinase-1

c) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase

d) Phosphoglycerate kinase

e) Pyruvate kinase

3) NADH is produced between which steps of glycolysis?

a) D-Glucose and glucose 6-phosphate

b) Fructose 6-phosphate and fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

c) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate

d) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate and 3-phosphoglycerate

e) Phosphoenol-pyruvate and pyruvate

4) Which of the following describes anaerobic fates of pyruvate and NADH as they differ

from aerobic glycolysis?

a) Pyruvate is reduced to lactate in the cytosol, thereby using the reducing

equivalents in NADH

b) Pyruvate is reduced to lactate in the cytosol and the reducing equivalents of

NADH enter mitochondria via a shuttle system

c) Pyruvate enters mitochondria and is oxidized to CO2 and H2O, thereby using

the reducing equivalents in NADH

d) Pyruvate enters mitochondria and is oxidized to CO2 and H2O and the

reducing equivalents of NADH enter mitochondria via a shuttle system

5) The eye contains cells that transmit or focus light and these cells cannot, therefore, be

filled with opaque structures. What adaptation is seen to allow for the eye to use ATP and

retain function?

a) Mitochondria are moved to the edges of cells

quiz-biochemistry, marks medical biochemistry

Documents

calories b

kcalday e

kcalday d

kcalday c

kcalday b

joules e

kilojoules d

kilocalories c